vigyan dhara education pvt ltdvigyandhara.in/downloads/test-10 dropper neet (26-03-2020...2020/03/26...

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1

2 2 2

3 3 3

4 4 4

5 5 5

6 6 6

7 7 7

8 8 8

9 9 9

0 0 0

ROLL NO.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

91

92

93

94

95

96

97

98

99

100

101

102

103

104

105

106

107

108

109

110

111

112

113

114

115

116

117

118

119

120

121

122

123

124

125

126

127

128

129

130

131

132

133

134

135

136

137

138

139

140

141

142

143

144

145

146

147

148

149

150

151

152

153

154

155

156

157

158

159

160

161

162

163

164

165

166

167

168

169

170

171

172

173

174

175

176

177

178

179

180

INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

1. This sheet should not be folded or crushed.2. Use only blue/ black ball point pen to fill the circles.3. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.4. Circles should be darkened completely and properly.5. Cutting and erasing on this sheet is not allowed.6. Do not use any stray marks on the sheet.7. Do not use marker or white fluid to hide the mark.

WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D

Name .........................................................................................................

Batch..........................................................................................................

Mobile No................................................... Test Date........./......../.............

OMR ANSWER SHEET

VIGYAN DHARA EDUCATION PVT LTD

Candidate Sign

Invigilator Sign

TEST ID

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

0

www.vigyandhara.com

112028

Test Date :

Roll Number :

Note: It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will be rejected.

GRAND TEST - 10

26/03/2020

VIGYAN DHARATEST SERIES NEET-2020

DROPPER BATCH

Test Code : VD20/GT/NEET/03/2603

Time : 3 Hours M.M. : 720IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. This booklet contains 180 Questions.2. All questions are compulsory and carry 4 mark,3. There will be 1/4th negative marking.4. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test

Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil isstrictly prohibited.

5. You will not be supplied the Answer-Sheet separetely bythe invigilator. You must complete the details of RollNumber, Booklet Code etc, on the Answer-Sheet carefully,as per detailed instructions supplied by Academy, beforeyou actually start answering the questions, failing whichyour Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will beawarded ‘ZERO’ mark.

6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material,printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone, anyelectronic device, etc., except the I - Card, inside theexamination hall/room.

7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for thispurpose in the Test Booklet only. Use of white fluid forcorrection is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand overthe Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall; however, the candidates are allowed to take awaythis Test Booklet with them.

9. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.

#197-C, Old Court Complex, Lajpat Nagar, Hisar, Haryana 125001

Contact No. 9812073815,16

TEST ID : 260

VIGYAN DHARA : #197-C, Old Court Complex, Lajpat Nagar, Hisar, Haryana Contact No.9812073815,16

GRAND TEST-10 (2) VD20/GT/NEET/03/2603

Space for Rough Work

SYLLABUS GRAND TEST - 10

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY

EMI, AC, EM WAVES

CHEMICAL KINETICS, P-BLOCK (16TH GROUP)ALDEHYDE, KETONE & CARBOXYLIC ACID

STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION,MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE,HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASES (DISEASES & IMMUNITY)


VD20/GT/NEET/03/2603 (3) GRAND TEST-10


1. A capacitor of capacitance 2 µF is charged to apotential difference of 12 V. It is then connectedacross an inductor of inductance 0.6 mH. What isthe current in the circuit at a time when the potentialdifference across the capacitor is 6.0 V?

(A) 0.6 A (B) 1.2 A

(C) 2.2 A (D) 3.2 A

2. When a dc voltage of 200 V is applied to a coil of

self inductance

2 3 H , a current of 1 A flows

through it. But by replacing dc source with acsource of 200 V, the current in the coil is reducedto 0.5 A. Then the frequency of ac suply is

(A) 100 Hz (B) 75 Hz

(C) 60 Hz (D) 50 Hz

3. At a frequency 0 the reactance of a certain

capacitor equals that of certain inductor. If the

frequency is changed to 02 , what is the ratio of

the reactance of the inductor to that of the capacitor?

(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 :1

(C) 1: 2 2 (D) 1 : 2

4. An inductor coil stores the energy U when acurrent I is passed through it and dissipatesenergy at the rate of P. The time constant of thecircuit, when this coil is connected across a batteryof zero internal resistance is

(A)4UP (B)

PU

(C)UP (D)

2UP

5. An inductor (L = 100 mH), a resistor R 100

and a battery (E = 100 volt) are initially connectedin series as shown in figure. After long time, thebattery is disconnected after short circuiting thepoints A and B. The current in the circuit 1 msafter the short circuit is

(A) 1 A

(B)1 Ae

(C) e A

(D) 0.1 A

6. An alternating current of 1.5 mA with angular

frequency 100 rad/s flows through a 10 k resistor

and a 0.50 µF capacitor in series. The rms potentialdrop across the capacitor is

(A) 4.8 V (B) 30 V

(C) 15 V (D) 190 V7. The average value of saw-tooth voltage

02tV V 1T over 0 to

T2 ; (T = time period) is

given by

(A) 0V2 (B)

02V

(C) 0V2 (D) 0V




8. In a series LCR circuit, voltage applied is

V 3sin 314t6 and current from the supply

is

I 2sin 314t

3 . Which of the following is

incorrect?

(A) Impedance of circuit is 1.5

(B) Reactance of circuit is 43

(C) Resistance of circuit is 3 3

4

(D) Wattless component of current is12

9. In the circuit shown in figure, the current measuredby ammeter is

(A) 1 A (B) 2 A

(C) 3 A (D) Zero

10. In the circuit shown in figure, if both the bulbs B1

and B2 are identical then

(A) Both bulbs have equal brightness

(B) B2 will be brighter than B1

(C) As the frequency is increased, brightness ofB1 will increase and that of B2 will decrease

(D) As the frequency is decreased the brightnessof B1 will increase and that of B2 will decrease

11. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is

yE 75sin tc . The energy contained

(approximately) in a cylinder of length 1 m andarea of cross-section 1 m2 placed along the x-axis is

(A) 25 nanojoule (B) 50 nanojule

(C) 75 nanojoule (D) Zero

12. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A andseparation between the plates d, is charged by aconstant current i. Consider a plane surface ofarea A/2 parallel to the plates and drawnsymmetrically between the plates. Find thedisplacement current through this area.

