worksheet max marks: 15 numbers to...

25

w o r k s h e e tClass III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15

© S. Chand Harcourt (India) Pvt. Ltd. I Photocopying permitted The Progressive Teacher

nuMbers to 9,999-1Tick ( ) the correct answer

Choose the number in standard form.

1. One thousand, seven hundred forty a. 174 b. 1,740 c. 1,704

2. 8 thousands 2 hundreds 6 tens 3 ones a. 8,326 b. 8,236 c. 8,263

3. Eight thousands, one hundred sixteen a. 8,160 b. 8,106 c. 8,116

4. Two thousands, five hundred forty-two a. 2,542 b. 2,524 c. 2,452

5. 7 thousands 6 hundreds 0 tens 1 one a. 7,106 b. 7,601 c. 7,610

6. 5,000 + 300 + 40 + 1 a. 5,341 b. 5,314 c. 5,431

7. 3,000 + 200 + 1 a. 3,210 b. 3,201 c. 321

8. 1,000 + 700 + 20 a. 172 b. 1,720 c. 1,270

9. 9,000 + 500 + 10 + 3 a. 9,513 b. 9,351 c. 9,531

10. 4,000 + 30 + 5 a. 4,053 b. 435 c. 4,035

Write the following numbers in standard form.

11. 7 thousands 2 hundreds 3 tens 1 one

12. 5 thousands 6 hundreds 0 tens 8 ones

13. Five thousands, one hundred seventeen

14. 2,000 + 30 + 5

15. 1,000 + 200 + 4

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w o r k s h e e t Class III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15

The Progressive Teacher © S. Chand Harcourt (India) Pvt. Ltd. I Photocopying permitted

large and sMall nuMbersTick ( ) the correct answerFind the sum using the commutative and associative properties of addition. Choose the correct answer.1. (8 + 2) + 5

8 + (2 + 5) a. 14 b. 15 c. 16

2. (9 + 3) + 2 9 + (3 + 2) a. 14 b. 13 c. 15

3. 6 + 4 4 + 6 a. 11 b. 10 c. 2

4. 7 + 2 2 + 7 a. 9 b. 10 c. 5

5. 1 + 7 7 + 1 a. 7 b. 8 c. 6

6. 4 + 9 9 + 4 a. 5 b. 12 c. 13

7. 7 + (1 + 5) (7 + 1) + 5 a. 13 b. 14 c. 12

8. (4 + 3) + 9 4 + (3 + 9) a. 15 b. 16 c. 17

9. 7 + 5 5 + 7 a. 13 b. 2 c. 12

10. 6 + (0 + 8) (6 + 0) + 8 a. 15 b. 13 c. 14

Find the sum using the commutative and associative properties of addition.11. 7 + 2 12. 6 + 2

2 + 7 2 + 613. 6 + (3 + 3) 14. (4 + 3) + 9

(6 + 3) + 3 4 + (3 + 9)15. 9 + 6

6 + 9

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w o r k s h e e tClass III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15


MultiplicationTick ( ) the correct answer

Choose the correct number sentence that solves the problem.

1. 7 + 7 + 7 + 7 + 7 + 7 = ? a. 7 × 42 = 6 b. 7 × 8 = 56 c. 6 × 7 = 42

2. 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = ? a. 4 × 4 = 16 b. 5 × 4 = 20 c. 4 × 6 = 24

3. 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 = ? a. 3 × 6 = 18 b. 7 × 3 = 21 c. 21 × 3 =7

4. 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 = ? a. 24 × 6 = 4 b. 5 × 6 = 30 c. 4 × 6 = 24

Choose the multiplication sentence for each array.

5.

a. 3 × 7 = 21 b. 7 × 3 = 10 c. 7 × 4 = 21

6.

a. 5 × 5= 20 b. 5 × 4 = 9 c. 5 × 4 = 20

7.

a. 3 × 5= 8 b. 6 × 3 = 15 c. 3 × 5 = 15

8.

a. 4 × 5= 9 b. 5 × 5 = 20 c. 4 × 5 = 20

9.

a. 2 × 3= 5 b. 2 × 3 = 6 c. 3 × 3 = 6

10.

a. 5 × 2 = 10 b. 5 × 2 = 7 c. 2 × 8 = 10

Multiply:

11. 10 × 4 = ___ 12. 10 × 2 = ___

13. 24 × 6 = ___ 14. 350 × 2 = ___

15. 109 × 3 = ___

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w o r k s h e e t Class III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15


Tick ( ) the correct answer

The following pictures are showing the number of blue balls divided into different number of groups. Each group has the same number of balls.

