chem 1411 test 3 review - hcc learning web

chem 1411 test 3 review

____ 1. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelengths?

A) gamma rays

B) microwaves

C) radio waves

D) infrared radiation

E) x-rays

____ 2. Which of the following frequencies corresponds to light with the longest wavelength?

A) 3.00 1013 s–1

B) 4.12 105 s–1

C) 8.50 1020 s–1

D) 9.12 1012 s–1

E) 3.20 109 s–1

____ 3. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?

A) wavelength –

B) frequency –

C) speed of light – c

D) hertz – s–1

E) x-rays – shortest wavelength

____ 4. Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength, the greatest energy, and

the highest frequency?

A) Ultraviolet radiation.

B) Infrared radiation.

C) Visible red light.

D) Visible blue light.

E) None, because short wavelength is associated with low energy and low frequency,

not high energy and high frequency.

____ 5. Which of the following is incorrect?

A) The emission spectrum of hydrogen contains a continuum of colors.

B) Diffraction produces both constructive and destructive interference.

C) All matter displays both particle and wavelike characteristics.

D) Niels Bohr developed a quantum model for the hydrogen atom.

E) The lowest possible energy state of a molecule or atom is called its ground state.

____ 6. Which of the following best describes an orbital?

A) space where electrons are unlikely to be found in an atom

B) space which may contain electrons, protons, and/or neutrons

C) the space in an atom where an electron is most likely to be found

D) small, walled spheres that contain electrons

E) a single space within an atom that contains all electrons of that atom

____ 7. Consider the following representation of a 2p-orbital:

Which of the following statements best describes the movement of electrons in a p-orbital?

A) The electrons move along the outer surface of the p-orbital, similar to a “figure 8”

type of movement.

B) The electrons move within the two lobes of the p-orbital, but never beyond the

outside surface of the orbital.

C) The electrons are concentrated at the center (node) of the two lobes.

D) The electrons are only moving in one lobe at any given time.

E) The electron movement cannot be exactly determined.

____ 8. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowed?

A) n = 1, l = 1, ml = 0, ms =

B) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = -

C) n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms =

D) n = 4, l = 3, ml = -2, ms = -

E) n = 4, l = 2, ml = 0, ms =

____ 9. Which of the following was not an elemental property usually predicted by Mendeleev for

as-yet-unknown elements?

A) electron configuration

B) atomic mass

C) density

D) boiling point

E) oxide formula

____ 10. Which of the following atoms or ions has three unpaired electrons?

A) N

B) O

C) Al

D) S2–

E) Ti2+

____ 11. The electron configuration for the barium atom is:

A) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10

B) [Xe]6s2

C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s2

E) none of these

____ 12. The complete electron configuration of tin is

A) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105d105p2

B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d104p2

C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p65s24d105d105p2

D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p2

E) none of these

____ 13. Which of the following statements about quantum theory is incorrect?

A) The energy and position of an electron cannot be determined simultaneously.

B) Lower energy orbitals are filled with electrons before higher energy orbitals.

C) When filling orbitals of equal energy, two electrons will occupy the same orbital

before filling a new orbital.

D) No two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers.

E) All of these are correct.

____ 14. An element with the electron configuration [Xe] 6s24f145d7 would belong to which class on the

periodic table?

A) transition elements

B) alkaline earth elements

C) halogens

D) rare earth elements

E) none of the above

____ 15. All alkaline earths have the following number of valence electrons:

A) 1

B) 3

C) 6

D) 2

E) none of these

____ 16. In which group do all the elements have the same number of valence electrons?

A) P, S, Cl

B) Ag, Cd, Ar

C) Na, Ca, Ba

D) P, As, Se

E) none of these

____ 17. Of the following elements, which has occupied d orbitals in its ground-state neutral atoms?

A) Ba

B) Ca

C) Si

D) P

E) Cl

____ 18. Of the following elements, which needs three electrons to complete its valence shell?

A) Ba

B) Ca

C) Si

D) P

E) Cl

____ 19. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d2 is the correct electron configuration for which of the following atoms?