(A) i (B) 2i

(C)i2 (D)

i4




13. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 Vlamp from a 220 V mains. If the mains current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

(A) 30% (B) 50%

(C) 90% (D) 10%

14. An AC source of angular frequency is fed acrossa resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The currentregistered is I. If now the frequency of source is

changed to3 (but maintaining the same voltage),

the current in that circuit is found to be halved.Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance atthe original frequency to

(A)25 (B)

35

(C)15 (D)

43

15. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of lengthl = 1.0 m is situated in a uniform magnetic field B= 2T perpendicular to the plane of loop. Resistance

of connector is r 2 . Two resistances of

6 and 3 are connected as shown in figure.

The external force required to keep the connectormoving with a constant velocity v = 2 m/s is

(A) 6 N

(B) 4 N

(C) 2 N

(D) 1 N

16. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placedin a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to theplane of the coil. The radius of the coil changesas shown in figure. The graph of induced emf inthe coil is represented by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)




17. A resistance R draws power P when connectedto an AC source. If an inductance is now placedin series with the resistance, such that theimpedance of the circuit becomes Z, the powerdrawn will be

(A)

2RPZ (B)

RPZ

(C)

1/ 2RPZ (D)

1/ 2ZPR

18. What is the mutual inductance of a pair of coils, ifa current change of 5A in coil causes the fluxchange in the second coil of 1000 turns to changeflux 5 × 10–4 Weber per turn?(A) 0.1 H (B) 0.4 H(C) 0.01 H (D) 0.04 H

19. The energy associated with electric field is (UE)and with magnetic f ield is (UB) for anelectromagnetic wave in free space. Then

(A) E BU U (B) BE

UU2

(C) E BU U (D) E BU U

20. The self induced emf of a coil is 25 volts. Whenthe current in it is changed at uniform rate from10 A to 25 A in 1 s, the change in the energy ofthe inductor is(A) 637.5 J (B) 540 J(C) 437.5 J (D) 740 J

21. Figure shows the top view of a rod that can slide

without friction. The resistor is 6 .0 and a 2.5 T

magnetic field is directed perpendicularly downwardinto the paper. Let l = 1.20 m. At what rate is

energy delivered to the resistor if rod is movingwith constant speed 2 m/s?

(A) 6.0 W (B) 5.0 W

(C) 4.0 W (D) 5.4 W

22. A short magnet is allowed to fall from rest alongthe axis of a horizontal conducting ring. Thedistance fallen by the magnet in one second maybe

(A) 5 m (B) 6 m

(C) 4 m (D) None of these

23. A small circular loop is suspended from aninsulating thread. Another co-axial circular loopcarrying a current I and having radius much largerthan the the first loop starts moving towards thesmaller loop. The smaller loop will

(A) Be attracted towards the bigger loop

(B) Be repelled by the bigger loope

(C) Experience no force

(D) All of these




24. A 10 m long horizontal wire extends from NorthEast to South West. It is falling with a speed of5.0 ms–1, at right angles to the horizontalcomponent of the earth’s magnetic f ield of0.3 × 10–4 Wb/m2. The value of the induced emf inwire is

(A) 0.3 × 10–3 V (B) 2.5 × 10–3 V

(C) 1.5 × 10–3 V (D) 1.1 × 10–3 V

25. In a R-L-C series circuit shown, the readings ofvoltmeters V1 and V2 are 100 V and 120 V. Choosethe correct statement(s)

1. Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitorare 50 V, 86.6 V and 206.6 V respectively

2. Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitorare 10 V, 90 V and 30 V respectively

3. Power factor of the circuit is5

134. Circuit is capacitive in nature

(A) Only 1 is correct

(B) Only 2 is correct

(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

(D) 3 and 4 are correct

26. Let I, r, c and v represent inductance, resistance,capacitance and voltage, respectively. The

dimension ofI

rcv in SI units will be

(A) 2LA (B)

2LT

(C) 1A (D) LTA

27. The magnetic field in a plane electrolmagnetic waveis given by

7 3 11yB 2 10 sin 0.5 10 x 1.5 10 t T .

Then electric field will be

(A) 3 11z

VE 6.0sin 0.5 10 x 1.5 10 tm

(B) 3 11z

VE 3.0sin 0.5 10 x 1.5 10 tm

(C) 3 11z

VE 30sin 0.5 10 x 1.5 10 tm

(D) 3 11z

VE 60sin 0.5 10 x 1.5 10 tm

28. Two concentric and coplanar circular coils haveradii a and b (b >> a) as shown in figure.Resistance of the inner coil is R. Current in theouter coil is increased from 0 to i, then the totalcharge circulating the inner coil is

(A) 2

0i a2Rb

(B)0iab2R

(C)

20i b

2a R(D)0lb

2 R




29. A conducting loop of area A is placed in amagnetic field which varies sinusoidally with timeas B = B0sint. The normal to the coil makes anangle of 60° with the field. The emf induced att = T/6 is

(A) 01B A2 (B) 0B A

(C) 01B A4 (D) 0

1B A3

30. The figure shows a square loop of wire with sidesof length l = 2 cm. A magnetic field points into thepage and its magnitude is given by B = 4t2y T,where t is in second and y is in metre.