Choose the correct division sentence that gives the number of balls in each group.

1.

a. 20 ÷ 5 = 4 b. 20 ÷ 4 = 4 c. 20 ÷ 4 = 5

2.

a. 18 ÷ 2 = 9 b. 18 ÷ 9 = 2 c. 18 ÷ 9 = 9

3.

a. 24 ÷ 8 = 3 b. 24 ÷ 3 = 7 c. 24 ÷ 3 = 8

Use repeated subtraction on the number line to find the quotient. Choose the correct answer.

4. 16 ÷ 4 = __ a. 2 b. 3 c. 4

division5.

12 ÷ 4 = a. 8 b. 3 c. 6

6.

15 ÷ 3 = a. 9 b. 3 c. 5

Divide. Choose the correct answer.

7. 20 ÷ 2 = a. 10 b. 18 c. 9

8. 18 ÷ 2 = a. 9 b. 7 c. 8

9. 14 ÷ 2 = a. 9 b. 7 c. 8

10. 287 ÷ 7 = __ a. 46 b. 39 c. 41

Write the missing number in the box that completes the fact family.

11. 8 × 6 = 48 48 ÷ = 8

6 × 8 = 48 48 ÷ 8 = 6

12. 4 × 6 = 24 24 ÷ 6 = 4

6 × 4 = 24 ÷ 4 = 6

13. 4 × 4 = 16 16 ÷ = 4

Divide and write the quotient.

14. 40 ÷ 4 = __

15. 148 ÷ 4 = __

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w o r k s h e e tClass VI: mathematICsMax Marks: 20


playing with nuMbersTick (√) the correct answer

1. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 7? a. 2,031 b. 3,201 c. 5,887 d. 6,035

2. The smallest digit which can replace * to make 1*45 divisible by 3 is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

3. The greatest 3-digit number which is exactly divisible by 3 is: a. 999 b. 990 c. 996 d. 991

4. Which of the following is a prime number? a. 81 b. 63 c. 29 d. 91

5. Which of the following is a composite number? a. 67 b. 79 c. 89 d. 63

6. Which of the following are the prime numbers between 1 and 14? a. 1, 3, 5, 7, 11 and 13 b. 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 and 13 c. 2, 3, 5, 7 and 13 d. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 and 13

7. All the common factors of 20 and 25 are: a. 1, 3, 5 b. 1, 5 c. 3, 5 d. 5

8. Which of the following is a pair of co-primes? a. 5, 25 b. 12, 27 c. 3, 39 d. 9, 57

9. HCF of 21, 39 and 87 is: a. 2 b. 7 c. 3 d. 1

10. What is the LCM of 6 and 14? a. 21 b. 42 c. 6 d. 14

11. Complete the table to show four different factor pairs of 42.

Fa Ctor 1

x FaCtor 2

= ProduCt

1 x 42 = 422 x = 423 x = 424 x = 42

State whether the following statements are true or false.

12. Sum of two prime numbers is prime.

13. Every multiple of a number is less than or equal to the number.

14. the smallest composite number is 4.

15. Every prime number other than 2 is odd.

Fill in the blanks.

16. a _____ of a number is an exact divisor of that number.

17. a number is divisible by _____, if its unit’s digit is 0.

18. a number is divisible by ____, if it is divisible by both 2 and 3.

19. two numbers with only 1 as a common factor are called ___________.

20. _________________ of a number is an exact divisor of that number.

