EH 3800: Strength and Conditioning

2011 Final Exam

1. What is the name of the connective tissue that surrounds the individual muscle cell?

A. Perimysium

B. Endomysium

C. Ectomysium

D. Epimysium

2. What structure brings acetylcholine from the neuromuscular junction to the sarcoplasmic

reticulum to be distributed throughout the muscle cell?

A. sarcolemma

B. mitochondria

C. troponin

D. t-tubule

3. Which of the following decreases during a concentric contraction?

A. I Band

B. distance between the z lines

C. H zone

D. all of the above

4. A motor unit consists of:

A. a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers that it innervates

B. a motor nerve and the muscle fibers that are innervated by it and other motor nerves

C. a muscle fiber and all the motor nerves that innervate it

D. motor nerves and muscle fibers

5. Which molecule binds to troponin, which then pulls topomyosion off the binding site

A. potassium

B. sodium

C. calcium

D. acetylcholine

6. Which of the following must be present for the continued contraction of a motor unit?

A. ATPase

B. ADP

C. Creatine Kinase

D. Potassium

7. Which of the following could cause an increase of muscle force?

A. Increased calcium

B. Increased number actin-myosin bonds

C. Decreased number of actin-myosin bonds

D. Increased ATPase

8. Which of the following adaptations would cause the biggest increase in muscle force

production?

A. Increased motor unit synchronicity

B. Increased motor unit firing rate

C. Increased motor unit recruitment

D. Increased muscle hypertrophy

9. Which of the following muscle lengths has the greatest potential for force production?

A. stretched

B. contracted

C. resting

D. slightly stretched

10. How much force can type II muscle fibers produce as compared to type I muscle fibers?

A. More

B. Less

C. About the same

D. Depends on the area of the body

11. Which of the following systems/tissues/organelles are responsible for the intake of air into

the body?

A. Respiratory

B. Cardiovascular

C. Capillaries

D. Mitochondria

12. Which of the following systems/tissues/organelles are responsible for the delivering oxygen

to the working tissues?

A. Respiratory

B. Cardiovascular

C. Capillaries

D. Mitochondria

13. Which of the following organelles are responsible for utilizing oxygen in the working tissues?

A. Actin

B. Myosin

C. Capillaries

D. Mitochondria

14. Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in active expiration?

A. rectus abdominus

B. obliques

C. internal intercostals

D. external intercostals

15. What is the name of the process in which gas exchange occurs?

A. osmosis

B. diffusion

C. active diffusion

D. concentration reversal

16. Where does gas exchange take place in the lungs?

A. capillaries

B. bronchioles

C. arterioles

D. alveoli

17. Where does gas exchange take place in the tissue?

A. capillaries

B. bronchioles

C. arterioles

D. alveoli

18. Where does the electrical signal to contract the heart begin?

A. AV Node

B. SA Node

C. Bundle branches

D. Purkinje fibers

19. Which of the following represents the depolarization of the atria?

A. P wave

B. QRS complex

C. T wave

D. none of the above, it is masked by the QRS complex

20. Which of the following represents the depolarization of the ventricles?

A. P wave

B. QRS complex

C. T wave

D. none of the above, it is masked by the QRS complex

21. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

A. skull

B. lumbar vertebrae

C. humerus

D. rib

22. Which of the following is an example of a fibrous joint?

A. Joint between skull plates

B. Joint between two vertebrae

C. Joint between femur and tibia

D. Joint between phallanges

23. Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

A. Joint between skull plates

B. Joint between two vertebrae

C. Joint between femur and tibia

D. Joint between phallanges

24. Which of the following is an example of a synovial joint?

A. Joint between skull plates

B. Joint between two vertebrae

C. Joint between femur and tibia

D. Joint between the ribs and sternum

25. In which of the following situations is the mechanical advantage increased?

A. The resistance or applied force is increased

B. The moment arm of the resistance is increased

C. The moment arm of the applied force is decreased

D. The moment arm of the applied force is increased

26. Which of the following examples is a 2nd class lever?

A. see-saw

B. wheel barrow

C. most joints in the body

D. the triceps push-down at the elbow joint

27. What type of advantage is found in most of the body’s joints?

A. Mechanical advantage

B. Speed disadvantage

C. Speed advantage

D. Leverage advantage

28. Which of the movments take place in the frontal plane?

A. jumping jacks

B. running

C. swinging a baseball bat

D. backflips

29. Which of the following movements takes place in the sagittal plane?

A. hip adduction

B. neck rotation

C. shoulder horizontal abduction

D. knee extension

30. Which of the following variables causes an increased need for force production in a fluid

resistance system?