A) Ca

B) Ti

C) Ge

D) Zr

E) none of these

____ 20. Which of the following electron configurations is different from that expected?

A) Ca

B) Sc

C) Ti

D) V

E) Cr

____ 21. Which of the following have 10 electrons in the d orbitals?

A) Mn

B) Fe

C) Cu

D) Zn

E) two of the above

____ 22. Which of the following exhibits the correct orders for both atomic radius and ionization energy,

respectively? (smallest to largest)

A) S, O, F, and F, O, S

B) F, S, O, and O, S, F

C) S, F, O, and S, F, O

D) F, O, S, and S, O, F

E) none of these

____ 23. Which of the following concerning second ionization energies is true?

A) That of Al is higher than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the second electron,

so it is easier to take the second electron away.

B) That of Al is higher than that of Mg because the electrons are taken from the same

energy level, but the Al atom has one more proton.

C) That of Al is lower than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the second electron,

thus the energy change is greater.

D) That of Al is lower than that of Mg because the second electron taken from Al is in

a p orbital, thus it is easier to take.

E) The second ionization energies are equal for Al and Mg.

____ 24. Consider the ionization energy (IE) of the magnesium atom. Which of the following is not true?

A) The IE of Mg is lower than that of sodium.

B) The IE of Mg is lower than that of neon.

C) The IE of Mg is lower than that of beryllium.

D) The IE of Mg is higher than that of calcium.

E) The IE of Mg is lower than that of Mg+.

____ 25. Of the following elements, which has the lowest first ionization energy?

A) Ba

B) Ca

C) Si

D) P

E) Cl

____ 26. Which of the following atoms has the largest ionization energy?

A) O

B) Li

C) Ne

D) Be

E) K

____ 27. Which of the following statements is true?

A) The first ionization potential of H is greater than that of He.

B) The ionic radius of Fe+ is larger than that of Fe3+.

C) The ionization energy of S2– is greater than that of Cl–.

D) The atomic radius of Li is larger than that of Cs.

E) All are false.

____ 28. Which of the following statements is false?

A) A sodium atom has a smaller radius than a potassium atom.

B) A neon atom has a smaller radius than an oxygen atom.

C) A fluorine atom has a smaller first ionization energy than an oxygen atom.

D) A cesium atom has a smaller first ionization energy than a lithium atom.

E) All are true.

____ 29. Which of the following statements is true about the ionization energy of Mg+?

A) It will be equal to the ionization energy of Li.

B) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg.

C) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg+.

D) It will be equal to and opposite in sign to the electron affinity of Mg2+.

E) None of the above.

____ 30. In the quantum theory, the angular orbital momentum quantum number is most directly associated

with which property of orbitals?

A) energy C) orientation

B) size D) shape

____ 31. The ground state electron configuration for Te is:

A) [Kr]5s24d105p4

B) [Kr]5s25p64d8

C) [Kr]5s25d105p4

D) [Kr]5s24f14

E) Kr]5s25d105p6

____ 32. Select the correct electron configuration for Cu.

A) [Ar]4s23d9

B) [Ar]4s13d10

C) [Ar]4s24p63d3

D) [Ar]4s24d9

E) [Ar]3d10

____ 33. The force between two bodies having identical electric charges

A) is a force of repulsion

B) is a force of repulsion if the charges are negative, and one of attraction if they are

positive

C) increases as the bodies are moved further apart

D) is independent of the distance between them

E) is directly proportional to the distance between them

____ 34. Which of the following groups contains no ionic compounds?

A) HCN, NO2, Ca(NO3)2

B) PCl5, LiBr, Zn(OH)2

C) KOH, CCl4, SF4

D) NaH, CaF2, NaNH2

E) CH2O, H2S, NH3

____ 35. In which pair do both compounds exhibit predominantly ionic bonding?

A) SCl6 and HF

B) Na2SO3 and NH3

C) KI and O3

D) LiF and H2O

E) LiBr and MgO

____ 36. In which case is the bond polarity incorrect?

A) +H–F–

B) +K–O–

C) +Mg–H–

D) +Cl–I–

E) +Si–S–

____ 37. The electron pair in a C-F bond could be considered

A) closer to C because carbon has a larger radius and thus exerts greater control over

the shared electron pair

B) closer to F because fluorine has a higher electronegativity than carbon

C) closer to C because carbon has a lower electronegativity than fluorine

D) an inadequate model since the bond is ionic

E) centrally located directly between the C and F

____ 38. Based on electronegativity differences, which of the following is most likely to be ionic?

A) CaF2

B) Br2

C) BH3

D) NO

E) CF4

____ 39. In which of the following compounds does the bond between the central atom and bromine have

the greatest ionic character?