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w o r k s h e e t Class VI: mathematICsMax Marks: 20


Tick (√) the correct answer

1. Which of the following is correct? a. –75 > –25 b. –25 < 15 c. –15 > 16 d. 18 < –19

2. What is –56 rounded to nearest 10? a. –50 b. 60 c. –60 d. 50

3. Which is the correct order of integers in the set from least to greatest? a. –4, 2, 1 b. –2, -4, 1 c. 1, –2, –4 d. –4, –2, 1

4. Which is the correct order of integers in the set from greatest to least? a. 7, –4, 3, –5 b. 7, 3, –4, 5 c. 3, –5, –4, 7 d. –5, –4, 7, 3

5. The absolute value of a number is its distance from _______ on a number line. a. zero b. one c. two d. three

6. Which of these is the correct choice to fill in the blank? (–3) + (__) + ( +4) = –3 a. +3 b. –3 c. –4 d. +4

7. Which of these is the correct choice to fill in the blank? (–1) + (–6) = ___ a. +1 b. –7 c. +5 d. –5

8. Which of these is the correct choice to fill in the blank? (–7) – (–4) = ____ a. –3 b. +3 c. 11 d. –11

integers9. Which of these is the correct choice

to fill in the blank? (+8) – (+3) = ____ a. 6 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7

10. Which of the following is the greatest number? 10, –7, –9, –5, –13, –1, –87, –6 a. –1 b. –87 c. –13 d. –10

Find the solution of the following using the number line.11. (–7) + 10 = ____________

12. –3 + (–6) = _______________

State whether the following sentences are True or False.13. Zero is neither a negative integer

nor a positive integer.

14. Farther a number from zero on the left, larger is its value.

15. –100 is to the right of –50 on a number line.

Fill in the blanks.16. (–9) + __ = 0

17. 15 – (15) = ___

18. ____ – 20 = –15

19. (–6) + ___ = –12

20. 13 + ___ = 0

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w o r k s h e e tClass VI: mathematICsMax Marks: 20


fractionsTick (√) the correct answer

1. What fraction is represented by the shaded region of this bar?

a. 95

b. 49

c. 79

d. 59

2. Which of the following represent the sum of

1 6 and

2 6 ?

a. 16

b. 14

c. 12

d.312

3. Which of these is a proper fraction?

a.135

b. 79

c. 2 711

d. 52

4. Which of these is the lowest form of 1218?

a. 13

b. 23

c. 46

d. 32

5. Which of these is the equivalent fraction of

1545

with denominator 9?

a. 39

b. 129

c. 49

d. 59

6. Which of these is the sum of 2 7 +

5 7 +

3 7 +

1 7 ?

a. 97

b. 47

c. 117

d. 137

7. Which of the following is the difference of 5 8

and 2 8 ?

a. 38

b. 28

c. 83

d. 48

8. Which of these is the correct answer for the given expression?

3482 36

-

a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4

9. Which of the following is the product of

218

135

and ?

a. 135

b. 1740

c. 175

d. 1740

10. Which of the following is the product of

320

56

and ?

a. 158

b. 320

c. 145

d. 18

Match each fraction to the one that best matches it.

11. 35

A. is equal to one

12. 514

B. is an improper fraction

13. 44

C. is a mixed number

14. 53

D. is a proper fraction

15. Write the fraction that represents the shaded region in the give picture.

Ans: ____Fill in the blanks.16. A __________ fraction is any fraction where the numerator

is less than the denominator.17. An _______ fraction is any fraction where the numerator is

greater than or equal to the denominator.

18. The multiplicative inverse of 6 5 is______.

Reduce the following fraction to its simplest form.

19. 6526

20. 9020

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w o r k s h e e t Class VI: mathematICsMax Marks: 20


Tick (√) the correct answer

1. Which of these fractions is equivalent to 0.25? a. 100/4 b. 100/25 c. 100/40 d. 100/400

2. Which of these is the sum of 245.75 and 400.00? a. 249.75 b. 645.75 c. 64.575 d. 154.25

3. Which of these is the sum of 520.80 and 604.50? a. 1125.30 b. 11.2530 c. 1124.130 d. 1.12530

4. Which of these is the difference of 604.50 and 520.80? a. 0.837 b. 83.7 c. 1.83 d. 8.37

5. Which of these is the

decimal form of 4210

?

a. 4.2 b. 0.042 c. 5.2 d. 1.42

6. Which of these is the

decimal form of 371000

?

