1. The cells that fight disease is known as: a. Nerve cell b. Epithelial cell c. Fibroblast d. MacrophagesA phagocytic cell or macrophages are cells that crawl through tissue to reach infection sites. Epithelial cells are the ones that cover and lines body organs. Fibroblast connects body parts while nerve cells or neurons are for gathering information and controlling body function.2. A patient is complaining of pain in the region at the right side of the hypogastric region. This area of the abdomen is also known as: a. Right Hypochondriac region b. Right iliac region c. Right lumbar region d. Umbilical regionRight iliac region is located at the right side of the hypogastric region. Right hypochondriac lies beside the epigastric region while the right lumbar lies beside the umbilical area.3. The substance present in the largest amount in a solution is which of the following? a. Solutes b. Solvent c. Solution d. Interstitial fluida. Solutes tiny components present in small amounts. b. Solvent the substance present in the largest amount. c. Solution - A homogeneous mixture of two or more components d. Interstitial fluid the fluid that continuously bathes the exterior of the cells.4. A clinical instructor is discussing about the body planes and sections. When a section is made along a horizontal plane the body is divided into: a. Anterior and posterior parts b. Right and left parts c. Midsagittal and median section d. Superior and inferior partsWhen a section is made along a horizontal plane (transverse section) the body is divided into superior and inferior parts. If a sagittal section is done (lengthwise/longitudinal plane) the body is divided into right and left parts. A frontal section is a cut made along a lengthwise plane dividing the body into anterior and posterior parts.5. A frontal section divides the body into: a. Anterior and posterior parts b. Right and left parts c. Midsagittal and median section d. Superior and inferior partsA frontal section is a cut made along a lengthwise plane dividing the body into anterior and posterior parts.6. The process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration to become evenly distributed is called: a. Filtration b. Diffusion c. Passive transport process d. Active transport processDiffusion is the process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration to become evenly distributed. Filtration is the process by which water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure. Passive transport processes substances are transported across the membrane without energy input from the cell. In active transport processes, the cell provides the metabolic energy ATP that drives the transport process.7. Knowledge on body landmarks is essential to learn about anatomy and physiology. The posterior surface of the lower leg is known as: a. Sural b. Olecranal c. Crural d. Fibulara. Sural - the posterior surface of the lower leg b. Olecranal posterior surface of the elbow c. Crucal anterior leg area/region d. Fibular lateral part of the leg8. The genetic material , deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is contained in: a. Nucleus b. Nucleoli c. Chromatin d. ChromosomeThe gene-containing nucleus acts as the control center for cells. It is the specific part of the cell where the DNA is found. Nucleoli, chromatin and chromosome are all found inside the nucleus.9. While on duty, the student nurse notices that the clients crural area has lesions and abrasions. Crural area is also known as the: a. Posterior surface of the lower leg b. Posterior surface of the elbow c. Anterior leg area d. Lateral part of the lega. Posterior surface of the lower leg - sural b. Posterior surface of the elbow - olecranal c. Anterior leg area - crural d. Lateral part of the leg fibular10. A correct anatomical position is best exemplified by which of the following? a. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing towards the body. b. Standing up with palms held backward with thumbs pointing towards the body. c. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing away from the body. d. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing towards the body.A correct anatomical position is similar to a standing at attention but is less comfortable because the palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing away from the body.11. The knee in relation to the thigh is termed as: a. Distal b. Proximal c. Ventral d. DorsalThe knee is distal (farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk) to the thigh. Proximal means closer to the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk. Ventral means anterior or toward or at the front of a body. Dorsal means posterior or toward or at the backside of the body.12. If the located area is at pointing away from the midline of the body it is termed as: a. Caudal b. Distal c. Proximal d. Laterala. Caudal inferior; away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body. b. Distal - farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk c. Proximal closer to the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk. d. Lateral - pointing away from the midline of the body13. An adolescent has been participating in a competitive sport game. Accidentally, he fell off and complains of pain in his coxal area. The adolescent has pain on: a. Posterior knee area b. Hip area c. Thigh area d. Point of shouldera. Posterior knee area popliteal b. Hip area coxal c. Thigh area femoral d. Point of shoulder acromial14. The cellular material outside the nucleus but is located inside the cell membrane is called: a. Nucleoli b. Chromatin c. Cytoplasm d. Plasma membraneCytoplasm is the cellular material outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane. a. Nucleoli - dark-staining, round bodies in the nucleus. b. Chromatin loose network of bumpy threads that is scattered throughout the nucleus. c. Cytoplasm d. Plasma membrane - (or cell membrane) contains all cell contents and separates them from the surrounding environment.15. The dorsal cavity of the body has two subdivisions. Select all dorsal body cavity. A. Thoracic B. Cranial C. Spinal D. Adbominopelvic a. A and B b. B and C c. C and D d. B and DDorsal (posterior) body cavities are well protected by bones and consist of the cranial and spinal cavities. Ventral cavities are less protected and consist of thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.16. To maintain homeostasis the body function interacts. The homeostatic control mechanism that responds to environmental changes is called: a. Effector b. Receptor c. Control center d. Stimulia. Effector produces the response b. Receptor responds to environmental change c. Control center assesses the changes present d. Stimuli the change itself17. When the body is divided into right and left parts the cut is a: a. Frontal section b. Sagittal section c. Coronal section d. Cross sectiona. Frontal section divides the body into anterior and posterior parts b. Sagittal section divides the body into right and left parts c. Coronal section other term for frontal section d. Cross section divides the body into superior and inferior parts18. Which membrane junction is responsible for preventing the skin cells from pulling apart during a mechanical stress such as someone pulling a persons extremity? a. Gap junctions b. Desosomes c. Tight junctions d. Microvillia. Gap junctions commonly seen in the heart and embryonic cells that functions mainly to allow communication. b. Desosomes anchoring junctions that prevent the skin cells from pulling apart during a mechanical stress c. Tight junctions impermeable junctions that bind cells together into leakproof sheets that prevent substances from passing through the extracellular space between cells. d. Microvilli tiny fingerlike projections that increases the cells surface area for absorption.19. To sustain life an individual must be able to function properly. Survival needs include the following apart from: a. Atmospheric pressure b. Oxygen c. Gravity d. None of theseSurvival needs include water, food, oxygen, appropriate temperature, atmospheric pressure. Because of the word apart from the correct answer is letter D. (Source: Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology by Marieb 8th Ed. P 9)20. The abdominal region located at the left side of the umbilical area is called: a. Left Hypochondriac region b. Left iliac region c. Left lumbar region d. Epigastric areaLeft lumbar lies beside the umbilical area. Left hypochondriac lies beside the epigastric region. Left iliac region is located at the left side of the hypogastric region.21. Most school age children are having cuts or wounds at the anterior knee region because of the tendency to fall during extreme activity involvement. The anterior knee region is also known as: a. Popliteal b. Patellar c. Antecubital d. Tarsala. Popliteal posterior knee area b. Patellar anterior knee c. Antecubital anterior surface of the elbow d. Tarsal ankle region22. The fragile, transparent barrier that contains the cell contents is called: a. Nuclear membrane b. Cytoplasm c. Nucleoli d. Plasma membranePlasma membrane (or cell membrane) contains all cell contents and separates them from the surrounding environment. a. Nuclear membrane a double membrane barrier that binds the nucleus b. Cytoplasm the cellular material outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane. c. Nucleoli dark-staining, round bodies in the nucleus.23. The process by which water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure is called: a. Filtration b. Diffusion c. Passive transport process d. Active transport processFiltration is the process by which water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure. Diffusion is the process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration to become evenly distributed. Passive transport processes substances are transported across the membrane without energy input from the cell. In active transport processes, the cell provides the metabolic energy ATP that drives the transport process.24. A homogeneous mixture of two or more components is known as: a. Solutes b. Solvent c. Solution d. Interstitial fluida. Solutes tiny components present in small amounts. b. Solvent the substance present in the largest amount. c. Solution - A homogeneous mixture of two or more components d. Interstitial fluid the fluid that continuously bathes the exterior of the cells.25. The plasma membrane in the body allows some substances to pass through it while excluding others. This type of barrier is termed as: a. Passive transport process b. Selective permeability c. Filtration d. Active transport processesThe plasma membrane is a selective permeable barrier. Passive transport processes substances are transported across the membrane without energy input from the cell. In active transport processes, the cell provides the metabolic energy ATP that drives the transport process. Filtration is the process by which water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure.FORM-A2. All meninges surrounding the spinal cord are structurally the same as the meninges surrounding the brain EXCEPTA. the pia mater.B. the dura mater.C. the arachnoid mater8. Which part of the brain contains the nuclei for the accessory, glossopharyngeal, vagus, hypoglossal, and vestibulocochlear nerves?A. ThalamusB. Medulla C. PonsD. Midbrain

