contact: +91 76809 29292 arise medical academy building

Arise Medical Academy

Add us on FB Page :- fb/arisemedacademy www.arisemedicalacademy.com

1 | P a g e

76809 29292 Contact: +91

ARISE

MEDICAL ACADEMY

MISSION FMGE DEC – 2019 (DAY – 7)

GET YOURSELF ACQUAINTED WITH PREVIOUSLY ASKED QUESTIONS

1. Killian dehiscence is formed due to

a. Superior constrictor muscle

b. Inferior constrictor muscle

c. Middle pharyngeal constrictor

muscle

d. Esophageal fibres

2. Flexion , adduction and medial

rotation of arm is done by which

muscle?

a. Pectoralis minor

b. Pectoralis major

c. Subclavius

d. Serratus anterior

3. Morula cell stage has how many

cells?

a. 8

b. 16

c. 32

d. >64

4. The auricle develops from:

a. 1st branchial cleft

b. 1st branchial arch

c. 1st , 2nd & 3rd branchial arch

d. 1st & 2nd branchial arch

5. What is the content of umbilical

cord?

a. 2 arteries , 1 vein

b. 2 veins , 1 artery

c. 2 arteries , 2 veins

d. 1 artery , 1 vein

6. Adequate oxygen delivery at

cellular level is present in which

type of hypoxia?

a. Histotoxic

b. Hypoxic

c. Stagnant

d. Anaemic

7. Which of the following is not seen

in intracellular fluid?

a. Calcium

b. Magnesium

c. Potassium

d. Protein

8. Which of the following is not a

calcium binding protein?

a. Calbindin

b. Calmodulin

c. Troponin

d. Clathrin

9. Which of the following ion plays a

role in exocytosis?

a. Sodium

b. Potassium

c. Calcium

d. Magnesium

10. Which of the following is not a

molecular motor?

a. Dynein

b. Kinesin

c. Myosin

d. Actin

11. Which of the following vitamin is

most potent antioxidant?

a. Vitamin D

b. Vitmain E

c. Vitamin K

d. Vitamin B

12. Which of the following doesnot

occur in the mitochondria?

a. Cori cycle

b. Urea cycle

c. FA oxidation

d. Kreb’s cycle

Building Better Doctors



2 | P a g e

76809 29292 Contact: +91

13. Muscle is NOT involved in which

type of glycogen storage disease

a. Type 1

b. Type 2

c. Type 5

d. Type 7

14. Niemann’s pick disease is due to

deficiency of which enzyme:

a. Sphingomyelinase

b. Hexosaminidase – A

c. Aryl sulphatase

d. Galactosidase – A

15. The Watson’s Crick double helix

model of DNA is

a. Right handed anti parallel

b. Left handed anti parallel

c. Right handed parallel

d. Left handed parallel

16. 100% Bioavailability is seen with

this route:

a. Oral

b. Intravenous

c. Intramuscular

d. Subcutaneous

17. Healthy volunteers are recruited in

which phase of clinical trials?

a. Phase 1

b. Phase 2

c. Phase 3

d. Phase 4

18. Drug of choice for chronic gout is

a. Allopurinol

b. Febuxostat

c. Probenecid

d. Sulfinpyrazone

19. Insulin of choice for the treatment

of diabetes mellitus is:

a. Regular Insulin

b. NPH Insulin

c. Insulin glargine

d. Insulin lispro

20. Drug of choice for nasal carriers of

MRSA is:

a. Vancomycin

b. Teicoplanin

c. Mupirocin

d. Linezolid

21. Chronic viral hepatitis is seen

with?

a. HBV

b. HCV

c. HDV

d. HEV

22. Type II Hypersensitivity is seen in?

a. Pernicious anaemia

b. Serum sickness

c. Arthus phenomenon

d. Pathergy phenomenon

23. Which of the following is a

causative agent of Farmer’s Lung?

