Q No: 1

The high concentration of testosterone into the lumen of seminiferous tubule is maintained by :-

(1)

LH

(2)

FSH

(3)

ABP

(4)

ACTH

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 2

Which is poorly filtered across filteration barrier of kidney ?

(1)

Protein

(2)

RBC

(3)

Creatinine

(4)

All of the above

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 3

Two functions that the monomersdeoxynucleoside triphosphates play in DNA replication are that theya. act as catalystb. act as substratesc. provide energy for polymerisation rectiond. regulate process of replication

(1)

Both a & b

(2)

Both b & c

(3)

Both c & d

(4)

Both a & c

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 4

Fine the incorrect statement:-

(1)

The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is metabolism

(2)

Metabolic reaction can not be demonstrated outside the body in cell free medium

(3)

All plants, animals and microbes exhibit metabolism

(4)

No non living object exhibits metabolism

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 5

Which one is an industry devoted to the catching processing or selling of fish, shell fish or other aquatic animals ?

(1)

Aquaculture

(2)

Pisciculture

(3)

Fishery

(4)

Dairy farming

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 6

Wall which is gradually diminish as the cell mature :-

(1)

Middle lamella

(2)

Primary cell wall

(3)

Secondary cell wall

(4)

Tertiary cell wall

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 7

Which taxonomic term may be suggested for any rank in the classification ?

(1)

class

(2)

order

(3)

species

(4)

taxon

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 8

Choose the correct statement from the following-

(1)

Coelenterates ase aquatic and radially symmetrical animals

(2)

Coelenterates exhibit tissue level of organisation and are diploblastic

(3)

Coelenterates exhibit two basic body forms called polyp and medusa

(4)

All the above

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 9

Maintanance of soil fertility without addition of nutrients is due to

(1)

Crop residue

(2)

Activity of micro organism

(3)

Flood

(4)

Favourable temperature

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 10

Select out the wrong match :-

(1)

Mango - Single ovule

(2)

Paddy - Single ovule

(3)

Wheat - Many ovules

(4)

Papaya - Many ovules

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 11

Gonadotropin hormone is :

(1)

LH

(2)

ADH

(3)

GnRH

(4)

ACTH

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 12

What happen to the O2 dissociation curve of Hb if pH is decreased ?

(1)

Shift to left

(2)

Shift to right

(3)

remain unchanged

(4)

will oscillate erratically

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 13

If the hershey-Chase experiment is repeated with 32 P & 15 N in place of 35 S used in original experiment then 32 P would :-

(1)

Be integrated in the DNA of virus making it redioactive and 15 N would be integrated in protein capsid making it radioactive

(2)

Make DNA radioactive & 15 N would make DNA as well as proteins radioactive

(3)

Make DNA & proteins radioactive & so would 15 N

(4)

Integrate in DNA of virus making it radioactive & 15 N would be incorporated in DNA & proteins of virus but would not make them radioactive

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 14

Many bacteria are now resistant to penicillin because

(1)

Penicillin cause gene mutation

(2)

Previously resistant forms survived and reproduced better than non resistant forms

(3)

Hospital environment inhibits competition among bacteria.

(4)

Penicillin triggers the synthesis of resistant proteins

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 15

Which one is a technique used in overcome several problems of normal matings in animals?

(1)

Artificial insemination

(2)

Hypophysation technique

(3)

MOET-Technology

(4)

All of these

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 16

Match the list-I with list II :-

 

 List-I

 

 List-II

A

 Chlorophyll

1

 Chromatin

B

 70s Ribosome

2

 Cytoplasm

C

 Axoneme

3

 Stroma

D

 Kinetochore

4

 Cilia

5

 Thylakoids

6

 Chromosome

7

 Centriole

(1)

A–3       B–2       C–4       D–6

(2)

A–5       B–3       C–4       D–1

(3)

A–5       B–3       C–4       D–6

(4)

A–3       B–2       C–7       D–6

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 17

Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

 

 Column-I

 

 Column-II

A

 Chlorophyta

1

 Equisetum

B

 Lycopsida

2

 Chara

C

 Phaeophyta

3

 Selaginella

D

 Sphenopsida

4

 Ectocarpus

(1)

A–4       B–3       C–1       D–2

(2)

A–2       B–1       C–3       D–4

(3)

A–4       B–1       C–2       D–3

(4)

A–2       B–3       C–4       D–1

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 18

Which of the following is not the feature of ctenophores ?