The emf, induced around the square loop at t =2.5 s, is

(A) 4 × 10–5 V (B) 8 × 10–5 V

(C) 2.5 × 10–5 V (D) 5 × 10–5 V

31. If I = 5A and decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s, thenVB – VA is

(A) 5 V (B) 10 V

(C) 15 V (D) 20 V

32. A small circular loop of radius a is placed inside alarge square loop of side L (>>a) and carrying acurrent I. The loops are coplanar and concentric.The mutual inductance is

(A) 2

02 aL

(B)02

2 aL

(C)02

2 2 aL

(D) 2

02 2 aL

33. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 50 MHztravels in freee space along the positive x-direction. At a particular point in space and time,

ˆE 6.3 j V/m. The corresponding magnetic field

B , at that point will be

(A) 8 ˆ6.3 10 kT (B) 8 ˆ18.9 10 kT

(C) 8 ˆ18.9 10 kT (D) 8 ˆ2.1 10 kT

34. One of the two identical conducting wires of lengthL is bent in the form of a circular loop and theother one into a circular coil of N identical turns. Ifthe same current is passed in both, the ratio ofthe magnetic field at the centre of the loop (BL) to

that at the centre of the coil (BC) i.e. L

C

BB will be

(A) 21

N (B) N2

(C) N (D)1N




35. A series AC circuit containing an inductor (20 mH),

a capacitor (120 µF) and a resistor 60 is

driven by an AC source of 24 V/50 Hz. The energydissipated in the circuit in 60 s is

(A) 3.39 × 103 J (B) 5.65 × 102 J

(C) 2.26 × 103 J (D) 5.17 × 102 J

36. Power factor of the circuit shown here is

(A) 0.5 (B) 1

(C)12 (D) 2

37. Which of these figures correctly shows phaserelationship between current and voltage acrossinductor in a series L – R, a.c. circuit?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

38. A ring made of insulating material is rolling withoutslipping on a horizontal surface with velocity ofcentre of mass V0. A conducting wire of length 2R(R = radius of ring) is fixed between two points ofthe circumference. At an instant, the wire is invertical position as shown in figure. A uniformmagnetic field B exists perpendicular to the planeof the ring. The magnitude of emf induced betweenthe ends of wire is

(A) 2 BV0R

(B) BV0R

(C) 3 BV0R

(D) 4 BV0R

39. Emf applied and current in an A.C. circuit are

E 10 2 sin t volt and l 5 2 cos t ampere

respectively. Average power loss in the circuit is

(A) 50 W (B) 25 W

(C)50 W

2 (D) Zero




40. A semi circular loop of radius R is placed in auniform magnetic field as shown. It is pulled witha constant velocity. The induced emf in the loopis

(A) Bv (R) cos

(B) Bv (R) sin

(C) Bv (2R) cos

(D) Bv (2R) sin

41. A rod AB slides on a V-shaped wire with speed vas shown such that at any time OA = OB = l.Magnetic field in the region is perpendiculardownwards and has strength B. Induced emf inthe rod is

(A) Bvl

(B)Bvl2

(C)3Bvl2

(D) Zero

42. In a straight conducting wire, a constant currentis flowing from left to right due to a source of emf.When the source is switched off, the direction ofthe induced current in the wire will be

(A) Left to right

(B) Right to left

(C) First left to right, then right to left

(D) First right to left, then left to right

43. In a region of space, magnetic field exists in acylindrical region of radius a centred at origin withmagnetic field along negative z-direction. The field

is given by 0ˆB B tk

. The force experienced by

a stationary charge q placed at (r, 0, 0), wherer > a, is

( A ) q B 0 (B)2

0qB a2r

(C) 0qB r2 (D) Zero

44. A uniform, time varying magnetic field B = B0texists in a circular region of radius R and centreat O. The electric field varids with distance r fromthe centre of the circle as

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Dell

Typewriter

(A) qB




45. Which of the arrangement of two loops shown herehas maximum flux linkage (and thereby maximummutual inductance)?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) All have same flux linkage and hence same

mutual inductance

46 C H 3–CH2–CHOalkali

.Dil Product. The product in

the above reaction is–

(A) CH3–CH2COOH

(B) CH3–CH2–CH2OH

(C) CH3–CH2– – –CHO

(D) CH3–CH2––CHO

47 In the Cannizzaro reaction given below –

2Ph–CHO OH Ph–CH2OH + PhCOO–

the slowest step is –

(A) The attack of OH¯ at the carbonyl group

(B) The transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group

(C) The abstraction of proton from the carboxylicgroup

(D) The deprotonation of Ph - CH2OH

48 Which of the following statements is wrong –

(A) All methyl ketones give a positive iodoformtest.

(B) Acetaldehyde is the only aldehyde that givesiodoform test.

(C) All secondary alcohols give positive iodoformtest.

(D) Any alcohol that can be oxidised to an acetylgroup gives a positive iodoform test.

49 The number of aldols formed by CH3CHO and CH3–CH2–CHO is –

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 1

50 2D–C|D

= O + OH¯ Cannizzaro X and Y

(Y is alcohol, D is deuterium)

X and Y will have structure –

(A) D –

H|C|D

– O , D – C||O

– OH

(B) D –

D|C|D

– O , D – C||O

– OH

Dell

Typewriter

CH




(C) H – C||O

– O , D –

D|C|D

– OH

(D) D –

D|C|D

– OH, D – C||O

– O

51 3

23

OS)CH(

AA

HO B; ‘B’ is –

(A) (CH2)4

CHO

CHO(B)

OH

OH

(C)OHCHO (D) CHO

52 Alkaline hydrolysis of C4H8Cl2 gives a compound(A) which on heating with NaOH and I2 producesa yellow precipitate of CHI3.The compound (A)should be.