9. If your doctor taps your patellar tendon, trying to elicit the patellar reflex, why might the reflex NOT work?A. The stimulus may not have been strong enough to trigger an action potential in the sensory neuron.B. The synapse between the sensory neuron and the interneuron is not working.C. You have a defect in your cervical spinal cord.D. The axons crossing in the gray commissure are broken.12. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in theA. subdural space.B. epidural space.C. subarachnoid space.D. pia mater.

13. Spinal nerves L3-L5 and S1-S5 form theA. conus medullaris.B. filum terminale.C. cauda equina.D. lower part of the vertebral column.20. What structure is important for keeping unwanted hydrophilic materials from entering the brain but allowing necessary nutrients into the brain?A. The spinal cord.B. The blood-brain barrier.C. The circumventricular organs.D. The arachnoid villi.The endocrine system: a. Releases chemicals into the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body b. Releases hormones that can alter the metabolic activities of many different tissues and organs c. Produces effects that can last for hours, days, or even longer d. Can alter the gene activity of cells e. All of the above Which of the following is a function of glucocorticoids? a. Increased inflammatory response b. Increased blood [glucose] c. Decreased lipolysis d. Increased creatinine hydrolysis by osteocytes e. Increased osteoclast activity A tumor in the adrenal zona glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of the hormones in that region. Which of the following might you expect to find in a patient with such a tumor? a. Increased blood sodium levels b. Increased blood glucose levels c. Decreased blood calcium levels d. Increased dehydration 35. The thickest layer of the wall of veins is the:a. Tunica media b. Tunica externa c. Subendothelial connective tissue d. Tunica interna 36. The site of production of cholecystokinin and secretin is the: a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Small Intestine d. Large Intestine 37. High doses of antibiotics can destroy the bacterial flora of the large intestine. This can result in impaired: a. Absorption of protein b. Blood coagulation c. Bone resorption d. Respiratory control 38. The term that refers to the percentage of packed erythrocytes per unit volume of blood is the:a. Differential Count b. Hemoglobin c. Hematocrit d. Hemopoiesis 39. Plasma is:a. Blood that has no red blood cells b. The liquid portion of blood including the clotting factors c. The liquid portion of blood minus the clotting factors d. The proteins of blood 40. Excessive destruction of erythrocytes is characteristic of:a. Thalassemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Hemolytic anemia 41. Which of the following activates platelets during hemostasis? a. Eosinophil degranulation b. Exposed collagen or endothelial basement membrane c. Fibrin thread formation d. Thromboplastin 42 The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the:a. Pericardial cavity b. Pericardium c. Pleural Cavity d. Mediastinum 43. If communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked, which will most likely occur?a. The rate of ventricular contraction will decrease b. Afterload will increase c. The rate of atrial contraction will decrease d. Stroke volume will increase to 5L/beat 44. A valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to open completely. This is known as:a. Stenosis b. Heart Block c. Ischemia d. MI 45. The left ventricular wall is thicker than the right ventricular wall in order to: a. Accommodate a greater volume of blood b. Expand the thoracic cage during diastole c. Pump a greater volume of blood d. Pump blood with greater pressure 46. Podocytes make up the: a. Visceral layer of the nephron b. Visceral layer of the glomerulus c. Visceral layer of the renal capsule d. Visceral layer of the Bowman's Capsule 47. Which of the following is NOT a function of atrial natriuretic peptide? a. It acts to decrease aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex b. It acts to increase urine output c. It acts to increase blood pressure d. It acts to decrease ADH release 48. Which of the following landmarks is the corect one for obtaining an apical pulse?a. Left intercostal space, midaxillary lineb. Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular linec. Left second intercostal space, midclavicular lined. Left seventh intercostal space, midclavicular line