(1)

ctenophores are exclusively marine

(2)

ctenophores body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates

(3)

They are dioecious and reproduce both asexually and sexually

(4)

ctenophores are commonly known as seawalnuts

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 19

Flow of energy declines from lower to higher trophic level in ecosystem is mainly explained by

(1)

1st law of thermodynamics

(2)

2nd law of thermodynamics

(3)

Both (1) & (2)

(4)

None of the above

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 20

In angiosperm entire part of the nucellus is utilized by developing embryosac but in some. angiosperm some part of nucellus remain inside the ovule that part of nucellus present in side the seed known as :-

(1)

Aril

(2)

Perisperm

(3)

Pseudoembryosac

(4)

Sarcotesta

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 21

Pancreatic zymogens are activated by :

(1)

Trypsin and chymotrypsin

(2)

Elastase

(3)

Enterokinase

(4)

Trypsin and enterokinase

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 22

During normal respiration without any effort the volume of air inspired or expired is called -

(1)

Tidal volume

(2)

Reserve volume

(3)

Residual volume

(4)

None of these

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 23

During in vitro synthesis of DNA, a researcher used 2', 3',-dideoxy cytidine triphosphate as raw nucleotide in place of 2'-deoxy cytidine. What would be the consequence ?

(1)

DNA synthesis would occur normally in 5'-3' direction

(2)

2', 3' didexoycytidine triphosphate is better raw material

(3)

DNA synthesis would occur in 3'-5' direction

(4)

DNA synthesis would not occur with this raw material

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 24

Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called :-

(1)

Founder effect

(2)

Saltation

(3)

Branching descent

(4)

Natural selection

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 25

Cri-du-chat syndrom in humans is caused by the-

(1)

Fertilisation of an XX egg by a normal Y bearing sperm

(2)

Loss of half of short arm of chromosome 5

(3)

Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5

(4)

Trisomy of 21th chromosome

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 26

Which one of the following statement is wrong for nucleolus :-

(1)

Related with NOR

(2)

Nucleolus is spherical structure present in the nucleoplasm.

(3)

Nucleolus is a site for synthesis of active Ribosomal protein.

(4)

The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm.

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 27

The red colour of Rhodophyta is due to the predominance of :-

(1)

Carotenes

(2)

Xanthophylls

(3)

Phycoerythrin

(4)

Phycocyanin

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 28

In which one of the following cnidarians show metagenesis ?

(1)

Physalia

(2)

Adamsia

(3)

Meandrina

(4)

Pennatual

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 29

In the following which is not true for parasites ?

(1)

like predators, limit the population of host species

(2)

they are generally host specific

(3)

they are smaller in size & have higher biotic potential

(4)

they have choice like predators

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 30

The majority of ATP molecules derived from nutrient metabolism are generated by (the) : -

(1)

Anaerobic fermentation and glycolysis

(2)

Fermentation and electron transport chain

(3)

Krebs cycle and electron transport chain

(4)

Substrate phosphorylation

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 31

Each hepatic lobule is covered by :

(1)

Glisson's capsule

(2)

Adipose tissue

(3)

Blood vesseles

(4)

Gelatin

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 32

Neurogenic heart is characteristic of

(1)

Humans

(2)

Lower invertebrates

(3)

Rat

(4)

Rabbit

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 33

Which of the following are the functions of t-RNA ?

(1)

It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesising polypeptides.

(2)

It carries amino acids to ribosomes.

(3)

It is a main component of ribosomes.

(4)

All of the above

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 34

An important evidence in favour of organic evolution and common ancestory is the occurrence of :-

(1)

Homologous and vestigial organs

(2)

Analogous and vestigial organs

(3)

Homologous organs only

(4)

Homologous and analogous organs

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 35

Gametocytes during life cycle of plasmodium are developed in-

(1)

RBCs of Mosquito

(2)

Stomach of mosquito

(3)

Liver of Man

(4)

RBC of Man

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 36

An organelle which is surrounded by double membrane structure, contain small circular DNA molecule & ribosome and also having the site for oxidative phosphorylation :-

(1)

Chloroplast

(2)

Centriole

(3)

Mesosome

(4)

Mitochondria

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 37

The smallest organisms which are self reproducing in free living state are known as :-

(1)

viruses

(2)

prions

(3)

bacteria

(4)

PPLO

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 38

Choose the correct option -

(1)

Spongilla, Euspongia, Ascaris - Monoecious

(2)

Wuchereria, Ancyclostoma and Neries - Dioecious

(3)

Neries, Pheretima, Hirudinaria - Monoecious

(4)

Ascaris, Pleurobranchia, Ctenoplana - Triploblastic

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 39

Rhododendrons are characteristic of -

(1)

Evergreen forest

(2)

Deliduous forest

(3)

alpine vegetation

(4)

Coniferous vegetation

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 40

Which of the following are NOT imbedded in the thylakoid membrane ?

(1)

Chlorophyll a and b

(2)

P700 & P680 molecules

(3)

Proton channels of the ATP synthase

(4)

Enzymes associated with CO2 fixation

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 41

Entero hepatic circulation help in absorption of

(1)

Bile pigments

(2)

Bile juice

(3)

Bile salts

(4)

Cholesterol

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 42

A diagrammatic presentation of Knee-jerk reflex is given below, which of the following structure labelled as A, B, C, D, E and F is not involved in this reflex pathway :-

(1)

D only

(2)

D and E

(3)

A and E

(4)

C, D and E

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 43

Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase alone ?

(1)

Initiation

(2)

Elongation

(3)

Termination

(4)

All of the above

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 44

Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures ?

