States of matter practice test

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of mattera. are in constant motion. c. have different colors.b. have different shapes. d. are always fluid.

____ 2. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, gases condense into liquids because ofa. gravity. c. forces between molecules.b. atmospheric pressure. d. elastic collisions.

____ 3. The kinetic-molecular theory explains the behavior ofa. gases only. c. liquids and gases only.b. solids and liquids only. d. solids, liquids, and gases.

____ 4. Which process can be explained by the kinetic-molecular theory?a. combustion c. condensationb. oxidation d. displacement reactions

____ 5. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, which substances are made of particles?a. gases only c. all matterb. liquids only d. all matter except solids

____ 6. The kinetic-molecular theory explains the properties of solids, liquids, and gases in terms of the energy of the particles anda. gravitational forces.b. the forces that act between the particles.c. diffusion.d. the mass of the particles.

____ 7. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of matter are in motion ina. gases only. c. solids, liquids, and gases.b. gases and liquids only. d. solids only.

____ 8. An ideal gas is a hypothetical gasa. not made of particles.b. that conforms to all of the assumptions of the kinetic theory.c. whose particles have zero mass.d. made of motionless particles.

____ 9. Unlike in an ideal gas, in a real gasa. all particles move in the same direction.b. all particles have the same kinetic energy.c. the particles cannot diffuse.d. the particles exert attractive forces on each other.

____ 10. A real gasa. does not obey all the assumptions of the kinetic-molecular theory.b. consists of particles that do not occupy space.c. cannot be condensed.

d. cannot be produced in scientific laboratories.

____ 11. Two gases have the same temperature but different pressures. The kinetic-molecular theory does not predict thata. molecules in both gases have the same average kinetic energies.b. molecules in the low-pressure gas travel farther before they collide with other molecules.c. both gases have the same densities.d. all collisions of the molecules are elastic.

____ 12. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, which is the most significant difference between gases and liquids?a. the shapes of the particlesb. the mass of each particlec. the distance between the particlesd. the type of collision that occurs between particles

____ 13. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of an ideal gasa. attract each other but do not collide.b. repel each other and collide.c. neither attract nor repel each other but collide.d. neither attract nor repel each other and do not collide.

____ 14. What determines the average kinetic energy of the molecules of any gas?a. temperature c. container volumeb. pressure d. molar mass

____ 15. Which is an example of gas diffusion?a. inflating a flat tireb. the odor of perfume spreading throughout a roomc. a cylinder of oxygen stored under high pressured. All of the above

____ 16. By which process do gases take the shape of their container?a. evaporation c. adhesionb. expansion d. diffusion

____ 17. If a gas with an odor is released in a room, it quickly can be detected across the room because ita. diffuses. c. is compressed.b. is dense. d. condenses.

____ 18. Which substance has the lowest density?a. H2O(g) c. Hg(l)b. H2O(l) d. Hg(g)

____ 19. The density of a substance undergoes the greatest change when the substance changes from aa. liquid to a gas. c. solid to a liquid.b. liquid to a solid. d. a molecular solid to an ionic solid.

____ 20. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, how does a gas expand?a. Its particles become larger.b. Collisions between particles become elastic.c. Its temperature rises.d. Its particles move greater distances.

____ 21. Diffusion between two gases occurs most rapidly if the gases are ata. high temperature and the molecules are small.b. low temperature and the molecules are large.c. low temperature and the molecules are small.d. high temperature and the molecules are large.

____ 22. Which is an example of effusion?a. air slowly escaping from a pinhole in a tireb. the aroma of a cooling pie spreading across a roomc. helium dispersing into a room after a balloon popsd. oxygen and gasoline fumes mixing in an automobile carburetor

____ 23. What happens to the volume of a gas during compression?a. The volume increases.b. The volume decreases.c. The volume remains constant.d. It is impossible to tell because all gases are different.

____ 24. Why does the air pressure inside the tires of a car increase when the car is driven?a. Some of the air has leaked out.b. The air particles collide with the tire after the car is in motion.c. The air particles inside the tire increase their speed because their temperature rises.d. The atmosphere compresses the tire.

