air traffic controller training initiative (at-cti) program · 2012-01-21 · 3 1. the air traffic...

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Air Traffic Controller Training Initiative (AT-CTI) Program

Updated: 1/21/2012 V2.0

Student Air Traffic Basics Review Guide

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Change Log V2.0 Added references to all answers in the key section V1.0 Original

This document was created by and distributed by the FAA AT CTI Program Office to CTI Institutions for dissemination to those students who are participating in the Air Traffic CTI Program

This “AT Basics Review Guide” is intended to refresh and test student knowledge of the material required to master the knowledge needed to enter “Initial Training” at the FAA Academy. A thorough knowledge of the contents including context of the material is important to being prepared to success during you your training.

This document is not to be sold under any circumstances. Students may use the portable document format (.pdf) to print for personal use.

This document is provided as general guidance and information. This document will be updated as necessary. Although great care has been exercised to ensure its accuracy always consult the appropriate source documents. This document does not supersede any other document.

Questions, comments, corrections, or suggestions should be directed to Terry Craft [email protected] AJL‐14,

ATO Technical Training

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1. The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n) .

A. Associate Administrator

B. Vice President

C. Chief Operating Officer

D. Administrator 2. According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of .

A. nine regions

B. three service areas

C. eleven FAA primary offices

D. four FAA Headquarters divisions

3. The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation’s airways in the National Airspace System (NAS)

are .

A. marker beacons

B. VORs/VORTACs

C. Non Directional Beacons (NDBs)

D. Instrument Landing Systems (ILSs) 4. The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to _.

A. regulate air traffic procedures

B. balance system demand with system capacity

C. implement the use of state-of-the-art equipment

D. ascertain controller stress and workload

5. The mission of the is to balance air traffic demand with the system’s capacity to ensure that the

maximum and most efficient utilization of the NAS is maintained.

A. Traffic Management System (TMS)

B. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

D. FAA Headquarters

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6. The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to .

A. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives

B. ensure maximum efficiency in the utilization of the total National Airspace System, thereby producing a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic

C. manage the flow of air traffic throughout the National Airspace System to achieve optimum use of the navigable airspace and minimize the effect of air traffic delays

D. manage the flow of tower traffic by ensuring that traffic demand does not exceed operationally minimal levels of traffic

7. The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to .

A. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic

B. provide traffic advisories

C. monitor holding patterns

D. advise pilots of altitude deviations of 300 feet or more

8. The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules

(VFR) traffic is the .

A. Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)

B. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)

C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

D. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) 9. The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the _.

A. ATCT

B. ARTCC

C. ATCSCC

D. AFSS

10. Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries?

A. In Flight

B. Broadcast

C. Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator

D. Preflight

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11. Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower?

A. Operating communication equipment

B. Processing and forwarding flight plan information

C. Compiling statistical data

D. Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback

12. The position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways).

A. Local Control

B. Ground Control

C. Clearance Delivery

D. Flight Data

13. In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and

efficient operation of a sector?

A. Facility Manager

B. Radar Position

C. Radar Associate Position

D. Radar Team

14. The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is .

A. ATCT

B. AFSS

C. TRACON

D. ARTCC

15. The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the position.

A. Radar Coordinator

B. Radar Associate

C. Radar

D. Radar Flight Data

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16. When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to _.

A. coordinating

B. issuing traffic

C. separating aircraft

D. vectoring

17. Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when _.

A. an operational advantage will be gained

B. the aircraft is not transponder equipped

C. secondary radar is out of service

D. controller is not radar qualified 18. “Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft” is an example of .

A. Operational Priority

B. Procedural Preference

C. Duty Priority

D. Additional Services

19. All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT:

A. Loading Passengers

B. Landing

C. Maintenance D Parking 20. A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway .

A. 0

B. 1

C. 3

D. 36

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21. An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of .

A. 22R, 22C, 22L

B. 21R, 21C, 21L

C. 21R, 21L, 22C

D. 22R, 22L, 21

22. What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area?

A. Runway side stripes

B. Dashed side stripes

C. Runway centerlines

D. Dashed centerlines

23. A(n) consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar.

A. stabilized area

B. abandoned runway

C. relocated threshold

D. displaced threshold

24. A is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold.

A. blast pad

B. closed runway

C. relocated threshold

D. dislocated threshold 25. Runway provide alignment guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of

uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.

A. aiming points

B. centerlines

C. thresholds

D. touchdown zones

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26. What color are taxiway edge lights?

A. White

B. Amber

C. Blue

D. Red 27. Civil land airports have rotating beacons that .

A. flash white and green

B. flash two white and one green

C. flash white

D. flash green

28. Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of

.

A. Runway End Identifier Lights

B. Taxiway lights

C. In-runway lights

D. Runway edge lights 29. Threshold lights are .

A. white/yellow

B. green/yellow

C. white/red

D. green/red 30. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are .

A. AIS and NOTAMs

B. NFDC and NOTAMs

C. NAS and NFDC

D. AIS and AFSS

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31. Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?

A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid

B. Center in whose area the outage occurs

C. Terminal in whose area the outage occurs

D. Automated Flight Service Station

32. A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a .

A. NOTAM D

B. Military NOTAM

C. Pointer NOTAM

D. FDC NOTAM

33. A NOTAM that consists of information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight, such as changes to IFR charts, is classified as a/an:

A. NOTAM D

B. Military NOTAM

C. Pointer NOTAM

D. FDC NOTAM

34. Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to _.

A. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

B. NFDC

C. ARTCCs

D. AFSSs

35. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?

A. Airport manager/operator

B. Tower controller

C. Pilot

D. Flight service specialist

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36. Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are:

A. GENOT, RENOT and SERNOT

B. PIREP, ALNOT and INREQ

C. AIRMET, SIGMET and MIS

D. FDC, POINTER and MILITARY 37. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7110.65?

A. Prescribes air traffic procedures used by Flight Service specialists

B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers

C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities

D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

38. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7210.3?

A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists




39. Revised, reprinted, or new pages in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by bold .

A. asterisks

B. horizontal lines

C. vertical lines

D. stars






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41. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “may” means that the procedure is _.

A. recommended

B. approved

C. optional

D. mandatory 42. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.8?

A. Aeronautical Information Manual

B. Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA



43. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is .

A. shall

B. may

C. should

D. will

44. Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters?

A. GANOT

B. GENOT

C. GENNOT

D. GNOT

45. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is recommended is .

A. shall

B. may

C. should

D. will

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46. What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid having instructions scattered among several directives?

A. FAA Order JO 7110.65

B. Notices

C. Supplements

D. Changes

47. Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?


B. FAA Order JO 7110.10

C. Aeronautical Information Manual

D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

48. Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures?




D. FAA Order JO 7350.8

49. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “will” means .

A. recommended

B. not a requirement for application of a procedure

C. optional

D. mandatory

50. Many FAA orders are divided into chapters, sections, and .

A. groups

B. subsections

C. stanzas

D. paragraphs

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51. The lower limit of Class B airspace is .

A. 1,200 feet AGL

B. 1,200 feet MSL

C. 1,500 feet AGL

D. the surface

52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number

B. Established outside Class A airspace

C. Activities include low altitude, high-speed flight

D. MOAs are depicted on Sectional Aeronautical and En Route Low altitude charts

53. The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is _.

A. up to but not including FL450

B. FL450

C. up to but not including FL600

D. FL600

54. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?

A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement

B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude

C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare

D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number

55. A Warning Area is established beyond NM from the coast of the United States.

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 12

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56. The upper limit of Class G airspace is .

A. 1200 AGL

B. 1200 MSL

C. the base of the overlying airspace

D. the base of Class E airspace 57. What airspace contains federal airways?

A. Class A

B. Class C

C. Class E

D. Class G

58. What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower?

A. Class B

B. Class C

C. Class D

D. Class E

59. Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as airspace.

A. controlled

B. Class E

C. Special Use

D. Class G

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FOR ITEMS 60 THROUGH 64, MATCH THE CLASS OF AIRSPACE IN COLUMN B WITH THE CORRECT DESCRIPTION/CHARACTERISTIC IN COLUMN A. ANSWERS MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.

Question Answer A B

60 Generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL A. Class A (LP, p. 6) A

61 VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to B. Class B enter this

airspace(LP, p. 6) B

62 Requires all aircraft to be IFR (LP, p. 5) C

63 No transponder is required (LP, p. 10 D

64 VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft (LP, p. 8)

65. A pilot operating above 12,500 feet MSL, up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, must use supplemental oxygen _.

A. constantly

B. after 1 hour of flight

C. after 15 minutes of flight

D. after 30 minutes of flight

66. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in class and

airspace.

A. B;C

B. C;D

C. B;E

D. A;E

67. If takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a particular airport, the minimum visibility required for an air taxi aircraft having two engines or less is statute mile(s).

A. 1/2

B. 1 C. 11/2

D. 2

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68. Aircraft operating on an airway at the published MOCA are only guaranteed within of the VOR serving the airway.

A. terrain clearance; 22SM

B. terrain clearance; 22NM

C. NAVAID signal; 22SM

D. NAVAID signal; 22NM

69. Which of the following statements regarding “VFR on top” (OTP) is true?

A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP

B. Pilots maintaining OTP are required to obtain ATC approval prior to changing altitude

C. Pilots maintaining OTP may, after advising ATC, deviate from their cleared route

D. Traffic advisories will not be provided by ATC

70. An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall _.

A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable

B. return IFR to point of departure

C. squawk code 7500

D. proceed to nearest airport and execute an IFR approach

71. Which of the following would not be an assigned flight level?

A. FL360

B. FL320

C. FL240

D. FL160

72. An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is:

A. 2,000 MSL

B. 2,500 MSL

C. 3,500 MSL

D. 4,500 MSL

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73. Which one of the following items is not required on a VFR flight plan?

A. Pilot’s name and address

B. Fuel on board

C. Name of each occupant

D. Type of aircraft 74. A pilot shall file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will .

A. be in instrument flight conditions

B. enter positive control airspace

C. enter coastal ADIZ

D. enter Class D airspace

75. VFR aircraft in class E airspace at or above , must maintain visibility. because there is

no speed limit at that altitude.

A. 1200 feet AGL; 3SM

B. 1200 feet AGL; 5SM

C. 10,000 MSL; 3SM

D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM 76. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding SVFR clearances to fixed wing aircraft?

A. The pilot must request SVFR clearance

B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed

C. Flight visibility must be at least 1SM

D. SVFR shall only be approved below 10,000 MSL

77. The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the

four choices are not included in the definition?

A. Mach buffet

B. Rotorwash

C. Propeller wash

D. Jet blast

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78. Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to .

A. taxi

B. generate lift

C. slow on approach

D. touchdown on the runway 79. is jet engine exhaust.

A. Prop-wash

B. Wake turbulence

C. Jet blast

D. Counter control

80. A wing allows for a stronger vortex to be generated, because without flaps the wing has a smaller

area and wing loading is greater per square foot.

A. delta

B. clean configured

C. high

D. low 81. With zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of knots.

A. 10to20

B. 5to10

C. 2to3

D. 0

82. Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the

of the vortex.

A. vertical limits

B. outer edges

C. sink rate

D. induced roll

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83. Downwash is created by .

A. Propeller driven aircraft

B. Jet aircraft

C. Helicopters

D. Turboprop airplane 84. Circles parallel to the equator are called .

A. great circles

B. parallels of longitude

C. meridians

D. parallels of latitude

85. The Prime Meridian is the .

A. great circle passing through the north and south poles

B. line located at 0°latitude

C. great circle running east and west around the earth

D. line located at zero degrees (0°) longitude

86. Positions on the earth’s surface are described in terms of .

A. latitude and longitude

B. latitude and parallels

C. degrees and arcs

D. longitude and meridians 87. A nautical mile equals statute miles (SM).

A. .87

B. 1.15

C. 1.5

D. 1.87

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88. Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is also referred to as time.

A. Alfa

B. Charlie

C. X-ray

D. Zulu

89. Time zones are established for every .

A. 15’ of longitude

B. 15°of latitude

C. 15°of longitude

D. 15’ of latitude

90. How do you convert local Daylight Savings Time to UTC?

A. Subtract the conversion factor.

B. Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour.

C. Subtract the conversion factor, then add 1 hour.

D. Add the conversion factor, then add 1 hour.

91. The angular difference between true and magnetic north at a given location is called .

A. correction

B. variation

C. compensation

D. deviation

92. King Air 2425K departed “A” at 2228 UTC. With a consistent 180-knot ground speed, N2425K arrived at destination “E” at 0258 UTC. How long did it take the aircraft to cover the distance from “B” to “C?”

A B C D E

160NM ? 105NM 185NM

A. 1.5 HR

B. 2HR

C. 1.75 HR

D. 2.25 HR

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93. Parallels and meridians are divided into _, minutes and seconds.

A. circles

B. days

C. degrees

D. hours 94. 100 nautical miles equals statute miles.

A. 130

B. 95

C. 87

D. 115

95. The basic form of navigation which uses visual reference to landmarks is _.

A. pilotage

B. dead reckoning

C. rate, time, and distance

D. radio navigation

96. 2 PM on a 24-hour clock equals .

A. 1200

B. 0200

C. 2200

D. 1400

97. An aircraft departs Denver at 9 P.M. (MST) and travels 3 hours, landing in Boston (EST). What was the

aircrafts arrival time UTC? (conversion factor EST to UTC is +5)

A. 0700

B. 1700

C. 0200

D. 0600

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98. A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) .

A. isogonic line

B. agonic line

C. magnetic line

D. meridian

99. How long would it take an aircraft with a ground speed of 130 knots to fly 650 NM?

A. 4 hours, 30 minutes

B. 5 hours

C. 5 hours, 30 minutes

D. 6 hours

100. The purpose of parallels of latitude is for measuring degrees of latitude _.

A. east and west of the equator

B. north and south of the equator

C. north and south of the Prime Meridian

D. east and west of the Prime Meridian

101. A pilot has determined the true heading from Oklahoma City to Kansas City is 020°. The magnetic variation is 7°E. What magnetic heading should be flown?

A. 013°

B. 020°

C. 027°

D. 031°

102. The only line of latitude that is a great circle is the .

A. Prime Meridian

B. Equator

C. International Dateline

D. Rhumb Line

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103. An aircraft encounters a 20 KT crosswind and makes no heading correction. After 1 hour of flight, how far off course would the aircraft be?

A. 10NM

B. 10SM

C. 20NM

D. 20SM

104. At high altitudes, .

A. an aircraft’s IAS is significantly higher than it’s TAS

B. an aircraft’s TAS is significantly higher than it’s IAS

C. an aircraft’s groundspeed is always equal to it’s TAS

D. an aircraft’s IAS is always equal to it’s TAS

105. In the airport data “18 L 100 122.8” on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart, the number “18” indicates the _.

A. airport elevation

B. length of the longest runway

C. runway number of the primary runway

D. height of the tallest obstruction within 5 nautical miles 106. VFR flyway planning charts are found on _.

A. IFR/VFR planning charts

B. VFR Terminal Area Charts

C. Sectional Charts

D. WAC Charts

107. Frequencies placed just above a communication box on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are used to contact

which type of facility?

A. En Route Air Traffic Control Center

B. Approach Control

C. Tower

D. Automated Flight Service Station

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108. The boundary of Class C airspace is depicted on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart by a solid line.

A. blue

B. magenta

C. brown

D. black

109. Which document would be most useful to a controller when recommending a suitable airport to a pilot in the event of an emergency?

A. JO 7110.65

B. Aeronautical Information Manual

C. Airport/Facility Directory

D. Letter of Agreement

110. Information NOT found on sectional aeronautical charts are .

A. MEAs and MOCAs

B. VOR, VORTAC’s, NDB’s, as well as their position, identification, and frequencies

C. MOAs, Restricted, Prohibited, Alert and Warning Areas

D. airports

111. The Airport/Facility Directory is published every days.

A. 28

B. 56

C. 112

D. 180

112. What chart(s) or publication would you use to find out if an airport has a control tower, and the tower

frequency?

A. Sectional Aeronautical Chart

B. Terminal Area Chart


D. All of the above

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113. The graphic depiction of a SID or STAR is found in the section of the chart.

A. margin

B. planview

C. textual description

D. legend 114. SIDs are listed alphabetically in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication -first under

then under .

A. SIDs, STARs

B. airport name, city

C. Index, Legend

D. city, airport name 115. Which statement is true regarding a SID?

A. A pilot may accept a SID when possessing only the textual description

B. SIDs are normally assigned by En Route controllers..

C. If a SID exists for the departure airport, the pilot must be prepared to accept it as part of the clearance.

D. Pilots are encouraged to include the phrase “No SID” in their flight plans if they do not want a SID.

116. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) are air traffic control procedures used at busier airports to do all of the following except _.

A. simplify clearance delivery

B. expedite traffic flow

C. facilitate noise abatement procedures

D. reduce pilot/controller workload

117. A STAR is designed to simplify clearance delivery and facilitate transition between .

A. procedure turns and final approaches

B. takeoffs and en route operations

C. the airport departure and the destination airport

D. en route and instrument approach operations

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118. To accept a clearance for the DANDD 5 arrival to Denver, the pilot must be in possession of the for that STAR.

A. altitude restrictions

B. approved chart

C. pertinent frequencies

D. Planview

119. Which statement is true regarding a STAR?

A. A STAR is designed to provide a transition for departures from the airport into the en route environment.

B. One STAR may serve several airports.

C. Several STARs may be included on a single chart.

D. STARs are located with the Instrument Approach Procedures in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication, while SIDs have their own section in the front of the book.

120. To locate a SID or STAR, select the correct U.S. Terminal Procedures Volume, then before using it,

_.

A. look in the index under airport name.

B. look in the index under city name.

C. find the appropriate section.

D. check for currency.

MATCH THE SYMBOL IN COLUMN A WITH THE APPROPRIATE DESCRIPTION OR DATA IN COLUMN B.

Question Answer A B

121

A. Lost communications track

122

B. Minimum altitude

123

C. Transition route

124 5500 D. VORTAC

125

E. Non-Compulsory Reporting Point

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Question Answer A B

126

A. DME mileage

127

B. Departure-Arrival Route

128

C. Holding pattern

129

D. Distance not to scale

130

E. Airport

131. Which of the following is assigned by ATC to a single aircraft and used for radar identification and flight

tracking?