(1)

Organs that have no function now but had an important function in ancestors

(2)

Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult

(3)

Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions

(4)

Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but performing same functions

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 45

In our county NACO is doing a lot to educate the people about-

(1)

Cancer

(2)

AIDS

(3)

Typhoid

(4)

Chicken Pox

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 46

Which structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activity:-

(1)

Primary structure

(2)

α helix

(3)

β plated sheet

(4)

Tertiary structure

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 47

In which of the following, reproductive structures lack a layer of sterile vegetative cells surrounding the egg ?

(1)

Cycas

(2)

Riccia

(3)

Funaria

(4)

Saccharomyses

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 48

A feature is absent in Aschelminthes -

(1)

They have organ system level of body organisation

(2)

They are bilaterally symmetrical

(3)

They are pseudocoelomate animals

(4)

They have nephridia for osmoregulation

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 49

What shall be the effect of destruction of wild life -

(1)

wild genes of disease resistance will not be obtained

(2)

soil erosion

(3)

flood

(4)

green house effect

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 50

Which of the following is NOT required by nitrogen-fixing organisms for growth ?

(1)

CO2

(2)

Nitrate

(3)

Nitrogen

(4)

Oxygen

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 51

The duct system of testis help in :

(1)

Transportation of sperm

(2)

Maturation of sperm

(3)

Storage of sperm

(4)

All of the above

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 52

Mark the incorrect statement about the macula lutea of your eyes :-

(1)

Yellowish pigmented spot

(2)

Located at the posterior pole of the eye lateral to the blind spot.

(3)

Located on the blind spot at the posterior pole

(4)

Has a central pit called fovea, where only the cones are densly pakced.

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 53

In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when:-

(1)

Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor

(2)

Repressor binds to operator

(3)

RNA polymerase binds to the operator

(4)

Lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 54

Primitive man was originated during :-

(1)

Miocene

(2)

Holocene

(3)

Pleistocene

(4)

Pliocene

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 55

The specific binding of HIV to the CD4 surface molecule of host cell membrane is brought about by-

(1)

gP-120

(2)

gP-41

(3)

P-32

(4)

P-55

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 56

.......... enable glucose transport into cells:-

(1)

Glut-4

(2)

Antibody

(3)

Trypsin

(4)

Collagen

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 57

Consider the following statements (A-E) :-(A) In both bryophytes and pteridophytes, gametophytic generation have independent free living existence(B) Megasporophyll of Cycas is equivalent to the stamen of angiosperms(C) Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is carried by flagellated gametes.(D) The fungus often studied in experimental genetics and also called as "Drosophila of plant kingdom", belongs to the class basidiomycetes.(E) The boundaries of the kingdom. Protista are not well defined.Choose the correct and incorrect statements from the above

(1)

Correct Statements - A, C & EIncorrect Statements - B & D

(2)

Correct Statements - B, C & DIncorrect Statements - A & E

(3)

Correct Statements - A & EIncorrect Statements - B, C & D

(4)

Correct Statements - B & CIncorrect Statements - A, D & E

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 58

Which of the following statements regarding cyclostomes are correct ?(A) All living cyclostomes are ectoparasites(B) Cyclostomes have a sucking and circular mouth without jaw(C) Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water(D) They have internal fertilisation and many of them are viviparous

(1)

A, B and C

(2)

A, B and D

(3)

A and D

(4)

All

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 59

SO2 pollution is indicated by -

(1)

Desmodium (Touch me not)

(2)

Sphagnum (Mosses)

(3)

Usnea (lichens)

(4)

Cucurbita (climbers)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 60

Which of the following is true for transport in xylem?

(1)

The primary force involved is osmotic pressure

(2)

xylem is the primary site for transport of sucrose

(3)

Movement through xylem depends on transpiration

(4)

All of the above

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 61

The sperm and secretion of accessory sex glands together form :

(1)

Seminal fluid

(2)

Semen

(3)

Prostatic fluid

(4)

Smegma

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 62

A woman with two genes, one for haemophilia and a gene for colour blindness both on same 'X' chromosomes marries a normal man, Progeny will be :-

(1)

All sons and daughters haemophillic and colour blind.

(2)

Haemophilic and colour blind daughters

(3)

50% haemophilic colour-blind sons and 50% normal sons

(4)

50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colourblind daughters

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 63

According to Sutton and Boveri segregation of a pair of factors is because of :-

(1)

Splitting of chromosomes at anaphase of mitosis

(2)

Pairing and segregation of homologous chromosomes at Anaphase of Meiosis-I

(3)

Random arrangement of chromosomes at equator during meiosis-I

(4)

Random arrangement of chromosomes at equator during mitosis

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 64

Directional selection favours :-

(1)

One extreme form over the other extreme form and over intermediate form of a trait

(2)

Both extermist form of trait

(3)

Environmental differences

(4)

intermediate form of a trait

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 65

Which of the following is mode of transmission of HIV infection from mother to child-

(1)

During pregnency through placenta

(2)

During delivery through mixing of blood

(3)

Through breast milk during lactation

(4)

All of above

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 66

Which of the following codon have dual function ?