____ 25. What is the process by which molecules of a gas randomly encounter and pass through a small opening in a container?a. diffusion c. distillationb. osmosis d. effusion

____ 26. Under which conditions do real gases most resemble ideal gases?a. low pressure and low temperature c. high pressure and high temperatureb. low pressure and high temperature d. high pressure and low temperature

____ 27. Which gases behave most like an ideal gas?a. gases composed of highly polar moleculesb. gases composed of monatomic, nonpolar moleculesc. gases composed of diatomic, polar moleculesd. gases near their condensation temperatures

____ 28. Two gases with unequal molar masses are injected into opposite ends of a long tube at the same time and allowed to diffuse toward the center. They should begin to mixa. in approximately five minutes.b. closer to the end that holds the heavier gas.c. closer to the end that holds the lighter gas.d. exactly in the middle.

____ 29. The intermolecular forces between particles in a liquid can involve all of the following excepta. London dispersion forces. c. dipole-dipole attractions.b. hydrogen bonding. d. gravitational forces.

____ 30. The particles in both gases and liquidsa. consist only of atoms.b. can change positions with other particles.

c. can only vibrate in fixed positions.d. are packed closely together.

____ 31. The compressibility of a liquid is generallya. less than that of a gas. c. equal to that of a gas.b. more than that of a gas. d. zero.

____ 32. The intermolecular forces between particles area. weaker in solids than in liquids.b. stronger in gases than in solids.c. equal in strength in gases and in liquids.d. stronger in liquids than in gases.

____ 33. Which best describes the particles of a liquid compared to those of a gas?a. less random c. colderb. lower in density d. higher in energy

____ 34. The particles in a liquid are usuallya. closer together and lower in energy than those in a solid.b. farther apart and higher in energy than those in a gas.c. closer together and lower in energy than those in a gas.d. farther apart and lower in energy than those in a solid.

____ 35. Which of these best describes vaporization?a. the process by which a liquid changes to a gasb. the process by which a solid changes to a gasc. Both (a) and (b)d. Neither (a) nor (b)

____ 36. Which term best describes the process by which particles escape from the surface of a nonboiling liquid and enter the gas state?a. sublimation c. surface tensionb. evaporation d. aeration

____ 37. Which of the following causes particles in a liquid to escape into a gas state?a. high kinetic energy c. surface tensionb. a freezing temperature d. the combining of liquids

____ 38. A solid forms when the average energy of a substance's particlesa. increases. c. decreases then increases.b. decreases. d. creates a random arrangement.

____ 39. Which of these can happen due to decreasing the average energy of a liquid's particles?a. vaporization c. a random arrangementb. evaporation d. freezing

____ 40. Particles within a solida. do not move. c. move about freely.b. vibrate about fixed positions. d. exchange positions easily.

____ 41. Forces holding particles together are strongest in aa. solid. c. gas.b. liquid. d. vapor.

____ 42. The energy of the particles in a solid isa. higher than the energy of the particles in a gas.b. high enough to allow the particles to interchange with other particles.c. higher than the energy of the particles in a liquid.d. lower than the energy of the particles in liquids and gases.

____ 43. The compressibility of solids is generallya. lower than the compressibility of liquids and gases.b. higher than the compressibility of liquids only.c. about equal to the compressibility of liquids and gases.d. higher than the compressibility of gases only.

____ 44. Solids have a definite volume becausea. the particles do not have a tendency to change positions.b. the particles are far apart.c. they can be easily compressed.d. the energy of the particles is high.

____ 45. In general, most substances area. least dense in the liquid state.b. more dense as gases than as solids.c. less dense as solids than as liquids.d. most dense in the solid state.

____ 46. The rate of diffusion in solids is very low because thea. particles are not free to move about.b. surfaces of solids usually contact gases.c. attractive forces are weak.d. melting points are high.

____ 47. Which of the following properties do solids share with liquids?a. fluidity c. definite volumeb. definite shape d. slow rate of diffusion

____ 48. Which causes the high density of solids?a. The particles are more massive than those in liquids.b. The intermolecular forces between particles are weak.c. The particles are packed closely together.d. The energy of the particles is very high.