a. 0.037 b. 3.7 c. 0.37 d. 1.42

7. What is the value of 250.68 + 35.2 + 28? a. 3.1388 b. 31.388 c. 3138.8 d. 313.88

deciMals8. What is the value of

21.05 – 15.27? a. 6.25 b. 5.78 c. 4.29 d. 8.25

9. What is the value of 48.05 – 10.07? a. 5.78 b. 6.25 c. 37.98 d. 8.25

10. What is the value of 8.5 ÷ 5? a. 1.7 b. 1.5 c. 5.1 d. 1.9

Fill in the blanks.11.Thefirstfourplacevaluestothe__________

ofthedecimalpointaretenths, hundredths,thousandthsandten-thousands.

12.Thesymbolthatrepresentsthe numberpiis____.

13.Thesumofthenumbers204.50+60.02is_______________.

14.70km5mcanbeexpressedaskm usingdecimalsas________.

15.5kg8gcanbeexpressedaskg usingdecimalsas________.

Convert the following pairs into like decimals:16. 2.3 and 2.3317. 6 and 6.06

Convert the following decimals into fractions:18. 6.0119. 34.17020. 5.05

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w o r k s h e e tClass VII: sCIenCeMax Marks: 20


nutrition in plantsTick ( ) the correct answer

1. The ultimate source of energy for all organisms is a. Plants c. Soil b. Sun d. Water

2. Plants synthesise food in the form of a. Carbon dioxide c. Sugar b. Light d. Water

3. The loss of water in plants through leaves and stems is called a. Perspiration c. Transpiration b. Photosynthesis d. Respiration

4. Food and water is carried throughout the plant by a. Leaves c. Roots b. Vascular bundles d. Stomata

5. Haustoria helps plants to a. Anchor and absorb food c. Respire b. Photosynthesise d. Produce oxygen

6. Bacteria are present in the root nodules of a. Parasitic plants c. Saprotrophic plant b. Leguminous plants d. Insectivorous plants

7. Bacteria in leguminous plants help in a. Capturing oxygen b. Capturing carbon dioxide c. Capturing nitrogen d. Capturing sunlight

8. Plants with the help of light energy convert water and carbon dioxide into a. Sugar and oxygen c. Water and sugar b. Sugar and nitrogen d. Water and oxygen

9. Bromothymol blue is used to detect a. Carbon dioxide produced by the plant b. Oxygen produced by the plant c. Presence of starch in leaves d. Presence of stomata in leaves

10. Though mistletoe carries out photosynthesis, it is still a parasitic plant as a. It depends on the host for nitrogen b. It draws water and few other nutrients from the host c. It uses the chloroplast of the host to carry out photosynthesis d. It uses the stored food of the host plant

Fill in the blanks:

11. The mutual association in which both organisms gain from each other is called _________________.

12. Chloroplast contains stacks of ________________.

13. Green plants are ______________ while mushrooms are __________________.

14. During photosynthesis plants use __________, _____________ and sunlight to prepare their own food.

15. The plants that trap and feed on insects are called _______________.

16. Give two examples of parasitic plants. _________________________________________________ _________________________________________________

17. Write the chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis. _________________________________________________ _________________________________________________

18.Whichplantproducesthelargestflowerand what is its mode of nutrition? ________________________________________________________________

19. Give one word for the following: a.The structures that contain chlorophyll in them. b. Living organisms that can synthesise their own food

20. Spores food hyphae Mycellium Spores

The above represents the life cycle of ________________________________.

34

w o r k s h e e t Class VII: sCIenCe


Max Marks: 20

Tick ( ) the correct answer

1. Which of the following is the correct order of processing food in our body? a. Ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination b. Digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination c. Ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion d. Ingestion, digestion, elimination, absorption

2. Breakdown of carbohydrates first begins in a. Mouth c. Small intestine b. Stomach d. Pancreas

3. Which of the following is not a function of the tongue? a. Tasting food b. Manipulating food within the mouth c. Secreting saliva d. Pushing food into the pharynx to begin swallowing

4. Villi are finger- like projections in the small intestine that help in a. Increasing the surface area of the intestine lining b. Secreting digestive juices c. Egesting waste d. All of the above