a. Thermophilic Actinomycetes

b. Aspergillus Fumigatus

c. Actinobacter

d. Aspergillus Flavus

24. Whipple’s disease is caused by:

a. Bacteria

b. Virus

c. Protozoa

d. Helminths

25. Most sensitive and specific marker

for MI is:

a. Troponin

b. Cytokeratin

c. Myoglobin

d. CPK – MM

26. DNA transfer in bacteria via phage

is :

a. Conjugation

b. Transduction

c. Transformation

d. Translation

27. Cold sterilization is done by:

a. Steam

b. Ionizing radiation

c. Infra red

d. UV

28. Gram stain is a:

a. Simple stain

b. Differential stain

c. Negative stain



3 | P a g e

76809 29292 Contact: +91

d. None

29. Prion is the best destroyed by

a. Autoclaving at 135

degrees

b. Hot air oven at 160

degrees

c. Hydrogen peroxide

d. Sodium hypochlorite

30. Weil Feix reaction is what type of

agglutination reaction :

a. Slide agglutination

b. Tube agglutination

c. Passive agglutination

d. Diect agglutination

31. Best index for measurement health

indicator in society :

a. Under 5 motality rate

b. Infant mortality rate

c. Child death rate

d. Maternal mortality rate

32. Which of these has has the max

natural source of vitamin A?

a. Carrot

b. Halibut liver oil

c. Cod fish oil

d. Cow milk

33. According to WHO, marker for

obesity index is :

a. Quetelet index

b. Chandler index

c. Pearl index

d. Sullivan’s index

34. Amount of sodium in ORS as per

WHO:

a. 65 mmol/L

b. 75 mmol/L

c. 20 mmol/L

d. 100 mmol/L

35. As compared to cow milk, the

protein content of human milk is :

a. 3-4 times more than cow milk

b. 3-4 times less than cow milk

c. Double than cow milk

d. Same as cow milk

36. BCG is diluted with:

a. NS

b. DW

c. RL

d. Distilled water

37. True about Quarantine:

a. Restriction of movement of

infected patient

b. Restriction of movement of

healthy contact of an infectious

disease

c. Movement restricted for

shortest incubation period

d. Isolation of diseased person

38. Which test is done at Sub centre

during pregnancy:

a. USG

b. Haemoglobin

c. OGTT

d. Triple test

39. Postular tremors are seen in all

except?

a. Alcohol withdrawal

b. Essential tremors

c. Generalized paresis

d. Physiological tremors

40. MC joint involved in diabetes is

seen is?

a. Ankle

b. Knee

c. Shoulder

d. Foot

41. Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy with

crossed hemiplegia is a feature of?

a. Weber syndrome

b. Benedikt syndrome

c. Wallenberg syndrome

d. Horner syndrome

42. Which of the following leads to a

continuous murmur?

a. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis

b. Severe pulmonary artery

hypertension

c. Type A aortic dissection

d. Rupture of cardiac chamber



4 | P a g e

76809 29292 Contact: +91

43. Best management of a

hemodynamically stable patient

with ECG showing broad QRS

complex with antidromic

tachycardia is?

a. Oral Verapamil

b. Oral Beta – blocker

c. Cardioversion

d. Intravenous procainamide

44. Modified Duke’s criteria are used

for diagnosis of?

a. Infective endarteritis

b. Infectious mononucleosis

c. Inflammatory myopathy

d. Infective endocarditis

45. Which of the following shall be

seen with use of a small size BP

cuff?

a. False elevation of BP

b. Falsely low value of BP

c. Cancels the effect of calcified

arteries

d. Increases trans – arm

impedance

46. Which of the following is a

cardioprotective lipid?

a. LDL

b. HDL

c. VLDL

d. Chylomicrons

47. Correct procedure of inserting

Nasogastric tube is

a. Supine with neck flexed

b. Supine with neck extended

c. Sitting with neck flexed

d. Sitting with neck extended

48. Meconium ileus is a presentation

seen in which of the following diseases?

a. Mucoviscidosis

b. Hirschsprung disease

c. Ileal atresia

d. Congenital aganglionosis

49. Which is the first investigation to be

done in case of neonate presenting with

frothiness in mouth and dyspnoea?

a. Bronchoscopy with injection of

methylene blue

b. NG tube insertion and CXR to check

position of tube

c. CT chest

d. Endoscopy

50. Calculate the GCS of a patient

exhibiting eye opening on pain,

conscious but confused and cannot tell

time and exhibits flexion on painful

noxious stimuli to the arm:

a. 8

b. 9

c. 10

d. 11

51. Which ulcer is likely to develop in a

long standing chronic venous ulcer?

a. Marjolin ulcer

b. Apthous ulcer

c. Bazin ulcer

d. Arterial ulcer

52. Seat Belt injury leads to?

a. Splenic laceration

b. Splenic contusion

c. Gut ischemia

d. Mesenteric adenitis

53. Which complication is seen after

varicose vein stripping procedure?