A) LiBr

B) KBr

C) SeBr2

D) AsBr3

E) CaBr2

____ 40. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Ionic bonding results from the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

B) Dipole moments result from the unequal distribution of electrons in a molecule.

C) The electrons in a polar bond are found nearer to the more electronegative element.

D) A molecule with very polar bonds can be nonpolar.

E) Linear molecules cannot have a net dipole moment.

____ 41. Which of these is an isoelectronic series?

A) Na+, K+, Rb+, Cs+

B) K+, Ca2+, Ar, S2–

C) Na+, Mg2+, S2–, Cl–

D) Li, Be, B, C

E) none of these (A-D)

____ 42. Which of the following has the smallest radius?

A) F–

B) Ne

C) O2–

D) Mg2+

E) Na+

____ 43. Which of the following species would be expected to have the lowest ionization energy?

A) F–

B) Ne

C) O2–

D) Mg2+

E) Na+

____ 44. Which of the following ionic compounds has the smallest lattice energy (i.e., the lattice energy

least favorable to a stable lattice)?

A) LiF

B) CsI

C) NaCl

D) BaO

E) MgO

____ 45. Which of the following statements are true concerning ionic bonding?

A) Ionic bonding occurs between a metal, which has a high affinity for electrons, and

a nonmetal, which loses electrons relatively easy.

B) CaCl2 forms because Ca2+ is always a more stable species than the calcium atom

alone.

C) Compounds with ionic bonds tend to have low melting points.

D) The electronegativity difference between the bonding atoms of ionic compounds is

small since the electrons are not shared but rather held together by electrostatic

forces.

E) All of the above statements are false.

____ 46. Which of the following statements concerning lattice energy is false?

A) It is often defined as the energy released when an ionic solid forms from its ions.

B) MgO has a larger lattice energy than NaF.

C) The lattice energy for a solid with 2+ and 2– ions should be two times that for a

solid with 1+ and 1– ions.

D) MgO has a larger lattice energy than LiF.

E) All of these are true.

____ 47. Which of the following statements is false?

A) Models are human interpretations, not the same as reality.

B) Models are often wrong.

C) Models usually start out simple and become more complex over time.

D) We often learn more when a model is wrong than when it is right.

E) A model should be discarded when any exception to it is found.

____ 48. Which of the following molecules exhibits the greatest bond energy?

A) F2

B) Cl2

C) Br2

D) I2

E) all the same

____ 49. As the number of bonds between two carbon atoms increases, which one of the following

decreases?

A) number of electrons between the carbon atoms

B) bond energy

C) bond length

D) all of these

E) none of these

____ 50. Which of the following molecules contains a double bond?

A) CO2

B) NH3

C) H2O

D) all

E) none

____ 51. Which of the following compounds contains only one unshared pair of valence electrons?

A) NH3

B) H2O

C) CH4

D) NaCl

E) BF3

____ 52. Which of the following atoms cannot exceed the octet rule in a molecule?

A) N

B) S

C) P

D) I

E) All of the atoms (A-D) can exceed the octet rule.

____ 53. Choose the electron dot formula that most accurately describes the bonding in CS2. (Hint: Consider

formal charges.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

____ 54. Which of the following molecules (or ions) has a dipole moment?

A) CO2

B) CO32–

C) NH4+

D) PF3

E) two of them

____ 55. Choose the statement that best describes the PbCl4 molecule in the gas phase.

A) The bond angles are all about 109°.

B) The molecule is polar.

C) The molecule has a dipole moment.

D) The bonds are nonpolar.

E) More than one of the above.

____ 56. Which of the following has a zero dipole moment?

A) NH3

B) NO2

C) PF5

D) SO2

E) HCN

____ 57. Of the following, which molecule has the largest bond angle?

A) O3

B) OF2

C) HCN

D) H2O

E) More than one of the above have equally large bond angles.