(1)

AUG

(2)

GGG

(3)

GAG

(4)

UAG

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 67

The diagram given below shows the various parts of a bacteriophage. Identify the labelled parts A, B, C and D and choose the correct option :-

 

 A

 B

 C

 D

(1)

 Head

 Collor

 Sheath

 Tail fibres

(2)

 Collor

 Sheath

 Tail fibres

 Head

(3)

 Sheath

 Collor

 Head

 Tail fibres

(4)

 Tail fibres

 Collor

 Sheath

 Head

(1)

1

(2)

2

(3)

3

(4)

4

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 68

Consider the following characteristic of fishes-(A) They have four pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum(B) They have air bladder which regulates buoyancy(C) They are mostly viviparous and development is direct(D) Their body is streamlined and covered with cycloid/ctenoid scalesWhich of the above characteristic regarding bony fishes are correct ?

(1)

A, B and C

(2)

C and D

(3)

A, B and D

(4)

B alone

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 69

Which of the following is not correctly matched

(1)

Aestivation - TwistedExample - China rose

(2)

Aestivation - ValvateExample - Calotropis

(3)

Aestivation - ImbricateExample - Cassia

(4)

Aestivation - VexillaryExample - Gulmohur

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 70

Electron transport down an electrochemical gradient 'chemiosmosis' is critical to which of the following cellular processes ?

i. Aerobic respirationii. Photomorphogenesisiii. Oxidation-reductioniv. Photosynthesisv. Glycolysis

(1)

iii and v

(2)

ii, iii and iv

(3)

i and iv

(4)

i, iii, iv and v

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 71

The concentration of glucose (mg/dL) in urine is

(1)

0

(2)

150

(3)

10

(4)

900

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 72

Discontinous synthesis of DNA occurs on one of the parental strands of DNA because :-

(1)

DNA polymerase has bidirectional exonuclease activity

(2)

DNA polmerase synthesises DNA only in 3'→5' direction

(3)

DNA polymerase synthesises DNA only in 5'→3' direction

(4)

DNA polymerase acts as exonuclease in 5'→3' direction

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 73

All organisms handle chemicals entering their bodies. This is the example of which property of life :-

(1)

Metabolism

(2)

concsiousness

(3)

cellular organisation

(4)

Growth

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 74

Embryo culture is mostly used for –

(1)

Establishing suspension culture

(2)

Recovery of interspecific hybrids

(3)

Somatic hybridisation

(4)

Haploid plant production

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 75

Viral nucleic acid can be detected by which of the following technique-

(1)

ELISA

(2)

westernblot

(3)

PCR

(4)

Viral Isolation

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 76

During the translation process in bacteria peptide bond are formed by:-

(1)

23s rRNA

(2)

28s rRNA

(3)

18s rRNA

(4)

16s rRNA

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 77

Identify the following figure and labelled parts P and Q :-

(1)

Nostoc, P - Mucilagenous sheath, Q - Heterocyst

(2)

Oscillatoria, P - Heterocyst, Q - Mucilagenous sheath

(3)

Nostoc, P - Heterocyst, Q - Mucilagenous sheath

(4)

Anabeena, Q - Hormogonia,Q - cell wall

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 78

What is true about psittacula, ornithorhynchus and Balaenoptera ?

(1)

Oviparous

(2)

Viviparous

(3)

Cloaca

(4)

Homothermous

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 79

Select a correct match :-

(1)

Superior ovary – Ray florets of sunflower

(2)

Actinomorphic flower – Cassia, bean, gulmohur

(3)

Zygomorphic flower – Chilli, tomato

(4)

Inferior ovary – Cucumber, guava

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 80

An oat seedling below is exposed to light. The tip is removed, rotated 180º and then replaced. The seeding is placed in complete darkness which of the below experiments best describes the condition of the coleoptile tip at the end of the experiment ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 81

Each individual renal tubule and its glomerulus forms :

(1)

Nephron

(2)

Fenestra

(3)

Tubule

(4)

Bowman's capsule

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 82

A mutation is 6th codon of β globin gene for haemoglobin has certain consequence which of the following is not a consequence of the same?

(1)

Mutant Hb undergoes polymerisation at low oxygen tension

(2)

RBC becomes sickle shaped

(3)

O2 carrying capacity of Hb reduces

(4)

Blood loses its clotting ability

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 83

In which type of organisms growth and reproduction are synonymous :-

(1)

Bacteria

(2)

Unicellular algae

(3)

Amoeba

(4)

All of these

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 84

'Pusa swarnim' variety is resistant to white rust disease. It is a variety of :-

(1)

Wheat

(2)

Brassica

(3)

Chilli

(4)

Cauliflower

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 85

Which structural component of HIV is required for cell fusion-

(1)

P-24

(2)

gP-41

(3)

gP-120

(4)

P-32

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 86

Choose the correct statement from following :-

(1)

All bacteria are heterotrophic

(2)

Bacteria are either heterotrophic or chemoautotrophic

(3)

Bacteria can also be photoautotrophic

(4)

Bacteria are either chemoautotrophic or photoautotrophic

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 87

Cytotaxonomy is based on :-

(1)

Chromosomal number

(2)

Chromosomal structure

(3)

Chromosomal behaviour

(4)

All of these

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 88

Identify the correct type of food chain -Dead animal → Blow fly maggots                                    ↓             Snake ← common frog

(1)

Grazing food chain

(2)

Detritus food chain

(3)

Decmposer food chain

(4)

Predator food chain

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 89

Which structure is shown in above diagram?