____ 49. The difference between crystalline and amorphous solids is determined bya. temperature changes.b. pressure when the substances are formed.c. amount of order in particle arrangement.d. strength of molecular forces.

____ 50. Compared with a crystalline solid, the particles in an amorphous solida. occur in a random pattern.b. occur in a definite, three-dimensional arrangement.c. consist of molecular sheets.d. have a more complex unit cell.

____ 51. Which of the following is an amorphous solid?

a. ice c. graphiteb. diamond d. glass

____ 52. Which of the following is not correct about crystalline solids?a. They can maintain a definite shape without a container.b. They can exist as single crystals.c. Their particles are held in relatively fixed positions.d. They are geometrically irregular.

____ 53. Which of the following is a crystalline solid?a. a plastic milk container c. a glass bottleb. a quartz rock d. a three-dimensional glass cube

____ 54. Which substance's solid state consists of covalent molecular crystals?a. salt c. sodiumb. water d. diamond

____ 55. Which type of crystal consists of positive metal cations surrounded by valence electrons that are donated by the metal atoms and belong to the crystal as a whole?a. ionic c. metallicb. covalent network d. covalent molecular

____ 56. What is the total three-dimensional array of points that describes the arrangement of the particles of a crystal called?a. unit cell c. diffraction patternb. crystal lattice d. crystalline system

____ 57. Which of the following is not a property of covalent network crystals?a. high conductivity c. high melting pointb. hardness d. brittleness

____ 58. Which of the following statements about ionic crystals is not correct?a. Their structure consists of positive and negative ions arranged in a regular pattern.b. The strong binding forces between the positive and negative ions in their structure give

them certain properties.c. Their ions can be monatomic or polyatomic.d. They consist of molecules held together by intermolecular forces.

____ 59. If the rate of evaporation from the surface of a liquid exceeds the rate of condensation,a. the system is in equilibrium.b. the liquid is boiling.c. energy as heat is no longer available.d. the concentration of the vapor is increasing.

____ 60. If the temperature and surface area of a liquid remain constant,a. the liquid is not in equilibrium with its vapor.b. no further evaporation occurs.c. the rate of evaporation remains constant.d. the rate of condensation is greater than the rate of evaporation.

____ 61. Molecules at the surface of a liquid can enter the vapor phase only ifa. equilibrium has not been reached.b. the concentration of the vapor is zero.

c. their energy is high enough to overcome the attractive forces in the liquid.d. condensation is not occurring.

____ 62. When does the concentration of a vapor decrease?a. when the rate of condensation decreasesb. when the temperature remains constantc. when the liquid phase is warmedd. when the rate of condensation exceeds the rate of evaporation

____ 63. A liquid-vapor system at equilibrium is kept at constant temperature while the volume of the system is doubled. When equilibrium is restored,a. the concentration of vapor molecules has decreased.b. the vapor pressure is the same as the original vapor pressure.c. the volume of the liquid has increased noticeably.d. the number of liquid molecules has increased.

____ 64. When energy as heat is applied to a liquid-vapor system at equilibrium, a new equilibrium state will havea. a higher percentage of liquid. c. equal amounts of liquid and vapor.b. a higher percentage of vapor. d. all liquid.

____ 65. If the temperature of a liquid-vapor system at equilibrium is reduced, thea. concentration of the vapor will decrease.b. rate of evaporation will increase.c. equilibrium is unaffected.d. percentage of liquid in the system will decrease.

____ 66. If the temperature of a liquid-vapor system at equilibrium increases, the new equilibrium condition willa. have a lower concentration of vapor.b. have an increased vapor pressure.c. not have equal rates of condensation and evaporation.d. be larger in volume.

____ 67. At its triple point, water cana. have only three pressure values.b. exist in equilibrium in three different phases.c. only be present as vapor.d. exist only as a solid.

____ 68. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure conditions at whicha. density is greatest.b. states of a substance coexist at equilibrium.c. equilibrium cannot occur.d. kinetic energy is at a minimum.