(A) CH3CH2CH2CHO

(B)CH3CH2–C–CH3

O

(C)CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2

OH OH

(D)CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2

OH

53 If acetaldehyde is treated with Benedict’s orFehling’s solution, the following change occurs inthe system –

(A) Ag+ Agº (B) Cu+2 Cuº

(C) Cu+2 Cu+ (D) Na+ Naº

54 The product of the reaction between acetone andethylene glycol is –

(A)CH3

CH3

CO–CH2

O–CH2

(B)

OHOH||CHCHCH 23

(C) CH3–CH–CH–CH2

O

(D) CH3–CH==CH2

55 A + B forms

N

N A and B are –

(A)

NH2

NH2

, CH3– CHO

(B) CH3CHO, CH3 - NH2

(C)22

22

NHCH|

NHCH

,

CHO|CHO

(D) HCHO, CH3NH2




56 The following preparation of caprolactum form theoxime of cyclohexanone involves a rearrangementcalled –

NOHNH

C = O

(A) Pinacol-Pinacolone rearrangement(B) Claisen rearrengement(C) Beckmann rearrangement(D) Curtius rearrangement

57 A mixture of benzladehyde and formaldehyde onheating with aqueous NaOH solution gives –(A) benzyl alcohol and sodium formate(B) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol(C) sodium benzoate and sodium formate(D) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol

58 Which of the reagent is used to convert 2-Butanoneinto propanoic acid ?(A) NaOH, I2 / H+ (B) Tollen’s reagent(C) Fehling solution (D) NaOH , NaI / H+

59 CH3 – C||O

–CH3 + next homologue

NH2OH

mixtureFollowing statements is/are correct about mixture:

(A) mixture is 3-types of oximes

(B) mixture is 2-types of oximes

(C) all are optically active

(D) one is optically active.

60 The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is anexample of –

(A) Electrophilic addition

(B) Nucleophilic addition

(C) Nucleophilic substitution.

(D) Electrophilic substitution.

61 The enolic form of acetone contains –

(A) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs

(B) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs

(C) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1lone pair

(D) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair

62 Among the given compounds, the mostsusceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonylgroup is –

(A) MeCOCl (B) MeCHO

(C) MeCOOMe (D) MeCOOCOMe

63. For a reaction 2NH3 N2 + 3H2, it is observedthat

3 21 3 2 3

d NH d NK NH ; K NH

dt dt and

23 3

d HK NH

dt

The correct relation between K1, K2 and K3 is

(A) K1 = K2 = K3 (B) 2K1 = 3K2 = 6K3

(C) 3K1 = 6K2 = 2K3 (D) 6K1 = 3K2 = 2K3

64. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon

(A) Concentration (B) Pressure

(C) Temperature (D) All of these




65. The rate of a reaction A + 2B P is 2 × 10–2 Mlmin, when concentration of each A and b are 1.0M. If the rate of reaction r = K [A]2[B], the rate ofreaction when half of the B has reacted should be

(A) 5.625 × 10–3 M/min

(B) 3.75 × 10–3 M/min

(C) 9.375 M/min

(D) 2.5 × 10–3 M/min

66. For the reaction N29g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) undercertain conditions of temperature and partialpressure of the reactants, the rate of formation ofNH3 is 10–3 kg h–1. The rate of consumption of H2

under same condition is

(A) 1.5 × 10–3 kg h–1

(B) 1.76 × 10–4 kg h–1

(C) 6.67 × 10–4 kg h–1

(D) 3 × 10–3 kg h–1

67. Select the rate law that corresponds to the datashown for the following reaction

Exp. [A0] (M) [B0] (M) Initial rate

No. (M s–1)

1 0.012 0.035 0.1

2 0.024 0.070 0.8

3 0.024 0.035 0.1

4 0.012 0.070 0.8

(A) r = K[B]3

(B) r = K[B]4

(C) r = K[A][B]3

(D) r = K[A]2[B]3

68. For the reaction 31 2 DK KA B C D ,

where K3 > K2 > K1; the rate of formation of D isdetermined by

(A) the rate of reaction: A B

(B) the rate of reaction: B C

(C) the rate of reaction: C D

(D) the rate of reaction: A B with rate constant

K1.K2.K3

69. Which of the following represents the expressionfor 3/4th the life of a first-order reaction?

(A)k 4log

2.303 3 (B)2.303 4log

k 3

(C)2.303 log4

k (D)2.303 log3

k

70. The half-life for a given reaction is doubled if theinitial concentration of the reactant is doubled.The order of the reaction is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3

71. For the first-order reaction t99% = x × t90%. The valueof ‘x’ will be

(A) 10 (B) 6

(C) 3 (D) 2

72. For a given reaction, the concentration of thereactant plotted against time gave a straight linewith negative slope. The order of the reaction is

(A) 3 (B) 2

(C) 1 (D) 0




73. For the first-order reaction A(g) 2B(g) + C(g),

the total pressure after time t from the start ofreaction with A is P and after infinite time, it is

P . Then then rate of constant of the reaction is

(A)1 Plnt P

(B) 2P1ln

t 3 P P

(C)2P1 ln

t 3P 3P

(D)2P1 ln

t P 3P

74. If t1/2 of a second-order reaction is 1.0 h. After whattime, the amount will be 25% of the initial amount?(A) 1.5 h (B) 2 h(C) 2.5 h (D) 3 h

75. The half-life for the first-order reactionH2O2 (aq) C8H12(g). It is found that the partial

pressure P, of the reactant obeys the law:

0

1 1ktP P . The order of the reaction is

(A) 1 (B) 0.5(C) 2 (D) 1.5

76. The activation energy of a reaction can be loweredby(A) Increasing temperature.(B) Lowering temperature.(C) Adding a catalyst.(D) Removing one or more products.

77. According to the Arrhenium equation, straight lineis to be obtained by plotting the logarithm of therate constant of a chemical reaction (log K) against(A) T (B) log T

(C)1T (D) eT

78. Which of the following statements is not correct?(A) The efficiency of a solid catalyst depends uponits surface area.(B) Catalyst operates by provdingalternate pathfor the reaction that involves lower activationenergy.(C) Catalyst lowers the energy of activation of theforward direction without affecting the energy ofactivation of the backward direction.(D) Catalyst does not affect the overall enthalpychange of the reaction.

79. The rate constant, the activation energy and theArrhenium parameter of a chemical reaction at

25°C are 4 13.0 10 s , 104.4 kJ/mol and

6.0 × 10 14 s –1, respectively. The value of the

rate constant as T , is

(A) 2.0 × 1018 s–1 (B) 6.0 × 1014 s–1

(C) Infinity (D) 3.0 × 10–4 s–1

80. Oxygen has the second highest electronegativityvalue amongst the elements. The highestelectronegativity value is of ...A... .