(1)

Monocot stem

(2)

Dicot root

(3)

Dicot stem

(4)

Monocot root

Correct Answer: 2   

Q No: 90

All of the following are growth-stimulating substances in plants except?

(1)

IAA

(2)

Abscisic acid

(3)

Gibberellin

(4)

Cytokinin

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 91

Pure hydrogen peroxide is

(1)

Weakly acidic

(2)

Strongly acidic

(3)

Neutral

(4)

Basic

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 92

The most stable complex among the following is:

(1)

K4[Fe(CN)6]

(2)

K3[Fe(CN)6]

(3)

[Fe(H2O)6] Cl2

(4)

K4 [FeF6]

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 93

The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is CH2O. A solution containing 6g of the compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05M glucose solution at the same temperature. The molecular formula of the compound is :-

(1)

C2H4O2

(2)

C3H6O3

(3)

C5H10O5

(4)

C4H8O4

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 94

Find out the calorific value of glucose (C6H12O6) with the help of given reaction :C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(ℓ)                  ∆H = –3600 KJ/mol

(1)

20 KJ/gm

(2)

200 KJ/gm

(3)

2 KJ/gm

(4)

0.2 KJ/gm

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 95

Which product can not form ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

All above

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 96

Glaubar's salt is

(1)

Na2CO3.10H2O

(2)

Na2SO4.10H2O

(3)

MgSO4.7H2O

(4)

CaSO4.5H2O

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 97

Arrange the following complexes in order of increasing electrical conductivity :-(I) [CoCl3(NH3)3](II) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl2(III) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3(IV) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl

(1)

II > III > I > IV

(2)

II > III > IV > I

(3)

III > II > IV > I

(4)

III > IV > II > I

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 98

A solution is obtained by dissolving 12 g of urea (mol.wt.60) in a litre of water. Another solution is obtained by dissolving 68.4 g of cane-sugar (mol.wt. 342) in a litre of water at the same temperature. The lowering of vapour pressure in the first solution is :-

(1)

Same as that of 2nd solution

(2)

Nearly one-fifth of the 2nd solution

(3)

Double that of 2nd solution

(4)

Nearly five times that of 2nd solution

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 99

On the basis of structure, the oxidation no. of two Cl atoms in CaOCl2 respectively are :-

(1)

–1 and +1

(2)

+2, –2

(3)

–2, +2

(4)

–1 and +3

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 100

(1)

AAE

(2)

Acetone

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 101

The chief impurity present in red bauxite is

(1)

SiO2

(2)

Fe2CO3

(3)

K2SO4

(4)

NaF

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 102

Red lead is an example of

(1)

Basic oxide

(2)

Super oxide

(3)

Mixed oxide

(4)

Amphoteric oxide

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 103

A gaseous hypothetical chemical equation 2A  4B + C is carried out in a closed vessel. The concentration of B is found to increase by 5 × 10–3 mol ℓ–1 in 10 second. The rate of appearance of B is :-

(1)

5 × 10–4 mol ℓ–1 sec–1

(2)

5 × 10–5 mol ℓ–1 sec–1

(3)

6 × 10–5 mol ℓ–1 sec–1

(4)

4 × 10–4 mol ℓ–1 sec–1

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 104

A2(g) + 4B2(g) 2AB4(g), ∆H < 0 what are the favourable conditions for the formation of AB4 :-

(1)

Low temperature and high pressure

(2)

High temperature and low pressure

(3)

Low temperature and low pressure

(4)

High temperature and high pressure

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 105

B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 106

Atomic radius varies with the atomic number for the elements in the period as follows

The element at point R will be

(1)

Boron

(2)

Oxygen

(3)

Nitrogen

(4)

Carbon

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 107

Which inert gas having highest boiling point

(1)

Xe

(2)

Ar

(3)

Kr

(4)

He

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 108

For the reaction A + B → products, it is observed that :-(i) On doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also four and

(ii) On doubling the initial concentrations of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the reaction

The rate of this reaction is given by

(1)

rate = k [A]2 [B]

(2)

rate = k [A][B]2

(3)

rate = k [A]2 [B]2

(4)

rate = k [A][B]

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 109

Which one will show anionic hydrolysis :-

(1)

KCN

(2)

NH4Cl

(3)

CuSO4

(4)

FeCl3

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 110

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 111

Which of the following has last electronic configuration as 6s2, 4f9 ?