A. non-discrete code

B. discrete code

C. mode C

D. aircraft identification

132. Which instrument is NOT connected to the pitot-static system?

A. Airspeed indicator

B. Vertical speed indicator

C. Attitude indicator

D. Altimeter

133. What may be obtained from the attitude indicator?

A. Rate of turn

B. Degrees of bank

C. Height above sea level

D. Rate of climb

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134. The major components of the pitot-static system are the .

A. absolute and indicated altitude indicators

B. vacuum pump and regulator

C. attitude and heading indicators

D. impact and static pressure chambers, and lines

135. As a controller, when an aircraft under your control jurisdiction informs you that it is responding to a TCAS RA, you .

A. are responsible for maintaining separation from the intruder aircraft.

B. shall not issue instructions contrary to the RA.

C. may discontinue traffic advisories and safety alerts.

D. shall immediately issue an amended clearance.

136. Because of precession, the heading indicator is periodically set by the pilot to agree with the .

A. attitude indicator

B. altimeter

C. magnetic compass

D. Directional Gyro (DG)

137. In order to fly a desired course toward a VOR station, the pilot must ensure that the aircraft’s heading agrees with the course set on the VOR course selector, the instrument displays a “TO” indication, and the _.

A. VOR needle is centered

B. aircraft is not climbing or descending

C. magnetic compass is not precessed

D. airspeed is constant

138. The altimeter depends on which of the following for its operation?

A. Pitot tube.

B. Gyro.

C. Static port.

D. Rudder.

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139. A transponder code consists of four numbers from zero to seven with possible codes.

A 4,006

B. 4,066

C. 4,086

D. 4,096

140. The FMS is .

A. a computer data base used for navigation

B. a radio NAVAID receiver

C. a gyroscopic instrument

D. Inoperable with a clogged pitot

141. In most small aircraft, if the vacuum pump fails, which instruments become inoperative?

A. Airspeed indicator and turn and bank

B. Altimeter and directional gyro

C. Heading indicator and attitude indicator

D. Vertical speed indicator and attitude indicator

142. Hypoxia is a condition of the body that exists when there is .

A. a lack of oxygen in the body tissue

B. a lack of oxygen in the air

C. excessively fast breathing

D. a lack of carbon dioxide in the body

143. An interagency agreement that provides for the effective utilization of all available facilities during search and rescue missions is called a(an) _.

A. Search and Rescue Mission

B. Rescue Coordination Center

C. National Search and Rescue Plan

D. Alert Notice

144. When a VFR aircraft becomes overdue, who initiates the INREQ message?

A. ARTCC

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B. AFSS

C. RCC

D. ATCT

145. The ALNOT search area is generally described as _.

A. 100 miles either side of the route of flight from departure point to destination

B. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from departure point to destination

C. 100 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination

D. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination

146. The transfer of search responsibility to RCC is done _.

A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results

B. if the aircraft has not been located within 30 minutes after issuance of the ALNOT

C. 1 hour past ETA

D. at fuel exhaustion time plus 1 hour

147. An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is considered overdue when it fails to arrive and communications or location cannot be established.

A. 15

B. 30

C. 45

D. 60

minutes after its ETA

148. A pilot requesting Lake Reporting Service will report every 10 minutes. Search and rescue must be initiated

if no report is received in minutes.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 30

D. 60

31

149. Consider an IFR aircraft overdue and take appropriate action when .

A. 30 minutes has passed since an ETA over a compulsory reporting point

B. 30 minutes has passed since clearance void time

C. you have reason to believe the aircraft is overdue

D. any of the above

150. Which of the following is a characteristic of a temperature inversion?

A. They cannot form along frontal zones

B. Decreased temperatures with increased altitude

C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude

D. They never occur at or near the surface of the earth

151. When de-icing or anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the icing hazard, the icing is categorized

as .

A. extreme

B. severe

C. moderate

D. heavy

152. A sudden wind shift, even at low speeds, can be hazardous on takeoff and landing because it can .

A. cause engine failure

B. cause wing failure

C. cause the plane to bounce on the runway

D. quickly become a crosswind or tailwind

153. Which airplane would be most at risk from a 25-knot crosswind on landing?

A. General aviation, single propeller

B. Corporate business jet

C. Commercial jetliner

D. Military cargo transport

32

154. Water vapor, lift, and unstable air are necessary for the formation of .

A. a thunderstorm cell

B. wind shear

C. icing

D. hail

155. Low-level wind shear is a change in windspeed of knots or more within feet AGL.

A. 25; 1,000

B. 10; 2,000

C. 25; 2,000

D. 10; 1,000

156. Airplane performance gradually degrades as the wind _.

A. turns perpendicular to the runway

B. decreases suddenly

C. passes over a mountain range

D. is trapped in a valley

157. Severe damage can occur if is ingested into an engine.

A. snow

B. volcanic ash

C. smoke

D. mist

158. An area as large as 10 miles or more of strong damaging winds reaching speeds as high as 120 knots, on or near the ground, is a .

A. wind shear

B. microburst

C. downburst

D. funnel cloud

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159. Which stage of a thunderstorm is characterized by updrafts exceeding 3,000 feet per minute?

A. Towering cumulus

B. Mature

C. Virga

D. Dissipating

160. What type of turbulence is caused by any obstruction to the wind, such as buildings or mountains?

A. Physical

B. Mechanical

C. Convective

D. Clear air

161. What type of turbulence causes occupants to be forced violently against seat belts or shoulder straps, unsecured objects to be tossed about, and makes food service and walking impossible?

A. Light

B. Moderate

C. Severe

D. Trace

152. Which effect occurs to airplanes on departure during a high density altitude condition?

A. A slower rate of climb.

B. A shorter takeoff roll is required.

C. A higher rate of climb.

D. An increase in thrust.

163. Which of the following is NOT true regarding fog?

A. Fog reduces horizontal visibility to less than 5/8 SM

B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard

C. Fog forms when the temperature and dewpoint spread is at or near zero

D. Fog is a cloud with it’s base at the earth’s surface.

34

164. Light turboprop aircraft are more susceptible to icing than commercial jet aircraft because they typically fly .

A. during the daytime

B. at higher speeds

C. at higher altitudes

D. at lower altitudes

165. The valid period of a routine TAF beginning at 0000Z on the 10th day of the month would be coded as .

A. 1000/1100

B. 1000/1104

C. 1000/1112

D. 1000/1024

166. A forecast of non-convective LLWS would be found in what NWS product?

A. SIGMET

B. TAF

C. Convective SIGMET

D. SPECI

167. Which of the following NWS products is scheduled?

A. AIRMET ZULU

B. SIGMET

C. MIS

D. CWA

168. A forecast of visibility less than one mile would be found in what NWS product?

A. SIGMET

B. AIRMET SIERRA

C. CWA

D. METAR 169. Based on the following TAF, what is the earliest time thunderstorms can be expected? KOKC 051130Z

35

0512/0612 14008KT 5SM BR BKN030

TEMPO 0513/0516 1 1/2SM BR FM051600 16010KT P6SM SKC FM051900 20013G25KT 4SM SHRA OVC020 FM060500 20010G20KT 2SM SHRA BKN010 PROB30 0507 2SM TSRA OVC008CB FM060800 21015KT P6SM SCT040=

A. 5th day at 1200Z

B. 5th day at 1900Z

C. 6th day at 1600Z

D. 6th day at 0500Z

170. What will temporarily restrict the visibility on the 22nd at 0730Z?

A. Light snow

B. Light snow, freezing mist

C. Light snow showers, freezing mist

D. (Moderate) snow showers, freezing fog 171. Which altitude is forecast to have occasional severe turbulence?

A. 8,500 feet

B. Flight level 180

C. Flight level 320

D. Flight level 410

36

172. What is the forecast movement of the area of severe embedded thunderstorms?

A. From 150 degrees at 21 knots

B. From 150 degrees at 55 mph

C. From 210 degrees at 15 knots

D. From 210 degrees at 60 mph 9. Which hazards are forecast for Kentucky (KY) at 1700Z?

173. Which hazards are forecast for Kentucky (KY) at 1700Z?

A. IFR; strong surface winds greater than 30 knots

B. IFR; moderate turbulence below 1,000 feet

C. Moderate turbulence below 1,000 feet; low-level wind shear

37

D. Moderate turbulence below 10,000 feet; low-level wind shear

174. Which hazard is forecast in the Jacksonville ARTCC (ZJX) airspace?

A. Low-level wind shear below 500 feet

B. Moderate turbulence below 500 feet

C. IFR

D. Low IFR (LOW IFR) 175. Which statement is true concerning the product below?

A. The product is valid until the 3rd day of the month at 0200Z

B. A warm front will reach the Cleveland control area by late Sunday afternoon

C. Icing is forecast between the surface and 12,000 feet

D. Pilots and dispatchers are the primary users of this product 176. What is the forecast wind and temperature at Alamosa, CO (ALS) at FL340?

38

A. Wind two three two at two six, temperature four five

B. Wind two three two at six , temperature minus four five

C. Wind two three zero at two six gusts four five

D. Wind two three zero at two six, temperature minus four five

177. AFSSs are identified by stating name of the facility followed by what?

A. Flight Service

B. Flight Watch

C. Radio

D. Broadcast

178. What is the call sign for a civil aircraft with the President aboard?

A. “AIR FORCE ONE”

B. “EXECUTIVE ONE PRESIDENT”

C. “PRESIDENT ONE”

D. “EXECUTIVE ONE”

179. Jet route 35 would be spoken as .

A. “J THIRTY-FIFE”

B. “JET ROUTE THREE FIFE”

C. “Q - THIRTY-FIFE”

D. “J THREE FIFE”

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180. Which of the following is the correct way to state an assigned altitude of 16,000 feet?

A. One six zero hundred

B. One six zero zero zero

C. One six thousand

D. One six zero thousand

181. An action to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another when the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communication is transferred is a .

A. point out

B. handover

C. handoff

D. transfer

182. What is the action whereby the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is transferred from one controller to another?

A. Transfer of control

B. Transfer of communications

C. Point out

D. Handoff

183. How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?

A. ”Zero six four two zulu”

B. ”Zero six four two local”

C. ”Zero six four two alpha mike”

D. ”Oh six four two zulu”

184. According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “C-H-A-P” should be pronounced _.

A. CHARLIE HONEY ALFA PETER

B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA

C. CHARLIE HECTOR ALFA PAPA

D. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PETER

185. The terminology for stating an altimeter of 28.72 is _.

40

A. “Altimeter two eight point seven two”

B. “Altimeter two eight decimal seven two”

C. “Altimeter two eight seven two”

D. “Altimeter twenty-eight seventy-two” 186. The surface wind is from 170 degrees at 20 knots. This would be stated as _.

A. “Wind one seventy at twenty knots”

B. “Wind south at twenty knots”

C. “Wind one seven zero at zero two zero”

D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero”

187. When can a pilot interrupt their communications guard?

A. When requested

B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established

C. When requested and in VFR conditions

D. At any time 188. How often are interphones and assigned frequencies to be monitored?

A. According to the level of traffic in the area

B. At half-hour intervals

C. Continuously

D. Hourly

189. During which step in the relief process does the relieving specialist check, verify, and update the position

information obtained?

A. Preview the position

B. Verbal briefing

C. Assumption of position responsibility

D. Review the position 190. When stating flight levels, an aircraft at 28,000 feet would be said to be at an altitude of .

ANSWER: “Flight level two eight zero” (LP, p. 11)

41

191. Runway 31C would be spoken as _.

ANSWER: “Runway tree one center” (LP, p. 17) 192. The phraseology for contacting Columbia Automated Flight Service Station would be .

ANSWER: “COLUMBIA RADIO” (LP, p. 24)

193. The first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is .

ANSWER: emergencies (LP, p. 47)

194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.

1.) Preview position

2.) Verbal briefing

3.) Assumption of position responsibility

4.) Position review

195. Which item is always included in a clearance?

A. Aircraft identification

B. Departure procedure

C. Holding instructions

D. Altitude

196. The purpose of an ATC clearance is to .

A. relieves controller stress.

B. provides classified instructions to pilots.

C. prevent collision between known aircraft.

D. provide for emergency situations.

197. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall comply with all provisions of an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance has been obtained, an emergency exists or _.

A. conducting military operations

B. participating in a speed run

C. operating aircraft in IFR conditions

D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory

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198. Select the correct sequence of the following clearance items:

1. Route of flight 2. Holding instructions 3. Aircraft identification 4. Clearance limit 5. Mach number, if applicable 6. Altitude data in order flown 7. Frequency and beacon code information 8. Departure procedure or DP/FMSP 9. Any special instructions

A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7

B. 3,8,1,2,4,5,9,6,7

C. 3,9,8,7,4,1,6,2,5

D. 3,1,6,4,8,5,2,7,9

199. Use prefixes when relaying , , or through non-ATC facilities.

A. clearances, instructions, reports

B. information, instructions, requests

C. clearances, information, requests

D. instructions, reports, requests

200. The type of clearance that provides for intermediate stops while en route is a/an Clearance.

A. Approach

B. Through

C. Composite

D. Cruise 201. An authorization for a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including

the altitude specified in the IFR clearance is a/an Clearance.

A. Cruise B.

Landing C.

Approach

D. Composite

43

202. Considering the prescribed order of clearance items, which of the following clearances is correct?

A. “United seventy seven, descend and maintain one zero thousand, fly heading two four zero for spacing.”

B. “Lifeguard tree echo foxtrot, cleared to the Tulsa VORTAC, hold west, descend and maintain one zero thousand.”

C. “Continental twenty tree, cleared to the Little Rock airport, climb and maintain flight level two three zero via J twenty, squawk four four two seven.”

D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.”

203. Holding an aircraft is NOT used for .

A. en route traffic

B. position relief

C. flow control

D. spacing 204. The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is feet.

A. 10,000

B. 5,000

C. 2,000

D. 1,000

205. The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL410 is feet.

A. 5,000

B. 2,000

C. 1,000

D. 4,000

206. Minimum vertical separation below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is feet.

A. 4,000

B. 2,000

C. 1,000

D. 500

44

206. To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all

A. aircraft are cleared to make right turns.

B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.

C. leg lengths are specified in minutes.

D. aircraft are using the same NAVAID to hold from.

207. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?

A. Lateral

B. Longitudinal

C. Vertical

D. Visual

208. Standard radar separation provided by an en route facility between two aircraft at FL270 is miles.

A. 3

B. 5

C. 10

D. 20

209. Terminal radar separation minima require that when two aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna,

separation is required; when two aircraft are 40 miles or more from the antenna, separation is required.

A. 3 miles; 5 miles

B. 3 miles; 6 miles

C. 5 miles; 3 miles

D. 5 miles; 10 miles

210. Controllers may use visual separation _.

A. up to, but not including, FL180

B. at FL180 and below

C. up to and including 18,000 feet MSL

D. up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL

45

211. Runway separation is applied by controllers.

A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)

C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)

D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

212. Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?

A. Primary radar

B. Airport radar

C. Secondary radar

D. Global position radar 213. What is a radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of

objects?

A. Transponder

B. Radar

C. Nondirectional beacon

D. VORTAC 214. The primary radar display depicts the and of objects that reflect radio energy.

A. position; altitude

B. position; movement

C. altitude; speed

D. movement; speed

215. What are two types of radar jamming?

A. Position and passive

B. Action and active

C. Precise and passive

D. Passive and active

46

216. Which is not a component of a primary radar system?

A. Transmitter

B. Interrogator

C. Antenna

D. Receiver

217. Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?

A. Circular Polarization

B. Linear Polarization

C. Passive radar

D. Inversion

218. What causes Anomalous Propagation clutter on primary radar systems?

A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal

B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal

C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal

D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

219. What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?

A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal

B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal

C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal

D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

220. Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called _.

A. Ring around

B. Anomalous Propagation

C. Range interference

D. Inversion

47

221. Which of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system?

A. It displays weather echoes.

B. It only displays aircraft with transponders.

C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter.

D. Signal strength is affected by aircraft orientation.

222-226 Match the following descriptions in Column A with the secondary radar system components in Column B.

Q A Column A Column B

222

Broadcasts interrogator transmission (LP, p. 24)

A. Transponder

223 Processes transponder replies and forwards data to the radar display (LP, p. 27)

B. Radar display

224

Ground-based transmitter (LP, p. 24)

C. Decoder

225

Airborne receiver/transmitter (LP, p. 26)

D. Interrogator

226 Depicts an electronic presentation of radar-derived information. (LP, p. 27)

E. Antenna

227. The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for use.

A. regional

B. intrafacility

C. interfacility

D. military

228. Which of the following is NOT an example of typical SOP content?

A. External Coordination

B. Position relief briefing

C. Equipment usage

D. Local stripmarking procedures

229-236. In the following list, identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

48

Q LOA or SOP

229 Define coordination procedures between two air traffic facilities

230 Define coordination procedures between internal operational positions

231 Define coordination procedures between AFSS Inflight and ARTCC Radar Associate positions

232 Define responsibilities between an air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager

233 Describe operating position/sector

234 Define coordination procedures between two control towers within the same approach control airspace

235 Establish local stripmarking procedures

236 Delegate the responsibility for ATC services to the tower, approach control, and the ARTCC

DIRECTIONS: ITEMS 1 THROUGH 9 ARE MATCHING ITEMS. MATCH THE TERM WITH THE CORRECT DEFINITION.

Q Term Answer Definition

237 Aircraft A. A service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly, expeditious flow of air traffic.

238 Airport B. A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air.

239

Air Traffic Control

C. An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft.

240

Air Traffic Clearance D. Specified information relating to the intended flight of an aircraft, that is filed orally, in writing, or by

241

Flight Plan

E. An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace.

Q Term Answer Definition

242 Flight Level A. Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control.

243 Positive Control B. A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury.

244

Approved Separation

C. A geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported.

245

Reporting Point D. Separation in accordance with the applicable minima in FAA Order JO 7110.65.