Here, A refers to

(A) Chlorine (B) Fluorine

(C) Sulphur (D) None of these




81. Hexahalides of group 16 elements

I. are gaseous in nature.

II. have octahedral geometry.

III. SF6 is exceptionally stable for steric reasons.

Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is/

are correct?

(A) I and II (B) II and III

(C) Only III (D) I, II and III

82. Oxygen and sulphur exist as

(A) Polyatomic and monoatomic respectively

(B) Monoatomic and polyatomic respectively

(C) Monoatomic and diatomic respectively

(D) Polyatomic and diatomic respectively

83. Oxygen forms about ...A... by mass of earth’s

crust while dry air contains ...B... oxygen by

volume. The correct set of percentage is

(A) A - 46.6%; B - 20.946%

(B) A - 20.946%; B - 46.6%

(C) A - 10.12%; B - 36.7%

(D) A - 36.7%; B - 10.12%

84. In the Kipp’s apparatus, the reaction gets stoppedon closing the outlet because

(A) Gas starts coming out from top

(B) The contact between sulphide and the acid is

broken by the presence of gas collected in thefree surface of the middle chamber

(C) the acid becomes weak

(D) A protective film is formed on iron sulphide

85. I2 2 32SO O 2SO

II2 2 24HCl O 2Cl 2H O

Here, I and II are

(A) I-CuCl2; II-V2O5 (B) I-V2O5; II-CuCl2(C) I-V2O5; II-MnO2 (D) I-MnO2; II-CuCl2

86. The trioxides which can exist as monomericmolecule is

(A) SO3 in gaseious state

(B) TeO3

(C) SO3 in solid state

(D) SeO3

87. Starch paper moistened with solution of KI turnsblue in ozone because

(A) Alkali is formed

(B) Iodine is liberated

(C) Ozone reacts with litmus paper

(D) Oxygen is liberated

88. Assertion (A) Sulphur shows paramagnetism.

Reason (R) In vapour state sulphur partly existsas S2 molecule which has two unpaired electrons

in the antibonding orbitals.

(A) Both A and R are correct; R is the correctexplanation of A

(B) Both A and R are correct; R is Not the correctexplanation of A

(C) A is correct; r is incorrect

(D) R is correct; A is incorrect




89. Peroxoacids of sulphur are(A) H2S2O8 and H2SO5

(B) H2S2O8 and H2S2O7

(C) H2S2O7 and H2S2O6

(D) H2SO5 and H2S2O7

90. Sulphuric acid has great affinity for water because(A) It hydrolysis the acid(B) It decomposes the acid(C) Acid decomposes water(D) Acids forms hydrates with water

91. Which of the following is fermentation product ofsoybean?(A) Soju (B) Tofu(C) Butter (D) Both (A) and (B)

92. Treatment of waste water is done by the _______naturally present in sewage.(A) Heterotrophic microbes(B) Autotrophic microbes(C) Autotrophic plants(D) Both (B) and (C)

93. The expanded form of BOD is(A) Biological Oxygen Deficiency(B) Biological Ozone Demand(C) Biochemical Oxygen Demand(D) Biophysical Oxygen Demand

94. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuringthe amount of(A) Total organic matter(B) Biodegradable organic matter(C) Oxygen released(D) Oxygen consumption

95. Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in

(A) Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity

(B) Increasing its tolerance to drought

(C) Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens

(D) Increasing its resistance to insects

96. What would happen if oxygen availability toactivated sludge flocs is reduced?

(A) It will slow down the rate of degradation oforganic matter

(B) The centre of flocs will become anoxic, whichwould cause death of bacteria and eventuallybreakage of flocs

(C) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobicbacterial would grow around flocs

(D) Protozoa would grow in large numbers

97. Match the following columns:Column I Column IIa. Tertiary treatment 1. Action of methane producing

bacteria on component ofmicrobial fermentation

b. Biocontrol agents 2. Physical removal of particles

c. Methanogenesis 3. It involves disinfecting water

d. Primary treatment 4. Use of biological methods forpest control

Codesa b c d

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 1 4 3 2

(C) 3 2 1 4

(D) 3 4 1 2




98. Match the following columns:Column I Column IIa. Aspergillus niger 1. Lactic acidb. Acetobacter aceti 2. Butyric acidc. Clostridium butylicum 3. Acetic acidd. Lactobacillus 4. Citric acid

Codesa b c d

(A) 2 3 4 1(B) 2 4 3 1(C) 4 3 2 1(D) 4 1 3 2

99. Match the following columns:Column I Column IIa. Laby bird 1. Methanobacteriumb. Mycorrhiza 2. Trichodermac. Biological control 3. Aphidsd. Biogas 4. GlomusCodes