a. Neuralgia

b. Deep vein thrombosis

c. Acrocyanosis

d. Telangiectasia

54. Which of the following is not

scanned by FAST USG?

a. Pericardium

b. Pleural cavity

c. Spleen

d. Liver

55. Chronic malnutrition in child is best

evaluated by?

a. Weight for height

b. Weight for age

c. Height for age

d. Ponderal index

56. Neonatal jaundice becomes

detectable at serum bilirubin exceeding?

a. 2 mg%

b. 3 mg%

c. 4 mg%

d. 5 mg%

57. Severity of cyanosis in Fallot’s

physiology is best decided by?

a. V.S.D

b. Overriding of aorta



5 | P a g e

76809 29292 Contact: +91

c. Concentric RVH

d. Subpulmonic stenosis

58. Infant is admitted with respiratory

distress and prolonged expiration with

Rhonchi in chest are heard. CXR shows

hyperinflation .What is the diagnosis?

a. Pneumonia

b. Croup

c. Asthma

d. Bronchiolitis

59. Which of these is used in treatment

of bronchiolitis?

a. Ribavarian

b. Amantadine

c. Racemic epinephrine

d. Corticosteroids

60. 6th day disease is?

a. Erythema Infectiosum

b. Exanthema subitum

c. Erythema marginatum

d. Erythema nodosum

61. Protein in cow’s milk in comparison

to human milk is?

a. Double

b. Triple

c. Quadruple

d. Same

62. Maximum heat loss in neonate is

from:

a. Head

b. Skin

c. Respiration

d. Trunk

63. Couvelaire uterus is seen in:

a. Placenta previa

b. Vasa previa

c. Abruptio placenta

d. Placenta percreta

64. Risk of endometrial cancer is least

in:

a. Nullipara

b. Obesity

c. Late menopause

d. Multigravida

65. A grand multipara is a women who

has given birth to –

a. >2

b. >3

c. >4

d. >5

66. A 26 weeks pregnant female

presented with HTN for the first time,

There is no proteinuria. Diagnosis of

such condition.

a. Chronic hypertension

b. Eclampsia

c. Gestational Hypertension

d. Preeclampsia

67. Minimum sperm count for normal

semen analysis according to WHO:

a. 2 million/mL

b. 5million/mL

c. 10 million/ mL

d. 20 million/mL

68. Endometrial biopsy for infertility

test in women should be done at:

a. Ovulatory phase

b. Menstrual phase

c. Anytime during cycle

d. Premenstrual period

69. Which of the following cab be a

cause of Oligohydramnios?

a. Multiparity

b. Twins

c. Renal agenesis

d. Macrosomia

70. Beta Hcg is secreted by:

a. Yolk sac

b. Placenta

c. Syncytiotrophoblast

d. Umbilical cord

71. Narrowest part of airway in infant:

a. Glottis

b. Subglottis

c. Supraglottis

d. Epiglottis

72. A 15 year boy presents with

recurrent episodes of epistaxis,

unilateral obstruction of nostril. Most

likely cause:

a. Nasal polyp

b. Angiofibroma

c. Nasopharyngeal CA

d. Pharyngitis

73. Abductor of vocal cord:

a. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

b. Interarytenoid muscle

c. Cricothyroid muscle

d. Thyroarytenoid muscle

74. In ranula management which of the

following step is correct?

a. Excision of ranula and sublingual gland

duct

b. Excision of only the cystic swelling



6 | P a g e

76809 29292 Contact: +91

c. In large ranula marsuplization not

preferred

d. In small ranula marsuplization is

preferred

75. High tracheostomy is done in which

condition?

a. Laryngeal carcinoma

b. Laryngeal stenosis

c. Respiratory obstruction

d. Foreign body

76. Nasal mass with extension from

maxillary sinus is most likely a case of:

a. Antrochoanal polyp

b. Ethmoid polyp

c. Glomus tumor

d. Rhinoscleroma

77. Three point bony relationship has

diagnostic value in:

a. Elbow fracture

b. Monteggia fracture

c. Galeazzi fracture

d. Colle’s fracture

78. Jefferson fracture is:

a. C2 fracture

b. C1 fracture

c. Fracture of talus

d. Atlanto – axial dislocation

79. Hangman fracture is:

a. C1 ring fracture

b. C2 odontoid process fracture

c. C2 pars interarticularis fracture

d. C7 fracture

80. Most common cause of blindness in

India:

a. Cataract

b. Refractive error

c. Trachoma

d. Glaucoma

81. All of the following conditions cause

miosis EXCEPT:

a. Bright light

b. Horner syndrome

c. Oculomotor paralysis

d. Iridocyclitis

82. Evisceration is removal of which

layer of eye ball?