E. Weather conditions equal to or better than the minimum for flight under visual flight rules.

49

246. A pilot in command may deviate from FAR 91 if .

A. the aircraft is within Class G airspace

B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action

C. the aircraft is in visual conditions

D. an ATC clearance is requested

247. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?

A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way

B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way

C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right

D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way

248. Pilots of two aircraft may operate as a formation flight when .

A. authorization is obtained from ATC

B. flight visibility is at least 3 miles

C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard

D. flight is conducted at or above 1,500 feet MSL

249. ATC specialists who are age 40 and above shall be scheduled by facility managers for medical examinations every if in the terminal/center environment.

A. 3 years

B. year

C. 2 years

D. 6 months

250. The maximum speed authorized by FAR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL is knots.

A. 250

B. 200

C. 180

D. 150

50

251. Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace shall not be more than knots.

A. 150

B. 180

C. 200

D. 250

252. A pilot operating below 18,000 feet MSL shall set the altimeter to .

A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft

B. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 200 NM of the aircraft

C. 29.29 in/hg

D. 29.92 in/hg

253. When operating an aircraft at an airport in Class G Airspace that has an operating control tower, unless otherwise authorized, the pilot must have _.

A. a transponder with Mode C

B. a transponder only

C. radar contact and two-way communications

D. two-way radio communications with the tower

254. The minimum age required to obtain an ATC control tower operator certificate is: _.

A. 18

B. 21

C. 30

D. No age requirement

255. Bernoulli’s Principle states: “The internal pressure of a fluid at points where the speed of the fluid _.”

A. increases; increases

B. decreases; increases

C. increases; decreases

D. decreases; decreases

51

256. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the of the rotor blades and the collective controls the .

A. pitch; tilt

B. speed; pitch

C. tilt; pitch

D. angle; speed 257. Which of the following does NOT affect aircraft performance?

A. Temperature

B. Moisture

C. Pressure

D. Relative wind

258. A secondary form of lift is a(n) generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being

deflected .

A. upward force; downward

B. downward force, upward

C. pressure differential; over the wing

D. upward force; over the wing 259. An imaginary straight line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of a cross section of an airfoil is

called the _.

A. chord line

B. camber

C. relative wind

D. angle of attack 260. When and are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses airspeed.

A. thrust; drag

B. lift; thrust

C. lift; weight

D. weight; drag

52

261. What force in flight counteracts lift?

A. Pressure

B. Thrust

C. Weight

D. Relative wind 262. What is used to determine the angle of attack?

A. Chord line and the ground

B. Relative wind and chord line

C. Flight path and relative wind

D. Flight path and upper camber

263. If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the and axes.

A. longitudinal; vertical

B. lateral; vertical

C. longitudinal; lateral

D. lateral; horizontal 264. Relative wind flows in a direction and the direction of flight.

A. parallel with; opposite to

B. parallel with; perpendicular to

C. opposite to; perpendicular to

D. opposite to; divergent from

265. The blades of a helicopter are shaped like and act as .

A. airfoils; ailerons

B. ailerons; elevators

C. airfoils; wings

D. ailerons; wings

53

266. Which of the following is a principal airfoil?

A. Rudder

B. Propeller

C. Fuselage

D. Trim tabs

267. When air density decreases what occurs?

A. Rate of climb is faster and landing speed will be faster

B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased

C. Takeoff run is longer and the engine produces more power

D. Rate of climb is slower and takeoff run is shorter 268. An aircrafts movement around the longitudinal axis is controlled by the

_.

A. rudder; yaw

B. ailerons; roll

C. elevator; pitch

D. ailerons; yaw

and is called

269. At approximately what angle of attack will air no longer flow smoothly over the wing’s upper surface?

A. 5-10

B. 10-15

C. 13-18

D. 15-20

270. What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing?

A. Pitot tube icing

B. Wing icing

C. Carburetor icing

D. Windshield icing

54

271. What is the basic purpose of the autorotation maneuver in a helicopter?

A. Provide a controlled landing when the engine is no longer supplying power

B. Conserve fuel during cruise flight

C. Maintain a constant altitude

D. Allow hovering flight in a strong wind 272. An aircraft with a certificated takeoff weight of more than 41,000 lbs. up to but not including 300,000 lbs. is

classified as _.

A. heavy

B. large

C. small

D. medium 273. A small business jet aircraft will fall into which aircraft category?

A. Small

B. Category I

C. Category II

D. Category III

274. A C17 is what type of aircraft?

A. Cessna

B. Cargo

C. Caravan

D. Commercial 275. Three (3) of the 6 basic tail configurations are .

A. conventional, forward slant and “T”

B. swept, delta and straight

C. horizontal stabilizer above fuselage, empennage and modified “V”

D. twin boom, conventional and delta

55

276. Most CAT I aircraft will generally operate within which speed range?

A. Zero–90 Knots

B. 100-160 Knots

C. 160-250 Knots

D. 300-550 Knots

277. Recognition features of the B737 are .

A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing

B. Two jet engines under each wing, low wing

C. One jet engine under each wing, T-tail

D. One jet engine under each wing, one jet in tail 278. Which of the following is not one of the three basic wing placements found on aircraft?

A. Tandem-wing

B. High-wing

C. Low-wing

D. Mid-wing

279 . The following graphic depicts a/an

A. L1011.

B. MD11.

C. DC10.

D. B727.

56

280. The aircraft pictured below is a _.

A. A320

B. B737

C. A306

D. B757 281. What is the prominent identification feature of the C172?

A. High-wing

B. Conventional gear

C. Mid-tail

D. Turboprop

282. Which of the following aircraft is depicted in this graphic?

57

A. Citation 550

B. Citation 10

C. Beechjet

D. Golden Eagle 283. An aircraft weighing 300,000 pounds will fall into the weight class.

A. Small

B. Medium

C. Large

D. Heavy

284. Name four aircraft identification features.

285. Low altitude RNAV route 12 is spoken:

A. “Q twelve”

B. “Quebec twelve”

C. “T twelve”

D . “Tango twelve” 286. The different classes of VORs are _.

A. High, Low, Terminal

B. High, Medium, Low

C. High, Low, Compass Locator

D. High, Medium, Terminal

58

287. The bearing and DME frequencies of a TACAN are paired and assigned by numbers.

A. course

B. radial

C. channel

D. heading

288. Generally, the vertical dimensions of a low altitude VOR airway are from .

A. the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL

B. the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

C. 12,000 feet AGL up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL

D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL

289. The non-radar lateral protected airspace of a victor airway within 51NM of the NAVAID is .

A. 8 NM either side of centerline

B. 4 NM either side of centerline

C. 10 NM either side of centerline

D. 20 NM either side of centerline

290. The component of the ILS which gives lateral course guidance to the runway is the .

A. localizer

B. marker beacon

C. glide slope

D. DME

291. Which is not a characteristic of a Nondirectional Radio Beacon (NDB)?

A. More accurate than a VOR

B. Provides a bearing to be flown during an approach

C. Adversely affected by lightning

D. Used to establish nonprecision approaches

59

292. The GPS receiver needs at least position, velocity, time, and altitude.

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

satellites to yield three-dimensional information, including

293. The difference between DME slant-range and actual horizontal distance is greatest .

A. at low altitude close to the NAVAID

B. at high altitude far from the NAVAID

C. at low altitude far from the NAVAID

D. at high altitude close to the NAVAID

294. An Non Directional Beacon (NDB) used in conjunction with the Instrument Landing System (ILS) is called a(n) .

A. compass locator

B. marker beacon

C. Outer Marker (OM)

D. Automatic Direction Finder (ADF)

295. When NO MEA is depicted, the MEA on a jet route is feet MSL.

A. 14,500

B. 18,000

C. 24,000

D. 45,000

296. Which chart furnishes terminal data for IFR flight in congested areas?

A. IFR Area Charts

B. Terminal Area Charts


D. En Route Low Altitude Charts

60

297. Which chart(s) depict ATIS frequencies where ATIS is available?

A. En Route Low Altitude Chart

B. En Route High Altitude Chart

C. IFR Area Chart

D. BothAandC

298. Which of the following is a requirement for an airport to be published on the IFR EnRoute High Altitude Chart?

A. Has a published instrument approach.

B. Has a 5000’ or greater hard surfaced runway.

C. Has an operational ATCT

D. Is public use.

299. If NO changeover point is depicted along an airway, it means that _.

A. the airway segment crosses through uncontrolled airspace

B. either NAVAID can be used for the entire length of the route segment

C. there is a gap in NAVAID signal coverage along the airway

D. the changeover is to be made at the halfway point between the two NAVAIDs

300. How is Class A airspace depicted on an En Route High Altitude Chart?

A. As a shaded brown area

B. In blue, with a solid blue border

C. With a hatched blue line around the boundary

D. Open white area

301. On an En Route Low Altitude chart, prohibited, restricted, and warning areas are shown within boundaries.

A. solid grey

B. blue hatched

C. light brown

D. solid magenta

61

302. Chart(s) that are specifically designed to provide aeronautical information used during instrument flight

A. En Route Low Charts

B. En Route High Charts

C. IFR Area Charts

D. All of the above

303. En Route Low Altitude Charts are published every .

A. 56 days

B. 112 days

C. 3 months

D. 6 months

303. approaches utilize WAAS and/or LAAS for course guidance.

A. RNAV

B. ILS

C. Localizer

D. TACAN

304. A Nonprecision approach does not provide .

A. electronic glide slope information

B. azimuth guidance to Category D aircraft

C. height and visibility minima

D. missed approach instructions

305. The basic marker beacons normally associated with an ILS approach are _.

A. outer and locator

B. inner and outer

C. middle and inner

D. outer and middle

62

306. The four segments of an IAP, in the order flown, are: Initial, Intermediate, , and .

A. Missed; Final

B. Final; Outbound

C. Inbound; Final

D. Final; Missed

307. In the chart below, the number 6600 depicts the altitude.

A. decision height

B. minimum glideslope intercept

C. minimum descent

D. procedure turn

308. Which of the following items is not found on the planview section of the IAP Chart?

A. Airport Lat./Long. Coordinates

B. Initial Approach Fix

C. Transition Routes

D. Obstructions

309. Height of obstructions depicted on Instrument Approach Procedure Charts are .

A. always AGL

B. found only in the Planview section

C. sometimes AGL

D. always MSL

63

310. A Localizer approach differs from an ILS approach because .

A. a localizer’s decision height is always higher than that of an ILS

B. lateral course guidance is provided by a VOR signal

C. localizer approaches can not provide straight-in minimums

D. no electronic altitude guidance is provided 311. Which statement is true regarding Minimum Safe Altitudes (MSAs)?

A. MSAs provide obstacle clearance within 22 nautical miles of the primary approach NAVAID.

B. NAVAID frequency reception is ensured at the MSA.

C. Individual MSAs are depicted along each segment of the approach procedure.

D. MSAs provide 1,000-foot obstacle clearance.

312. The intermediate segment of an approach procedure ends at the .

A. final approach fix

B. initial approach fix

C. missed approach point

D. runway

64

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65

Question

Picture Number

Label

313 11.

314 12.

315 13.

316 14.

317 15.

318 16.

319 17.

320 18.

321 19.

322 20.

323 21.

324 22.

325 23.

326 24.

327 25.

328 26.

329 27.

330. An aircraft threatened by serious and/or imminent danger which requires immediate assistance is

considered as a/an condition.

A. urgent

B. distress

C. concerned

D. lost

66

331. If you are in contact with an aircraft with a suspected bomb threat, what action should you not take?

A. Comply with the pilots requests

B. Handle the aircraft as an emergency

C. Suggest actions for the pilot to take

D. Provide the most expeditious handling possible

332. A pilot of an aircraft experiencing radio failure can be expected to squawk .

A. 7300

B. 7500

C. 7600

D. 7700

333. Fuel remaining is expressed in .

A. time

B. pounds

C. gallons

D. nautical miles

334. Because specific procedures are not prescribed for every emergency situation, air traffic control personnel must .

A. pursue a course of action which appears to be most appropriate under the circumstances

B. receive the supervisor’s approval before decisive action is taken

C. make an entry in the facility log

D. notify the pilot’s point of departure as soon as an emergency is declared

335. Which facility is responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to the appropriate

authorities?

A. AFSS

B. ARTCC

C. RCC

D. ATCT

67

336. Which of the following refers to a condition of being concerned about safety and of requiring timely, but not immediate assistance?

A. Flight assistance

B. Distress

C. Routine emergency

D. Urgency

337. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions?

A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)

B. Weather Forecast Office (WFO)

C. Meteorological Watch Office (MWO)

D. Aviation Weather Center (AWC)

338. Within which layer of the atmosphere does temperature increase with altitude, making it a stable layer, generally devoid of significant weather?

A. Tropopause

B. Troposphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Mesosphere

339. Precipitation formation requires water vapor, lift, and .

A. a growth process

B. frontal pressure

C. a stable temperature

D. a steep pressure gradient

340. What type of air mass produces stable air that is associated with smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds?

A. A warm air mass moving over a cold surface

B. A cold air mass moving over a warm surface

C. Any warm air mass

D. Any cold air mass

68

341. Which gas constitutes only a small percentage of the earth’s atmosphere and varies widely in both time and space, ranging from trace amounts to 4 percent by volume?

A. Oxygen

B. Carbon Monoxide

C. Carbon Dioxide

D. Water vapor

342. Virtually all aircraft fly in which two layers of the atmosphere?

A. Mesosphere and stratosphere

B. Troposphere and mesosphere

C. Thermosphere and stratosphere

D. Troposphere and stratosphere

343. When the is greater than zero, the air is unsaturated.

A. condensation point

B. temperature-dew point spread

C. temperature

D. dew point

344. A sinking parcel of air compresses and as it encounters increasing pressure; this causes a cloud

to quickly _.

A. warms, form

B. warms, dissipate

C. cools, form

D. cools, dissipate

345. What type of clouds look like fluffy cotton balls or heaps, indicate upward vertical motion or thermal uplift of air, and can produce severe turbulence, icing, and other hazards?

A. Cirriform

B. Nimboform

C. Cumuliform

D. Stratiform

69

346. Air flow around a high diverges in a motion and , causing the air to compress and warm, which tends to dissipate clouds.

A. clockwise, rises

B. clockwise, sinks

C. counterclockwise, rises

D. counterclockwise, sinks

347. Standard atmosphere is NOT used for .

A. pressure altimeter calibrations

B. aircraft performance calculations

C. weather observations

D. aircraft design

348. The ratio of water vapor in the air compared to the amount of water vapor the air can hold at a particular

temperature and pressure is the definition of .

A. barometric surface pressure

B. relative humidity

C. dew point

D. saturated air

349. Which front is associated with poor visibility, smooth air, and steady precipitation?

A. Warm

B. Occluded

C. Cold

D. Stationary

350. What type of precipitation occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above freezing temperatures, with a deep layer of below freezing air based at the surface?

A. Rain

B. Snow

C. Ice pellets

D. Freezing rain

70

351. Gusty wind is coded as a in the wind group of a METAR.

A. GW

B. W

C. WG

D. G

352. In the contiguous United States of America region, the ICAO Station Identifier prefix is _.

A. PA

B. P

C. KA

D. K

353. “A scheduled report transmitted at fixed intervals” describes a .

A. METAR

B. SPECI

C. TAF

D. UUA

354. In the date/time field of a METAR, _.

A. the first two digits are the date, the second two digits are the hour, and the last two digits are the minutes in UTC

B. the six digits represent the hour, minutes, and seconds of the observation in UTC

C. the first two digits are the date, the second two digits are the hour, and the last two digits are the minutes in local time

D. the six digits represent the hour, minutes, and seconds of the observation in local time

355. A sky coverage of six-eighths is reported as .

A. BKN

B. FEW

C. SCT

D. SKC

71

356. What term refers to the greatest distance that can be seen throughout at least half the horizon circle (180 degrees), not necessarily continuous?

A. Runway Visual Range (RVR)

B. Sector visibility

C. Tower visibility

D. Prevailing visibility

357. What is an instrumentally derived value that represents the horizontal distance a pilot may see down the runway from the approach end?

A. Runway Visual Range (RVR)

B. Sector visibility

C. Tower visibility

D. Prevailing Visibility

358. In the METAR/SPECI Sky Condition Group, heights are reported in .

A. hundreds of feet AGL

B. thousands of feet AGL

C. hundreds of feet MSL

D. thousands of feet MSL

359. In a METAR/SPECI report, what do temperatures and dew points prefixed with an “M” signify?

A. Missing

B. Below zero

C. ”more than”

D. Degrees Fahrenheit ITEMS 360 THROUGH 365 ARE CODED METAR/SPECI ELEMENTS. CHOOSE THE LETTER WHICH REPRESENTS THE CORRECT DECODING.