5. Herbivores probably lack a. Molars c. Incisors b. Premolars d. Canines

6. The stomach of ruminants is a. Convoluted c. Two chambered b. Four chambered d. Highly acidic

7. The largest part of ruminant stoamch is a. Abomassum c. Reticulum b. Rumen d. Omasum

8. The gastric juices produced in the stoamch act upon a. Protein c. Fat b. Carbohydrate d. Minerals

9. Which of the following organs secretes bile? a. Pancreas b. Liver c. Gall bladder d. Spleen

nutrition in aniMals10. Which of the following statements

about the large intestine is true? a. The function of the large intestine is to absorb water and

some salts from digested food

b. The function of the large intestine is to absorb water and some salts from undigested food material

c.The large intestine is wider and longer than the small intestine

d. The large intestine is highly coiled

Fill in the blanks with words provided:

Twenty, Bile, Chyme, Tearing, Chewing, Food vacoule, Holozoic

11. There are ______________ teeth in a temporary set of teeth.

12. After digestion in the stomach, food is called__________.

13. Carnivores have very strong __________teeth.

14. Most animals have ___________mode of nutrition.

15. Amoeba forms a __________when it comes in contact with food.

16. Label the parts of the human digestive system in the following picture:

35

w o r k s h e e tClass VII: sCIenCe


Max Marks: 18

HeatTick ( ) the correct answer1. Temperature is

measured in a. Celsius c. Kelvin b. Farhenheit d. All of the above

2. Which one of the following is the preferred mode of transfer of heat energy in solids? a. Conduction c. Radiation b. Convection d. a and b

3. Which one of the following is the preferred mode of transfer of heat energy in liquids and gases? a. Conduction c. Radiation b. Convection d. a and b

4. Heat from the sun travels to the earth by the process of a. Conduction c. Radiation b. Convection d. All of the above

5. Which of the following materials should be used to make a ladle for cooking a. Plastic c. Iron b. Copper d. Wood

6. Woollen jerseys have holes in them. This prevents heat loss by a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. All of the above

7. Food is kept in a cool-box which uses two ice packs to keep it cool. Where should the ice packs be placed to keep all the food as cool as possible? a. Both at the bottom of the box b. Both at the top of the box c. One at the front and one at the back of the box d. One on the left and one on the right of the box

8. Hot liquid in a vacuum flask cools extremely slowly. This is because some methods of heat transfer cannot take place in a vacuum. Which methods cannot take place in a vacuum? a. Conduction and convection only b. Conduction and radiation only c. Convection and radiation only d. Conduction, convection and radiation

9. An engineer wants to fix a steel washer on to a steel rod. The rod is just too big to fit into the hole of the washer. How can the engineer fit the washer onto the rod? a. Cool the washer and put it over the rod b. Cool the washer and rod to the same temperature and push them together c. Heat the rod and then place it in the hole d. Heat the washer and place it over the rod

10. A student places 2 thermometers near a melting ice cube. X is placed above the ice cube and Y is placed below. What change will the student observe in the readings on the thermometers? a. Temperature in X will decrease more than that in Y b. Temperature in Y will decrease more than that in X c. Both X and Y will show the same decrease in temperature d. There will be no change in both X and Y

11. Convection current blowers should be placed on the floors because a. This prevents over heating of the blower b. They are easy to earth c. Hot air goes up d. Hot air stays down

12. Which of the following are good conductors of heat? a. Copper b. Iron c. Aluminum d. All of the above

Fill in the blanks using a suitable word: Black, Kinetic energy, Thermometer, Thermos flask, Conduction

13. A thing which keeps hot things ___________.

14. Transfer of heat without the actual movement of particles is called___________.

15. ________________ is a device used to measure temperature.

16. Heat is the ________________ of particles that make up matter.

17. ________________ bodies are good absorbers and good emitters of heat energy.

