bio 114_study guide examii sp16

8/18/2019 Bio 114_Study Guide ExamII SP16

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Property of Dr. Gurung. Not to be distriubted, published or used in any form.

STUDY QUESTION FOR EXAM II: Bio 114(Chapters 5-9)

Multiple-Choice Questions:

1) What is energy? A) the capacity to cause movementB) the capacity to cause changeC) a measure of caloriesD) a measure of disorder Answer: B

2) An object at rest has no ______ energy, but it may have ______ energy resulting from its location or structure. A) kinetic... potentialB) kinetic... conservedC) potential... kineticD) stored... potential Answer: A

3) The principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ______. A) interconversionB) conservation of energyC) conservation of heat

D) entropy Answer: B

4) A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy. A) potentialB) noC) kineticD) conserved Answer: A

5) You are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows down andstops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped? A) It was returned to the bicycle.

B) It was converted back to chemical energy.C) It was released as heat.D) It was used to chemically break down the tires. Answer: C

6) Which of the following is a measure of randomness in a system? A) entropyB) kinetic energyC) potential energyD) chemical energy Answer: A

7) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm arechanging ______. A) chemical energy into kinetic energyB) chemical energy into potential energyC) kinetic energy into potential energyD) kinetic energy into chemical energy Answer: A

8) Humans convert approximately ______ of the energy stored in food to useful work. A) 22%B) 34%C) 55%


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D) 99.9% Answer: B

9) Ten kilocalories are equivalent to ______ calories. A) 1,000B) 10,000C) 0.1D) 100 Answer: B

10) You have a 2-kg bottle of liquid water at 0°C. About how many Calories are needed to heat up the water to100°C? A) 100 CaloriesB) 200 CaloriesC) 2,000 CaloriesD) 10,000 Calories Answer: B

11) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work? A) C6H12O6B) ATPC) DNAD) fat

Answer: B

12) Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ______. A) adenosineB) heat unitC) photonD) phosphate group Answer: D

13) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______. A) result in cell deathB) force the cell to rely on lipids for energyC) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy

D) have no effect on the cell Answer: A

14) Usually, enzymes are ______. A) fatsB) steroidsC) chemical reactionsD) proteins Answer: D

15) The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______. A) summationB) cellular synthesis

C) replicationD) metabolism Answer: D

16) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ______. A) increasing the temperature of the substratesB) contributing electrons to the reactionC) decreasing activation energyD) changing the pH of the substrates Answer: C


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17) Which one of the following is true? A) Enzymes are the products in a chemical reaction.B) Enzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction.C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.D) An enzyme's function requires inhibitors. Answer: C

18) An enzyme's function is dependent on its ______. A) pHB) temperatureC) shapeD) size Answer: C

19) Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme?sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) sucroseB) sucraseC) glucoseD) fructose Answer: B

20) The region of an enzyme to which a substrate binds is called the ______ site.

A) activeB) substrateC) enzymaticD) conformational Answer: A

21) Which component of the following reaction is the substrate?sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) sucroseB) sucraseC) glucoseD) fructose Answer: A

22) Which one of the following is true? A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.B) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.D) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze. Answer: A

23) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ______. A) enzyme substratesB) enzyme inhibitorsC) induced fit factorsD) enzyme products Answer: B

24) Which one of the following is most similar to the mechanism of an enzyme inhibitor? A) keeping someone from parking by parking in their designated spotB) driving the wrong way on a one-way streetC) forgetting to put a cap back on a penD) changing the tires on a car Answer: A

25) Diffusion is an example of ______. A) phagocytosis


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B) active transportC) endocytosisD) passive transport Answer: D

26) Diffusion ______. A) is the result of the potential energy of atomsB) requires an input of cellular energyC) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are moreconcentratedD) proceeds until equilibrium is reached Answer: D

27) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ______ and moves a substance ______ itsconcentration gradient. A) energy... downB) transport proteins... downC) energy and transport proteins... againstD) transport proteins... against Answer: B

28) Osmosis can be defined as ______. A) the diffusion of water

B) the diffusion of nonpolar moleculesC) active transportD) the diffusion of a solute Answer: A

29) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeablemembrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will ______. A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentrationB) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentrationC) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentrationD) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane Answer: A

30) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess waterfrom the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment ______. A) is isotonic to the protozoanB) is hypotonic to the protozoanC) is hypertonic to the protozoanD) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan Answer: B

31) In a hypotonic solution, a plant cell will ______. A) undergo plasmolysisB) become flaccidC) burstD) become turgid Answer: D

32) Active transport ______. A) uses ATP as an energy sourceB) can move solutes against their concentration gradientC) can involve the transport of ionsD) all of the above Answer: D

31) When a person cries, tears are exported from cells through the process of________________. A) facilitated diffusion.