a. Middle and inner

b. Outer and middle

c. Outer and inner

d. All of the layers of eyeball

83. Drug contraindicated in keratitis

a. Tear drops

b. Steroids

c. Cycloplegics

d. Timolol

84. Which of the following is seen

retinitis pigmentosa?

a. Arteriolar attenuation

b. Neo vascularization

c. Retinal artery thrombosis

d. Papilledema

85. Not used for color vision testing:

a. Holmgren wool test

b. Ishihara chart

c. FM 100 Hue test

d. Ames test

86. Phacomorphic glaucoma occurs due

to

a. Intumescent cataract

b. Morgagnian cataract

c. Nuclear cataract

d. Cortical cataract

87. First sign of sympathetic

Ophthalmitis is:

a. Circumcorneal congestion

b. Hypopyon

c. Retrolental flare

d. Iris nodule

88. Pemphigus foliaceous is a condition

which is seen due to antibody against:

a. Desmoglein 1

b. Desmoglein 2

c. Desmoglein 3

d. Desmoglein 4

89. Row of tombstone is seen in which

skin disorder:

a. Pemphigus vulgaris

b. Pemphigus foliaceous

c. Paraneoplastic pemphigus

d. Bullous pemphigoid

90. Hertoghie’s sign is seen in:

a. Contact dermatitis

b. Atopic dermatitis

c. Seborrheic dermatitis

d. Neurodermatitis

91. Correct sequence of resuscitation is:

a. Early assessment, CPR, defibrillator,

advance life saving

b. CPR, early assessment,

defibrillator,advance life saving

c. CPR, defibrillator, early assessment,

advance life saving



7 | P a g e

76809 29292 Contact: +91

d. Early assessment, defibrillator, CPR,

advance life saving

92. Tourniquet applied in Bier’s block

can provide anesthesia for?

a. ½ hour

b. 1 hour

c. 2 hours

d. 3 hours

93. The purpose of cuff in endotracheal

tube is?

a. To reduce incidence of pressure necrosis

b. To prevent pneumothorax

c. To prevent the tube from slipping out

d. To prevent regurgitation of gastric

contents

94. Management of violent patient in

psychiatry is treated with all EXCEPT:

a. BZD

b. CBT

c. ECT

d. Haloperidol

95. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

are all EXCEPT:

a. Overactivity

b. Anhedonia

c. Alogia

d. Apathy

96. Capgras syndrome is?

a. Familiar person replaced by impostor

b. Nonfamiliar person appears to be

familiar

c. Wife cheating with another man

d. Famous person is in love with patient

97. Maximum radiation exposure:

a. X- ray abdomen

b. HSG

C. IV Angiography

d. Barium enema

98. What is the gold standard

investigation of choice for deep vein

thrombosis?

a. Double contrast duplex

b. Venography

c. CT scan

d. MRI

99. Maximum penetrating rays:

a. Alpha

b. Beta

c. Gamma

ARISE MEDICAL ACADEMY, HYDERABAD ANSWER’S

1. B 11. B 21. B 31. B 41. A 51. A 61. B 71. B 81. C 91. A

2. B 12. A 22. A 32. B 42. A 52. C 62. A 72. B 82. A 92. B

3. B 13. A 23. A 33. A 43. D 53. A 63. C 73. A 83. B 93. D

4. D 14. A 24. A 34. B 44. D 54. B 64. D 74. A 84. A 94. B

5. A 15. A 25. A 35. B 45. A 55. C 65. C 75. A 85. D 95. A

6. A 16. B 26. B 36. A 46. B 56. D 66. C 76. A 86. A 96. A

7. B 17. A 27. B 37. B 47. C 57. D 67. D 77. A 87. C 97. D

8. D 18. A 28. B 38. B 48. 58. D 68. D 78. B 88. A 98. B

9. C 19. A 29. A 39. C 49. B 59. A 69. C 79. C 89. A 99. C

10. D 20. C 30. B 40. D 50. C 60. B 70. C 80. A 90. B 100.

contact: +91 76809 29292 arise medical academy building

Documents