18. Draw a well labelled diagram illustrating an example of convection currents.

36

w o r k s h e e t Class VII: sCIenCeMax Marks: 20


Tick ( ) the correct answer1. Slaked lime improves soil fertility by

a. Providing nutrition to plants b. By increasing acidity of soil c. By increasing basicity of the soil d. By decreasing acidity of the soil

2. Turmeric solution turns from yellow to red as it is a. A base c. An indicator b. An acid d. A salt

3. Antacids are used a. To speed up the process of digestion b. As an indicator of digestion c. To neutralise excess acid produced in the stomach d. To neutralise salts present in the stomach

4. Water sample from a river has a pH value of 3. Which substance can be added in to the water to neutralise the pH value of the acidic water present, without leaving an alkaline solution? a. Aqueous potassium hydroxide b. Calcium carbonate c. Ammonia d. Hydrochloric acid

5. When baking soda is added to vinegar, an effervescent reaction results due to the release of a. Hydrogen gas c. Hydrochloride gas b. Carbon dioxide gas d. Carbon disulphide gas

6. A water sample is tested for pH using a universal indicator. The paper turns green. What is the pH of this water sample? a. Acidic c. Basic b. Neutral d. Highly acidic

7. Which of the following is not a natural indicator? a. Turmeric c. Purple cabbage juice b. Berries extract d. Methyl orange

8. When Hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium, one of the end products is a. Carbon dioxide c. Hydrogen gas b. Ammonia d. Chloride gas

acids, bases and salts

9. Blue litmus paper is dipped into a solution; the colour of the litmus paper does not change. This indicates that the solution is a. Acidic c. Neutral b. Basic d. Made by dissolving salt

10. Which of the following will not produce hydrogen when it reacts with acid? a. Sodium c. Zinc b. Magensium d. Aluminium

11. Blockage in pipes can be cleared by using a. Acetic acid and sodium carbonate b. Acetic acid and sodium bicarboante c. Acetic acid d. Sodium bicarbonate

12. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. Some bases are insoluble in water b. Pickles can corrode metal containers c. Organic acids are weak acids d. A salt is always neutral

State whether the following statements are true or false:

13. Salt is formed by the neutralisation of Hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide

14. Bases are used in household cleaners

15. Sodium hydroixde is an alkali

16. Turmeric can act as an antacid

17. Acids present in food, can cause tooth decay

Complete the following reactions:

18. Zinc + hydrochloric acid _____________+______________

19. HCl + _______________ NaCl + _____________

20. Methyl orange + Acid ______________

37

w o r k s h e e tClass VIII: soCIal studIesMax Marks: 20


Tick ( ) the correct answer1. Which one of the following is not important in

the study of history? a. Helps us to understand how people lived b. Helps us to understand the present c. Helps us to understand the scientific skills d. Keeps us informed about the beliefs of the people in the world

2. The full form of A.D. is a. Anno Domini c. Anna Domini b. Anno Damini d. Anno Dimini

3. A.D. starts from a. 1st Century c. 3rd Century b. 2nd Century d. 4th Century

4. Which one of the following is not a primary source? a. Films c. Surveys b. Photographs d. Journals

5. The book, “The History of British India’’ was written by a. James Hills c. James Bill b. James Thrill d. James Mill

6. The concept of B.C. and A.D. for numbering calendars was given by a Christian monk known as a. Dionysius Exiquces c. Dionysius Exiqces b. Dionysius Exiguus d. Dionysius Exiquo

7. The modern period began from the a. 16th Century c. 17th Century b. 18th Century d. 19th Century

8. The Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed in a. 1927 c. 1928 b. 1929 d. 1930

how, when and where?9. The Poona Pact that was

signed in 1932 was between a. Muslims and Untouchables b. Christians and Untouchables c. Hindus and Untouchables d. Sikhs and Untouchables

10. Which of the following is incorrect for James Mill? a. Scottish economist b. Historian c. Philosopher d. British economist


11. Historical events are arranged chronologically in order of time

12. Paintings do not provide any clue to the historian to understand what the painter wanted to convey

13. British period is also called colonial period

14. Historians divide Indian history on the basis of the religion of the rulers of those times

15. The word medieval is associated with equality, progress and democracy

16. The Queen’s Proclamation was drafted by Edward Tamely

17. Secondary sources provide us with their own interpretation

18. Mention the features that James Mill associated with India: a. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ b. _____________________________________________ c. _____________________________________________