(1)

Am (95)

(2)

Tb (65)

(3)

Yb (70)

(4)

U (92)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 112

Amphotric oxide combinations are in.

(1)

ZnO, K2O, SO3

(2)

ZnO, P2O3, Cl2O7

(3)

SnO2, Al2O3, ZnO

(4)

PbO2, SnO2, SO3

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 113

4.5g of aluminium (at mass 27 amu) is deposited at cathode from Al3+ solution by a certain quantity of electric charge. The volume of hydrogen produced at STP from H+ ions in solution by the same quantity of electric charge will be :-

(1)

22.4 L

(2)

44.8 L

(3)

5.6 L

(4)

11.2 L

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 114

 has the IUPAC name

(1)

3-Chloro-4-methyl cyclopentene

(2)

1-Chloro-2-methyl cyclopentene

(3)

1-methyl-2-chloro cyclopentene

(4)

2-Chloro-3-Methyl cyclopentene

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 115

 major product is

(1)

CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3

(2)

CH3–COOCH3

(3)

CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(4)

CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 116

The percentage of s-character in the hybrid orbital of N in N2O is :

(1)

25%

(2)

50%

(3)

80%

(4)

75%

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 117

The number of Hydrogen atoms attached to phosphoras atom in hypophosphorous acid is-

(1)

One

(2)

Three

(3)

Zero

(4)

Two

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 118

Among the following gases which one has the lowest r.m.s. speed at 25°C.

(1)

SO2

(2)

N2

(3)

O2

(4)

Cl2

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 119

Which is the tautomer of  ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 120

Glucose shows reducing property due to

(1)

–CHO

(2)

–OH

(3)

> C=O

(4)

CH <

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 121

High polarising power of Li+ ion as compared to Na+ is due to.

(1)

High ionization energy

(2)

Digonal relationship

(3)

High charge density

(4)

All of these

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 122

Complete combustion of 0.858 g of compound X gives 2.63 g of CO2 and 1.28 g of H2O. The lowest molecular mass X can have :-

(1)

43 g

(2)

86 g

(3)

129 g

(4)

172 g

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 123

The number of atoms in 100 gm of a fcc crystal with density d = 10 gm cm–3 and cell edge as 100 pm is equal to :-

(1)

3 × 1025

(2)

4 × 1025

(3)

1 × 1025

(4)

2 × 1025

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 124

Which is most acidic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 125

Which can not give Lassigne's test ?

(1)

C6H5–NH2

(2)

C6H5–NH–NH2

(3)

C6H5–NO2

(4)

NH2–NH2

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 126

The fixing of image is done by dipping the develope film in-

(1)

NH4Br

(2)

Na2S2O3

(3)

PtCl4

(4)

AgNO3

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 127

What volume of Hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by Hydrogen :-

(1)

22.4 L

(2)

89.6 L

(3)

67.2 L

(4)

44.8 L

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 128

Which of the following statement is not false:-(a) In potassium the number of electrons with ℓ = 1 is 12(b) The value of ℓ is zero for a spherical orbital(c) The maximum number of electrons with n = 5 and ℓ = 2 is 10.The correct answer is :-

(1)

a

(2)

a and b

(3)

a, b and c

(4)

None of the above

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 129

CH3 – C ≡ CH  X  Y, Y is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 130

Which is the monomer of terylene ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 131

Which of the following complex has zero magnetic moment (spin only)

(1)

[Ni(NH3)6]Cl2

(2)

Na3[FeF6]

(3)

[Cr(H2O)6]SO4

(4)

K4[Fe(CN)6]

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 132

Boiling point of chloroform was raised by 0.323 K, when 0.5143 g of anthracene was dissolved in 35 g of chloroform, Molecular mass of anthracene is

(Kb for CHCl3 = 3.9 K-kg mol–1) :-

(1)

79.42 g/mol

(2)

132.32 g/mol

(3)

177.42 g/mol

(4)

242.32 g/mol

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 133

For an electron is g orbital, what is correct.

(1)

n is ≤ 4

(2)

ℓ is = 4

(3)

m ≠ 0

(4)

s ≠ + 

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 134

B is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 135

H – CH = O + CH3MgCl  ?

(1)

CH3 – CH2 – OH

(2)

CH3OH

(3)

CH3CH2CH2OH

(4)

CH3 – CHOH – CH3

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 136

A man measures time period of a pendulum (T) in stationary lift. If the moves upward with acceleration , then new time period will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 137

The position x of a particle w.r.t time t along x-axis is given by x = 3t2 – t3 where x is in meters and t in seconds. What will be the position of particle when it achieves maximum speed along +x direction.

(1)

2 m

(2)

4 m

(3)

36 m

(4)

54 m

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 138

For the potentiometer arrangement shown in the figure, length of wire AB is 100 cm and its resistance is 9Ω. Find the length AC for which the galvanometer G will show zero deflection.