360. SPECI KHYS 092338Z AUTO…

A. “Hays, automated, special report, three eight observation…”

B. “Hays, special report, automated, two three three eight observation…”

C. “Hays, special report, automated two three three eight zulu observation…”

D. “Special report, Hays, two three three eight zulu observation, automated…”

72

361. Based on the following METAR, the visibility is _. KOKC 181456Z 01010KT 10SM FEW055 BKN100 04/M02 A2992 RMK AO2 SLP070

A. 4 statute miles

B. 10 nautical miles

C. 10 statute miles

D. missing

362. R17/M0600FT

A. “Runway one seven R-V-R less than six hundred”

B. “Runway one seven visual range more than six hundred feet”

C. “R-V-R runway one seven below six hundred”

D. “R-V-R runway one seven less than six hundred feet”

363. SCT00 BKN080 OVC120

A. “Scattered three thousand, ceiling broken eight hundred, overcast one two thousand”

B. “Scattered three thousand, broken eight hundred, ceiling one two thousand overcast”

C. “Three thousand scattered, ceiling eight thousand broken, one two thousand overcast”

D. “Three thousand scattered, eight thousand broken, ceiling one thousand two hundred overcast”

364. PK WND 23034/43

A. “Peak wind two three zero at three four happened at four three zulu”

B. “Peak wind two three zero at three four occurred at four three past the hour”

C. “Peak wind two three zero degrees at three four knots occurred at four three zulu”

D. “Peak wind two hundred thirty degrees at thirty-four knots occurred at forty-three zulu”

365. CIG 005V008

A. “Ceiling five hundred variable eight hundred”

B. “Ceiling five hundred feet variable eight hundred feet“

C. Ceiling variable between five hundred and eight hundred”

D. “Ceiling variable between five hundred feet and eight hundred feet”

73

366. The purpose of a Pilot Weather Report (PIREP) is .

A. to report a pilot’s position

B. to report meteorological conditions in flight

C. to report a pilot incident

D. a pilot’s report of an accident

367. PIREPs are used by to expedite the traffic flow in the vicinity of an airport.

A. the National Weather Service

B. Flight Service Stations

C. centers

D. towers and TRACONs

368. Air traffic facilities must solicit PIREPs when is reported.

A. light turbulence

B. visibility of 5 miles or less

C. a ceiling at or below 10,000 feet

D. icing of trace or greater intensity

369. Each PIREP must include the type of aircraft, altitude, location, and .

A. coordinated universal time

B. the temperature in degrees Celsius

C. remarks

D. local time

370. When preparing PIREPs involving turbulence or icing, shall always be included.

A. Sky condition

B. Visibility

C. Intensity

D. Wind

74

371. The following PIREP indicates the base of the second cloud layer is . UA/OV MKC-JOT/TM 1100/FL080/TP C182/SK BKN025-TOP045/OVC050-TOP075/WX FV99/TA08

A. 5,000 feet AGL

B. 4,500 feet MSL

C. 7,500 feet AGL

D. 5,000 feet MSL

Referring to the following PIREP, answer questions 372 through 375. OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP TA20/SK 035 BKN 075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC

372. At what altitude(s) did the aircraft first encounter turbulence?

A. unknown

B. 3,500-7,500 feet

C. 5,000 feet

D. 12,000 feet

373. What is the type of aircraft that made this report?

A. FV01

B. TA20

C. TA04

D. TM1516

374. What is the height of the base of the second layer?

A. Not reported

B. 3,500 feet

C. 7,500 feet

D. 9,500 feet

75

375. What was the weather element that caused the reduction in visibility?

A. RN

B. SHRA

C. SN

D. GR Referring to the following PIREP, answer questions 376 and 377.

After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through 15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28

376. Record the intensity of the turbulence and the altitude at which it was first encountered?

A. LGT/15

B. LGT 1.5

C. LGT 150

D. LGT 015

377. What should be recorded in the remarks?

A. WND 31028KT

B. NEG ICE

C. DURC

D. OKC315020 378. Authorized symbols and abbreviations must be used for recording .

A. TCAS RAs when voice recorders are operational

B. relief briefings

C. clearances, requests and advisories

D. clearances, reports and instructions

379. The letters “OTP” on a strip stand for _.

A. VFR conditions-on-top

B. oceanic transfer point

C. procedure turn

D. out of control area

76

380. What symbol indicates that an aircraft’s clearance is void if not airborne by a specific time?

A. V=

B. ~V

C. V <

D. V

381. What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information?

A. X

B. −

C. +

D. /

382. Flight progress strips are used for .

A. traffic count only

B. traffic sequencing only

C. posting current data on air traffic

D. traffic metering

383. Flight progress strips are considered documents.

A. outdated

B. necessary

C. legal

D. current

384. When used on a strip, “VA” indicates which of the following?

A. Volcanic Ash

B. Variable Altitude

C. Visual Approach

D. Virginia

77

385. Which of the following is the correct format to record a block altitude?

A. 100B120

B. 210/230

C. 230B210

D. B150/170

386. Flight progress strips that are hand printed must _.

A. use standard characters

B. be legible

C. conform to the machine printed format

D. all the above En Route Strip

387. On all en route strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?

A. Aircraft ID

B. Equipment suffix

C. Aircraft type

D. Filed true airspeed

388. For en route strips, altitude information is found in which block?

A. 8

B. 27

C. 16

D. 20

78

389. On an en route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

390. On an en route strip, which block contains the center-estimated time over the fix?

A. 11

B. 15

C. 19

D. 25

391. Which control symbol(s) indicates that an ARTCC has forwarded flight plan information?

A. Slash

B. Horizontal line

C. Check mark

D. Red circle

Terminal Strip

392. On all terminal strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?

A. Aircraft ID

B. Aircraft type

C. Computer ID

D. Beacon code

79

393. For terminal arrival strips, altitude information is found in which block?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

394. On a terminal strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?

A. 10

B. 7

C. 1

D. 2

394. On a terminal strip, which block contains the estimated time of arrival over a coordination fix?

A.3

B. 8

C. 18

D. 10

396. How is a terminal strip marked to indicate that the aircraft has an emergency?

A. Black “E”

B. ”EMRG”

C. Red check mark

D. Red ‘E”

397. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “should” means that the procedure is _.

A. recommended

B. optional

C. approved

D. mandatory .

80

398. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are for use and Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are for use.

A. intrafacility; extrafacility

B. interfacility; intrafacility

C. extrafacility; jurisdictional

D. intrafacility; interfacility

399. Which of the following statements about the NAS is FALSE ?

A. NextGen is the NAS modernization program.

B. The NAS is entirely owned and operated by the FAA (

C. The NAS is continuously evolving.

D. The NAS includes ATCS, NAVAIDS, and FARs






401. Positive control is the of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC.

A. separation

B. observation

C. deviation

D. sequencing

402. An ARTCC/TRACON is divided into areas of control jurisdiction called _.

A. positions

B. regions

C. sectors

D. sections

81

403. In an ATCT, which 3 positions communicate directly with the pilots?

A. Flight Data, Local and Ground

B. Local, Clearance Delivery, and Tower Coordinator

C. Ground, Local and Clearance Delivery

D. Local, Tower Coordinator, and Flight Data 404. Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System

Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the and minimize without increasing controller workload.

A. airspace, accidents

B. NAS, delays

C. ATC System, accidents

D. airports, delays

405. Which document lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA?





406. Considering the operational priorities of an air traffic controller,

aircraft.

A. VFR/IFR

B. aircraft in distress/lifeguard

C. presidential/lifeguard

D. diverted/aircraft in distress

have priority over

407. “Automation procedures are used in preference to non-automation procedures” is an example of ATC:

A. Duty Priority


C. Operational Priority

D. Primary Purpose

82

408. The correct designation for a runway with a magnetic heading of 009 degrees is runway .

A. 9

B. 1

C. 01

D. 10

409. Which of the following is not one of the uses of a movement area?

A. Air taxiing

B. Hover taxiing

C. Loading passengers

D. Takeoff and landing of aircraft

410. Which of the following statements about airport beacons is FALSE?

A. They are turned on at night

B. They are turned on during restricted weather

C. They are turned on whenever the tower is operational

D. They identify the type of airport

411. At an airport with no precision approach procedures, which of the following runway markings will NOT be present?

A. Touchdown zone

B. Runway designator

C. Runway centerline

D. Aiming point

412. “Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts” represents an air traffic controller’s first .

A. Duty Priority


C. Operational Priority

D. Primary Purpose

83

413. The addition, deletion, or modification of information or instructions within an order are made through a(n) _.

A. change

B. notice

C. supplement

D. amendment

414. RVSM stands for

A. Required Visual Separation Minima

B. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

C. Requested Visual Separation Minima

D. Required Vertical Separation Minima

415. Minimum vertical separation between RVSM equipped IFR aircraft up to and including FL410 is feet.

A. 1,000

B. 5,000

C. 4,000

D. 2,000

416. Which of the following is not a method for establishing non-radar longitudinal separation?

A. Depart at a specified time

B. Arrive at a fix at a specified time

C. Clear aircraft to fly on airways which do not overlap

D. Hold at a fix until a specified time

417. When using non-radar departure divergence _.

A. the airport must have at least 2 runways that intersect

B. the ATCS must wait 10 minutes between successive departures

C. the ATCS must ensure visual separation exists

D. the ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees

84

418. When using visual separation, what are the separation minima?

A. 5NM

B. 1,000 feet

C. 10 minutes

D. There are no specified minima. 419. The minimum terminal radar separation for two IFR aircraft less than 40 miles from the antenna is

miles.

A. 3

B. 10

C. 5

D. 20 420. A nonstandard holding pattern _.

A. has leg lengths which must be measured in minutes

B. is one that is located at a navigational aid

C. uses left turns

D. uses right turns






422. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?

A. Airport manager/operator

B. Tower controller

C. Pilot

D. Flight service specialist

85

423. What type of NOTAM consists of information that is regulatory in nature, pertaining to flight, including but not limited to changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage?

A. NOTAM D

B. FDC NOTAM

C. Military NOTAM

D. Pointer NOTAM

424. A feature which improves a primary radar display is:

A. Moving target indicator

B. Anomalous propagation

C. Temperature inversion

D. Ring around

425. Which radar system relies on reflected radio signals and does NOT require equipment in aircraft?

A. Primary radar

B. Secondary radar

C. Airport radar

D. Positive radar 426. Which of the following is a component of a secondary radar system?

A. Moving Target Indicator

B. Circular polarization

C. Receiver

D. Transponder

427. An advantage of secondary radar over primary radar is it's .

A. longer range

B. ability to switch from linear polarization to circular polarization

C. improved weather display

D. display of any object which reflects radio energy

86

428. Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities?





429. Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?





430. Advising the En Route Radar and Radar Associate positions of sector actions required to accomplish the safe and efficient operation of the sector is a responsibility of the En Route position.

A. radar coordinator/handoff

B. radar flight data

C. clearance delivery

D. traffic management

431. Which AFSS position uses the radio call sign "Flight Watch"

A. EFAS

B. Inflight

C. Broadcast

D. Preflight

432. Airmen’s information can be disseminated via Aeronautical Charts and .

A. satellite communications

B. facility directives

C. flight information publications

D. FAA orders

87

433. Which document contains items concerning pilot’s health and medical facts, factors affecting flight safety, and accident reporting?





434. The purpose of a “Supplement” is _.

A. temporary direction for a situation requiring immediate action

B. to add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order

C. to make one-time announcements

D. to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

435. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive?

A. Supplements

B. LOA

C. GENOT

D. Orders

436. Taxiway centerline lights emit .

A. steady green lights

B. flashing green lights

C. alternating green and blue lights

D. steady blue lights

88

437. What aircraft is pictured above?

A. B737

B. B757

C. A300

D. B777


A. BE58

B. PAY1

C. PA34

D. P28A

89

439. Generally, what are the two basic types of landing gear?

A. Bicycle and tricycle

B. Tricycle and conventional

C. Bicycle and conventional

D. Tricycle and nose dragger

440. An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of pounds or less will fall into the small weight class.

A. 12,500

B. 41,000

C. 50,000

D. 155,000

441. A helicopter generates wingtip vortices when .

A. lift is first generated

B. in stationary hover

C. in vertical ascent

D. in forward flight

442. Which three aircraft characteristics represent the greatest generated wake turbulence?

A. Heavy, dirty, slow

B. Small, clean, fast

C. Large, dirty, slow

D. Heavy, clean, slow

443. The pitch (angle of attack) of a helicopter rotor blade is controlled by the .

A. cyclic

B. throttle

C. collective

D. antitorque pedal

90

444. Actual atmospheric pressure at a given time and place does not depend on which of the following?

A. Temperature

B. Wind

C. Density of the air

D. Altitude

445. A term for the air flow which is parallel with, and opposite to, the direction of flight is called a/an .

A. angle of attack

B. relative wind

C. flight path

D. headwind

446. When an IFR flight loses two-way communications with ATC, controllers should consider the pilot’s actions

with regard to their:

A. route, speed and altitude

B. route, time to leave their clearance limit and speed C.

altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit D.

altitude, time to leave their clearance limit and speed

447. FAR Part covers General Operating and Flight Rules.

A. 67

B. 121

C. 91

D. 135

448. Which of the following statements concerning special VFR (SVFR) is true?

A. ATC clearance is required.

B. SVFR operations may be conducted at any altitude below FL180.

C. Pilot need not request SVFR clearance.

D. 3SM visibility is required.

91

449. A pilot in command operating in VFR conditions shall not cancel an IFR flight plan while operating in Class Airspace.

A. D

B. C

C. B

D. A

450. What pre-flight action does FAR 91 require pilots to take before beginning a flight?

A. File a flight plan

B. Receive ATC authorization for the flight

C. Advise ATC of intentions

D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight

451. Which special use airspace is always located offshore?

A. Warning Area

B. Alert Area

C. Controlled Firing Area

D. National Security Area

92


A. Citation 550

B. Citation 10

C. Beechjet

D. Golden Eagle 453. Which of the following aircraft is depicted in this graphic?

A. C172

B. C208

C. C210

D. C130 454. Which statement is NOT true regarding the general characteristics of Category II aircraft?

A. Large weight class

B. They operate at FL240 and below

C. Speed is 160-250 knots

D. Climb rate is 1,000 to 2,000 feet per minute

455. A C17 is included in aircraft Category .

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV

93

456. Counter control to a wake turbulence induced roll is most effective when _.

A. there is no more than a 5 knot crosswind

B. a large aircraft follows a heavy aircraft

C. a rapid descent is made

D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex 457. The effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of aircraft or behind the rotor tips of

helicopters in forward motion is .

A. updrafts and downdrafts

B. wake turbulence

C. low-level wind shear

D. attitude variations 458. The forces that are acting on a helicopter in flight are lift, thrust, , and .

A. torque, drag

B. weight, gravity

C. angle of attack, drag

D. weight, drag

459. With a(n) in airspeed, drag _.

A. increase; increases rapidly

B. increase; decreases rapidly

C. decrease; increases rapidly

D. decrease; remains the same

460. When air is forced to travel at a faster speed across the top of a wing versus the bottom, this will result in the wing.

A. lower pressure above

B. lower pressure below

C. higher pressure above

D. atmospheric pressure above

94

461. A pilot flying VFR must maintain at least 5 miles visibility in all or part of class and airspace.

A. E;A

B. E;G

C. G;D

D. C;D

462. No person may operate an aircraft under VFR in Class C airspace with a flight visibility of less than .

A. 1NM

B. 1SM

C. 3NM

D. 3SM

463. An ATC specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the Terminal option is required to have a medical examination every .

A. year

B. 2 years

C. 3 years

D. 5 years

464. Which of the following statements is true concerning FAR Part 91 aircraft speed restrictions?

A. Above 10,000 MSL, no aircraft may exceed 250 knots.

B. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots in any Class C airspace.

C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace.

D. Under no circumstances may an aircraft exceed 250 knots in Class B airspace.

465. A(n) is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.

A. ATC Clearance

B. Flight Plan

C. Supplement

D. Notice

95

466. ATC does not have the authority or the responsibility to issue clearances in class airspace.

A. C

B. D

C. E

D. G

467. Recognition features of the B737 are .

A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing

B. Two jet engines under each wing, low wing

C. One jet engine under each wing, T-tail

D. One jet engine under each wing, one jet in tail

468. What is a prominent identification feature of the BE35?

A. Tricycle gear

B. Low-wing

C. Propeller-driven

D. “V”-tail

469. A civilian aircraft designator _.

A. is always 4 alpha-numerics

B. indicates the mission

C. generally indicates the manufacturer

D. may be 1 to 4 characters

470. is jet engine exhaust.

A. Prop-wash

B. Wake turbulence

C. Jet blast

D. Counter control

96

471. Which of the following statements regarding wingtip vortices is true?

A. They drift inward and sink.

B. They drift outward and sink.

C. They drift inward and rise.

D. They drift outward and rise.

472. The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is .

A. decreases weight

B. increased drag

C. reduced thrust

D. airfoil distortion

473. Which are the primary control surfaces on an airplane?

A. Ailerons, elevator, and flaps B.

Elevator, flaps, and trim tabs C.

Rudder, ailerons, and elevator D.

Flaps, ailerons, and propeller

474. Which of the following is NOT a principal airfoil?

A. Wing

B. Propeller

C. Horizontal tail surface

D. Fuselage 475. What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL?

A. Only the pilot is provided supplemental oxygen

B. None

C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen

D. Pilot and co-pilot are provided supplemental oxygen

97

476. A pilot flying under IFR conditions experiences a radio failure. If a route has not been assigned and/or ATC has not advised a route to be expected, what action should the pilot take?

A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan.

B. Land at nearest available airport.

C. Climb to VFR-on-top and continue flight.

D. Proceed to alternate airport.

477. An appropriate magnetic course for an aircraft flying VFR at 6,500 feet MSL and more than 3,000 feet AGL would be degrees.

A. 190

B. 100

C. 360

D. 010

478. To be eligible for an ATC tower operator's certificate, you must hold a medical certificate.

A. First Class

B. Second Class

C. Third Class

D. No medical is required.

479. An aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft when it is in .

A. VFR conditions

B. distress

C. IFR conditions

D. controlled airspace

480. Which type of special use airspace may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or unusual types of aerial activities, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft?

A. Alert areas

B. Prohibited areas

C. Restricted areas

D. Warning areas

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481. What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?

A. 2,500 feet MSL

B. Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL

C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation

D. 3,500 AGL 482. Which of the following transponder codes is invalid?

A. 2345

B. 3456

C. 4567

D. 5678

483. Which of the following is an optional component of an ILS?

A. Inner marker beacon

B. Visual information

C. Glide slope

D. Localizer

484. Standard Instrument Departure charts are published every .

A. 3 months

B. 6 months

C. 112 days

D. 56 days

485. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) have been established at certain airports to .

A. simplify clearance delivery, expedite traffic flow, and reduce pilot/controller workload.

B. eliminate the need for clearance delivery procedures.

C. ensure all aircraft depart on exactly the same route.

D. relieve airport congestion and increase pilot/controller workload.

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486. Solid triangles indicate .