A. distance

B. velocity

C. coefficient of friction

D. gravity

31. Which of the following is an example of using friction as a resistance source?

A. lifting dumbbells

B. pulling resistance bands

C. pushing a sled

D. throwing a medicine ball

32. What happens wih collagen during the remodeling phase of tissue healing?

A. Is aligned properly

B. Starts to be produced

C. Is degraded

D. Nothing

33. Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for a collegiate basketball player

who just sprained their thumb?

A. full practice

B. full body lifting

C. ride the bike

D. isometric or isotonic push-ups

34. Which of the following would be considered an endergonic reaction?

A. ATP-> ADP + Energy

B. ADP + Energy -> ATP

C. CreatinePhosphate ->Creatine + Phosphate + Energy

D. Glucose -> Pyruvate + Energy

35. Which of the following energy system can ONLY be anaerobic?

A. phosphagen

B. glycolytic

C. oxidative

D. none of the above

36. Which of the following is the rate limiting step for the Krebs cycle?

A. ATPase

B. Creatine Kinase

C. Lactate

D. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase

37. Which of the following is a possible path for pyruvate in glycolysis?

A. removed from the muscle

B. used directly as an energy source in the cytoplasm

C. converted into lactate

D. converted into creatine

38. Where does the cori cycle take place?

A. the kidney

B. the liver

C. the small intenstine

D. the brain

39. Which of the following will net the highest amount of ATP after going through glycolysis?

A. one glucose molecule

B. one creatine phosphate molecule

C. one amino acid molecule

D. one glycogen molecule

40. Fat is converted to which molecule before entering the aerobic energy system?

A. acetyl co-A

B. acetylcholine

C. ATP

D. pyruvate

41. Which of the following produces ATP at the highest rate?

A. aerobic glycolysis

B. phosphagen system

C. oxidation of carbohydrate

D. anaerobic glycolysis

42. Which of the following is capable of producing the most ATP?

A. aerobic glycolysis

B. phosphagen system

C. oxidation of carbohydrate

D. anaerobic glycolysis

43. Which of the following energy systems are in use during a 10 second, maximum speed

sprint?

A. phosphagen

B. glycolytic

C. oxidative

D. all of the above

44. Which of the following energy systems is the PRIMARY energy system in use during a 10

second, maximum speed sprint?

A. phosphagen

B. glycolytic

C. oxidative

D. all of the above

45. The lactate threshold involves an increased use of which type of energy system and what

motor unit size?

A. aerobic and large

B. aerobic and small

C. anaerobic and large

D. anaerobic and small

46. What would cause the highest level of oxygen debt?

A. low intensity, short workouts

B. high intensity, short workouts

C. low intensity, long workouts

D. high intensity, long workouts

47. Which of the following would be the limiting factor for very long duration activities?

A. blood glucose levels

B. glycogen stores

C. blood and muscle acidity (pH)

D. ATP and creatine phosphate stores

48. Which of the following would be the limiting factor for very high intensity activities?

A. blood glucose levels

B. glycogen stores

C. blood and muscle acidity (pH)

D. fat stores

49. Which of the following is a complete protein?

A. almonds

B. eggs

C. carrots

D. banana

50. A pre-game meals calories should consist of the following breakdown:

A. 70% CHO, 20% PRO, 10% FAT

B. 50% CHO, 25% PRO, 25% FAT

C. 30% CHO, 40% PRO, 30% FAT

D. 60% CHO, 10% PRO, 30% FAT

51. Jim lost two pounds during a basketball game, how much fluid should he consume in order

to replenish his needs?