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B) active transport.C) endocytosis.D) exocytosis. Answer: C

32) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ______. A) osmosisB) diffusionC) exocytosisD) phagocytosis Answer: D

33) The figure below shows that ______.

A) ADP can perform cellular work when it binds to an additional phosphate groupB) ATP can perform cellular work when it releases a phosphate groupC) ATP can be converted to ADP by adding a phosphate groupD) energy is released from ATP during the process of cellular respiration Answer: B

34) Examine the cells below. Cells with a higher concentration of ions than the surrounding medium tend to ______.

A) stay about the same size and shapeB) expandC) shrinkD) divide Answer: B


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35) A difference between marathon runners and sprinters is ______. A) marathon runners have more slow-twitch fibers in their leg musclesB) marathon runners have more fast-twitch muscle fibers in their leg musclesC) sprinters have a high proportion of muscle fibers that require oxygen to make ATPD) sprinters perform better in activities that require slow, steady muscle activity Answer: A

36) Humans are both___________________. A) heterotrophs and consumers.B) heterotrophs and autotrophs.C) producers and consumers.D) autotrophs and producers. Answer: A

37) Photosynthetic organisms are ______. A) producers that make all of their organic matter from organic molecules that they take inB) consumers that obtain organic molecules from other living organismsC) producers that make all their own organic matter from inorganic moleculesD) decomposers that obtain nutrients from the soil Answer: C

38) Plants use photosynthesis to_____________________. A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy.

B) store as well as harvest chemical energy.C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy.D) obtain carbon dioxide. Answer: A

39) The waste products of cellular respiration include ______. A) water onlyB) carbon dioxide onlyC) water and carbon dioxideD) water and glucose Answer: C

40) Plant cells ______.

A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needsB) have chloroplasts and mitochondriaC) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygenD) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs Answer: B

41) The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______. A) the sunB) producersC) ATPD) consumers Answer: A

42) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work? A) C6H12O6B) glucoseC) ATPD) fat Answer: C

43) An aerobic process requires ______. A) oxygenB) carbon dioxideC) ATP


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D) carbohydrates Answer: A

44) Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular respiration ______. A) produces ATPB) produces oxygenC) produces glucoseD) uses carbon dioxide Answer: A

45) Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration? A) glucose → lactic acid + energy B) energy + carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen + water C) glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy D) none of the above Answer: C

46) Which of the following are produced during cellular respiration? A) ATP and waterB) carbon dioxide and ATPC) carbon dioxide, water, and ATPD) oxygen and glucose

Answer: C

47) During redox reactions, ______. A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reductionB) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidizedC) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substanceD) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule Answer: C

48) The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______. A) CO2B) O2

C) NAD+

D) H2O

Answer: C

49) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______. A) ATPB) oxygenC) lactic acid

D) NAD+

Answer: B

50) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur? A) cytoplasmB) ERC) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membraneD) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane Answer: A

51) Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration? A) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transportB) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transportC) citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysisD) electron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle Answer: A


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52) A product of glycolysis is ______. A) lactic acidB) ethyl alcoholC) O2D) pyruvic acid Answer: D

53) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis? A) production of CO

2B) conversion of glucose to pyruvic acidC) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule

D) conversion of NADH to NAD+

Answer: B

54) The second stage of aerobic respiration is ______. A) ATP productionB) the citric acid cycleC) lactic acid fermentationD) glycolysis Answer: B

55) What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle? A) acetyl CoAB) lactic acidC) ethyl alcoholD) citric acid Answer: A

56) In aerobic respiration, how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose? A) 1B) 38C) 6D) 12 Answer: D

57) Electron transport takes place in the ______. A) mitochondriaB) chloroplastsC) cytoplasmD) ribosomes Answer: A

58) ATP synthase plays a role in ______. A) pulling electrons down the electron transport chainB) glycolysisC) pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membraneD) generating ATP Answer: D

59) Aerobic cellular respiration generates about ______ ATP from one glucose. A) 2B) 6C) 38D) The number generated depends on whether the end product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid or ethylalcohol. Answer: C

60) Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to________________. A) produce more ATP than is possible through aerobic respiration.