The correct landmark for obtaining an apical pulse is the left intercostal space in the midclavicular line. This is the point of maximum impulse and the location of the left ventricular apex. The left second intercostal space in the midclavicular line is where the pulmonic sounds are auscultated. Normally, heart sounds aren't heard in the midaxillary line or the seventh intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

49. Which of the following could cause excessive urine output? a. Hyperaldosteronism b. Hypersecretion of ADH c. Hyperventilation d. Severe hypoinsulinemia (as associated with Type I Diabetes Mellitus) 50. Which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ b. Aldosterone stimulates the secretion of K+ c. Aldosterone affects water reabsorption d. Aldosterone is made in the hypothalamus and released from the anterior pituitary 1. This gland secretes hormones that regulate a wide range of bodily activities from growth to reproductiona. Anterior pituitary glandb. Posterior pituitary glandc. Neurohypophysisd. Thyroid gland

Answer: A- The anterior pituitary gland accounts for about 75% of the total weight of the pituitary gland. The release of the anterior pituitary hormones is stimulated by releasing hormones and suppressed by the inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus.

2. This anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone or somatotropin?a. b. Thyrotrophs c. Somatotrophsd. Corticotrophse. Gonadotrophs

Answer: B- Somatotrophs secrete human growth hormone (hcg) or somatotrophin. Human growth hormone in turn stimulates several tissues to secrete insulin-like growth factors hormones that stimulate general body growth and regulate aspects of metabolism.

3. This anterior pituitary cell secretes follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone?a. b. Thyrotrophs c. Somatotrophsd. Corticotrophse. Gonadotrophs

Answer: D- FSH and LSH both act on the gonads. They stimulate secretion of estrogen and progesterone and the maturation of oocytes in the ovaries and they stimulate secretion of testosterone and sperm production in the testes.

4. This hormone of the anterior pituitary gland controls the production and secretion of cortisol and other glucocorticoids by the cortex of the adrenal glands?a. b. Corticotrophin-releasing hormonec. Adrenocorticotropic hormoned. Melanocyte-stimulating hormonee. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Answer: B- The other term for adrenocorticotropic hormone is corticotrophin.

5. The different neurosecretory cells of the posterior pituitary gland produces the following hormones. Which one is not included?a. b. Oxytocinc. Vasopressind. Luteinizing hormonee. Antidiuretic hormone

Answer: C- This is a hormone released by the anterior pituitary gland by gonadotrophs.

6. What is the substance that decreases the urine production?a. b. Oxytocinc. Antidiuretic hormoned. Luteinizing hormonee. Thyroid hormone Answer: B- Antidiuretic hormone decreases the urine production. ADH causes the kidneys to return more water to the blood, thus decreasing urine volume. In the absence of ADH, urine output increases more than tenfold. ADH also decreases the water lost through sweating and causes constriction of arterioles.

7. The exact location of the thyroid gland in ones body is?a. b. Just inferior to the larynxc. Just posterior to the larynxd. Just inferior to the kidneyse. Just posterior to the kidneys

Answer: A- The butterfly-shaped thyroid gland is located just inferior to the larynx. It is composed of right and left lateral lobes, one on either side of the trachea, that are connected by an isthmus anterior to the trachea. The normal mass of the thyroid is 30g.

8. The hormone that regulates oxygen use and basal metabolic rate, cellular metabolism and growth and development is?a. b. Parathyroid hormonesc. Thyroid hormonesd. Oxytocine. Antidiuretic hormone

Answer: B- Thyroid hormones increase basal metabolic rate, the rate of oxygen at rest after an overnight fast, by stimulating the use of cellular oxygen to produce ATP. A second major effect of thyroid hormones is to stimulate synthesis of additional sodium potassium pumps, which then use more ATP. As cells produce and use more ATP, more heat is given off, and body temperature rises.

9. It is the major mineralocorticoid and it regulates homeostasis of sodium and potassium ions.a. b. Reninc. Angiotensin d. Aldosteronee. Cortisol

Answer: C- It also promotes the excretion of hydrogen in the urine, this removal of acid in the body helps prevent acidosis.

10. The inner region of the adrenal gland and is a modified sympathetic ganglion of the autonomic nervous system is the?a. b. Adrenal medullac. Adrenal cortexd. Androgene. Pancreatic islet

Answer: A- This develops from the same embryonic tissue as all other sympathetic ganglia, but its cells lack axons and forms clusters around large blood vessels. Rather than releasing a neurotransmitter, the cells of the adrenal medulla secrete hormones.

11. The respiratory system consists of the following:a. nose, pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchi, lungs b. nose, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, lungsc. nose, trachea, bronchi, pharynx, larynx, lungsd. nose, throat, voice box, windpipe, bronchi, lungs

Answer: D The respiratory system consists of the (upper respiratory system): nose, pharynx (throat); (lower respiratory system): larynx (voice box), trachea (windpipe), bronchi and lungs. They act with the cardiovascular system to supply oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from the blood.12. Which type of alveoli is responsible for maintaining a desirable surface tension, preventing lung collapse?a. Type 1, Simple Alveolib. Type 2, Surfactant-secreting Alveolic. Type 3, Alveloar Macrophaged. None of the above

Answer: B surfactant is a chemical secreted by the type 2 alveoli, and is needed to prevent the breakage of the surface of the alveoli upon its expansionA-responsible for gas exchangeC-responsible for engulfing microbes and foreign materials

13. What specialized cell is responsible for production of mucus in the lower respiratory system?a. Cuboidal cells lining the mucus membraneb. Goblet cells lining the trachea and bronchusc. Squamous cell lining the serous membraned. Mesothelium lining the visceral and parietal pleura

Answer: B these cells are columnar in shape and their specific function is to produce mucus primarily to trap foreign materialsA produces mucus in the upper airways particularly in the sinusesC serves as a barrierD for production of fluid in the pleural space

14. A patient accidentally aspirated a foreign body. Into which bronchus/bronchi would it more likely lodge?a. b. Left primaryc. Right primaryb. Bothc. Neither

Answer: B It is shorter than the left primary bronchi and is more vertical and is therefore the most common site for aspiration.15. What are the macroscopic hair like structures located at the nostril area which function to trap foreign materials as air passes through the nose?a. b. Vibrissaec. Ciliab. Villic. Parietal cells

Answer: A correct by description anatomicallyB microscopic located at the nasal turbinate and lining of the lower airwaysC can be located at the small intestinesD can be located at the stomach