(1)

66.7 cm

(2)

60 cm

(3)

50 cm

(4)

55.5 cm

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 139

The chromatic Aberration in lenses becomes due to :-

(1)

Disimilarity of main axis of rays

(2)

Disimilarity of radii of curvature

(3)

Variation of focal length of lenses with wavelength

(4)

None of these

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 140

A black body radiates energy at the rate of 1.0 × 105 Joule per second per metre2 at a temperature of 227°C. The temperature to which it must be heated so that it radiates energy at the rate of 1.0 × 109 Joule per sec per metre2

(1)

2270°C

(2)

5000°C

(3)

5000K

(4)

908°C

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 141

If a cycle wheel of radius 4m completes one revolution in 2 seconds then acceleration of a point on the cycle wheel will be :-

(1)

π2 m/s2

(2)

2π2 m/s2

(3)

4π2 m/s2

(4)

8π m/s2

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 142

The output of the given arrangement is

(1)

A + B

(2)

A . B

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 143

A wire of length ℓ carries a current i along the + x-axis. A magnetic field exists which is given as  = B0 (î + ĵ + ) T. Find the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire

(1)

B0iℓ

(2)

(3)

2B0iℓ

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 144

The power of an achromatic convergent lens of two lenses is +2D. The power of convex lens is +5D. The ratio of dispersive power of convex and concave lens will be :-

(1)

5 : 3

(2)

3 : 5

(3)

2 : 5

(4)

5 : 2

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 145

The equation of a travelling wave is :

Then the ratio of maximum particle velocity to wave velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 146

In a circus, a person with a mass of 70 kg stands without any floor-support against the wall of a cylindrical rotor. If the coefficient of friction between the rotor-wall surface and the man's feet is 0.4 and radius of rotor is 2.0 m, then the minimum angular speed of rotor such that the person does not fall should be-

(1)

7.0 rad/s

(2)

1.75 rad/s

(3)

3.5 rad/s

(4)

5.25 rad/s

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 147

Current drawn from the cell in the circuit shown will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

1mA

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 148

A steady current i flows in a small square loop of wire of side L in a horizontal plane. The loop is now folded about its middle such that half of it lies in a vertical plane. Let  respectively denote the magnetic moments due to the current loop before and after folding. Then

(1)

(2)

 are in the same direction

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 149

A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. The elastic energy stored in the wire is :-

(1)

0.1 J

(2)

0.2 J

(3)

10 J

(4)

20 J

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 150

A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string in the positive X-direction at a speed of 10 cm/s. The wavelength of the wave is 0.5 m and its amplitude is 10 cm. At a particular time t, the snap-short of the wave is shown in the figure. The velocity of point P when its displacement is 5 cm, is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 151

A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its velocity varies according to the law v = k where k is constant and s is the distance covered. Find the total work performed by all the forces which are acting on the locomotive during the first t seconds after the beginning of motion

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 152

A solid sphere of radius R1 and volume charge density ρ =  is enclosed by a hollow sphere of radius R2 with negative surface charge density σ, such that the total charge in the system is zero. ρ0 is a positive constant and r is the distance from the centre of the sphere. The ratio R2/R1 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 153

If ϕ1 and ϕ2 be the angles of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip then

(1)

cot2 ϕ = cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2

(2)

cot ϕ = cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2

(3)

cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2

(4)

cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 / cot ϕ2

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 154

There is a 1 mm thick layer of water between a plate of area 100 cm2 and another very big plate. The coefficient of viscosity of water is 0.01 poise. Then, the force required to move the smaller plate with a velocity of 10 cm/sec with respect to the larger plate is :-

(1)

10 dyne

(2)

100 dyne

(3)

1000 dyne

(4)

10000 dyne

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 155

A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency f in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now :-

(1)

f

(2)

f/2

(3)

3f/4

(4)

2f

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 156

A particle is projected vertically upwards with a speed of 16 m/s, after some time, when it again passes through the point of projection, its speed is found to be 8 m/s. It is known that the work done by air resistance is same during upward and downward motion. Then the maximum height attained by the particle is : (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

8 m

(2)

4.8 m

(3)

17.6 m

(4)

12.8 m

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 157

In moving from A to B along an electric field line, the work done by the electric field on an electron is 6.4 × 10–19 J. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 are equipotential surfaces, then the potential difference VC – VA is:-

(1)

–4 V

(2)

4 V

(3)

zero

(4)

6.4 V

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 158

A conducting rod AC of length 4ℓ is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field  directed into the paper. AO = ℓ and OC = 3ℓ. Then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 159

A wheel of mass 10 kg has a moment of inertia of 160 kg-m2 about its own axis, the radius of gyration will be :-

(1)

10 m

(2)

8 m

(3)

6 m

(4)

4 m

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 160

The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth's surface is v. For a satellite orbiting at an altitude half of the earth's radius, the orbital velocity is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 161

A ball is released from point A as shown in figure. The ball leaves the track at B. All surfaces are smooth.