A. VOR changeover points

B. DME fixes

C. compulsory reporting points

D. substitute route structure

487. Class D airspace on a sectional aeronautical chart is depicted by a line.

A. dashed blue

B. solid blue

C. solid magenta

D. dashed magenta

488. The maximum usable range of an “H” class VOR is .

A. 25 NM

B. 130 NM

C. 40NM

D. 100 NM

489. True course corrected for the effects of wind is .

A. magnetic heading

B. magnetic track

C. true heading

D. true track

490. A nautical mile equals statute miles (SM).

A. .87

B. 1.15

C. 1.5

D. 1.87

100

491. Which of the following is a gyroscopic instrument?

A. Heading indicator

B. Altimeter

C. Airspeed indicator

D. Vertical speed indicator 492. Instrument Approach Procedures (IAPs) are designed to .

A. be used only by aircraft in IFR conditions

B. transition an aircraft to a point where the aircraft may be vectored to the final approach course

C. expedite air traffic in terminal areas

D. provide an IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made

493. Of the types of instrument approaches listed, which one is a precision approach?

A. VOR

B. NDB

C. ILS

D. TACAN 494. The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish .

A. VFR reporting points

B. visual landmarks for use in congested areas

C. terminal data for VFR flights in congested areas

D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas

495. The En Route Low Altitude charts are for use below .

A. 18,000 feet MSL

B. 18,000 feet AGL

C. 12,500 feet MSL

D. 14,000 feet MSL

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496. Basic terrain contour lines on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are generally spaced at foot intervals.

A. 100

B. 500

C. 1,000

D. 2,000 497. The primary use for Sectional Aeronautical Charts is navigation by speed aircraft.

A. IFR; slow and medium

B. VFR; high

C. IFR; high

D. VFR; slow and medium

498. An aircraft travels 300 nautical miles over the ground in three hours while experiencing a tailwind of 25 knots.

The aircraft’s ground speed is knots.

A. 150

B. 125

C. 100

D. 90 499. The navigational method based solely on computing air speed, course, wind, ground speed, and elapsed

time is .

A. dead reckoning

B. VFR navigation

C. pilotage

D. radio navigation 500. Circles parallel to the equator are called .

A. great circles

B. parallels of longitude

C. meridians

D. parallels of latitude

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501. A lack of oxygen in the body tissue results in .

A. Hyperventilation

B. Vertigo

C. Hyperextension

D. Hypoxia

502. In which section of the Instrument Approach Chart are the DME arcs depicted?

A. Profile View

B. Airport Diagram

C. Planview

D. Circling section

503. The STAR is not designed to .

A. expedite ATC arrival procedures.

B. funnel arrival traffic into one-way corridors and reduce coordination between ATC facilities.

C. provide guidance to a fix in the terminal area.

D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft.

504. Chart(s) that are specifically designed to provide aeronautical information used during instrument flight

A. En Route Low Charts

B. En Route High Charts

C. IFR Area Charts

D. All of the above

505. An asterisk (∗) before an altitude along a low altitude airway indicates a(n) .

A. MOCA

B. MCA

C. MEA

D. MRA

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506. Where are Class B airspace operating rules found?

A. On the Terminal Area Chart

B. On the inside flap of a Sectional Aeronautical Chart

C. In the World Aeronautical Chart Legend

D. Only in the Airport/Facility Directory

507. The component of the ILS which provides the descent angle is the .

A. marker beacon

B. localizer

C. glide slope

D. back course marker

508. What condition will cause an aircraft’s indicated airspeed to decrease?

A. A decrease in altitude or temperature

B. A decrease in altitude or an increase in temperature

C. An increase in altitude or a decrease in temperature

D. An increase in altitude or temperature

509. Time zones are established for every _.

A. 15’ of longitude

B. 15°of latitude

C. 15°of longitude

D. 15’ of latitude

510. A pilot would most likely be issued a STAR from a/an controller.

A. tower

B. approach

C. ground

D. en route

104

511. On an En Route High Altitude Chart, all NAVAIDs shown are class, unless otherwise identified.

A. Low

B. High

C. Terminal

D. Regional 512. Airports are listed in the A/FD in which order?

A. largest to smallest

B. state, airport, city

C. city, airport, state

D. state, city, airport

513. A VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) has how many usable magnetic radials?

A. 90

B. 180

C. 360

D. 350 514. Which formula is correct when D = distance, S = speed, and T = time?

A. S=DxT

B. D=S÷T

C. D=SxT

D. T=S x D

515. One minute of latitude is equal to any place on the Earth’s surface.

A. 60 nautical miles (NM)

B. 60 statute miles (SM)

C. 1 nautical mile (NM)

D. 1 statute mile (SM)

105

516. Which instrument would be affected if the pitot tube became clogged?

A. Altimeter

B. Vertical speed indicator

C. Heading indicator

D. Airspeed indicator

517. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is _.

A. the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end

B. given in nautical miles

C. located in the Airport Diagram section of the IAP

D. used only for military aircraft

518. World Aeronautical Charts are used primarily for which type of navigation?

A. RNAV

B. Pilotage

C. IFR

D. Satellite

519. Generally, ATS routes defined from 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL describe _.

A. victor routes

B. jet routes

C. Q routes

D. MTRs

520. An aircraft travels at 450 knots for 2 hours, 30 minutes. How many nautical miles has the aircraft traveled?

A. 1,050 miles

B. 1,075 miles

C. 1,100 miles

D. 1,125 miles

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521. Lines connecting points of equal difference between true and magnetic north are called lines.

A. agonic

B. isochronous

C. isogonic

D. isobaric

522. The phrase “MAYDAY” describes a/an situation.

A. potential

B. composed

C. distress

D. urgency

523. The pilot of an aircraft which has been hijacked can be expected to squawk Code .

A. 7300

B. 7500

C. 7600

D. 7700

523. An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is first considered 30 minutes after its ETA.

A. late

B. unreported

C. overdue

D. missing

525. When a parcel of air has all the water vapor it can hold, it is .

A. evaporated

B. unsaturated

C. saturated

D. condensed

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526. A warm, moist air mass moving over a surface often produces , poor visibility, stratiform clouds, fog, and drizzle.

A. warm, turbulence

B. warm, smooth air

C. cold, turbulence

D. cold, smooth air

527. What type of precipitation occurs when the temperature remains below freezing throughout the entire depth of the atmosphere?

A. Ice

B. Snow

C. Ice pellets

D. Freezing rain

528. Which effect will an airplane experience when taking off with a tailwind?

A. A longer take off roll is required.

B. A shorter take off roll is required.

C. A larger initial rate of climb occurs.

D. It will drift off the side of the runway.

529. Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of accumulation is slightly greater than sublimation. Deicing/anti-icing equipment is NOT utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time (over 1 hour). What type of ice is being described?

A. Trace

B. Light

C. Moderate

D. Mixed

530. In a METAR/SPECI Wind Group, wind speed is referenced to which unit of measure?

A. Knots

B. Meters per second

C. Miles per hour

D. Kilometers per hour

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531. +TSRAGR

A. “Heavy thunderstorm, rain, snow grains”

B. “Severe thunderstorm, rain showers, hail”

C. “Thunderstorm, heavy rain, hail”

D. “Thunderstorm, heavy rain showers, snow grains” 532. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of occasionally severe turbulence over Colorado?

A. AIRMET Tango

B. AIRMET Zulu

C. SIGMET

D. Convective SIGMET

533. What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the

next two hours?

A. AIRMET

B. FA

C. TAF

D. CWA

534. A report of meteorological conditions encountered by aircraft in flight is known as a/an .

A. AIRMET

B. PIREP

C. SIGMET

D. Surface Observation 535. Which is not a reportable intensity of icing?

A. Trace

B. Light

C. Moderate

D. Heavy

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536. Who has the final responsibility for the course of action to be followed in an emergency?


B. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) Specialist

C. Pilot

D. Aircraft owner

537. The effective utilization of all available search and rescue facilities, including Federal, state, and local efforts, is described by the _.

A. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)

B. Letters of Agreement (LOA)

C. National Search and Rescue Plan

D. Air Force and Coast Guard

538. The average vertical depth of this layer of the atmosphere is 36,000 feet, but varies from about 65,000 feet at the equator to 20,000 feet at the poles.

A. Troposphere

B. Tropopause

C. Stratosphere

D. Mesosphere

539. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?

A. Cirriform

B. Nimboform

C. Cumuliform

D. Stratiform

540. Which front moves in such a way that colder air replaces warmer air?

A. Clouded front

B. Warm front

C. Cold front

D. Stationary front

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542. IFR weather is primarily a hazard .

A. during takeoff and landing

B. en route

C. while in a holding pattern

D. while changing altitudes 543. What can produce almost every weather hazard?

A. Hurricane

B. Thunderstorm

C. Tornado

D. Turbulence

544. Which of the following METAR code groups designate a ceiling?

A. FEW045

B. CLR

C. VV006

D. SCT100

545. Based on the following METAR, the temperature is . KOKC 181456Z 23015G28KT 10SM

FEW025 SCT040 BKN150 OVC200 01/M01 A2981 RMK AO2 SLP096

A. 1°F

B. 1°C

C. –1°F

D. –1°C

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546. Convective SIGMETs are valid for hours and are used to report convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft.

A. four

B. two

C. three

D. six

547. A Meteorological Impact Statement (MIS) is _.

A. an unscheduled discussion product that summarizes anticipated weather conditions with potential impact on air traffic flow control and flight operations in an ARTCC’s area of responsibility

B. an unscheduled weather advisory issued by CWSU meteorologists for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours

C. a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within 5SM of an airport.

D. a weather advisory concerning convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft

548. Air Traffic Facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when is reported or forecasted.

A. Ceiling at or below 7,000 feet

B. Light icing

C. Light turbulence

D. Visibility at or below 10 miles

549. Which of the following is not one of the minimum information requirements for handling an emergency?

A. Nature of the emergency

B. Aircraft identification and type

C. Aircraft color

D. Pilot’s desires

550. The Rescue Coordination Center is operated by the .

A. FCC

B. ARTCC

C. ATCT

D. military

112

551. At what rate does temperature decrease with height (lapse rate) in the standard atmosphere?

A. 1°c/1,000 feet

B. 2°c/1,000 feet

C. 4°c/1,000 feet

D. 8°c/1,000 feet

552. Which statement about a pressure system and cloud creation is TRUE?

A. Air in a high pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds

B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds

C. Air in a high pressure system will descend, warm, and create clouds

D. Air in a low pressure system will descend, warm, and dissipate clouds 553. The three necessary ingredients for precipitation formation are , , and .

A. water vapor, lift, a growth process

B. evaporation, saturation, condensation

C. condensation, compression, cold air

D. dew point, compression, warm air

554. Which condition is responsible for the most weather-related aviation accidents?

A. Adverse wind

B. Instrument (IFR) weather

C. Turbulence

D. Thunderstorms 555. Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude describes turbulence.

A. moderate

B. severe

C. light

D. trace

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556. What is an unscheduled report that is taken when certain criteria have been observed?

A. AUTO

B. METAR

C. COR

D. SPECI

557. M1/4SM FG

A. “Visibility below one-quarter, fog”

B. “Visibility less than one-quarter, fog”

C. “Visibility less than one-quarter statute mile, fog”

D. “Visibility minus one-quarter statute mile, fog”

558. TAFs are used by air traffic controllers to anticipate weather changes that will affect aircraft operations _.

A. within an air route traffic control center’s (ARTCC’s) airspace

B. within a terminal radar approach control (TRACON) facility’s airspace

C. along specified routes of flight

D. at specified terminals

559. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of moderate icing over New York and Pennsylvania?

A. AIRMET Sierra

B. AIRMET Tango

C. AIRMET Zulu

D. SIGMET

560. A computer generated forecast of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at selected times, altitudes, and locations is a(n) forecast.

A. area

B. automated barometric information

C. terminal aerodrome

D. wind and temperature aloft

114

561. Each PIREP reporting turbulence must include the .

A. turbulence intensity

B. remarks

C. sky conditions

D. temperature

562. Positive control is the of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC.

A. separation

B. observation

C. deviation

D. sequencing

563. The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is .

A. issuing safety alerts and providing additional services

B. separating traffic and providing additional services

C. separating traffic and supporting homeland defense

D. separating traffic and issuing safety alerts

564. Rotating airport beacons flashing white and green at regular intervals identifies what type of airport?

A. Lighted land airport

B. Lighted water airport

C. Lighted heliport

D. Military airport

565. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?

A. Lateral

B. Longitudinal

C. Vertical

D. Visual

115

566. Assigning departing aircraft headings which diverge by at least 45 degrees is an example of separation.

A. longitudinal

B. runway

C. lateral

D. visual

567. This NOTAM consists of information that requires wide dissemination and pertains to En route navigational aids, airports listed in the Airport Facility Directory (AFD), facilities and services.

A. Pointer NOTAM

B. FDC NOTAM

C. NOTAM D

D. Military NOTAM

568. Which of the following is not a component of a secondary radar system?

A. Interrogator

B. Antenna

C. Transponder

D. Receiver

569. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?

A. Only displays aircraft with transponders

B. Provides a shorter range than primary radar

C. More vulnerable to blind spots

D. Responses are degraded by weather or ground clutter

570. This document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the United States National Airspace System (NAS).

A. 7110.65

B. 7110.10

C. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

D. 1320.1

116

571. Which airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

572. ATC specialists in Terminal/Center, age 39 and below, shall be scheduled for medical examinations by facility managers _.

A. twice a year

B. every year

C. every three years

D. every two years

573. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in classes and

airspace.

A. B;C

B. C;D

C. C;E

D. D;E

574. A pilot must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes _.

A. between 12,500 MSL up to and including 14,000 MSL

B. above 14,000 MSL

C. above 15,000 MSL

D. the pilot is not required to use supplemental oxygen

575. Relative wind flows in a direction and the direction of flight.

A. parallel with; opposite to

B. parallel with; perpendicular to

C. opposite to; perpendicular to

D. opposite to; divergent from

117

576. When and are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses altitude.

A. lift; weight

B. lift; thrust

C. thrust; drag

D. weight; drag

577. What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing?

A. Pitot tube icing

B. Wing icing

C. Carburetor icing

D. Windshield icing

578. The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the following choices is not included in the definition?

A. Mach buffet

B. Thrust steam turbulence

C. Propeller wash

D. Jet blast

579. A hovering helicopter will generate a high speed outward vortex to a distance of approximately

times the diameter of the rotor.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

580. An aircraft with a certificated takeoff weight of more than 41,000 lbs. up to but not including 300,000 lbs. is classified as _.

A. heavy

B. large

C. small

D. medium

118

581. All helicopters are classified as _.

A. category III

B. category IV

C. category I

D. category II

582. The aircraft pictured above is a _.

A. B727

B. B747

C. A320

D. MD11

583. 2 PM on a 24-hour clock equals .

A. 1200

B. 0200

C. 2200

D. 1400

119

584. An aircrafts TAS is significantly higher than its IAS .

A. at low altitudes

B. at sea level

C. at high altitudes

D. with a tailwind 575. VORs are classed according to operational use. There are three classes. Which one of the selections below

is not one of those classes?

A. T (Terminal)

B. UH (Ultra high altitude)

C. H (High altitude)

D. L (Low Altitude) 586. Class B operating rules can be found on the back of _.

A. IFR/VFR planning charts

B. VFR Terminal Area Charts

C. Sectional Charts

D. WAC Charts

587. The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish .

A. VFR reporting points

B. visual landmarks for use in congested areas

C. navigation information using a smaller scale that the En Route Low Altitude Chart

D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas

588. Which DP is always printed graphically and must be assigned by ATC?

A. ODPs

B. IDP

C. SID

D. STAR

120

589. On the profile view of a non-precision instrument approach, the Maltese Cross depicts the _.

A. Final Approach Fix (FAF)

B. glide slope intercept point

C. Missed Approach Point (MAP)

D. threshold crossing point

590. The height of obstructions shown on the planview and airport diagram section of an IAP are always given in _.

A. AGL

B. MSL

C. Both AGL and MSL

D. MSA

591. Symptoms of hypoxia include all of the following except .

A. slow reactions

B. impaired thinking

C. increased alertness

D. unusual fatigue

592. Which of the following refers to a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance?

A. Flight assistance

B. Urgency

C. Routine emergency

D. Distress

593. A pilot of an aircraft experiencing radio failure can be expected to squawk _.

A. 7300

B. 7500

C. 7600

D. 7700

121

594. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?

A. Cirriform

B. Nimboform

C. Cumuliform

p. 17)

D. Stratiform






596. Which of the following is NOT true regarding fog?

A. Fog reduces horizontal visibility to less than5/8 SM

B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard

C. Fog forms when the temperature and dewpoint spread is at or near zero

D. Fog is a cloud with it’s base at the earth’s surface.

597. Which of the following METAR code groups does NOT designate a ceiling?

A. BKN045

B. VV006

C. SKC

D. OVC100

598. “A scheduled report transmitted at fixed intervals” describes a _.

A. METAR

B. SPECI

C. TAF

D. UUA

122

599. What type of forecast is issued when specific conditions are affecting or are expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles or an area judged to have a significant impact on the safety of aircraft operations?

A. AIRMET

B. Convective SIGMET

C. SIGMET

D. CWA 600. The message type “UUA” indicates that the PIREP falls under what classification?

A. Routine PIREP

B. Urgent Surface Observation

C. Urgent PIREP

D. Routine Surface Observation

601. Each PIREP must include the altitude, location, time, and _.

A. aircraft type

B. remarks

C. sky conditions

D. temperature

602. An action taken to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller when the

aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communications will be transferred is called a(n) .

A. exchange

B. handoff

C. point out

D. transfer

603. How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?

A. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ZULU

B. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO LOCAL

C. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ALFA MIKE

D. OH SIX FOUR TWO ZULU

123

604. Which of the following represents, in order, the steps of the position relief briefing?

A. Preview position, position review, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility

B. Position review, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility

C. Monitor position, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility

D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, position review

605. What is the proper procedure for deleting any umwanted or unused altitudes?

A. Draw a line underneath it

B. Draw a slash (/) through it

C. Erase it

D. Write an X through it

606. On terminal flight progress strips, blocks 10 -18 are .

A. specified by facility directive

B. always the same

C. never used

D. specified in the 7110.65

607. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may only deviate from the provisions of an air traffic clearance when a(n) occurs, or a(n) is obtained.

A. change of flight plan; initial clearance

B. emergency; amended clearance

C. bad weather; initial clearance

D. change of flight plan; amended clearance

608. The terminal flight progress strip has use(s) in the terminal option.

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

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609. Use prefixes when relaying , , or through non-ATC facilities.