a b c d(A) 2 4 3 1(B) 3 4 2 1(C) 4 1 2 3(D) 3 2 1 4

100. Which of the following is wrongly matched in thegiven table?

Microbe Product Application(A) Monascus

purpureusStatins Lowering of blood

cholesterol(B) Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from

blood vessel(C) Clostridium

butylicumLipase Removal of oil stains

(D) Trichodermapolysporum

Cyclosporin-A Immunosuppressivedrug

101. Relationship between DO and BOD is that they

(A) are directly proportional

(B) are inversely proportional

(C) are not related

(D) always remain equal to each other

102. An organism used as a biofertiliser for raisingsoybean crop production is

(A) Azospirillum (B) Rhizobium

(C) Nostoc (D) Azotobacter

103. Which one of the following is not a biofertiliser?

(A) Rhizobium

(B) Nostoc

(C) Mycorrhiza

(D) Agrobacterium

104. Which one of the following is not a fungal disease?

(A) Rust of wheat

(B) Smut of bajra

(C) Black rot of crucifers

(D) Red rot of sugarcane

105. SCP is commercially obtained at present from

(A) Yeast and Fusarium fungi

(B) Marchella and Agaricus

(C) Methanomonas and other bacteria

(D) Chlorella and Spirulina

106. Somaclonal variations are the ones

(A) Caused by mutagens

(B) Produced during tissue culture

(C) Induced during sexual embryogeny

(D) Caused by gamma rays




107. Which one of the following combination would asugarcane farmer look for in the sugarcane crop?

(A) Thick stem, long internodes, high sugarcontent and disease resistant

(B) Thick stem, high sugar content and produceflowering

(C) Thick stem, short internodes, high sugarcontent, disease resistant

(D) Thick stem, low sugar content and diseaseresistant

108. A technique of micropropagation is

(A) Somatic hybridisation

(B) somatic embryogenesis

(C) protoplast fusion

(D) Embryo rescue

109. Which of the following enhances or induces fusionof protoplasts?

(A) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride

(B) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate

(C) IAA and kinetin

(D) IAA and gibberellins

110. In recent years some crops were improved byvarious methods for higher yield and better qualityof food grains. Match the improved varieties withthe related crop.Column I Column IIa. Golden rice 1. Cross breed hybrid

b. IR-8 rice 2. Somatic hybrid

c. Himgiri wheat 3. Semidwarf variety

d. Pomato 4. Genetically modified crop

Codesa b c d

(A) 4 1 2 3(B) 4 3 1 2(C) 2 4 1 3(D) 1 3 4 2

111. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseasedone by tissue culture technique, which part/partsof the diseased plant will be taken?

(A) Apical meristem only

(B) Palisade parenchyma

(C) Both apical and axillary meristems

(D) Epidermis only

112. Match the following columns:Column I Column IIa. Totipotency 1. Breeding crops with higher

levels of nutrients

b. Micropropagation 2. Plant grown from hybridprotoplast

c. Somaclone 3. Producing a large numberof plants through tissue culture

d. Somatic hybrid 4. Capacity to generate a wholeplant from an explant

e. Biofortification 5. Plants genetically identicalto original plant

Codesa b c d e

(A) 4 3 5 2 1

(B) 1 5 2 4 3

(C) 3 2 5 4 1

(D) 4 5 1 2 3




113. Identify the correct pair of combinations.I. Parbhani Kranti - Resistance to virus - Bhindi

II. Pusa Gaurav - Resistance to aphids - Mustard

III. Pusa Sadabhar - Resistance to fruit borer - Cowpea

IV. Pusa Shubhra - Resistance to whiterust - Cauliflower

Codes(A) II and III (B) II and IV

(C) I and II (D) I and III

114. Wonder wheat is a new wheat variety developedby

(A) Mexico’s International Wheat and MaizeImprovement Centre

(B) Indian National Botanical Research Institute

(C) Australian Crop Improvement Centre

(D) Africal Crop Improvement Centre

115. Shakti, Ratna and Protina are three importantlysine rich varieties of

(A) Rice (B) Pulses

(C) Wheat (D) Maize

116. Why a small amount of curd is added to the freshmilk to convert into curd

(A) It increases Vitamin B12 in it

(B) It increases Vitamin C in it

(C) It contains millions of Acetic acid bacteria

(D) It contains millions of Lactic acid bacteria

117. How many in the list given below can be producedwithout distillation

Wine, Beer, Whisky, Brandy, Gin and Rum

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) All of these

118. The large holes in Swiss cheese are due toproduction of a large amount of …….. by .…….bacteria

(A) CH4 and Propionibacterium sharmanii

(B) CO2 and Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(C) CO2 and Propionibacterium sharmanii

(D) CH4 and Saccharomyces cerevisiae

119. Production of biomolecules on large scalerequires, growing microbes in

(A) Cultured petridish (B) Bioreactors

(C) Fermentors (D) Both B and C

120. The most significant discovery of 20th century is

(A) Production of Alcohol

(B) Production of Cheese

(C) Production of Antibiotics from microbes

(D) Biogas production by microbes

121. Antibiotics cannot be used for the treatment of

(A) Small pox (B) Whooping cough

(C) Diphtheria (D) Leprosy

122. Read the statements carefully and choose thecorrect option

a) Antibiotics are chemicals produced by someplant cells to kill microbes

b) Penicillin was the first antibiotic to bediscovered from a bacterium

c) The full potential of antibiotic was establishedby Chain and Florey

d) Chain and Florey were awarded Nobel prize in1845 for this discovery




(A) B and D are correct

(B) A and C are incorrect

(C) A and D are incorrect

(D) All are correct

123. Read the following statements

I. Flocs are masses of bacteria held together byfungal elements to form mesh like structure

II. Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria both digest theorganic mass of the sludge and reduce BOD

III. BOD test directly measures the organic matterpresent in water

IV. The greater the BOD of waste water, more isits polluting potential

V. A small part of activated sludge is pumped backinto large anaerobic digesters to serve as inoculum

How many statements given above are incorrect?

(A) I, III and V only (B) II, III and IV only

(C) II and IV only (D) II, III and V only

124. The major problem related to increasingurbanization is

(A) Production of large amount of sewage

(B) Production of biogas

(C) Production of biofertilizer

(D) All of these

125. The type of the gas produced in Biogas dependson

(A) Shape of microbes

(B) Types of microbes only

(C) Inorganic substrate

(D) Organic substrate and types of microbes

126. The shift from grain to meat diets create moredemands for

(A) Pulses (B) Cereals

(C) SCP (D) Both A and B

127. Which of the following crop given below areVitamin-C enriched as developed by IARI

Spinach, Pumpkin, Carrot, Bathua, Bitter gourd,Garden pea, Lablab, Mustard, Tomato

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) Four (D) Six

128. Which of the following statement given below iscorrect

(A) Less than 840 million people in the world don’thave adequate food to meet their daily fooddemands

(B) Three million people suffer from hidden hungerbecause they cannot afford to buy enough fruit,legumes etc.