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B) produce ATP using the electron transport chain.C) regenerate NADH.D) produce ATP without O2. Answer: D

61) Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ______ ATP per glucose. A) 2B) 4C) 10D) 38 Answer: A

62) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugarbreakdown? A) the citric acid cycleB) the electron transport chainC) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acidD) glycolysis Answer: D

63) Some friends are trying to make wine in their basement. They've added yeast to a sweet grape juice mixtureand have allowed the yeast to grow. After several days they find that sugar levels in the grape juice havedropped, but there's no alcohol in the mixture. The most likely explanation is that ______.

A) the mixture needs more sugar; yeast need a lot of energy before they can begin to produce alcoholB) the mixture needs less oxygen; yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygenC) the mixture needs more oxygen; yeast need oxygen to break down sugar to produce alcoholD) the mixture needs less sugar; high sugar concentrations stimulate cellular respiration, and alcohol is not a by-product of cellular respiration Answer: B

64) What waste product do yeast produce under anaerobic conditions? A) ethyl alcoholB) pyruvic acidC) lactic acidD) creatine Answer: A

65) Large amounts of oxygen gas first appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago. A) 500,000B) 10 millionC) 2.7 billionD) 3.5 billion Answer: C

66) Examine the following figure. Which of the following reactants primarily come(s) from the air?


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A) waterB) glucoseC) carbon dioxideD) oxygen and carbon dioxide Answer: D

67) Examine the following figure. Which of these stages occur(s) in the cytoplasm?

A) glycolysisB) citric acid cycle

C) glycolysis and citric acid cycleD) citric acid cycle and electron transport Answer: A

68) Which of the following is an autotroph? A) humanB) mushroomC) pine treeD) fish Answer: C


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69) Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____. A) taking in oxygen and making woodB) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates)C) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making celluloseD) converting sugar to oxygen and water Answer: B

70) Within the inner membrane of a chloroplast, interconnected sacs of membrane called ______ are suspendedin a thick fluid called the ______. A) chlorophyll... thylakoidB) thylakoids... granaC) thylakoids... stromaD) grana... thylakoid Answer: C

71) What is the function of stomata? A) water absorptionB) Calvin cycleC) location of photosystemsD) gas exchange Answer: D

72) Through what structure(s) do plants obtain most of their water?

A) rootsB) interior cellsC) stomataD) leaves Answer: A

73) What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast? A) stromaB) cristaeC) thylakoidsD) vesicles Answer: C

74) What are grana? A) thick fluids inside chloroplastsB) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membraneC) stacks of membranous sacsD) pigments found in chloroplasts Answer: C

75) If you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light, but only minimal amounts ofwater, which of the following would you expect to occur? A) increased plant growthB) increased amounts of oxygen released by the plantsC) decreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plantsD) increased growth of the plants’ leaves Answer: C

76) Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis? A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → C6H12O6B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2C) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O

D) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O

Answer: B


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77) In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______. A) O2... CO2B) C6H12O6... O2C) H2O... C6H12O6D) H2O... CO2 Answer: D

78) Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) O2

B) CO2C) C6H12O6D) ADP Answer: A

79) The Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light reactions in order to operate. A) glucose... carbon dioxideB) electrons... NADHC) ATP... NADPH

D) RuBP... NADP+

Answer: C

80) The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______. A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigmentB) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented objectC) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented objectD) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight Answer: B

81) If a plant appears blue to us, what wavelength of light is being reflected? A) blueB) greenC) redD) yellow Answer: A

82) The energy of wavelengths that appear ______ is least useful to photosynthesis. A) redB) greenC) blueD) orange Answer: B

83) What name is given to a discrete packet of light? A) phaserB) wavelengthC) photonD) quantum Answer: C

84) The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ______. A) less energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigmentsB) redder the colorC) more photons it containsD) greater the energy Answer: D

85) Where are photosystems located? A) chlorophyllB) thylakoid membrane


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C) cristaeD) stroma Answer: B

86) The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ______. A) in the stromaB) on the cristaeC) in the thylakoid membraneD) in the cytosol Answer: C

87) Which of the following is the source of electrons for the light reactions? A) C6H12O6B) CO2C) NADPHD) H2O

Answer: D

88) Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) citric acid cycleB) glycolysisC) Calvin cycle

D) electron transport chain Answer: D

89) In photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ______. A) thylakoid membraneB) outer chloroplast membraneC) endomembraneD) inner chloroplast membrane Answer: A

90) The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______. A) light energy and CO2... sugar

B) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar and O2

C) light energy, CO2, and water... sugar and O2D) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar

Answer: D91) C4 plants conserve water by ______.

A) shuttling CO2 from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem

B) keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dryC) growing very deep rootsD) running the Calvin cycle at night Answer: B

92) CAM plants conserve water by ______. A) opening their stomata only at nightB) incorporating CO2 into RuBP

C) keeping their stomata closed at nightD) running the Calvin cycle at night Answer: A

93) Refer to the accompanying figure. Plant cells that contain the organelle responsible for photosynthesis areconcentrated in cells of the ______.