A. clearances, instructions, reports

B. information, instructions, requests

C. clearances, information, requests

D. instructions, reports, requests

610. Taxi clearances are instructions provided by ATC for the route aircraft/vehicles are to follow while on the of an airport.

A. apron areas

B. movement and non-movement areas

C. movement areas

D. non-movement areas 611. The position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to

aircraft and vehicles operating in the airport movement area.

A. Local Control

B. Ground Control

C. Clearance Delivery

D. Flight Data 612. Which is not a function of the Radar position in the ARTCC?

A. Maintain direct communication with aircraft

B. Scan radar display

C. Make weather observations

D. Ensure separation

613. An Automated Flight Service Station has the primary function of providing _.

A. pilot briefings and receiving and processing flight plans

B. air traffic control services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of an airport or on the movement area

C. advisory service to VFR aircraft and control service to IFR aircraft

D. control service to aircraft on an IFR flight plan operating outside of controlled airspace

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614. The correct designation for a runway with a magnetic heading of 009 degrees is runway .

A. 36

B. 1

C. 01

D. 10

615. Minimum radar separation between two aircraft at FL 200 in ARTCC airspace is miles.

A. 3

B. 5

C. 10

D. 20

616. When applying vertical separation, RVSM status of an aircraft is a consideration between which altitudes?

A. FL 180, up to and including FL 450

B. FL 450, up to and including FL 600

C. FL 290, up to and including FL 410

D. FL 180, up to and including FL 290

617. A/An is a predetermined maneuver which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance from air traffic control.

A. holding procedure

B. approach procedure

C. procedure turn

D. auto-rotation

618. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are .

A. AIS and NOTAMs

B. NFDC and NOTAMs

C. NAS and NFDC

D. AIS and AFSS

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619. The primary radar display depicts the and of objects that reflect radio energy.

A. position; altitude

B. position; movement

C. altitude; speed

D. movement; speed

620. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive, e.g., a notice that needs to be distributed immediately?

A. Supplements

B. LOA

C. GENOT

D. GETS

621. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are for use and Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are for use.

A. intrafacility; extrafacility

B. interfacility; intrafacility

C. extrafacility; jurisdictional

D. intrafacility; interfacility

622. To be eligible for an , an individual must be at least 18 years of age, of good moral character,

able to read, write, and understand the English language, speak English without an accent or impediment, and hold a valid second class medical certificate.

A. ATC airspace operator license

B. ATC airspace specialist certificate

C. ATC tower operator certificate

D. ATC tower specialist license

623. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?

A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way

B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way

C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right

D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way

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624. Filing a VFR flight plan is .

A. optional, but strongly encouraged

B. mandatory when penetrating a Military Operations Area

C. only necessary when weather conditions are below VFR minimums

D. only necessary for search and rescue missions 625. At an airport where takeoff minimums are not prescribed (revenue flights only), an aircraft with two engines

or less may depart when there is at least statute mile(s) visibility.

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. ½ 626. If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the and axes.

A. longitudinal; vertical

B. lateral; vertical

C. longitudinal; lateral

D. lateral; horizontal

627. According to Bernoulli’s principle, lift is a result of differential.

A. airspeed

B. pressure

C. temperature

D. reaction

628. The blades of a helicopter are shaped like and act as .

A. airfoils; ailerons

B. ailerons; elevators

C. airfoils; wings

D. ailerons; wings

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629. The of the aircraft is the greatest factor that affects the intensity of wake turbulence.

A. speed

B. shape of the wing

C. vortex strength

D. weight

630. Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to .

A. taxi

B. leave the ground

C. slow on approach

D. touchdown on the runway

631. Another name for thrust stream turbulence is _.

A. turbine wash

B. burner blast

C. jet fuel burn

D. jet blast

632. For a military aircraft, the first letter(s) of the designator identifies the aircraft’s .

A. manufacturer

B. model

C. service branch

D. mission

633. Category III aircraft generally climb at what rate?

A. 500’ – 1000’ per minute

B. 1000’ – 2000’ per minute

C. 2000’ – 4000’ per minute

D. Greater than 4000’ per minute.

129

634. 100 nautical miles equals statute miles.

A. 130

B. 95

C. 87

D. 115 635. An aircraft travels 300 nautical miles over the ground in three hours while experiencing a tailwind of 25

knots. The aircraft’s ground speed is knots.

A. 150

B. 125

C. 100

D. 75 636. The navigational method based solely on computing air speed, course, wind, ground speed, and elapsed

time is .

A. radio navigation

B. RNAV navigation

C. FMS

D. dead reckoning 637. Generally, ATS routes defined from 1,200 feet AGL to 18,000 feet MSL describe .

A. victor routes

B. jet routes

C. Q routes

D. MTRs

638. How often is the World Aeronautical Chart published?

A. every 56 days B.

every 6 months C.

every 12 months D.

every 24 months

130

639. En Route Low Altitude Charts are published every .

A. 56 days

B. 112 days

C. 3 months

D. 6 months

640. The STAR is not designed to .

A. expedite ATC arrival procedures.

B. funnel arrival traffic into one-way corridors and reduce coordination between ATC facilities.

C. provide guidance to a fix in the terminal area.

D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft.

641. Of the types of instrument approaches listed, which one is a precision approach?

A. VOR

B. NDB

C. ILS

D. TACAN

642. Which instrument does not depend on 'rigidity in space' for its operation?

A. heading indicator

B. attitude indicator

C. magnetic compass D. turn coordinator

643. Which of the following is assigned by ATC to a single aircraft and used for radar identification and flight tracking?

A. non-discrete codes

B. discrete codes

C. mode C

D. aircraft identification

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644. Which of the following is not one of the minimum information requirements for handling an emergency?

A. Nature of the emergency

B. Aircraft identification and type

C. Aircraft color

D. Pilot’s desires 645. Which of the following is an interagency agreement which provides for the effective use of all available

facilities in all types of search and rescue missions?

A. Letter of Understanding (LOU)

B. National Search and Rescue Plan

C. Letters of Agreement (LOA)

D. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) 646. The temperature to which air must be cooled at constant pressure and constant water vapor content in order

for saturation to occur is .

A. Relative humidity

B. dew point

C. lapse rate

D. inversion

647. What type of precipitation occurs when the temperature remains below freezing throughout the entire depth of the atmosphere?

A. Ice

B. Snow

C. Ice pellets

D. Freezing rain

648. The dissipating stage of a thunderstorm begins when are predominant.

A. downdrafts

B. updrafts

C. hail stones

D. icing

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649. “Any wind more than 90 degrees to the longitudinal axis of the runway” defines a .

A. tailwind

B. crosswind

C. variable wind

D. sudden wind shift

650. The following METAR observation was taken at . KOKC 181456Z 23015G28KT 10SM FEW025 01/M01 A2981 RMK AO2 SLP096

A. 1815 local time

B. 1456 UTC

C. 1815 UTC

D. 1456 local time

651. Based on the following TAF, what is the earliest time thunderstorms and rain can be expected?

KOKC 051130Z 0512/0612 14008KT 5SM BR BKN030 TEMPO 0513/0516 1 1/2SM BR FM051600 16010KT P6SM SKC FM051900 20013G25KT

4SM SHRA OVC020 FM060500 20010G20KT 2SM SHRA BKN010 PROB30 0507 2SM TSRA OVC008CB FM060800 21015KT P6SM SCT040=

A. 5th day at 1200Z

B. 5th day at 1900Z

C. 6th day at 1600Z

D. 6th day at 0500Z

652. Which type of bulletin uses the alphabetic designators Sierra, Tango, or Zulu to indicate the type of condition being reported?

A. AIRMET

B. MIS

C. SIGMET

D. WST

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653. Based on the following PIREP, the base of the second cloud layer is .

UA/OV KMRB-KPIT/TM 1600/FL100/TP BE55/SK BKN024-TOP032/BKN-OVC043- TOPUNKN/TA M12/IC LGT-MOD RIME 055-080

A. 4,300 feet MSL

B. 3,200 feel AGL

C. 4,300 feet AGL

D. 2,400 feet MSL

654. How often are interphones and assigned frequencies to be monitored?

A. According to the level of traffic in the area

B. At half-hour intervals

C. Continuously

D. Hourly 655. The correct ICAO phonetic spelling of the word “UNIT” is _.

A. UNIFORM-NINER-INDIA-TANGO

B. UNO-NOVEMBER-INDIGO-TANGO

C. UNIFORM-NINER-INDIGO-TANGO

D. UNIFORM-NOVEMBER-INDIA-TANGO 656. RNAV route 24 would be spoken as .

A. “QUEBEC TWO FOUR”

B. “ROMEO TWENTY FOUR”

C. “Q TWENTY FOUR”

D. “RNAV TWO FOUR” 657. What does the clearance abbreviation “PD” represent?

A. Cleared to depart from the fix

B. Cleared to the airport

C. Cleared to hold and instructions issued

D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion

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658. Which of the following statements is not true of flight progress strips?

A. They are considered legal documents.

B. They are either handwritten or printed on special printers.

C. They are used to post clearances required for ATC control.

D. They are formatted the same for each air traffic option.

659. An authorization by air traffic control for aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace for the purpose of preventing collisions between known aircraft is called an .

A. ATC clearance

B. ATC coordination

C. ATC instruction

D. ATC separation

666. There can be as many as air traffic clearance items; the is issued first, and is always

included in a clearance.

A. 6; clearance limit

B. 9; route of flight

C. 6; altitude data in order flown

D. 9; aircraft identification

661. There are types of ATC prefixes used when relaying through a non-ATC facility.

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. five

662. Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the and minimize without increasing controller workload.

A. airspace, accidents

B. NAS, delays

C. ATC System, accidents

D. airports, delays

135

663. The facility that provides radar approach and departure control services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of one of more airports in a terminal area is a .

A. TRACON

B. ATCT

C. ARTCC

D. AFSS

664. Which of the following is not one of the uses of a movement area?

A. Air taxiing

B. Hover taxiing

C. Loading passengers

D. Takeoff and landing of aircraft






666. Controllers may use visual separation _.

A. up to, but not including, FL180

B. at FL180 and below

C. up to and including 18,000 feet MSL

D. up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL

667. The office/person responsible for reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport is the _.

A. Air Traffic Manager

B. airport manager/operator

C. tie-in AFSS

D. local controller

136

668. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is .

A. shall

B. may

C. should

D. will

669. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?

A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement

B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude

C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare

D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number

670. A is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.

A. ATC Clearance

B. Flight Plan

C. Supplement

D. Notice

671. When air density decreases what occurs?

A. Rate of climb is faster and landing speed will be faster

B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased

C. Takeoff run is longer and the engine produces more power

D. Rate of climb is slower and takeoff run is shorter

672. Which of the following is not a principal airfoil?

A. Wing

B. Fuselage

C. Propeller

D. Horizontal tail surfaces

137

673. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the of the rotor blades and the collective controls the .

A. pitch; tilt

B. speed; pitch

C. tilt; pitch

D. angle; speed

674. Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the of the vortex.

A. vertical limits

B. outer edges

C. sink rate

D. induced roll

675. What are the three basic types of landing gear?

A. straight; swept; delta

B. tandem; fixed; conventional

C. tricycle; conventional; tandem

D. forward; mid; conventional

676. One minute of latitude is equal to any place on the Earth’s surface.

A. 5000 feet

B. ½ nautical mile

C. 1 nautical mile (NM)

D. 1 statute mile (SM)

677. A line of equal magnetic variation is called a/an line.

A. isogonic

B. agonic

C. magnetic

D. longitude

138

678. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Global Positioning System (GPS)?

A. The system is affected by weather.)

B. The system provides satellite-based radio navigation.

C. The system provides highly accurate position information.

D. The system provides velocity information.

679. Sectional Aeronautical Charts are designed to be used for navigation of speed aircraft.

A. instrument; slow/medium

B. visual; slow/medium

C. required prior to entering controlled airspace

D. required prior to departure from within controlled airspace. 680. Which document would you use to determine type of fuel available at an airport?

A. US Terminal Procedures Charts

B. Airport/Facility Directory

C. Sectional Chart

D. IFR Area Chart

681. On an En Route High Altitude Chart, all NAVAIDs shown are class, unless otherwise identified.

A. L

B. H

C. T

D. R

682. A localizer, a glide slope, and marker beacons are basic components of a/an approach.

A. ILS

B. nonprecision

C. no gyro

D. TACAN

139

683. The purpose of TCAS is to .

A. provide standard separation

B. prevent a collision

C. replace ATC

D. ensure terrain avoidance

684. The universal emergency frequencies are .

A. VHF 121.0; VHF 243.5

B. VHF 122.5, UHF 245.0

C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0

D. VHF 245.0, UHF 122.5

685. The Coast Guard and Air Force conduct operations through the Rescue Coordination Center.

A. airborne search and rescue

B. sheriffs department search and rescue

C. telephonic search and rescue

D. physical search and rescue

686. Precipitation formation requires water vapor, lift, and .

A. a growth process

B. frontal pressure

C. a stable temperature

D. a steep slope

687. Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude describes turbulence.

A. moderate

B. severe

C. intense

D. extreme

140

688. What can produce almost every weather hazard?

A. Hurricane

B. Thunderstorm

C. Tornado

D. Turbulence

689. Which of the following is a characteristic of a temperature inversion?

A. High winds

B. Decreased temperatures with increased altitude

C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude

p. 27)

D. Clear air turbulence

690. Gusty wind is coded as a in the wind group of a METAR.

A. B

B. W

C. T

D. G

691. What forecast product provides a plain language, non-technical description of weather expected to occur over an extended period ranging from several hours to two days?

A. AIRMET

B. MIS

C. SIGMET

D. WST

692. Air Traffic Facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when is reported or forecasted.

A. Ceiling at or below 7,000 feet

B. Light icing

C. Light turbulence

D. Visibility at or below 10 miles

141

693. According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “C-H-A-P” should be pronounced _.

A. CHARLIE HONEY ALFA PETER

B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA

C. CHARLIE HECTOR ALFA PAPA

D. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PETER

694. Which of the following is the correct way to state an altitude of 16,000 feet?

A. SIXTEEN COMMA THOUSAND

B. ONE SIX ZERO ZERO ZERO

C. ONE SIX THOUSAND

D. SIXTEEN ZERO HUNDRED 65. What does the abbreviation “RA” mean when used on a flight progress strip?

A. Radar Advisories (flight following)

B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event)