(C) More than 25% of human people is sufferingfrom hunger and malnutrition

(D) 250gm of microbe like Methylophilus canproduce 25 tonnes of starch due to its high rate ofbiomass production

129. The most common mutagen used for mutationbreeding in plants is

(A) MMS

(B) X-ray

(C) Acridine dye

(D) Gamma ray




130. In the list How many crop varieties given beloware produced by mutation breeding

Himgiri, Mung bean, Pusa Gaurav, Pusa Lerma,Parbhani Kranti, Sharbati Sonara, Pusa Swarnim,Pusa Sadabahar

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four


I. During the period 1960 to 2000, wheat productionincreases from 11 million tonnes to 89.5 milliontonnes

II. In 1963, several high yielding varieties such asSonalika and Kalyan Sona were introduced inwheat belt of India

III. Semi dwarf varieties of wheat, Jaya and Ratnawere developed in India

IV. Transfer of resistance genes can be achievedby sexual hybridisation between target and sourceplant

V. Conventional breeding is often constrained byavailability of limited number of disease resistantgenes

How many statements given above are correct?

(A) I, III and V only

(B) II, IV and V only

(C) II and IV only

(D) I, II and III only

132. HD 1553 and P1542 variety of plants belong to

(A) Rice and Wheat (B) Wheat and Rice

(C) Wheat and Pea (D) Maize and Wheat

133. The root of any breeding programme is

(A) Selection of parents

(B) Selection and testing of superior of recombinants

(C) Genetic variability

(D) Cross hybridisation among selected parents


I. Ladybird and Dragon flies are useful to get rid ofbutterfly caterpillars

II. The spores of bacteria, Bacillus thuringiensisis used to control aphids

III. Baculoviruses are pathogens that attackinsects and other arthropods and belong to genus

NPV

IV. BGA increases the fertility of soil but don’t

add organic matter

V. NPV are species specific, broad spectrum

insecticidal applications

How many statements given above are correct?

(A) III

(B) III and V only

(C) II and IV only

(D) All of these

135. Maize lead to resistance to maize stem borers

due to

(A) Solid stem and Smooth leaves

(B) High sugar content and Low nitrogen

(C) Hairy leaves and Solid stem

(D) High Aspartic acid and Low sugar content




136. The immune system is involved in

(A) Nasal mucus secretion after the infection of

orthomyxovirus

(B) Allergic reactions

(C) Rejection of organ transplants

(D) All of the above

137. Active immunity is

(A) Borrowed from other individual of the same

species

(B) Developed in direct response to a disease

causing agent

(C) The product of borrowed antibodies

(D) Passive immunity that is activated

138. Which one of these does not pertain to B-cells?

(A) Have processed in thymus

(B) Have specific receptors

(C) Are responsible for antibody-mediated

immunity

(D) Synthesis and liberate antibodies

139. the clonal selection theory states that

(A) An antigen selects certain B-cells and

suppresses them

(B) An antigen stimulates the multiplication of B-

cells that produce antibodies against it

(C) T-cells select those B-cells that should

produce antibodies

(D) T-cells suppress all B-cells except the ones

that should multiply and divide

140. Perspiration, saliva and tears contain an enzyme,lysozyme, that kills

(A) Virus-infected cells

(B) Protozoa

(C) Bacteria

(D) Viruses

141. Most bacteria ingested with food, are killed by

(A) Cilia and mucus on the linings of the tract

(B) Stomach acids

(C) The intrinsic factor in the stomach

(D) Bile in the small intestine

142. During blood typing, agglutination indicated thatthe

(A) Plasma contains antibodies

(B) Red blood cells carry certain antigens

(C) Plasma contains certain antigens

(D) Red blood cells carry certain antibodies

143. Which of the following is not the example of anauto-immunity disease?

(A) Multiple sclerosis

(B) Rheumatic fever

(C) Malaria

(D) Rheumatoid arthritis

144. Which of thefollowing is not the function of thelymphatic system?

(A) Production of main formed elements

(B) Return excess fluid to the blood

(C) Transport lipids absorbed from the digestivesystem

(D) Defend the body against pathogens




145. Which of the following is a function of the spleen?

(A) Produces T-cells

(B) Removes worn out red blood cells

(C) Maturation of T-cells (1° lymphoid tissue)

(D) Produces platelets

146. Immuno globin in present in maximum quantity is

(A) IgM (B) IgG

(C) IgD (D) IgA

147. The humoral immune system defends mostlyagainst bacteria and viruses in the

(A) Body fluids

(B) Digestive tract

(C) Internal organs

(D) Regions beneath the skin

148. MALT contribute

(A) About 20% of lymphoid tissue

(B) Ablut 50% of lymphoid tissue

(C) About 30% of lymphoid tissue

(D) About 10% of lymphoid tissue

149. Which of the following disease is related toimmuno deficiency?

(A) SCID (B) Agammaglobulinemia

(C) AIDS (D) All of these

150. Which of the following lymphokines interfare theviral propagation

(A) Interleukin

(B) Interferon

(C) Colony Stimulating Factor (CSF) and TumourNecrotic Factor (TNF)


151. Which vaccines is effective against poliomyelitis?

(A) Salk vaccine administered orally

(B) Sabin vaccine administered by injection

(C) Salk vaccine administered by injection andSabin vaccine administered by orally