16. What structure has a protective function of closing the airway during swallowing, thus preventing food and fluids from going into the lungs?a. b. Esophagusc. Epiglottisd. Glottise. Voice box

Answer: B correct be definition. A passageway of food from mouth to stomachC helps in voice productionD main organ for production of sounds and facilitates movement of air between the lower and upper airway

17. One difference between the right and left lung is that the right lung is composed of ____ lobe/lobes.a. b. 3 c. 2 d. 4 e. 1

Answer: A correct by anatomical decriptionB the left lung is compsed of 2 lobesC,D incorrect descriptions

18. Which part of the upper respiratory system is highly vascular and the rupture of blood vessels from the said site commonly causes epistaxis?a. b. Nostrilc. Tonsilsb. Adenoidsc. Nasal turbinates

Answer: D Located posteriorly to the nostril, it is a hollow area which is highly vascularized and is also the site for filtration, warming and humidification of air.A port of entry of airB, C site for destruction of foreign materials and microbes which enter the airway19. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood to the lungs?a. b. Bronchial arteryc. Pulmonary arteryb. Pulmonary veinc. Pulmonic valve

Answer: A branches out from the aorta, delivers oxygen rich blood that the lungs need for cell metabolismB Delivers unoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungsC Delivers oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heartD prevents the backflow of blood from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

20. Which component of both lymphatic and respiratory system is the site for destruction of foreign materials and microbes which enter the airway?a. a. Adenoids and tonsilsb. Glottis and epiglottisb. Larynxc. Voice box

Answer: A correct by descriptionB Glottis helps produce sound; epiglottis closes the airway to prevent aspirationC, D same, produces sound and helps in the passage of air

21. Which part of the respiratory system is known as the largest pipe through which air can enter?a. b. Alveolar ductc. Terminal bronchid. Tracheae. Right primary bronchi

Answer: C correct by descriptionA passageway of air just before it reaches, and after is exits the alveoliB last macroscopic structure of the lower resp systemD second largest after the trachea

22. It is described as the process of exchange of the chemicals oxygen and carbon dioxide:a. b. Ventilationc. Respirationd. Inspiratione. Exhalation

Answer: B correct by definitionA movement of air in and out of the lungsC movement of air into the lungsD movement of air as it exits the lungs

23. What chemical transport is necessary to allow gas exchange to occur?a. Diffusionc. Active transportb. Osmosisd. Filtration

Answer: A the movement of solutes from an area of greater to lower concentration which occur as O2-concentrated alveoli and CO2 concentrated RBC meet at the capillary level.B the movement of fluid through a semi-permeable membrane from an area of lower to greater concentration.C the movement of solutes from an area of greater to lower concentration with the use of energy which occur in cell metabolismD the movement of fluid and dissolved substances from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure.

24. A person drowns and stops because of strong current. Fresh water from the river fills up the lungs and carbon dioxide remains at the circulation. The persons blood will become:a. b. Alkaloticc. Acidicd. Neutralizede. None of these

Answer: B if carbon dioxide is retained in the blood, CO2, which is a component of carbonic acid is increased thereby making the blood acidic or pH is loweredA if carbon dioxide is on the other hand is continuously removed, such as if the person is hyperventilating, CO2 is decreased, lowering levels of carbonic acid making the blood pH higher or alkalotic. C the blood pH is neutral if there is a balanced level of carbon dioxide removed and retained in the blood.25. A baby has low surfactant levels. Comparing to other babies, the breathing of the baby with low surfactant levels will be?a. b. More difficultc. Easierd. The samee. Likely to stop immediately

Answer: A surfactant is a chemical which reduces surface tension. When surfactant is low in levels, the alveoli does not expand easily, so the baby will have a difficulty in breathing.B breathing is easier when there is enough surfactant to reduce the surface tension.C rationale is explained on option a and bD breathing will not immediately stop, the lungs will first try to compensate, but if the condition is not reversed or proper medical treatment is not done, then breathing may stop.

26. This type of muscle is also called striated muscle:a. b. Skeletal musclec. Cardiac muscled. Smooth musclee. Involuntary muscle

Answer: A The skeletal muscle is also known as striated muscle because of the presence of alternating dark and light bands along the length of its fibers and voluntary muscle because it is subject to voluntary control.27. This type of muscle is found in the digestive and respiratory tracts and other hollow structures, such as the urinary bladder and blood vesselsa. b. Skeletal musclec. Smooth muscled. Cardiac musclee. Voluntary muscle

Answer: B The smooth muscle is a type of muscle found in the digestive and respiratory tracts and other hollow organs. Since the contraction in smooth muscle is ordinarily not induced at will, it is called involuntary muscle.28. This type of muscle is involuntary, possessing the striated appearance of voluntary musclea. b. Skeletal musclec. Smooth muscled. Cardiac musclee. Voluntary muscle

Answer: C Cardiac or heart muscle is an involuntary muscle, possessing the appearance of a voluntary muscle. The striations result from the same arrangement of thick and thin filaments in the skeletal muscle.29. The muscle fibers degenerate because of disuse, as when limbs are placed in casts. This condition is called:a. b. Myalgiac. Contractured. Atrophye. Hypertrophy

Answer: C In atrophy the muscle fibers degenerate because of disuse, as when limbs are placed in casts. Muscles can become a fraction of their normal size; within six months to two years the fibers are actually replaced by fibrous connective tissue.