____ 58. Which of the following molecules is non-polar overall?

A) SF4

B) SF2

C) CCl4

D) H2S

E) OCl2

____ 59. Which of the following molecules has a nonlinear structure?

A) XeF2

B) BeCl2

C) O3

D) CO2

E) N2O (central atom is N)

____ 60. Which of the following species has a trigonal bipyramid structure?

A) NH3

B) IF5

C) I3–

D) PCl5

E) none of these

Select the correct molecular structure for the given species from the choices below:

____ 61. PCl4+

A) pyramidal

B) tetrahedral

C) square planar

D) octahedral

E) none of these

____ 62. XeF6

A) pyramidal

B) tetrahedral

C) square planar

D) octahedral

E) none of these

____ 63. NI3

A) pyramidal

B) tetrahedral

C) square planar

D) octahedral

E) none of these

____ 64. IF4–

A) pyramidal

B) tetrahedral

C) square planar

D) octahedral

E) none of these

Select the correct molecular structure for the given species from the choices below:

____ 65. NO3–

A) linear

B) trigonal planar

C) tetrahedral

D) bent

E) none of these

____ 66. According to VSEPR theory, which of the following species has a square planar molecular

structure?

A) TeBr4

B) BrF3

C) IF5

D) XeF4

E) SCl2

____ 67. The hybridization of the central atom in XeF5+ is:

A) sp

B) sp2

C) sp3

D) dsp3

E) d2sp3

____ 68. The hybridization of the central atom in ClF2+ is:

A) sp

B) sp2

C) sp3

D) dsp3

E) d2sp3

____ 69. Which of the following molecules contains a central atom with sp2 hybridization?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

____ 70. The hybridization of the central atom, Al, in AlBr3 is

A) sp

B) sp2

C) sp3

D) dsp3

E) d2sp3

____ 71. The hybridization of the central atom in NO3– is

A) p3

B) sp2

C) sp3

D) sp

E) dsp2

____ 72. Consider the molecule C2H4. The hybridization of each C atom is

A) sp

B) sp2

C) sp3

D) dsp3

E) d2sp3

____ 73. A (pi) bond is the result of the

A) overlap of two s orbitals

B) overlap of an s orbital and a p orbital

C) overlap of two p orbitals along their axes

D) sidewise overlap of two parallel p orbitals

E) sidewise overlap of two s orbitals

____ 74. When a carbon atom has sp3 hybridization, it has

A) four bonds

B) three bonds and one bond

C) two bonds and two bonds

D) one bond and three bonds

E) four bonds

____ 75. For which of the following diatomic molecules would the bond order become greater if an electron

is removed (i.e., if the molecule is converted to the positive ion in its ground state)?

A) B2

B) C2

C) P2

D) F2

E) Na2

____ 76. The fact that O2 is paramagnetic can be explained by

A) the Lewis structure of O2

B) resonance

C) a violation of the octet rule

D) the molecular orbital diagram for O2

E) hybridization of atomic orbitals in O2

____ 77. Which of the following has the shortest bond length?

A) O22–

B) O2

C) O2–

D) O2+

E) Two of these have the shortest bond length.

____ 78. Which of the following has a bond order of 1.5?

A) O2+

B) N2

C) O2–

D) C2

E) none of these

____ 79. Which of the nitrogen-containing molecules below is paramagnetic in its lowest energy state?

A) N2

B) NO

C) NH3

D) N2H4

E) none of these

____ 80. Which of the following electron distributions among the molecular orbitals best describes the NO

molecule?

2s 2s

* 2py=2px 2pz

2py*=2px

* 2pz*

A) 2 2 4 2 4 2

B) 2 2 4 2 4 1

C) 2 2 4 1 3 0

D) 2 2 4 2 2 0

E) 2 2 4 2 1 0

____ 81. Which of these statements about benzene is true?

A) All carbon atoms in benzene are sp3 hybridized.

B) Benzene contains only bonds between C atoms.

C) The bond order of each C–C bond in benzene is 1.5.

D) Benzene is an example of a molecule that displays ionic bonding.

E) All of these statements are false.

____ 82. Which of the following would you expect to have the highest boiling point?

A) F2

B) Cl2

C) Br2

D) I2

E) All of the above have the same boiling point.

____ 83. Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?

A) NaCl(l)

B) HF(l)

C) N2(s)

D) H2O(l)

E) K(s)

____ 84. When a water molecule forms a hydrogen bond with another water molecule, which atoms are

involved in the interaction?