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A) rootsB) leaves

C) stomataD) grana Answer: B

94) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following is true regarding the behavior of a chlorophyllmolecule as it absorbs a photon?

A) An electron goes from the excited state to the ground state.B) Light is released.C) The energy of a photon raises an electron to the excited state.D) ATP is broken down. Answer: C

95) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following best describes the direct mechanism of ATPproduction during photosynthesis?


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A) use of the energy generated as hydrogen ions (H+) move up a proton gradient; this energy is used to make ATPB) use of the energy released as excited electrons are passed from one molecule to another in the electron

transport system; the energy is converted to the chemical bond energy of ATPC) use of the energy stored in excited electrons; as the electrons move from the excited state to the ground state,the energy released is converted to the energy stored in the third phosphate bond in ATP

D) use of the energy stored in hydrogen ion (H+) gradients; the potential energy of the proton gradient is releasedas the protons move down their gradient through special membrane protein channels; this energy is converted tochemical bond energy in the ATP molecule Answer: D

96) A(n) ______ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually. A) catB) humanC) Komodo dragonD) mouse Answer: C

97) Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical. This type of cell division isimportant for all of the following functions EXCEPT A) growth of a multicellular organism.B) cell replacement.C) production of sperm and eggs.D) asexual reproduction. Answer: C

98) The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______. A) nucleusB) centrioleC) Golgi apparatus

D) nucleolus Answer: A

99) Chromatin consists of ______. A) DNA and proteinB) RNA and proteinC) protein onlyD) DNA only Answer: A

100) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.


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A) centromeresB) centrosomesC) genomesD) sister chromatids Answer: D

101) Sister chromatids are joined at the ______. A) centromereB) spindleC) centrosomeD) centriole Answer: A

102) Which of the following occurs during interphase? A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.B) Chromosome duplication.C) Sister chromatids separate.D) The mitotic spindle forms. Answer: B

103) The cell cycle results in the production of ______. A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic informationB) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information

C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic informationD) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information Answer: C

104) Which of the following occurs during prophase? A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.B) The nuclear envelope forms.C) Sister chromatids separate.D) The mitotic spindle begins to form. Answer: D

105) Which of the following is a stage of mitosis? A) cytokinesis

B) telophaseC) interphaseD) DNA synthesis Answer: B

106) The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______. A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophaseB) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphaseC) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophaseD) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase Answer: A

107) During metaphase ______. A) the nuclear envelope breaks upB) sister chromatids separateC) centromeres divideD) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell Answer: D

108) Which of these events occurs during anaphase? A) Sister chromatids separate.B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.C) The nuclear envelope reappears.D) The nuclear envelope breaks up.


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Answer: A

109) During telophase ______. A) the events of prophase are reversedB) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cellC) sister chromatids separateD) the nuclear envelope breaks up Answer: A

110) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______. A) have less genetic material than it started withB) not have completed anaphaseC) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cellD) have two nuclei Answer: D

111) Cytokinesis typically begins during the ______ stage of mitosis. A) telophaseB) prophaseC) metaphaseD) anaphase Answer: A

112) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor? A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.B) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.D) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps. Answer: C

113) Homologous chromosomes ______. A) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristicsB) include only the autosomesC) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parentD) carry the same versions of all genes Answer: A

114) What chromosomes belong to a normal human male? A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomesB) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomesC) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosomeD) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome Answer: C

115) What chromosomes belong to a normal human female? A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomesB) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomesC) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosomeD) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes Answer: B

116) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______. A) homologous chromosomesB) nonhomologous chromosomesC) sex chromosomesD) autosomes Answer: D117) Sexual intercourse in humans ______. A) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cellB) produces a haploid individual


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C) produces an individual with 23 chromosomesD) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote Answer: A

118) In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II? A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells.B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II thechromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell.C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II.D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated. Answer: A

119) How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completedmeiosis II? A) one-quarter as muchB) four times as muchC) one-half as muchD) twice as much Answer: B

120) During metaphase I, ______. A) crossing over occursB) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

C) the nuclear envelope breaks upD) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles Answer: B

121) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s). A) four haploidB) two diploidC) two haploidD) one diploid Answer: C

122) Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II? A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.