A. 0.5 liters

B. 1 liter

C. 2 liters

D. 4 liters

52. Which of the following is NOT an anabolic ergogenic aid?

A. growth hormone

B. insulin

C. caffeine

D. essential amino acids

53. Manipulation of which of the following variables will have the greatest effect on caloric

expenditure?

A. resting metabolic rate

B. amount of physical activity

C. amount of food consumed

D. thermic effect of food

54. Which of the following is a RESPONSE to resistance training?

A. increased force production

B. increased muscle size

C. increased muscle coordination

D. increased heart rate

55. Which of the following is an ADAPTATION to chronic aerobic endurance training?

A. increased heart rate

B. increased breathing rate

C. increased left ventricle size and strength

D. increased blood pressure

56. Which of the following enzymes is NOT increased as a result of anaerobic training?

A. isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. ATPase

C. PFK

D. creatine kinase

57. Which of the following is decreased at rest due to aerobic training?

A. stroke volume

B. heart rate

C. cardiac output

D. blood volume

58. Which of the following is NOT increased at maximum effort as a result of chronic aerobic

training?

A. stroke volume

B. cardiac output

C. heart rate

D. breathing rate

59. Where on the cell do steroid hormones “act” on?

A. cell membrane

B. cytoplasm

C. RNA

D. DNA

60. Which of the following is a recommended training variable for increased anabolic hormone

release?

A. Exercise: Barbell Biceps Curl

B. Reps: 5

C. Sets: 4

D. Rest Period: 3 minutes

61. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of training to improve bone mineral density?

A. Use structural exercises

B. Load must exceed minimal strain

C. Only use unweighted aerobic training machines

D. Use multiple force vectors

62. Which of the following will NOT lead to overtraining?

A. Extremely high volume

B. Extermely high intensity

C. Slow progression of training variables

D. Little recovery time

63. Which of the following is the easiest (and earliest) marker of aerobic overtraining?

A. increased lap times

B. decreased desire to train

C. hormonal markers

D. change in resting heart rate

64. What is the reason for decreases in force production as a result of a lack of resistance

training in a trained individual?

A. decreased muscle mass

B. decreased enzyme activity

C. decreased protein synthesis

D. decreased neural activity

65. Which of the following is NOT a goal of an aerobic training program?

A. increase mitochondrial density

B. increase VO2max

C. increase fat conservation

D. increase exercise economy

66. Which of the following is a training component of an aerobic training program?

A. mode

B. load

C. surface

D. clothing

67. Which of the following is the most appropriate duration of an aerobic training day when

training at maximum intensity?

A. moderate

B. short

C. long

D. medium

68. Which of the following is NOT a method of measuring intensity for aerobic endurance

training?

A. heart rate

B. measuring ground reaction forces

C. perceived exertion

D. pace

69. Long, slow distance training is characterized by which of the following training variables?

A. 3 times per week

B. 90% VO2max

C. Exercise for one hour

D. work to rest ratio of 1:3

70. Which of the following is NOT an expected adaptation of pace/tempo training?

A. increased mitochondrial density

B. increased exercise economy

C. increased use of sport specific muscle fibers

D. increased lactate threshold

71. At what intensity does interval training occur?

A. 70% VO2max

B. 80% VO2max

C. 95% VO2max

D. 110% VO2max

72. What is the correct work to rest ratio for repetition training?

A. 1:1

B. 1:5

C. 1:3

D. 1:10

73. At what point of the year does the MOST aerobic endurance training sessions occur per

week?

A. off-season

B. pre-season

C. in-season

D. post-season

74. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of resistance training for aerobic endurance

athletes?

A. prevention of overuse injuries

B. prevention of muscle imbalances

C. improvement of short term exercise performance

D. increased muscle mass

75. A analysis of a sport includes all of the following except:

A. sport injury analysis

B. movement analysis

C. performance analysis

D. physiological analysis

76. Which of the following is involved with an individual analysis?

A. movement analysis

B. training status

C. sport injury analysis

D. biomechanical analysis

77. A good choice for a core exercise for a lacrosse player would be:

A. front squat

B. biceps curl

C. calf raise

D. machine leg curl

78. What is the proper resistance training frequency for an intermediate athlete?

A. 2-3

B. 3-4

C. 4-7

D. none of the above

79. Which of the following exercises would be best to perform first on a training day?

A. power clean

B. deadlift

C. front squat

D. tuck jumps

80. Which of the following would be the correct number of reps for an athlete looking to

improve their maximum strength?