A) a hydrogen from one molecule and a hydrogen from the other molecule

B) a hydrogen from one molecule and an oxygen from the other molecule

C) an oxygen from one molecule and an oxygen from the other molecule

D) an oxygen and a hydrogen from the same molecule

E) two hydrogens from one molecule and one hydrogen from the other molecule

____ 85. Which of the following compounds has the lowest viscosity?

A) CCl4(l)

B) N2(g)

C) H2O(l)

D) CH3-(CH2)25-CH3(l)

E) HCl(g)

____ 86. Which of the following statements about liquids is true?

A) Droplet formation occurs because of the higher stability associated with increased

surface area.

B) Substances that can form hydrogen bonds will display lower melting points than

predicted from periodic trends.

C) London dispersion forces arise from a distortion of the electron clouds within a

molecule or atom.

D) Liquid rise within a capillary tube because of the small size lowers the effective

atmospheric pressure over the surface of the liquid.

E) The boiling point of a solution is dependent solely on the atmospheric pressure

over the solution.

____ 87. Which of the following is paired incorrectly?

A) crystalline solids—highly regular arrangement of their components

B) amorphous solids—considerable disorder in their structures

C) unit cell—the smallest repeating unit of the lattice

D) gold metal—simple cubic unit cell

E) glass—amorphous solid

____ 88. Which of the following statements about steel is false?

A) It contains carbon atoms in the holes of its iron crystals.

B) The presence of carbon-iron bonds in the alloy make steel harder and stronger than

pure iron.

C) Pure iron is relatively soft and ductile because it lacks directional bonding.

D) The amount of carbon directly affects the properties of steel.

E) All of these are true.

____ 89. Which of the following statements is true about p-type silicon?

A) It is produced by doping Si with P or As.

B) Protons are the mobile charge carriers.

C) It does not conduct electricity as well as pure Si.

D) All are true.

E) None is true.

____ 90. Which of the compounds below is an example of a network solid?

A) S8(s)

B) SiO2(s)

C) MgO(s)

D) NaCl(s)

E) C25H52(s)

____ 91. Which of these statements is incorrect?

A) Molecular solids have high melting points.

B) The binding forces in a molecular solid include London dispersion forces.

C) Ionic solids have high melting points.

D) Ionic solids are insulators.

E) All of the statements (A-D) are correct.

____ 92. Which of the following has the highest melting temperature?

A) H2O

B) CO2

C) S8

D) MgF2

E) P4

____ 93. Which of the following is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?

A) Na2S

B) HF

C) NH3

D) N2

E) H2O

____ 94. On the basis of your knowledge of bonding in liquids and solids, which of the following has the

lowest melting temperature?

A) NaCl

B) Na

C) Cl2

D) SiO2

E) More information is needed.

____ 95. The process of condensation happens when which of the following occurs?

A) A solid becomes a liquid.

B) A liquid becomes a solid.

C) A gas becomes a liquid.

D) A liquid becomes a gas.

E) A gas becomes a solid.

____ 96. Which of the following processes must exist in equilibrium with the evaporation process when a

measurement of vapor pressure is made?

A) fusion

B) vaporization

C) sublimation

D) boiling

E) condensation

____ 97. Which statement regarding water is true?

A) Energy must be given off in order to break down the crystal lattice of ice to a

liquid.

B) Hydrogen bonds are stronger than covalent bonds.

C) Liquid water is less dense than solid water.

D) Only covalent bonds are broken when ice melts.

E) All of the statements (A–D) are false.

____ 98. Choose the correct statement about the diagram below.

A) The diagram is qualitatively correct for water.

B) The diagram shows that the melting point of the solid increases with increasing

pressure.

C) The diagram shows the triple point above 1 atm pressure.

D) The diagram could represent the phase diagram of CO2.

E) None of the above statements is correct.

____ 99. Which of the following compounds is expected to have the HIGHEST melting point?

A) CH3OCH3

B) CH3CH2OH

C) CH3CH2CH2CH3

D) CH3CH2CH3

E) CH3Cl

____ 100. The measure of resistance to flow of a liquid is

A) van der Waals forces

B) vapor pressure

C) London forces

D) surface tension

E) viscosity




configuration MSC: Conceptual









configuration MSC: Conceptual



configuration and the periodic table | exceptions to the aufbau principle

MSC: Conceptual




22. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 7.12

KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | atomic theory | periodicity of the elements | periodic

properties MSC: Conceptual

23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 7.12


properties | ionization energy MSC: Conceptual















properties | atomic radius MSC: Conceptual





chem 1411 test 3 review - hcc learning web

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