B) Spindle formation occurs.C) Chromosomes have been duplicated.D) Crossing over occurs. Answer: D

123) Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in mitoticanaphase ______. A) the cells are diploid... the cells are haploidB) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell... chromosomes line up single file in the middle of thecellC) crossing over occurs... crossing over does not occurD) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate... the cells are diploid and sister chromatids separate Answer: D

124) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______. A) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does notB) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosisC) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cellsD) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells Answer: A

125) Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Which is it? A) the events of meiosis IB) crossing over


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C) independent assortmentD) the events of meiosis II Answer: D

126) Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I? A) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomesinherited from the father.B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.D) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomesinherited from the father go to the other pole. Answer: C

127) For a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ chromosome combinations are possible. A) 4B) 8C) 16D) 20 Answer: C

128) A ______ describes a site of crossing over. A) chiasmaB) histone

C) synapseD) centromere Answer: A

129) Crossing over during prophase I results in ______. A) nondisjunctionB) reciprocal translocationC) duplicationD) genetic recombination Answer: D

130) How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have? A) 2n + 1

B) n + 1C) 2n - 1D) n - 1 Answer: C

131) Examine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ______.

A) RNA and proteinB) DNAC) proteinsD) DNA and histone proteins Answer: D


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132) The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ______.

A) cannot be cross-fertilized

B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent

C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized

D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring

Answer: B

133) Alleles are described as ______.

A) homologous chromosomesB) environmental factors that affect gene expression

C) alternate versions of a gene

D) alternate phenotypes

Answer: C

134) A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds.

The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 ×

F1 cross?

A) 1:2:1

B) 2:1

C) 3:1D) 9:3:3:1

Answer: C

135) According to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.

A) two alleles segregate into each gamete

B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele

C) gametes have one copy of each allele

D) gametes are diploid

Answer: C

136) Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants, and all of the

resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The offspring are all ______, and the allele for purple flowers is ___.

A) heterozygotes... recessive

B) heterozygotes... dominant

C) homozygotes... recessive

D) homozygotes... dominant

Answer: B

136) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached

earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%D) 75%

Answer: C

137) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?

A) locus

B) chromaddress

C) genotype

D) allele


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Answer: A

138) Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r ), and yellow seeds (Y ) are dominant to green seeds (y ).

What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between anRrYy and an rryy individual?

A) 1:2:1

B) 9:3:3:1

C) 3:1

D) 1:1:1:1

Answer: D

139) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a

demonstration of ______.

A) the chromosomal theory of inheritance

B) Mendel's law of independent assortment

C) linkage

D) Mendel's principle of segregation

Answer: B

140) A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?

A) 25%

B) 50%

C) 33%

D) 67%

Answer: B

141) In humans, free earlobes (E ) are dominant to attached earlobes (e) and the presence of freckles (F ) is

dominant to the absence of freckles ( f ). If an individual heterozygous for both of these traits were to mate with

an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the probability of having a child with attached

earlobes and freckles?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%D) 100%

Answer: B

142) The ______ is most commonly found in nature.

A) recessive trait

B) wild-type trait

C) parental

D) dominant trait

Answer: B

143) An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.A) cannot have children with cystic fibrosis

B) is a carrier

C) will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis

D) has cystic fibrosis

Answer: B

144) Achondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype

causes death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. If a person with achondroplasia

mates with a person who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected


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to have achondroplasia?

A) 0%

B) 50%

C) 75%

D) 100%

Answer: B

145) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?

A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

C) The alleles affect more than one trait.

D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

Answer: A

146) What is the key to the recognition of codominance?

A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

C) The alleles affect more than one trait.

D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

Answer: D

146) What is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more

genes (polygenic inheritance)?

A) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of

offspring expressing the dominant trait.

B) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed.

C) Pleiotropy occurs.

D) The trait varies along a continuum in the population.

Answer: D

147) What is the basis of Mendel's laws?

A) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis onlyB) the behavior of chromosomes during mitotic anaphase

C) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I and prophase II of meiosis

D) the behavior of chromosomes during metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis

Answer: D

148) Linked genes are usually______

A) found on the X chromosome.

B) found on the Y chromosome.

C) codominant.

D) located close together on a chromosome.

Answer: D

149) Assume that having three nostrils is inherited as a sex-linked trait on the Y chromosome. A man with three

nostrils has a daughter who has a son with a man who has only two nostrils. What is the probability that the

three-nostriled man's grandson has three nostrils?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 100%

Answer: A


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150) Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is found on the X

chromosome. How can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind?

A) The woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind.

B) The man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness.

C) He can't (unless there is a mutation).

D) The man's mother carries an allele for red-green color blindness, and the expression of the trait skipped a

generation.

Answer: C

bio 114_study guide examii sp16

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