C. Runway Approach

D. Radar Approach 696. Air traffic facilities, airports, NAVAIDS, FARs, and personnel are all components of the .

A. Traffic Management System

B. National Airspace System

C. Airway Facilities Service

D. Federal Aviation Administration

143

KEY

1. C. Chief Operating Officer (LP 1, p. 6)

2. B. three service areas (LP 1, p. 10)

3. B. VORs/VORTACs (LP 1, p. 58)

4. B. balance system demand with system capacity (LP 1, p. 50)

5. A. Traffic Management System (TMS) (LP 1, p. 50)

6. A. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives (LP 1, p. 51)

7. A. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic (LP 1, p. 15)

8. C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) (LP 1, p. 24)

9. D. AFSS (LP 1, p. 24)

10. B. Broadcast (LP 1, p. 26)

11. C. Compiling statistical data (LP 1, p. 33)

12. B. Ground Control (LP 1, p. 34)

13. D. Radar Team (LP 1, p. 39)

14. D. ARTCC (LP 1, p. 41)

15. D. Radar Flight Data (LP 1, p. 43)

16. C. separating aircraft (LP 1, p. 16)

17. A. an operational advantage will be gained (LP 1, p. 16)

18. A. Operational Priority (LP 1, p. 16)

19. B. Landing (LP 3, p. 2)

20. D. 36 (LP 3, pp. 5, 6)

21. A. 22R, 22C, 22L (LP 3, p. 6)

22. A. Runway side stripes (LP 3, p. 12)

23. D. displaced threshold (LP 3, p. 13)

144

24. A. blast pad (LP 3, p. 17)

25. B. centerlines (LP 3, p. 7)

26. C. Blue (LP 3, p. 33)

27. A. flash white and green (LP 3, p. 29)

28. C. In-runway lights (LP 3, p. 32)

29. D. green/red (LP 3, p. 31)

30. A. AIS and NOTAMs (LP 5, p. 3)

31. A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid (LP 5, p. 11)

32. A. NOTAM D (LP 5, p. 6)

33. D. FDC NOTAM (LP 5, p. 8)

34. B. NFDC (LP 5, p. 13)

35. A. Airport manager/operator (LP 5, p. 15)

36. D. FDC, POINTER and MILITARY (LP 5, p. 5)

37. B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers (LP 7, p. 8)

38. C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities (LP 7, p. 11)

39. C. vertical lines (LP 7, p. 16)

40. D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA (LP 7, p.13)

41. C. optional (LP 7, p. 20)

42. B. Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA (LP 7, p. 15)

43. A. shall (LP 7, p. 20)

44. B. GENOT (LP 7, p. 17)

45. C. should (LP 7, p. 21)

46. C. Supplements (LP 7, p. 18)

47. B. FAA Order JO 7110.10 (LP 7, p. 6)

48. C. Aeronautical Information Manual (LP 7, p. 19)

49. B. not a requirement for application of a procedure (LP 7, p. 21)

50. D. paragraphs (LP 7, p. 6)

51. D. the surface (LP 9, p. 6)

145

52. A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number (LP 9, p. 23) 53. D. FL600 (LP 9, p. 5)

54. A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement (LP 9, p. 17)

55. B. 3 (LP 9, p. 19)

56. C. the base of the overlying airspace (LP 9, p. 12)

57. C. Class E (LP 9, p. 11)

58. B. Class C (LP 9, p. 8)

59. C. Special Use (LP 9, p. 15)

60 B Generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL A. Class A (LP 9, p. 6)

61 B VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to B. Class B enter this airspace(LP 9, p. 6)

62 A Requires all aircraft to be IFR (LP 9, p. 5)

63 D No transponder is required (LP 9, p. 10

64 C VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft (LP 9, p. 8)

65. D. after 30 minutes of flight (LP 11, p. 48)

66. B. C;D (LP 11, p. 15)

67. B. 1 (LP 11, p. 31)

68. D. NAVAID signal; 22NM (LP 11, p. 32)

69. A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP (LP 11, p. 25)

70. A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable (LP 11, p. 39)

71. D. FL160 (LP 11, p. 34)

72. D. 4,500 MSL (LP 11, p. 24)

73. C. Name of each occupant (LP 11, p. 10)

74. C. enter coastal ADIZ (LP 11, p. 7)

75. D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM (LP 11, p. 16)

76. B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed (LP 11, p. 22)

77. A. Mach buffet (LP 13, p.3)

78. B. generate lift (LP 13, p. 11)

79. C. Jet blast (LP 13, p. 24)

146

80. B. clean configured (LP 13, p. 6) 81. C. 2to3 (LP, p. 13)

82. B. outer edges (LP 13, p. 19)

83. C. Helicopters (LP 13, p. 21)

84. D. parallels of latitude (LP 15, p. 5)

85. D. line located at zero degrees (0°) longitude (LP 15, p. 6)

86. A. latitude and longitude (LP 15, p. 7)

87. B. 1.15 (LP 15, p. 14)

88. D. Zulu (LP 15, p. 17)

89. C. 15°of longitude (LP 15, p. 19)

90. B. Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour. (LP 15, p. 22)

91. B. variation (LP 15, p. 41)

92. B. 2HR (LP 15, p. 25,26)

93. C. degrees (LP 15, p. 8)

94. D. 115 (LP 15, p. 14)

95. A. pilotage (LP 15, p. 47)

96. D. 1400 (LP 15, p. 19)

97. A. 0700 (LP 15, p. 22)

98. B. agonic line (LP 15, p. 41)

99. B. 5 hours (LP 15, pp. 25 thru 27)

100. B. north and south of the equator (LP 15, p. 5)

101. A. 013° (LP 15, p. 42)

102. B. Equator (LP 15, p. 4)

103. C. 20NM (LP 15, p. 35)

104. B. an aircraft’s TAS is significantly higher than it’s IAS (LP 15, p. 37)

105. A. airport elevation (LP 17, p. 12)

106. B. VFR Terminal Area Charts (LP 17, p. 34)

107. D. Automated Flight Service Station (LP 17, p. 15)

147

108. B. magenta (LP 17, p. 16) 109. C. Airport/Facility Directory (LP 17, p. 45)

110. A. MEAs and MOCAs (LP 17, p. 3-20)

111. B. 56 (LP 17, p. 41)

112. D. All of the above (LP 17, pp. 9, 32, 42)

113. B. planview (LP 19, p. 21)

114. D. city, airport name (LP 19, p. 14)

115. D. Pilots are encouraged to include the phrase “No SID” in their flight plans if they do not want a SID.

(LP 19, p. 24) 116. C. facilitate noise abatement procedures (LP 19, p. 3)

117. D. en route and instrument approach operations (LP 19, p. 3)

118. B. approved chart (LP 19, p. 29)

119. B. One STAR may serve several airports. (LP 19, p. 29)

120. D. check for currency. (LP19, p. 5)

121 E Non-Compulsory Reporting Point (LP19, p.10)

122 A Lost communications track (LP19, p.7 )

123 D VORTAC (LP19, p. 9)

124 B Minimum altitude (LP19, p. 7)

125 C Transition route (LP19, p. 7)

126 B Departure-Arrival Route (LP19, p. 7)

127 D Distance not to scale (LP19, p. 7)

128 E Airport (LP19, p. 7)

129 C Holding pattern (LP19, p. 10)

130 A DME mileage (LP19, p. 7)

131. B. discrete code (LP 21, p 33)

132. C. Attitude indicator (LP 21, p. 2)

133. B. Degrees of bank (LP 21, p. 20)

134. D. impact and static pressure chambers, and lines (LP 21, p. 2)

148

135. B. shall not issue instructions contrary to the RA. (LP 21, p. 41)

136. C. magnetic compass (LP 21, p. 19)

137. A. VOR needle is centered (LP 21, p. 25)

138. C. Static port. (LP 21, p. 4)

139. D. 4,096 (LP 21, p. 33)

140. A. a computer data base used for navigation (LP 21, p. 34)

141. C. Heading indicator and attitude indicator (LP 21, p. 13)

142. A. a lack of oxygen in the body tissue (LP 21, p. 44)

143. C. National Search and Rescue Plan (LP 23, p. 2)

144. B. AFSS (LP 23, p. 10)

145. D. 50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination (LP 23, p. 10)

146. A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results (LP 23, p. 15)

147. B. 30 (LP 23, p. 9)

148. B. 15 (LP 23, p. 16)

149. D. any of the above (LP 23, p. 11)

150. C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude (LP 25, p. 27)

151. B. severe (LP 25, p. 39)

152. D. quickly become a crosswind or tailwind (LP 25, p. 9)

153. A. General aviation, single propeller (LP 25, p. 10)

154. A. a thunderstorm cell (LP 25, p. 46)

155. B. 10; 2,000 (LP 25, p. 54)

156. A. turns perpendicular to the runway (LP 25, p. 5)

157. B. volcanic ash (LP25, p. 18)

158. C. downburst (LP 25, p. 48)

159. A. Towering cumulus (LP 25, p. 47)

160. B. Mechanical (LP 25, p. 23)

161. C. Severe (LP, p. 29)

149

152. A. A slower rate of climb. (LP 25, p. 33) 163. B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard (LP 25, p. 15)

164. D. at lower altitudes (LP 25, p. 41)

165. D. 1000/1024 (LP 27, p. 7)

166. B. TAF (LP 27, p. 13)

167. A. AIRMET ZULU (LP 27, p. 35)

168. B. AIRMET SIERRA (LP 27, p. 35)

169. D. 6th day at 0500Z (LP 27, p. 20)

170. D. (Moderate) snow showers, freezing fog (LP 27, pp. 10, 18-19)

171. C. Flight level 320 (LP 27, p. 26)

172. C. From 210 degrees at 15 knots (LP 27, pp. 30, 31)

173. D. Moderate turbulence below 10,000 feet; low-level wind shear (LP 27, pp. 35, 36)

174. D. Low IFR (LOW IFR) (LP 27, p. 42)

175. A. The product is valid until the 3rd day of the month at 0200Z (LP 27, p. 47)

176. D. Wind two three zero at two six, temperature minus four five (LP 27, pp. 51-53)

177. C. Radio (LP 29, p. 24)

178. D. “EXECUTIVE ONE” (LP 29, p. 35)

179. A. “J THIRTY-FIFE” (LP 29, p. 41)

180. C. One six thousand (7110.65; LP 29, p. 10)

181. C. handoff (LP 29, p. 50)

182. A. Transfer of control (LP 29, p. 54)

183. A. ”Zero six four two zulu” (LP 29, p. 12)

184. B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA (LP 29, p. 6)

185. C. “Altimeter two eight seven two” (LP 29, p. 14)

186. D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero” (LP 29, p. 16)

187. B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established (LP 29, p. 4)

188. C. Continuously (LP 29, p. 3)

189. D. Review the position (LP 29, p. 64)

150

190. ANSWER: “Flight level two eight zero” (LP 29, p. 11)

191. ANSWER: “Runway tree one center” (LP 29, p. 17)

192. ANSWER: “COLUMBIA RADIO” (LP 29, p. 24)

193. ANSWER: emergencies (LP 29, p. 47)

194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.

1.) Preview position

2.) Verbal briefing

3.) Assumption of position responsibility

4.) Position review (LP 29, p. 61)

195. A. Aircraft identification (LP 29, p. 6)

196. C. prevent collision between known aircraft. (LP 29, p. 3)

197. D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory (LP 31, p. 5)

198. A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7 (LP 31, p. 6)

199. C. clearances, information, requests (LP 31, p.8)

200. B. Through (LP 31, p. 18)

201. A. Cruise (LP 31, p. 21)

202. D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.” (LP 31, p. 6)

203. B. position relief (LP 4, p. 41)

204. B. 5,000 (LP 4, p. 7)

205. C. 1,000 (LP 4, p. 7)

206. B. 2,000 (LP 4, p. 11)

206. B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap. (LP 4, p. 45)

207. B. Longitudinal ( LP 4, p. 15)

208. B. 5 (LP 4, pp. 29, 30)

209. A. 3 miles; 5 miles (LP 4, p. 28)

210. A. up to, but not including, FL180 (LP 4, p. 35)

211. B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) (LP 4, p. 37)

151

212. C. Secondary radar (LP, 6 p. 22)

213. B. Radar (LP 6, p. 3)

214. B. position; movement (LP 6, p. 8)

215. D. Passive and active (LP, p. 19)

216. B. Interrogator (LP 6, p. 6)

217. A. Circular Polarization (LP 6, p. 13)

218. B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal (LP 6, p. 16)

219. C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal (LP 6, p. 17)

220. A. Ring around (LP 6, p. 29)

221. C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter. (LP 6, p. 30)

222. E. Antenna (LP 6, p. 24)

223. C. Decoder (LP 6, p. 27)

224 D. Interrogator (LP 6, p. 24)

225. A. Transponder (LP 6, p. 26)

226. B. Radar display (LP 6, p. 27)

227. C. interfacility (LP 8, p. 2)

228. A. External Coordination (LP 8, p. 10)

229. A (LP 8, p. 2)

230 B (LP 8, p. 11)

231. A (LP 8, p. 3)

232. A (LP 8, p. 2)

233. B (LP 8, p. 11)

234. A (LP 8, p. 3)

235. B (LP 8, p. 10)

236. A (LP 8, p. 5)

237. B (LP 10, p. 5)

238. C (LP 10, p. 6)

239. A (LP 10, p. 6)

152

240. E (LP 10, p. 4) 241. D (LP 10, p. 7)

242. B (LP 10, p. 7)

243. A (LP 10, p. 7)

244. D (LP 10, p. 8)

245. C (LP 10, p. 7)

246. B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action (LP 10, p. 27)

247. A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way (LP 10, p. 16)

248. C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard (LP 10, p. 14)

249. B. year (LP 10, p. 41)

250. A. 250 (FAR, 91.117; LP 10, p. 19)

251. C. 200 (LP 10, p. 21)

252. A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft (LP10, p. 25)

253. D. two-way radio communications with the tower (LP 10, p. 28)

254. A. 18 (LP 10, p. 38)

255. B. decreases; increases (LP 12, p. 3)

256. C. tilt; pitch (LP 12, pp. 40 and 42)

257. D. Relative wind (LP 12, p. 15)

258. A. upward force; downward (LP 12, p. 5)

259. A. chord line (LP 12, p. 8)

260. A. thrust; drag (LP 12, p. 14)

261. C. Weight (LP 12, p. 13)

262. B. Relative wind and chord line (LP 12, p. 9)

263. B. lateral; vertical (LP 12, p. 25)

264. A. parallel with; opposite to (LP 12, p. 6)

265. C. airfoils; wings (LP 12, p. 39)

266. B. Propeller (LP 12, p. 7)

267. B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased (LP 12, p. 21)

153

268. B. ailerons; roll (LP 12, p. 24)

269. D. 15-20 (LP 12, p. 45)

270. C. Carburetor icing (LP 12, p. 51)

271. A. Provide a controlled landing when the engine is no longer supplying power (LP 12, p. 44)

272. B. large (LP 14, p. 9)

273. D. Category III (LP 14, p. 4)

274. B. Cargo (LP 14, p. 12)

275. A. conventional, forward slant and “T” (LP 14, p. 22)

276. B. 100-160 Knots (LP 14, p. 5)

277. A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing (LP 14, p. 58)

278. A. Tandem-wing (LP 14, p. 18)

279 . B. MD11. (LP 14, p. 64)

280. C. A306 (LP 14, p. 60)

281. A. High-wing (LP 14, p. 35)

282. A. Citation 550 (LP 14, p. 48)

283. D. Heavy (LP 14, p. 9)

284. ANSWER: Size, engine location and number, engine type, wing placement, wing configuration, tail configuration, windows, fuselage shape, and landing gear. (LP 14, p. 16)

285. D . “Tango twelve” (LP 16, p. 37)

286. A. High, Low, Terminal (LP 16, p. 7)

287. C. channel (LP 16, p. 11)

288. D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL (LP 16, p. 33)

289. B. 4 NM either side of centerline (LP 16, p. 34)

290. A. localizer (LP 16, p. 17)

291. A. More accurate than a VOR (LP 16, p.4)

292. B. 4 (LP 16, p. 26)

293. D. at high altitude close to the NAVAID (LP 16, p. 12)

294. A. compass locator (LP 16, p. 4)

154

295. B. 18,000 (LP18, p. 40)

296. A. IFR Area Charts (LP 18, p. 45)

297. D. Both A and C (LP 18, pp. 12, 45)

298. B. Has a 5000’ or greater hard surfaced runway. (LP 18, p. 40)

299. D. the changeover is to be made at the halfway point between the two NAVAIDs (LP 18, p. 19)

300. D. Open white area (LP 18, p. 43)

301. B. blue hatched (LP 18, p. 27)

302. D. All of the above (LP18, p. )

303. A. 56 days (LP 18, p. 3)

303. A. RNAV (LP 20, p. 11)

304. A. electronic glide slope information (LP 20, p. 8)

305. D. outer and middle (LP 20, p. 9)

306. D. Final; Missed (LP 20, p. 5)

307. B. minimum glideslope intercept (LP 20, p. 26)

308. A. Airport Lat./Long. Coordinates (LP 20, p. 20)

309. D. always MSL (LP, p. 20, 24)

310. D. no electronic altitude guidance is provided (LP 20, p. 9)

311. D. MSAs provide 1,000-foot obstacle clearance. (LP 20, p. 22)

312. A. final approach fix (LP 20, p. 6)

313 Frequency Information (LP 20, p. )

314 EAU VORTAC (LP 20, p. )

315 Missed Approach Track (LP 20, p. )

316 River (LP 20, p. )

317 Nonprecision (Localizer) Final Approach Fix (LP 20, p. )

318 Runway Lighting Aids (LP 20, p. )

319 Minimum Descent Altitude (LP 20, p. )

320 Time/Speed Table (LP 20, p. )

321 Height Above Airport (LP 20, p. )

155

322 Military Minimums (LP 20, p. ) 323 Localizer (LP 20, p. )

324 Minimum Safe Altitudes (LP 20, p. 23)

325 DME Arc (LP 20, p. )

326 Obstruction (LP 20, p. )

327 Minimum Glide slope Intercept Altitude (LP 20, p. 26)

328 Decision Altitude (LP 20, p. )

329 Airport Coordinates (LP 20, p. 18)

330. B. distress (LP 22, p. 4)

331. C. Suggest actions for the pilot to take (LP 22, p. 18)

332. C. 7600 (LP 22, p. 16)

333. A. time (LP 22, p. 9)

334. A. pursue a course of action which appears to be most appropriate under the circumstances (LP 22, p. 3)

335. B. ARTCC (LP 22, p. 14)

336. D. Urgency (LP 22, p. 5)

337. A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) (LP 24, p. 41)

338. C. Stratosphere (LP 24, p. 5)

339. A. a growth process (LP 24, p. 31)

340. A. A warm air mass moving over a cold surface (LP 24, p. 23)

341. D. Water vapor (LP 24, p. 9) If asked, Oxygen is appx. 20%, CO .00001%, CO2 .039%

342. D. Troposphere and stratosphere (LP 24, p. 4)

343. B. temperature-dew point spread (LP 24, p. 11)

344. B. warms, dissipate (LP 24, p. 16)

345. C. Cumuliform (LP 24, p. 17)

346. B. clockwise, sinks (LP 24, p. 19)

347. C. weather observations (LP 24, p. 6)

348. B. relative humidity (LP 24, p. 10)

349. A. Warm (LP 24, p. 27)

156

350. C. Ice pellets (LP 24, p. 33) 351. D. G (LP 26, p. 19)

352. D. K (LP 26, p. 9)

353. A. METAR (LP 26, p. 4)

354. A. the first two digits are the date, the second two digits are the hour, and the last two digits are the minutes

in UTC (LP 26, p. 13) 355. A. BKN (LP 26, p. 34)