Let h be the maximum height from ground reached by ball after leaving track at B. Then :-

(1)

h = 6m

(2)

h < 6m

(3)

h > 6m

(4)

speed of ball at B will change if shape of track is changed keeping hA and hB constant

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 162

An electric dipole consist of two opposite charges each of magnitude 1 μC seperated by 2 cm. The dipole is placed in an external electric field of 105 N/C find work done in rotating the dipole through 180° starting from the position θ = 0° :-

(1)

0.04 J

(2)

0.004 J

(3)

–0.004 J

(4)

0.002 J

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 163

The current i in an inductance coil varies with time t according to the graph shown in figure. Which one of the following plots shows the variation of voltage in the coil with time

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 164

One mole of an ideal diatomic gas requires 420 J heat to raise its temperature by 20 K when heated at constant pressure. If the same gas is heated at constant volume to raise the temperature by the same 20 K, the heat required will be :-

(1)

300 J

(2)

254 J

(3)

252 J

(4)

127 J

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 165

The minimum energy required to launch a M kg satellite from earth's surface in a circular orbit at an altitude 2R, where R is the radius of earth is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 166

A syringe containing water is held horizontally at a length h = 1.25 m above the ground. The diameter of the piston is 5 times that of the nozzle. The piston is pushed with a constant speed of 20 cm/s. (g = 10 m/s2)

The horizontal distance where the water strikes on the ground will be :-

(1)

1.5 m

(2)

2 m

(3)

2.5 m

(4)

3 m

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 167

Find the current passed through 10Ω resistance :-

(1)

1.5A

(2)

2.0A

(3)

4.5A

(4)

zero

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 168

One-third length of a uniformly wound solenoid of length ℓ, area of cross section A and turns per unit length n is filled with a material of permeability μ1. While the rest is filled with a material of permeability μ2. The self inductance of solenoid is -

(1)

 (μ1 + 2μ2)n2ℓA

(2)

 (2μ1 + μ2)n2ℓA

(3)

 (μ1 + 3μ2)n2ℓA

(4)

 (μ2 + 3μ1)n2ℓA

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 169

A monoatomic gas (γ = 5/3) is suddenly compressed to (1/8) its volume adiabatically; then the pressure of the gas will change to :-

(1)

24/5

(2)

8

(3)

40/3

(4)

32

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 170

The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be

(1)

–6.8 eV

(2)

–13.6 eV

(3)

–27.2 eV

(4)

–54.4 eV

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 171

A solid block of dimension (4m × 4m × 4m) is moving with velocity (4t + 7) m/s along a horizontal straight track. A point mass is placed on the edge of this block. Calculate the time after which the point mass leaves the surface of block if co-efficient of friction between block and point mass is 0.2 :-

(1)

1s

(2)

2s

(3)

3s

(4)

4s

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 172

Two wires A and B made of same material and having their lengths in the ratio 6 : 1 are connected in series. The potential difference across the wires are 3V and 2V respectively. If rA and rB are the radii of A and B respectively, then  is :-

(1)

1/4

(2)

1/2

(3)

1

(4)

2

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 173

Heat is produced in a wire by allowing the ac of peak value 14 A to flow in it. If dc of i ampere is used for producing the same amount of heat, then the value of i will be approximately

(1)

7 A

(2)

10 A

(3)

12 A

(4)

14 A

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 174

An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A, as shown in the figure. If the heat rejected by the gas in the cycle is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the process C → A is :-

(1)

+5 J

(2)

+10 J

(3)

+15 J

(4)

+20 J

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 175

X-rays cannot be diffracted by means of an ordinary grating due to

(1)

Large wavelength

(2)

High speed

(3)

Short wavelength

(4)

None of these

Correct Answer: 3   

Q No: 176

Figure contains two diodes each with forward resistance of 50 Ω and with infinite backward resistance. The current through 100 Ω resistance will be :-

(1)

15 mA

(2)

1.5 mA

(3)

20 mA

(4)

2 mA

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 177

In given circuit initially K1 is closed and K2 is open. Now K1 is opened and K2 is closed and material of dielectric constant 3 inserted in 1 μF capacitor then find final charge in capacitor of capacitance 1 μF.

(1)

4 μC

(2)

12 μC

(3)

8 μC

(4)

10 μC

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 178

In the figure shown, for an angle of incidence 45°, at the top surface, what is the minimum refractive index needed for total internal reflection at vertical face :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 179

If the temperature of stars of colours white, Red, Green and Blue are respectively TW, TR, TG and TB then :-

(1)

TB > TW > TR > TG

(2)

TB > TW > TG > TR

(3)

TB > TG > TW > TR

(4)

TW > TB > TG > TR

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 180

A photosensitive metallic surface has work function hν0. If photons of energy 2hν0 fall on this surface the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m/s. When the photon energy is increased to 5hν0 then maximum velocity of photo electron will be

(1)

2 × 106 m/s

(2)

2 × 107 m/s

(3)

8 × 105 m/s

(4)

8 × 106 m/s

Correct Answer: 4    

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