30. This condition refers to the increase in size of exercised muscles:a. b. Myalgiac. Contractured. Atrophye. Hypertrophy

Answer: D Hypertrophy of muscles is a normal event and refers to the increase in size of exercised muscles due to an increase in diameters of individual muscle fibers, with an increase in the number of their myofibrils.31. This term refers to muscular pain:a. b. Myalgiac. Contractured. Atrophye. Hypertrophy

Answer: A Myalgia refers to muscular pain32. This is a muscle which serves to rotate the neck and flex the heada. b. Sternocleidomastoidc. Trapeziusd. Deltoide. Temporalis

Answer: A The sternocleidomastoid has one side that rotates head to opposite side; both sides flex the head and the neck. The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injection which extends from the clavicle to the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus. The temporails raises the mandible and closes the jaws. The trapezius muscles raises and pulls the shoulder backward.33. The largest and most superficial muscle of the buttock:a. b. Psoas majorc. Gluteus maximusd. Gluteus minimuse. Quadriceps femoris

Answer: B The gluteus maximus, the largest muscle and most superficial muscle of the buttock, is an extensor of the hip joint. The psoas major flexes the thigh or trunk. The gluteus minimus abducts the thigh. And the quadriceps femoris extends the leg.34. The following muscles form the abdominal wall. Which one is not included:a. b. External obliquec. Internal obliqued. Rectus abdominise. Scaleni

Answer: D Scaleni is a muscle of respiration located in between the first two ribs. The four flat muscles that from the abdominal wall are: External oblique, Internal oblique, Rectus abdominis and Transversus abdominis35. Of the following, which is not true about muscle contraction:a. Stimulating a muscle before it relaxes will increase the magnitude of the response.b. Initial length of a muscle affects the force of contraction.c. The weakest stimulus that will initiate contraction is called threshold stimulus.d. When a muscle shortens against a constant load, the contraction is called istonicAnswer: D When a muscle shortens against a constant load, the contraction is called isotonic. It is called isometric when it does not shorten.36. When muscles contract against joints, movement is accomplished by a system of levers. Which functions as the lever?a. b. Bonec. Muscled. Jointe. Body parts

Answer: A The bone acts as the lever (a rigid piece) that is turned about a fulcrum (joint) by a force (contracting muscle or muscles), therefore moving a load (body parts or added weights)37. There are three types of cells that exist in a bone, which one is active in bone formation?a. b. Osteoclastsc. Osteoblastsd. Osteocytese. Periosteum

Answer: B The osteoblasts are cells originating in the mesoderm of the embryo that are responsible for bone formation. Osteoclasts are associated with bone resorption. Osteocytes are the principal cells of mature bones. The periosteum is the connective tissue sheath that covers the outer surface of the bone.38. This type of bone is found wherever there is a need for protection of soft body parts:a. b. Short bonesc. Sesamoid bonesd. Long bonese. Flat bones

Answer: D Flat bones are found wherever there is a need for protection of soft body parts. The ribs, the scapula and the skull are examples of flat bones.39. These types of bones are generally considered a separate type, since they are small and rounded:a. b. Short bonesc. Sesamoid bonesd. Long bonese. Flatbones

Answer: B Sesamoid bones are generally considered a separate type, since they are small and rounded. A common example is the patella or the kneecap.40. What is the total number of bones in the human skeleton?a. b. 302c. 180d. 200e. 206

Answer: D There are 206 bones in the human skeleton.41. A depression or cavity in or on the bone is called:a. b. Fissurec. Fossad. Creste. Process

Answer: B a depression or cavity in or on the bone is called a fossa. A fissure is a narrow slit, often between two bones. A crest is a narrow ridge of bone. A process is any marked, bony prominence.42. The two bones that form the sides and roof of the cranium are the _____________ bones:a. b. Parietalc. Occipitald. Frontale. Temporal

Answer: A The two parietal bones form the sides and the roof of the cranium. The occipital bone forms the back and the base of the cranium. The frontal bone forms the forehead. The paired temporal bones help to form sides and the base of the cranium.43. This is the long bone of the upper arma. b. Ulnac. Scapulad. Claviclee. Humerus

Answer: D The humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. The ulna / elbow is the longer medial bone of the forearm. The clavicle is the collar bone and the scapula is a large, flat, triangular bone located on the dorsal portion of the thorax.44. The pelvic girdle is formed by two bones namely:a. b. Radius and ulnac. Ilium and ischiumd. Sacrum and coccyxe. Femur and patella

Answer: C The pelvic girdle, formed by two pelvic bones, the sacrum and the coccyx, supports the trunk and provides attachment to the legs.45. The pelvic bone consists of three separate bones. Which one is not included?a. b. Iliumc. Ischiumd. Sacrume. Pubis

Answer: C The pelvic bone or hipbone originally consists of three separate bones, the ilium, ischium and the pubis. The sacrum and the coccyx form the pelvic girdle.46. The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the:a. b. Patellac. Tibiad. Fibulae. Femur

Answer: D The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the femur. It is the bone of the thigh. The patella is the kneecap. The tibia is the shinbone which forms the lower potion of the leg together with the fibula or the calfbone.47. What Vitamin increases the rate of calcium absorption?a. b. Ac. Bd. Ce. D

Answer: D Vitamin D increases the rate of calcium absorption from the intestine.48. This is a vertebral column disorder wherein the anterior curvature is accentuated in the lumbar region:a. b. Kyphosisc. Lordosisd. Scoliosise. Ricketts

Answer: B Lordosis is when the anterior curvature is accentuated in the lumbar region. Kyphosis is when the posterior curvature is accentuated in the thoracic area. Scoliosis is when there is a lateral curvature and rotation of the vertebrae. Ricketts is a condition in children wherein calcification of bone is inadequate.49. The epiphyseal plates of the long bones of the following patients have already closed. Who among them has the chance to increase his/her height?a. b. A client taking Cheriferc. A client drinking Calcium rich milk twice a dayd. A client who jumps ten times every morninge. None of the above

Answer: D Once the epiphyseal plates of the long bones have closed, the long bones will no longer lengthen or grow.50. You have noticed that teenagers seem to grow tall so fast. What hormone is responsible for increasing bone length?a. b. Glucocorticoidsc. Parathyroid hormoned. Estrogen and androgene. Growth hormone

Answer D The growth hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is responsible for increasing bone length and determining the amount of bone matrix formed before puberty.