152. The hyper variable regions responsible for antigenbinding is contributed by

(A) Light chains only

(B) Heavy chains only

(C) A part of light and heavy chains both

(D) Light chains and disulphide hinge

153. Vaccination against small pox means theintroduction into our body, of

(A) Leucocytes obtained from animal

(B) Antibodies produced in other animals

(C) Antibodies

(D) Actual weakened germs or attenuated smallpox virus

154. A disease transferred from mother to child throughplacenta is

(A) German measles (B) Syphilis

(C) AIDS (D) All of these

155. Against whcih of the following does intereferonact?

(A) Bacteria (B) Virus

(C) Fungus (D) Snake venom

156. Passive immunity is given as

(A) Blood (B) Lymph

(C) Serum (D) B-lymphocyte




157. Antibiotics are

(A) Collective name of useful bacteria

(B) Toxins produced by bacteria

(C) Drugs manufactured to kill viruses

(D) Antibacterial and also antiprotozoan

158. Which of the following is involved in defencemechanism of the body?

(A) Lymphocytes (B) Neutrophils

(C) Macrophages (D) All of these

159. Vehicle borne transmission of a disease is thetransmission occurring through

(A) Certain vectors like anthropods

(B) Agencies like water, ice, food or blood

(C) Through infectious clothes

(D) Unhygenic conditions

160. The number of light and heavy chain in IgM are inthe ratio of

(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 2

(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

161. Antiserum possesses

(A) Antigens (B) Leucocytes

(C) Hepatocytes (D) Antibodies

162. When the children without T-cells and B-cells arekept in germ free isolation suits, then the diseaseis

(A) AIDS

(B) Hepatitis

(C) SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency)

(D) All of these

163. Cornea transplanation has become common dueto

(A) Easy preservation

(B) Easy transplantation

(C) Easy availability

(D) It does not involve immune system due toabsence of blood supply

164. When body cannot differentiate between its ownand foreign matter, it is called

(A) Passive immunity (B) Activity immunity

(C) Auto-immunity (D) Immunodeficiency

165. In birds, the B-lymphocytes mature in

(A) Thyroid gland (B) Bone marrow

(C) Preen gland (D) Bursa of Fabricius

166. An allergic reaction is initiated by antibodies ofthe

(A) IgG group (B) IgM group

(C) IgA group (D) IgE group

167. A person without thymus would not be able to

(A) Produce antibodies

(B) Reject tissue transplant

(C) Receive tissue transplant

(D) All of these

168. Memory cells are

(A) Cells responsible for immunologic memory

(B) Antigens

(C) Cells of cerebrum

(D) Cells responsible for memory in brain




169. Antihistamine pills are to nullify(A) Allergic reaction (B) Malaria(C) Typhoid (D) Diphtheria

170. Lymphocytes that inhibit the development andproliferation of T and B-cells are(A) Suppressor B-cells (B) Suppressor T-cells(C) Macrophages (D) Neutrophils

171. Inefective stage of Plasmodium for men is(A) Merozoites (B) Ookinetes(C) Sporozoites (D) Cryptozoite

172. The infective form of malarial parasite migrate tothe(A) Erythrocytes of human(B) Liver cells of human(C) Stomach of mosquito(D) Salivary gland of mosquito

173. Where will you look for the sporozoites of themalarial parasite?(A) RBCs of humans suffering from malaria(B) Spleen of infected person(C) Salivary glands of freshly moulted femaleAnopheles mosquito(D) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito

174. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of(A) Liver (B) Small intestine(C) Large intestine (D) WBCs

175. Which one is not a symptom of disease causedby E. histolytica?(A) Stools with excess mucous(B) Constipation

(C) Abdominal pain(D) Nasal discharge

176. Consider the following statements aboutascariasisI. Eggs of parasite comes out with NasaldischargeII. Infection takes place through contaminated foodvegetable and waterChoose the correct combination:(A) I-True, II-True (B) I-False, II-False(C) I-True, II-False (D) I-False, II-True

177. Elephantiasis causing organism belongs to(A) Aschelminthes (B) Platyhelminthes(C) Cnidaria (D) Prolifera

178. The causative agent of filaria is(A) Wuchereria bancrofti

(B) Leishmania donovani

(C) Plasmodium vivax

(D) Trypanosoma gambiens

179. The carnivorous fish used for eradication ofmosquito larva in standard water is(A) Gambusia (B) Anabas

(C) Rohu (D) Catla catla

180. Plasmodium completes its life cycle in two hosts.Asexual phase in ____ host and sexual phase in_____ host is(A) human; Culex mosquito(B) human; female Anopheles mosquito

(C) human, Aedes mosquito(D) human; male Anopheles mosquito

1 A 46 C 91 D 136 D2 D 47 B 92 A 137 B3 A 48 C 93 C 138 A4 D 49 C 94 D 139 B5 B 50 D 95 D 140 C6 B 51 D 96 B 141 B7 C 52 B 97 D 142 B8 B 53 C 98 C 143 C9 C 54 A 99 B 144 A10 C 55 C 100 C 145 B11 A 56 C 101 B 146 B12 C 57 A 102 B 147 A13 C 58 A 103 D 148 B14 B 59 A 104 C 149 D15 C 60 B 105 D 150 B16 B 61 A 106 B 151 C17 A 62 A 107 A 152 C18 A 63 C 108 B 153 D19 C 64 C 109 B 154 D20 C 65 A 110 B 155 B21 A 66 B 111 C 156 C22 C 67 A 112 A 157 D23 B 68 C 113 C 158 D24 D 69 C 114 A 159 C25 C 70 A 115 D 160 C26 C 71 D 116 D 161 D27 D 72 D 117 B 162 C28 A 73 B 118 C 163 D29 C 74 A 119 D 164 C30 B 75 C 120 C 165 D31 C 76 C 121 A 166 D32 D 77 C 122 C 167 B33 D 78 C 123 D 168 A34 A 79 B 124 A 169 A35 D 80 B 125 D 170 B36 C 81 D 126 B 171 C37 C 82 B 127 C 172 B38 A 83 A 128 C 173 D39 D 84 B 129 D 174 C40 D 85 B 130 C 175 B41 A 86 A 131 B 176 D42 A 87 B 132 C 177 A43 B 88 A 133 C 178 A44 C 89 A 134 A 179 A45 A 90 D 135 D 180 B

ANSWERS DROPPER (NEET) TEST-10 (26-03-2020)PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY

vigyan dhara education pvt ltdvigyandhara.in/downloads/test-10 dropper neet (26-03-2020...2020/03/26...

Documents