356. D. Prevailing visibility (LP 26, p. 22)

357. A. Runway Visual Range (RVR) (LP 26, p. 24)

358. A. hundreds of feet AGL (LP 26, p. 35)

359. B. Below zero (LP 26, p. 45)

360. A. “Hays, automated, special report, three eight observation…” (LP 26, p. 16)

361. C. 10 statute miles (LP 26, p. 22)

362. A. “Runway one seven R-V-R less than six hundred” (LP 26, p. 26)

363. C. “Three thousand scattered, ceiling eight thousand broken, one two thousand overcast” (LP 26, pp. 40-42)

364. B. “Peak wind two three zero at three four occurred at four three past the hour” (LP 26, p. 54)

365. C. Ceiling variable between five hundred and eight hundred” (LP 26, p. 66)

366. B. to report meteorological conditions in flight (LP 28, p. 3)

367. D. towers and TRACONs (LP 28, p. 5)

368. B. visibility of 5 miles or less (LP 28, p. 6)

369. A. coordinated universal time (LP 28, p. 7)

370. C. Intensity (LP 28, p. 7)

371. D. 5,000 feet MSL (LP 28, p. 13)

372. C. 5,000 feet (LP 28, p. 13)

373. B. TA20 (LP 28, p. 12)

374. D. 9,500 feet (LP 28, pp. 13)

375. C. SN (LP 28, p. 14)

376. D. LGT 015 (LP 28, p. 16)

157

377. C. DURC (LP 28, p. 11) 378. D. clearances, reports and instructions (LP 30, p. 15)

379. A. VFR conditions-on-top (LP 30, p. 16)

380. C. V < (LP 30, p. )

381. A. X (LP 30, p. 20)

382. C. posting current data on air traffic (LP 30, p. 3)

383. C. legal (LP 30, p. 3)

384. C. Visual Approach (LP 30, p.16)

385. A. 100B120 (LP 30, p.18)

386. D. all the above (LP 30, pp. 4, 14)

387. D. Filed true airspeed (LP 30, p. 13)

388. D. 20 (LP 30, p. 13)

389. C. 3 (LP 30, p. 13)

390. B. 15 (LP 30, p. 13)

391. D. Red circle (LP 30, p. 18)

392. D. Beacon code (LP 30, p. 9)

393. D. 9 (LP 30, p. 9)

394. C. 1 (LP 30, p. 9)

394. B. 8 (LP 30, p. 9)

396. D. Red ‘E” (LP 30, p. )

397. A. recommended (LP 7, p. 21)

398. B. interfacility; intrafacility (LP 8, p. 2 and 9)

399. B. The NAS is entirely owned and operated by the FAA (LP 1, p. 55)

400. D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA (LP 7, p.13)

401. A. separation (LP 1, p. 15)

402. C. sectors (LP 1, pp. 37, 41)

403. C. Ground, Local and Clearance Delivery (LP 1, p. 33-35)

404. B. NAS, delays (LP 1, p. 52)

158

405. D. FAA Order JO 7350.8 (LP 7, p. 15) 406. B. aircraft in distress/lifeguard (LP 1, p. 16)

407. B. Procedural Preference (LP 1, p. 16)

408. B. 1 (LP 3, p. 5)

409. C. Loading passengers (LP 3, p. 2)

410. C. They are turned on whenever the tower is operational (LP 3, p. 29)

411. A. Touchdown zone (LP 3, p. 11)

412. A. Duty Priority (LP 1, p. 16)

413. A. change (LP 7, p. 16)

414. B. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (LP 4, p. 8)

415. A. 1,000 (LP 4, p. 7)

416. C. Clear aircraft to fly on airways which do not overlap (LP 4, p. 18)

417. D. the ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees (LP 4, p. 14)

418. D. There are no specified minima. (LP 4, pp. 34 – 36)

419. A. 3 (LP 4, p. 28)

420. C. uses left turns (LP 4, p. 42)

421. B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) (LP 4, p. 37)

422. A. Airport manager/operator (LP 5, p. 15)

423. B. FDC NOTAM (LP 5, p. 8)

424. A. Moving target indicator (LP 6, p. 9)

425. A. Primary radar (LP 6, p. 5)

426. D. Transponder (LP 6, p. 23)

427. A. longer range (LP 6, p. 30)

428. B. FAA Order JO 7210.3 (LP 7, p. 11)

429. B. FAA Order JO 7110.10 (LP 7, p. 6)

430. A. radar coordinator/handoff (LP 1, p. 45)

431. A. EFAS (LP 1, p. 27)

432. C. flight information publications (LP 5, p. 3-4)

159

433. C. Aeronautical Information Manual (LP 7, p. 19)

434. D. to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive (LP 7, p. 18)

435. C. GENOT (LP 7, p. 17)

436. A. steady green lights (LP 3, p. 33)

437. D. B777 (LP 14, p. 62)

438. C. PA34 (LP 14, p. 44)

439. B. Tricycle and conventional (LP 14, p. 29)

440. B. 41,000 (LP 14, p. 9)

441. D. in forward flight (LP 13, p. 22)

442. D. Heavy, clean, slow (LP 13, p. 4)

443. C. collective (LP 12, p. 40)

444. B. Wind (LP 12, p. 17)

445. B. relative wind (LP 12, p. 6)

446. C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit (LP 11, p. 40)

447. C. 91 (LP 11, p. 3)

448. A. ATC clearance is required. (LP 11, p. 22)

449. D. A (LP 10, p.27)

450. D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight (LP 10, p. 13)

451. A. Warning Area (LP 9, p. 19)

452. A. Citation 550 (LP 14, p. 52)

453. C. C210 (LP 14, p. 38)

454. A. Large weight class (LP 14, p. 6)

455. C. III (LP 14, p. 4)

456. D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex (LP 13, p.19)

457. B. wake turbulence (LP 13, p. 3)

458. D. weight, drag (LP 12, p. 39)

459. A. increase; increases rapidly (LP 12, p. 14)

460. A. lower pressure above (LP 12, p. 4)

160

461. B. E;G (LP 11, pp. 16 and 18)

462. D. 3SM (LP 11, p. 15)

463. A. year (LP 10, p. 41)

464. C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace. (LP 10, p. 21)

465. B. Flight Plan (LP 10, p. 7)

466. D. G (LP 9, p. 12)

467. A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing (LP 14, p. 58)

468. D. “V”-tail (LP 14, p. 40)

469. C. generally indicates the manufacturer (LP 14, p. 11)

470. C. Jet blast (LP 13, p. 24)

471. B. They drift outward and sink. (LP 13, p. 12)

472. D. airfoil distortion (LP 12, p. 49)

473. C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator (LP 12, p. 26)

474. D. Fuselage (LP 12, p. 7)

475. C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen (LP 11, p. 48)

476. A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan. (LP 11, p. 42)

477. A. 190 (LP 11, p. 24)

478. B. Second Class (LP 10, p. 38)

479. B. distress (LP 10, p. 15)

480. A. Alert areas (LP 9, p. 20)

481. C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation (LP 9, p. 10)

482. D. 5678 (LP 21, p. 33)

483. A. Inner marker beacon (LP 20, p. 9)

484. D. 56 days (LP 19, p. 5)

485. A. simplify clearance delivery, expedite traffic flow, and reduce pilot/controller workload. (LP 19, p. 3)

486. C. compulsory reporting points (LP 18, p. 22)

487. A. dashed blue (LP 17, p. 16)

488. B. 130 NM (LP 16 p. 8)

161

489. C. true heading (LP 15, p. 36)

490. B. 1.15 (LP 15, p. 14)

491. A. Heading indicator (LP 21, p. 13)

492. D. provide an IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made (LP 20, p. 3)

493. C. ILS (LP 20, p. 8)

494. D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas (LP 18, p. 45)

495. A. 18,000 feet MSL (LP 18, p. 3)

496. B. 500 (LP 17, p. 8)

497. D. VFR; slow and medium (LP 17, p. 3)

498. C. 100 (LP 15, p. 25)

499. A. dead reckoning (LP 15, p. 45)

500. D. parallels of latitude (LP 15, p. 5)

501. D. Hypoxia (LP 21, p. 44)

502. C. Planview (LP 20, p. 21)

503. D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft. (LP 19, p. 3, 29)

504. D. All of the above (LP 18)

505. A. MOCA (LP 18, p. 19)

506. A. On the Terminal Area Chart (LP 17, p. 34)

507. C. glide slope (LP 16, p. 17)

508. D. An increase in altitude or temperature (LP 15, p. 38)

509. C. 15°of longitude (LP 15, p. 19)

510. D. en route (LP 19, p. 32)

511. B. High (LP 18, p. 40)

512. D. state, city, airport (LP 17, p. 42)

513. C. 360 (LP 16, p. 6)

514. C. D=SxT (LP 15, p. 26)

515. C. 1 nautical mile (NM) (LP 15, p. 9)

162

516. D. Airspeed indicator (LP 21, p. 3)

517. A. the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end (LP 20, p. 31)

518. B. Pilotage (LP 17, p. 38)

519. A. victor routes (LP 16, p. 33)

520. D. 1,125 miles (LP 15, pp. 25 thru 27)

521. C. isogonic (LP 15, p. 41)

522. C. distress (LP 22, p. 4)

523. B. 7500 (LP 22, p. 17)

523. C. overdue (LP 23, p. 9)

525. C. saturated (LP 24, p. 10)

526. D. cold, smooth air (LP 24, p. 24)

527. B. Snow (LP 24, p. 32)

528. A. A longer take off roll is required. (LP 25, p. 8)

529. A. Trace (LP 25, p. 39)

530 A. Knots (LP 26, p. 19)

531. C. “Thunderstorm, heavy rain, hail” (LP 26, pp. 30, 31)

532. C. SIGMET (LP 27, p. 26)

533. D. CWA (LP 27, p. 41)

534. B. PIREP (LP 28, p. 3)

535. D. Heavy (LP 28, p. 17)

536. C. Pilot (LP 22, p. 14)

537. C. National Search and Rescue Plan (LP 23, p. 2)

538. A. Troposphere (LP 24, p. 5)

539. C. Cumuliform (LP 24, p. 17)

540. C. Cold front (LP 24, p. 25)

541. A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) (LP 24, p. 41)

542. A. during takeoff and landing (LP 25, p. 13)

543. B. Thunderstorm (LP 25, p. 45)

163

544. C. VV006 (LP 26, p. 37)

545. B. 1°C (LP 26, p. 45)

546. B. two (LP 27, p. 30-31)

547. A. an unscheduled discussion product that summarizes anticipated weather conditions with potential impact on air traffic flow control and flight operations in an ARTCC’s area of responsibility (LP 27, p. 45)

548. B. Light icing (LP 28, p. 6)

549. C. Aircraft color (LP 22, p. 9)

550. D. military (LP 23, p. 6)

551. B. 2°c/1,000 feet (LP 24, p. 6)

552. B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds (LP 24, p. 19)

553. A. water vapor, lift, a growth process (LP 24, p. 31)

554. A. Adverse wind (LP 25, p. 4)

555. B. severe (LP 25, p. 29)

556. D. SPECI (LP 26, p. 5)

557. B. “Visibility less than one-quarter, fog” (LP 26, p. 23)

558. D. at specified terminals (LP 27, p. 3)

559. C. AIRMET Zulu (LP 27, p. 35)

560. D. wind and temperature aloft (LP 27, p. 50)

561. A. turbulence intensity (LP 28, p. 7)

562. A. separation (7110.65; LP 1, p. 15)

563. D. separating traffic and issuing safety alerts (7110.65; LP 1, p. 16)

564. A. Lighted land airport (AIM; LP 3, p. 29)

565. B. Longitudinal (7110.65; LP 4, p. 15)

566. C. lateral (7110.65; LP 4, p. 14)

567. C. NOTAM D (7930.2; LP 5, p. 6)

568. D. Receiver (ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 23)

569. A. Only displays aircraft with transponders (ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 30)

570. C. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) (AIM; LP 7, p. 18)

164

571. B. Class B (AIM; LP 9, p. 6) 572. D. every two years (FAR 67; LP 10, p. 41)

573. B. C;D (FAR 91; LP 11, p. 15)

574. B. above 14,000 MSL (FAR 91; LP 11, p. 48)

575. A. parallel with; opposite to (8083-25; LP 12, p. 6)

576. A. lift; weight (8083-25; LP 12, p. 14)

577. C. Carburetor icing (8083-25; LP 12, p. 51)

578. A. Mach buffet (7110.65; LP 13, p. 3)

579. C. 3 (8083-21; LP 13, p. 21)

580. B. large (7110.65; LP 14, p. 9)

581. C. category I (ATG-2; LP 14, p. 4)

582. D. MD11 (ATG-2; LP 14, p. 65)

583. D. 1400 (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 19)

584. C. at high altitudes (FAA-H-8083-25, LP 15, p. 38)

575. B. UH (Ultra high altitude) (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 16 p. 5)

586. B. VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC legend; LP 17, p. 34)

587. D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas (AIM; LP 18, p. 45)

588. C. SID (7110.65; LP 19, p. 12)

589. A. Final Approach Fix (FAF) (8083-15; LP 20, p. 27)

590. B. MSL (AIM; LP 20, p. 8)

591. C. increased alertness (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 21, p. 45)

592. D. Distress (7110.65; LP 22, p. 4)

593. C. 7600 (7100.65; LP 22, p. 16)

594. C. Cumuliform (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24,

595. A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24, p. 41)

596. B. Fog forms slowly, allowing pilots to avoid this hazard (FMH1, p. A-4; LP 25, p. 15)

597. C. SKC (AC 00-45; LP 26, p. 35)

598. A. METAR (FMH1; LP 26, p. 4)

165

599. C. SIGMET (AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 26) 600. C. Urgent PIREP (7110.10; LP 28, p. 3)

601. A. aircraft type (7110.10; LP 28, p. 7)

602. B. handoff (7110.66; LP 29, p. 51)

603. A. ZERO SIX FOUR TWO ZULU (7110.65; LP 29, p. 12)

604. D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, position review (7110.65; LP 29 p.

61) 605. D. Write an X through it (7110.65; LP 30, p. 9)

606. A. specified by facility directive (7110.65; LP 30, p. 18)

607. B. emergency; amended clearance (7110.65; LP 31, p. 5)

608. C. three (7110.65; LP 30, p. 17)

609. C. clearances, information, requests (7110.65; LP 31, p. 10)

610. C. movement areas (7110.65; LP 31, p. 17)

611. B. Ground Control (7110.65; LP 1, p. 34)

612. C. Make weather observations (7110.65; LP 1, p. 44)

613. A. pilot briefings and receiving and processing flight plans (7110.10; LP 1, p.24)

614. B. 1 (AIM; LP 3, p. 5)

615. B. 5 (7110.65; LP 4, p. 29)

616. C. FL 290, up to and including FL 410 (7110.65; LP 4, p. 11)

617. A. holding procedure (7110.65; LP 4, p. 42)

618. A. AIS and NOTAMs (7930.2; LP 5, p. 3)

619. B. position; movement (ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 8)

620. C. GENOT (1320.1; LP 7, p. 16)

621. B. interfacility; intrafacility (7210.3; LP 8, p. 2 and 9)

622. C. ATC tower operator certificate (FAR, 65; LP 10, p. 38)

623. A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way (FAR 91; LP 10, p. 16)

624. A. optional, but strongly encouraged (AIM; LP 11, p. 6)

625. C. 1 (FAR 91; LP 11, p. 31, 28)

166

626. B. lateral; vertical (8083-25; LP 12, p. 24) 627. B. pressure (8083-25; LP 12, p. 4)

628. C. airfoils; wings (8083-21; LP 12, p. 39)

629. D. weight (AIM; LP 13, p. 5)

630. B. leave the ground (8083-25; LP 13, p. 11)

631. D. jet blast (AIM; LP 13, p. 24)

632. D. mission (7110.65; LP 14, p. 12)

633. C. 2000’ – 4000’ per minute (7110.65; LP 14, p. 6)

634. D. 115 (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 15)

635. C. 100 (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 29)

636. D. dead reckoning (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15; p. 46)

637. A. victor routes (7110.65 & AIM; LP 16, p. 33)

638. C. every 12 months (7110.65 & AIM; LP 17, p. 38)

639. A. 56 days (AIM; LP 18, p. 3)

640. D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft. (FAA-H-8261-1; LP 19, p. 30)

641. C. ILS (AIM; LP 20, p. 8)

642. C. magnetic compass (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 21, p. 16)

643. B. discrete codes (7110.65; LP 21, p 34)

644. C. Aircraft color (7110.65; LP 22, p. 9)

645. B. National Search and Rescue Plan (7110.65; LP 23, p. 3)

646. B. dew point (AC 00-6; LP 24, p. 10)

647. B. Snow (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24, p. 32)

648. A. downdrafts (AC 00-6; LP 25, p. 47)

649. A. tailwind (AMS Glossary of Meteorology; LP 25, p. 8)

650. B. 1456 UTC (AC 00-6; LP 26, p. 14)

651. D. 6th day at 0500Z (AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 18)

652. A. AIRMET (AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 35)

653. A. 4,300 feet MSL (AC 00-45; LP 28. p. 12)

167

654. C. Continuously (7110.65; LP 29, p. 3)

655. D. UNIFORM-NOVEMBER-INDIA-TANGO (7110.65; LP 29, p. 6)

656. C. “Q TWENTY FOUR” (7110.65; LP 29, p. 42)

657. D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion (7110.65; LP 30, p. 4)

658. D. They are formatted the same for each air traffic option. (7110.65; LP 30, p. 13)

659. A. ATC clearance (7110.65; LP 31, p. 3)

666. D. 9; aircraft identification (7110.65; LP 31, p. 6)

661. B. three (7110.65; LP 31, p. 10)

662. B. NAS, delays (7210.3 and 7110.65; LP 1, p. 52)

663. A. TRACON (7110.65; LP 1, p. 37)

664. C. Loading passengers (7110.65; LP 3, p. 2)

665. B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) (7110.65; LP 4, p. 37)

666. A. up to, but not including, FL180 (7110.65; LP 4, p. 35)

667. B. airport manager/operator (7930.2; LP 5, p. 15)

668. A. shall (7110.65; LP 7, p. 21)

669. A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement (FAR 73; LP 9, p.17)

670. B. Flight Plan (FAR 1, LP 10, p. 7)

671. B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased (8083-25; LP 12, p. 21)

672. B. Fuselage (8083-25; LP 12, p. 7)

673. C. tilt; pitch (8083-21; LP 12, p. 40)

674. B. outer edges (AIM; LP 13, p. 19)

675. C. tricycle; conventional; tandem (ATG-2; LP 14, p. 29)

676. C. 1 nautical mile (NM) (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 7)

677. A. isogonic (FAA-H-8083-25; LP 15, p. 42)

678. A. The system is affected by weather. (AIM; LP 16, p. 26)

679. B. visual; slow/medium (AIM; LP 17, p. 3)

680. B. Airport/Facility Directory (7110.65 & AIM; LP 17, p. 42)

681. B. H (En Route Charts; LP 18, p. 40)

168

682. A. ILS (7110.65; LP 20, p. 9) 683. B. prevent a collision (FAR Part 1, 91, 121 and 135; LP 21, p. 40)

684. C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0 (7110.65; LP 22, p. 5)

685. D. physical search and rescue (7110.65; LP 23, p. 7)

686. A. a growth process (NWS Jetstream -Online School for Weather; LP 24, p. 31)

687. B. severe (AC 00-45; LP 25, p. 29)

688. B. Thunderstorm (AMS Glossary of Meteorology; LP 25, p. 45)

689. C. Increased temperatures with increased altitude (AC 00-6; LP 25, p. 27)

690. D. G (AC 00-45; LP 26, p. 19)

691. B. MIS (AC 00-45; LP 27, p. 45)

692. B. Light icing (7110.10; LP 28, p. 6)

693. B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA (7110.66; LP 29, p. 6)

694. C. ONE SIX THOUSAND (7110.65; LP 29, p. 10)

695. B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event) (7110.65; LP 30, p. 5)

696. B. National Airspace System (7110.65; LP 1, p. 55)

air traffic controller training initiative (at-cti) program · 2012-01-21 · 3 1. the air traffic...

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