3. The substance present in the largest amount in a solution is which of the following?a. Solutesb. Solventc. Solutiond. Interstitial fluida. Solutes tiny components present in small amounts. b. Solvent the substance present in the largest amount. c. Solution - A homogeneous mixture of two or more components d. Interstitial fluid the fluid that continuously bathes the exterior of the cells.Bottom of Form

FUNDA1. Jake is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses his respiratory rate to be 30 breaths per minute and documents that Jake is tachypneic. The nurse understands that tachypnea means: a. Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute b. Blood pressure of 140/90 c. Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute d. Frequent bowel soundsA respiratory rate of greater than 20 breaths per minute is tachypnea. A blood pressure of 140/90 is considered hypertension. Pulse greater than 100 beats per minute is tachycardia. Frequent bowel sounds refer to hyper-active bowel sounds.2. The nurse listens to Mrs. Sullens lungs and notes a hissing sound or musical sound. The nurse documents this as: a. Wheezes b. Rhonchi c. Gurgles d. VesicularWheezes are indicated by continuous, lengthy, musical; heard during inspiration or expiration. Rhonchi are usually coarse breath sounds. Gurgles are loud gurgling, bubbling sound. Vesicular breath sounds are low pitch, soft intensity on expiration.3. The nurse in charge measures a patients temperature at 101 degrees F. What is the equivalent centigrade temperature? a. 36.3 degrees C b. 37.95 degrees C c. 40.03 degrees C d. 38.01 degrees CTo convert F to C use this formula, ( F 32 ) (0.55). While when converting C to F use this formula, ( C x 1.8) + 32. Note that 0.55 is 5/9 and 1.8 is 9/5.4. Which approach to problem solving tests any number of solutions until one is found that works for that particular problem? a. Intuition b. Routine c. Scientific method d. Trial and error The trial and error method of problem solving isnt systematic (as in the scientific method of problem solving) routine, or based on inner prompting (as in the intuitive method of problem solving).5. What is the order of the nursing process? a. Assessing, diagnosing, implementing, evaluating, planning b. Diagnosing, assessing, planning, implementing, evaluating c. Assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, evaluating d. Planning, evaluating, diagnosing, assessing, implementingThe correct order of the nursing process is assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, evaluating.6. During the planning phase of the nursing process, which of the following is the outcome? a. Nursing history b. Nursing notes c. Nursing care plan d. Nursing diagnosisThe outcome, or the product of the planning phase of the nursing process is a Nursing care plan.7. What is an example of a subjective data? a. Heart rate of 68 beats per minute b. Yellowish sputum c. Client verbalized, I feel pain when urinating. d. Noisy breathingSubjective data are those that can be described only by the person experiencing it. Therefore, only the patient can describe or verify whether he is experiencing pain or not.8. Which expected outcome is correctly written? a. The patient will feel less nauseated in 24 hours. b. The patient will eat the right amount of food daily. c. The patient will identify all the high-salt food from a prepared list by discharge. d. The patient will have enough sleep. Expected outcomes are specific, measurable, realistic statements of goal attainment. The phrases right amount, less nauseated and enough sleep are vague and not measurable.9. Which of the following behaviors by Nurse Jane Robles demonstrates that she understands well th elements of effecting charting? a. She writes in the chart using a no. 2 pencil. b. She noted: appetite is good this afternoon. c. She signs on the medication sheet after administering the medication. d. She signs her charting as follow: J.RA nurse should record a nursing intervention (ex. Giving medications) after performing the nursing intervention (not before). Recording should also be done using a pen, be complete, and signed with the nurses full name and title.10. What is the disadvantage of computerized documentation of the nursing process? a. Accuracy b. Legibility c. Concern for privacy d. Rapid communicationA patients privacy may be violated if security measures arent used properly or if policies and procedures arent in place that determines what type of information can be retrieved, by whom, and for what purpose.11. The theorist who believes that adaptation and manipulation of stressors are related to foster change is: a. Dorothea Orem b. Sister Callista Roy c. Imogene King d. Virginia HendersonSister Roys theory is called the adaptation theory and she viewed each person as a unified biophysical system in constant interaction with a changing environment. Orems theory is called self-care deficit theory and is based on the belief that individual has a need for self-care actions. Kings theory is the Goal attainment theory and described nursing as a helping profession that assists individuals and groups in society to attain, maintain, and restore health. Henderson introduced the nature of nursing model and identified the 14 basic needs.12. Formulating a nursing diagnosis is a joint function of: a. Patient and relatives b. Nurse and patient c. Doctor and family d. Nurse and doctorAlthough diagnosing is basically the nurses responsibility, input from the patient is essential to formulate the correct nursing diagnosis.13. Mrs. Caperlac has been diagnosed to have hypertension since 10 years ago. Since then, she had maintained low sodium, low fat diet, to control her blood pressure. This practice is viewed as: a. Cultural belief b. Personal belief c. Health belief d. Superstitious beliefHealth belief of an individual influences his/her preventive health behavior.14. Becky is on NPO since midnight as preparation for blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated. Which of the following is an expected response? a. Low blood pressure b. Warm, dry skin c. Decreased serum sodium levels d. Decreased urine outputAdreno-cortical response involves release of aldosterone that leads to retention of sodium and water. This results to decreased urine output.15. What nursing action is appropriate when obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling catheter to prevent infection? a. Use sterile gloves when obtaining urine. b. Open the drainage bag and pour out the urine. c. Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and get urine. d. Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe.The nurse should aspirate the urine from the port using a sterile syringe to obtain a urine specimen. Opening a closed drainage system increase the risk of urinary tract infection.16. A client is receiving 115 ml/hr of continuous IVF. The nurse notices that the venipuncture site is red and swollen. Which of the following interventions would the nurse perform first? a. Stop the infusion b. Call the attending physician c. Slow that infusion to 20 ml/hr d. Place a clod towel on the site The sign and symptoms indicate extravasation so the IVF should be stopped immediately and put warm not cold towel on the affected site.17. The nurse enters the room to give a prescribed medication but the patient is inside the bathroom. What should the nurse do? a. Leave the medication at the bedside and leave the room. b. After few minutes, return to that patients room and do not leave until the patient takes the medication. c. Instruct the patient to take the medication and leave it at the bedside. d. Wait for the patient to return to bed and just leave the medication at the bedside.This is to verify or to make sure that the medication was taken by the patient as directed.18. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action when administering NGT feeding? a. Place the feeding 20 inches above the pint if insertion of NGT. b. Introduce the feeding slowly. c. Instill 60ml of water into the NGT after feeding. d. Assist the patient in fowlers position.The height of the feeding is above 12 inches above the point of insertion, bot 20 inches. If the height of feeding is too high, this results to very rapid introduction of feeding. This may trigger nausea and vomiting.19. A female patient is being discharged after thyroidectomy. After providing the medication teaching. The nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is performing which professional role? a. Manager b. Caregiver c. Patient advocate d. EducatorWhen teaching a patient about medications before discharge, the nurse is acting as an educator. A caregiver provides direct care to the patient. The nurse acts as s patient advocate when making the patients wishes known to the doctor.20. Which data would be of greatest concern to the nurse when completing the nursing assessment of a 68-year-old woman hospitalized due to Pneumonia? a. Oriented to date, time and place b. Clear breath sounds c. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds and buccal cyanosis d. Hemoglobin of 13 g/dlCapillary refill greater than 3 seconds and buccal cyanosis indicate decreased oxygen to the tissues which requires immediate attention/intervention. Oriented to date, time and place, hemoglobin of 13 g/dl are normal data.21. During a change-of-shift report, it would be important for the nurse relinquishing responsibility for care of the patient to communicate. Which of the following facts to the nurse assuming responsibility for care of the patient? a. That the patient verbalized, My headache is gone. b. That the patients barium enema performed 3 days ago was negative c. Patients NGT was removed 2 hours ago d. Patients family came for a visit this morning.The change-of-shift report should indicate significant recent changes in the patients condition that the nurse assuming responsibility for care of the patient will need to monitor. The other options are not critical enough to include in the report.22. Which statement is the most appropriate goal for a nursing diagnosis of diarrhea? a. The patient will experience decreased frequency of bowel elimination. b. The patient will take anti-diarrheal medication. c. The patient will give a stool specimen for laboratory examinations. d. The patient will save urine for inspection by the nurse.The goal is the opposite, healthy response of the problem statement of the nursing diagnosis. In this situation, the problem statement is diarrhea.23. Which of the following is the most important purpose of planning care with this patient? a. Development of a standardized NCP. b. Expansion of the current taxonomy of nursing diagnosis c. Making of individualized patient care d. Incorporation of both nursing and medical diagnoses in patient careTo be effective, the nursing care plan developed in the planning phase of the nursing process must reflect the individualized needs of the patient.24. Using Maslows hierarchy of basic human needs, which of the following nursing diagnoses has the highest priority? a. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pain, as evidenced by shortness of breath. b. Anxiety related to impending surgery, as evidenced by insomnia. c. Risk of injury related to autoimmune dysfunction d. Impaired verbal communication related to tracheostomy, as evidenced by inability to speak.Physiologic needs (ex. Oxygen, fluids, nutrition) must be met before lower needs (such as safety and security, love and belongingness, self-esteem and self-actualization) can be met. Therefore, physiologic needs have the highest priority.25. When performing an abdominal examination, the patient should be in a supine position with the head of the bed at what position? a. 30 degrees b. 90 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 0 degreeThe patient should be positioned with the head of the bed completely flattened to perform an abdominal examination. If the head of the bed is elevated, the abdominal muscles and organs can be bunched up, altering the findings.1. Nurse Brenda is teaching a patient about a newly prescribed drug. What could cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed medications? a. Decreased plasma drug levels b. Sensory deficits c. Lack of family support d. History of Tourette syndromeSensory deficits could cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed medications. Decreased plasma drug levels do not alter the patients knowledge about the drug. A lack of family support may affect compliance, not knowledge retention. Toilette syndrome is unrelated to knowledge retention.2. When examining a patient with abdominal pain the nurse in charge should assess: Any quadrant first The symptomatic quadrant first The symptomatic quadrant last The symptomatic quadrant either second or thirdThe nurse should systematically assess all areas of the abdomen, if time and the patients condition permit, concluding with the symptomatic area. Otherwise, the nurse may elicit pain in the symptomatic area, causing the muscles in other areas to tighten. This would interfere with further assessment.3. The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the following should the nurse document as subjective data? Vital signs Laboratory test result Patients description of pain Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveformsSubjective data come directly from the patient and usually are recorded as direct quotations that reflect the patients opinions or feelings about a situation. Vital signs, laboratory test result, and ECG waveforms are examples of objective data.4. A male patient has a soft wrist-safety device. Which assessment finding should the nurse consider abnormal? A palpable radial pulse A palpable ulnar pulse Cool, pale fingers Pink nail bedsA safety device on the wrist may impair circulation and restrict blood supply to body tissues. Therefore, the nurse should assess the patient for signs of impaired circulation, such as cool, pale fingers. A palpable radial or lunar pulse and pink nail beds are normal findings.5. Which of the following planes divides the body longitudinally into anterior and posterior regions? Frontal plane Sagittal plane Midsagittal plane Transverse planeFrontal or coronal plane runs longitudinally at a right angle to a sagittal plane dividing the body in anterior and posterior regions. A sagittal plane runs longitudinally dividing the body into right and left regions; if exactly midline, it is called a midsagittal plane. A transverse plane runs horizontally at a right angle to the vertical axis, dividing the structure into superior and inferior regions.6. A female patient with a terminal illness is in denial. Indicators of denial include: Shock dismay Numbness Stoicism Preparatory griefShock and dismay are early signs of denial-the first stage of grief. The other options are associated with depressiona later stage of grief.7. The nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the bed to a chair. Which action does the nurse take during this patient transfer? Position the head of the bed flat Helps the patient dangle the legs Stands behind the patient Places the chair facing away from the bedAfter placing the patient in high Fowlers position and moving the patient to the side of the bed, the nurse helps the patient sit on the edge of the bed and dangle the legs; the nurse then faces the patient and places the chair next to and facing the head of the bed.8. A female patient who speaks a little English has emergency gallbladder surgery, during discharge preparation, which nursing action would best help this patient understand wound care instruction? Asking frequently if the patient understands the instruction Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to the patient. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the patient Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstrationDemonstrating by the nurse with a return demonstration by the patient ensures that the patient can perform wound care correctly. Patients may claim to understand discharge instruction when they do not. An interpreter of family member may communicate verbal or written instructions inaccurately.9. Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication, the nurse on the evening shift finds an unlabeled, filled syringe in the patients medication drawer. What should the nurse in charge do? Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the nurse was prepared to give Call the day nurse to verify the contents of the syringeAs a safety precaution, the nurse should discard an unlabeled syringe that contains medication. The other options are considered unsafe because they promote error.10. When administering drug therapy to a male geriatric patient, the nurse must stay especially alert for adverse effects. Which factor makes geriatric patients to adverse drug effects? Faster drug clearance Aging-related physiological changes Increased amount of neurons Enhanced blood flow to the GI tractAging-related physiological changes account for the increased frequency of adverse drug reactions in geriatric patients. Renal and hepatic changes cause drugs to clear more slowly in these patients. With increasing age, neurons are lost and blood flow to the GI tract decreases.11. A female patient is being discharged after cataract surgery. After providing medication teaching, the nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is performing which professional role? Manager Educator Caregiver Patient advocateWhen teaching a patient about medications before discharge, the nurse is acting as an educator. The nurse acts as a manager when performing such activities as scheduling and making patient care assignments. The nurse performs the care giving role when providing direct care, including bathing patients and administering medications and prescribed treatments. The nurse acts as a patient advocate when making the patients wishes known to the doctor.12. A female patient exhibits signs of heightened anxiety. Which response by the nurse is most likely to reduce the patients anxiety? Everything will be fine. Dont worry. Read this manual and then ask me any questions you may have. Why dont you listen to the radio? Lets talk about whats bothering you.Anxiety may result from feeling of helplessness, isolation, or insecurity. This response helps reduce anxiety by encouraging the patient to express feelings. The nurse should be supportive and develop goals together with the patient to give the patient some control over an anxiety-inducing situation. Because the other options ignore the patients feeling and block communication, they would not reduce anxiety.13. A scrub nurse in the operating room has which responsibility? Positioning the patient Assisting with gowning and gloving Handling surgical instruments to the surgeon Applying surgical drapesThe scrub nurse assist the surgeon by providing appropriate surgical instruments and supplies, maintaining strict surgical asepsis and, with the circulating nurse, accounting for all gauze, sponges, needles, and instruments. The circulating nurse assists the surgeon and scrub nurse, positions the patient, applies appropriate equipment and surgical drapes, assists with gowning and gloving, and provides the surgeon and scrub nurse with supplies.14. A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to give a prescribed medication. What should the nurse in charge do? Leave the medication at the patients bedside Tell the patient to be sure to take the medication. And then leave it at the bedside Return shortly to the patients room and remain there until the patient takes the medication Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave the medication at the bedsideThe nurse should return shortly to the patients room and remain there until the patient takes the medication to verify that it was taken as directed. The nurse should never leave medication at the patients bedside unless specifically requested to do so.15. The physician orders heparin, 7,500 units, to be administered subcutaneously every 6 hours. The vial reads 10,000 units per millilitre. The nurse should anticipate giving how much heparin for each dose? ml ml ml 1 mlThe nurse solves the problem as follows:10,000 units/7,500 units = 1 ml/X 10,000 X = 7,500 X= 7,500/10,000 or ml16. The nurse in charge measures a patients temperature at 102 degrees F. what is the equivalent Centigrade temperature? 39 degrees C 47 degrees C 38.9 degrees C 40.1 degrees CTo convert Fahrenheit degrees to centigrade, use this formula:C degrees = (F degrees 32) x 5/9 C degrees = (102 32) 5/9 + 70 x 5/9 38.9 degrees C17. To evaluate a patient for hypoxia, the physician is most likely to order which laboratory test? Red blood cell count Sputum culture Total hemoglobin Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysisAll of these test help evaluate a patient with respiratory problems. However, ABG analysis is the only test evaluates gas exchange in the lungs, providing information about patients oxygenation status.18. The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male patients chest. Which statement about a stethoscope with a bell and diaphragm is true? The bell detects high-pitched sounds best The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best The bell detects thrills best The diaphragm detects low-pitched sounds bestThe diaphragm of a stethoscope detects high-pitched sound best; the bell detects low pitched sounds best. Palpation detects thrills best.19. A male patient is to be discharged with a prescription for an analgesic that is a controlled substance. During discharge teaching, the nurse should explain that the patient must fill this prescription how soon after the date on which it was written? Within 1 month Within 3 months Within 6 months Within 12 monthsIn most cases, an outpatient must fill a prescription for a controlled substance within 6 months of the date on which the prescription was written.20. Which human element considered by the nurse in charge during assessment can affect drug administration? The patients ability to recover The patients occupational hazards The patients socioeconomic status The patients cognitive abilitiesThe nurse must consider the patients cognitive abilities to understand drug instructions. If not, the nurse must find a family member or significant other to take on the responsibility of administering medications in the home setting. The patients ability to recover, occupational hazards, and socioeconomic status do not affect drug administration.21. When explaining the initiation of I.V. therapy to a 2-year-old child, the nurse should: Ask the child, Do you want me to start the I.V. now? Give simple directions shortly before the I.V. therapy is to start Tell the child, This treatment is for your own good Inform the child that the needle will be in place for 10 daysBecause a 2-year-old child has limited understanding, the nurse should give simple directions and explanations of what will occur shortly before the procedure. She should try to avoid frightening the child with the explanation and allow the child to make simple choices, such as choosing the I.V. insertion site, if possible. However, she shouldnt ask the child if he wants the therapy, because the answer may be No! Telling the child that the treatment is for his own good is ineffective because a 2-year-old perceives pain as a negative sensation and cannot understand that a painful procedure can have position results. Telling the child how long the therapy will last is ineffective because the 2-year-old doesnt have a good understanding of time.22. All of the following parts of the syringe are sterile except the: Barrel Inside of the plunger Needle tip Barrel tipAll syringes have three parts: a tip, which connects the needle to the syringe; a barrel, the outer part on which the measurement scales are printed; and a plunger, which fits inside the barrel to expel the medication. The external part of the barrel and the plunger and (flange) must be handled during the preparation and administration of the injection. However, the inside and trip of the barrel, the inside (shaft) of the plunger, and the needle tip must remain sterile until after the injection.23. The best way to instill eye drops is to: Instruct the patient to lock upward, and drop the medication into the center of the lower lid Instruct the patient to look ahead, and drop the medication into the center of the lower lid Drop the medication into the inner canthus regardless of eye position Drop the medication into the center of the canthus regardless of eye positionHaving the patient look upward reduces blinking and protects the cornea. Instilling drops in the center of the lower lid promotes absorption because the drops are less likely to run into the nasolacrimal duct or out of the eye.24. The difference between an 18G needle and a 25G needle is the needles: Length Bevel angle Thickness SharpnessGauge is a measure of the needles thickness: The higher the number the thinner the shaft. Therefore, an 18G needle is considerably thicker than a 25G needle.25. A patient receiving an anticoagulant should be assessed for signs of: Hypotension Hypertension An elevated hemoglobin count An increased number of erythrocytesA major side effect of anticoagulant therapy is bleeding, which can be identified by hypotension (a systolic blood pressure under 100 mm Hg). Anticoagulants do not result in the other three conditions.