A. 12

B. 8

C. 6

D. 4

81. Which of the following would be a correct load for an athlete looking to increase their

muscle mass?

A. 90%1RM

B. 88%1RM

C. 77%1RM

D. 65%1RM

82. What is the proper rest period between sets of 3 rep Snatches?

A. 30 seconds

B. 90 seconds

C. 3 minutes

D. 8 minutes

83. What type of intensity is seen at the end of a preporatory/first transition period of a linear

periodized strength program?

A. medium-high

B. high

C. medium-low

D. low

84. Name the most important factor when training children.

A. biological age

B. chronological age

C. training experience

D. height

85. Running speed is the interaction of which two factors?

I. Stride length II. Stride width

III. Stride frequency IV. Stride Acceleration

A. I and IV

B. II and III

C. II and IV

D. I and III

86. Increases in speed early in acceleration are mostly due to:

A. increases in stride frequency

B. increases in stride length

C. decreases in the time of the flight phase

D. increases in ground reaction forces

87. At what speed should technique work take place when beginning a speed and agility

program?

A. full speed

B. competition speed

C. submaximal speed

D. as slow as possible

88. Which of the following drills would have the greatest impact on stride frequency?

A. Uphill running

B. Dynamic stretching

C. A Skips

D. Band assisted sprinting

89. During which phase of the stretch shortening cycle do the sensory nerves communicate with

the motor nerves to cause a reactionary concentric contraction?

A. eccentric

B. amoritization

C. concentric

D. none of the above

90. Which of the following does NOT affect the intensity of lower body plyometric drills?

A. height of the drill

B. rest period

C. number of points of contact

D. body weight

91. What is the maximum number of contacts that an advanced athlete should have in a

plyometric session?

A. 80

B. 100

C. 120

D. 140

92. Which of the following exercises uses a supinated grip?

A. Bench Press

B. Power Clean

C. Chin-Up

D. DB Shoulder Press

93. Which of the following is NOT involved in the 5 point body contact position?

A. Head

B. Right Knee

C. Butt

D. Left Foot

94. Where should the Seated Dumbbell Shoulder Press exercise be spotted?

A. wrists

B. elbows

C. dumbbells

D. hips

95. Which of the following is a measure of a test in terms of that test measuring what it is

actually supposed to measure?

A. reliability

B. inter-subject reliability

C. validity

D. quantitative

96. For a test to be valid is should be:

A. easy to administer

B. easy to perform

C. biomechanically specific to athlete’s sport

D. reliable

97. Which of the following tests should be administered LAST?

A. body fat

B. 1RM Squat

C. 40 Yard Dash

D. Wingate

98. Which of the following tests should be administered FIRST

A. body fat

B. 1RM Squat

C. 40 Yard Dash

D. Wingate

99. Which of the following is NOT an agility test?

A. Hexagon Test

B. Pro Agility Test

C. Stair Sprint Test

D. T Test

100. What is the range if the highest score was 97 and the lowest score was 72?

A. 27

B. 25

C. 15

D. 32

EH 3800: Strength and ConditioningFinal

Answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

86. 87. 88. 89. 90.

91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

EH 3800: Strength and ConditioningFinal

Answers

1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C

6. A 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A

11. A 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. B

16. D 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B

21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. D

26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. B

31. C 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. A

36. D 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. A

41. B 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. C

46. D 47. B 48. C 49. B 50. A

51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. C

56. A 57. B 58. C 59. D 60. C

61. C 62. C 63. A 64. D 65. C

66. A 67. B 68. B 69. C 70. A

71. C 72. B 73. B 74. D 75. C

76. B 77. A 78. B 79. D 80. D

81. C 82. C 83. B 84. A 85. D

86. B 87. C 88. D 89. B 90. B

91. D 92. C 93. B 94. A 95. C

96. C 97. D 98. A 99. C 100. B