(history)

38

w o r k s h e e t Class VIII: soCIal studIesMax Marks: 20


Tick ( ) the correct answer1. Which one of the following Indian rulers was

defeated and killed by the British in the Battle of Plassey in 1757? a. Mir Jafar c. Mir Qasim b. Siraj-ud-Daulah d. Farrukh Siyar

2. Where in India did the French establish their first factory? a. Bombay c. Goa b. Mahe d. Surat

3. Who introduced the Dual Government in Bengal in 1765? a. Lord Wellesley b. Lord Dalhousie c. Robert Clive d. Sir Charles Napier

4. Which one of the following treaties was signed between the British, Shah Alam II and Shuja-ud-Daulah in 1765? a. Treaty of Bengal c. Treaty of Ahmedabad b. Treaty of Hyderabad d. Treaty of Allahabad

5. Which of the following was not annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse? a. Jaipur c. Nagpur b. Jhansi d. Sambhalpur

6. What was the highest position for an Indian in the British army? a. Hawaldar c. Subedar b. Captain d. Daroga

7. Which college was established to train young recruits for the civil service? a. Fort William c. Fort St. George b. Hailey Bury d. Fort Henry

8. Where was the Supreme Court established by the Regulating Act of 1773? a. Calcutta c. Bombay b. Madras d. Pune

froM trade to territory (History)

9. Who established the Indian Civil Service? a. Cornwallis c. Warren Hastings b. Lord Clive d. King Louis XVI

10. Which Charter Act abolished the Company’s monopoly in Indian trade? a. The Charter Act of 1833 b. The Charter Act of 1813 c. The Charter Act of 1835 d. The Charter Act of 1838


11.ThegreedoftheCompany’sofficialsledtoits financialbankruptcy

12. The Regulating Act of 1773 curbed the powers of the Company

13. The Indian Sepoys were very well paid

14. The English were the firstEuropeanstoarriveinIndia

15. British established the Rule of Law in India

16. Mir Qasim was placed on the throne of Bengal after the Battle of Buxar

17. Lord Dalhousie initiated the policy of the Doctrine of Lapse

18. Mention any three features of the treaty of Allahabad

a. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________ b. _____________________________________________ ____________________________________________ c. _____________________________________________ _____________________________________________

39

w o r k s h e e tClass VIII: soCIal studIesMax Marks: 20


(GeoGraphy)Land, soiL, water naturaL veGetation and wiLdLifeTick ( ) the correct answer1. �Which of these factors is responsible for the loss of

land resources? a. Land degradation, landslides, soil erosion b. Submergence of land by water c. Overgrazing d. Migration

2. �In most cities there are 'Open Spaces' and 'Greenbelts'. Why are they needed to preserve the ecology of the land? a. Provide a habitat for birds b. Increase heat c. Help animals survive in urban areas d. Support trees, absorb pollutants, produce oxygen, cool

the city and reduce drainage problems3. Which of these enables land-use patterns to be

changed in advance? a. Development of marginal lands b. Land reclamation c. Land-use planning and Knowledge d. Urbanisation

4. Which of these tools are used by city planners for effective land use planning? a. GPS system b. Satellite c. Geographical Information System(GIS) d. Radar

5. Which type of land has the greatest potential for growth? a. Mulching c. Soil-retaining terraces b. Intercropping d. Shelter belts

6. Which of these methods can be used to conserve the topsoil on hill slopes? a. Large number of industries b. Availability of raw materials c. Location of industries close to each other and sharing benefits d. Availability of transport and communication

7. Which of these helps the soil to regain its fertility in minimum time?�a. Intercropping c. Rock dams b. Contour barriers d. No-till farming

8. Which of these is the most effective way to prevent soil erosion caused by winds? a. Shelter belts c. Contour barriers b. Mulching d. Rock dams

9. Which farming processes tend to increase soil erosion? a. Planting crops b. Ploughing and water from irrigation c. Weeding d. Harvesting

10. Which of these is an effect of soil erosion? a. Increased crop yields b. Decrease in desertification c. Increase in land fertility d. Decrease in the amount of top soil

11. Where can most of the water available for human use be found? a. Surface water c. Watersheds b. Groundwater d. Water in rivers and seas

12. Which is the stage that enables water to reach back into the ground?�a. Evaporation c. Run off b. Precipitation d. Condensation

13. Which factors affect the level of the water table? a. Water in the ground, surface features, type of rock b. Porosity of the soil c. Porosity of rocks beneath water that is withdrawn d. Water run off

14. How can water be conserved in agriculture? a. Using less water for irrigation b. Drip Irrigation c. Fields are located close to water bodies d. Not using water for irrigation

15. Which of these helps to conserve water used by industries? a. From decomposers to Sun b. From decomposers to producers c. Cycles, utensils, brassware or any metallurgical industry d. From decomposers to consumers

16. Why do food chains never end? a. Due to increasing number of Decomposers b. Due to a continuous increase in the number of Consumers c. Due to Producers producing more food, Producers and

Consumers reproducing, food chains never end d. The number of Decomposers is always more than the

Producers and the Consumers 17. In a food chain, energy moves from organism to

organism. Which of the following is the correct order of energy movement in a food chain?

a. Sun, carnivores, producers, herbivores b. Sun, consumers, predators and producers c. Sun , producers, carnivores, herbivores d. Sun, producers, herbivores, carnivores

18. How do 'Decomposers' gain energy? a. Decomposers gain energy by breaking down dead Producers and Consumers b. By eating all the Producers c. Eating Producers and Consumers d. By eating all the Consumers

19. How do 'Decomposers' play a crucial role in the recycling of nutrients? a. Break down the dead organisms b. Places from where they can control business c. Thrive on decaying organic matter d. Allow nutrients in decaying matter to return to the Biosphere

20. Iguanas are lizards that eat plants and insects. What kind of consumer is the Iguana? a. Carnivore c. Omnivore b. Herbivore d. Producer

40

w o r k s h e e t Class VIII: soCIal studIesMax Marks: 20


Tick ( ) the correct answer1. A written document containing the rules for

governing a country is called a a. Preamble c. Constitution b. Document d. Dharmashashtras

2. Which of the following words describes an independent country? a. Arbitrary c. Tyranny b. Sovereign d. Socialist

3. Which of the following terms means that all religions are equal in India? a. Sovereign c. Secular b. Socialist d. Democratic

4. Which one of the following purposes does the Constitution not serve? a. It lays down the ideals b. It outlines the fundamental nature of our Constitution c. It lays down guidelines for a country’s administration d. It guards us against external threats

5. What might be the outcome of our chosen leaders exercising power on our behalf in a democracy? a. Minimum use of authority b. Careless attitude towards authority c. Misuse of authority d. None of the above

6. Which among following Fundamental Rights is the most important and ensures that we are able to exercise them? a. Right to Equality b. Right to Constitutional Remedies c. Right to Freedom d. Right to Freedom of Religion

7. Sarvapalli opens a school where Sanskritic traditions are taught to the students. Under which of the Fundamental Rights is he allowed to run the school in the Indian Constitution? a. Right to Equality b. Cultural and Educational Right c. Right to Freedom d. Right to Freedom of Religion

the indian consititution8. What is referred to as the

‘conscience’ of the Indian Constitution? a. Preamble b. Fundamental Rights c. Directive Principles d. All of these

9. Which of the following is not a part of the government? a. Legislature c. Judiciary b. Executive d. Industry

10. Which of the following form of government does India have? a. Presidential form b. Parliamentary form c. Dictatorial form d. Theocratic form


11. The philosophy of the Constitution of India is embedded in the Preamble

12. The words ‘Secularist’, ‘Secularism’ and ‘Unity and Integrity of the nation’ are the Preamble

13. In India, the President is elected by people through the exercise of their right to vote

14. The legislature, the executive and the judiciary are the three organs of the state

15. Every citizen of the country cannot contest in the elections

Name the following:

16. The assembly of elected representatives which legislates and exercises political authority on behalf of the people

17. The organ of the state, which resolves, disputes and maintains order

18. Chairman of the Constituent Assembly

19. The Nominal head of the country

20. The division of power between Centre and State

(sPL)

worksheet max marks: 15 numbers to...

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