____ 69. Above the critical temperature, a substancea. does not have a vapor pressure. c. cannot exist in the liquid state.b. sublimes. d. is explosive.

____ 70. What is the critical pressure?a. the pressure at which all substances are solidsb. the pressure at which the attractive forces in matter break downc. the highest pressure under which a solid can existd. the lowest pressure under which a substance can exist as a liquid at the critical temperature

____ 71. According to the figure below, what is the most volatile substance shown?

a. benzene c. tolueneb. water d. aniline

____ 72. The equilibrium vapor pressure of a liquid isa. the same for all liquids.b. measured only at 0C.c. constant for a particular liquid at all temperatures.d. the pressure exerted by a vapor in equilibrium with its liquid at a given temperature.

____ 73. At a given temperature, different liquids will have different equilibrium vapor pressures becausea. the energy of the particles is the same for different liquids.b. diffusion rates differ for the liquids.c. the attractive forces between the particles differ among liquids.d. they cannot all be in equilibrium at once.

____ 74. A volatile liquida. has strong attractive forces between particles.b. evaporates readily.c. has no odor.d. is ionic.

____ 75. The equilibrium vapor pressure of water isa. constant at all temperatures.b. specific for any given temperature.c. unrelated to temperature.d. inversely proportional to the temperature.

____ 76. The equilibrium vapor pressure of a liquid increases with increasing temperature becausea. the rate of condensation decreases.b. the average energy of the particles in the liquid increases.c. the volume decreases.d. the boiling point decreases.

____ 77. The equilibrium vapor pressure of a molten ionic compound is likely to be

a. lower than that of ether. c. higher than that of volatile liquids.b. zero except when it is boiling. d. proportional to the volume.

____ 78. Whenever a liquid changes to a vapor, ita. absorbs energy from its surroundings. c. is boiling.b. is in equilibrium with its vapor. d. is condensing.

____ 79. What is the process of a substance changing from a solid to a vapor without passing through the liquid phase?a. condensation c. sublimationb. evaporation d. vaporization

____ 80. At pressures greater than 1 atm, water will boil ata. a temperature higher than 100C. c. 100C.b. a temperature lower than 100C. d. 4C.

____ 81. Why would a camper near the top of Mt. Everest find that water boils at less than 100C?a. There is greater atmospheric pressure than at sea level.b. The flames are hotter at that elevation.c. There is less atmospheric pressure than at sea level.d. The atmosphere has less moisture.

____ 82. Glycerol boils at a slightly higher temperature than water. This reveals that glycerol's attractive forces area. nonexistent. c. the same as those of water.b. weaker than those of water. d. stronger than those of water.

____ 83. Diethyl ether's boiling point is about 35C at 1 atm. At 1.5 atm, what will be ether's approximate boiling point?a. –10C c. 40Cb. 20C d. 100C

____ 84. During boiling, the temperature of a liquida. remains constant. c. decreases.b. increases. d. approaches water's boiling point.

____ 85. During the process of freezing, a liquida. loses kinetic energy. c. gains potential energy.b. loses potential energy. d. gains kinetic energy.

____ 86. How does the molar enthalpy of fusion of ice compare with the molar enthalpy of fusion of other solids?a. It is about the same.b. It is relatively small.c. It is relatively large.d. It is about the same as that of colorless solids.

____ 87. At about what temperature does water reach its maximum density?a. 0C c. 4Cb. 2C d. 6C

____ 88. When water is warmed from its freezing temperature to its temperature of maximum density, ita. contracts. c. maintains a constant volume.b. expands. d. increases in weight.

____ 89. Why doesn't water in lakes and ponds of temperate climates freeze solid during the winter and kill nearly all the living things it contains?

a. Water is colorless.b. Ice floats.c. The molar enthalpy of fusion of ice is relatively low.d. Water contracts as it freezes.

____ 90. The molar enthalpy of fusion for water is 6.008 kJ/mol. What quantity of energy is released when 253 g of liquid water freezes? (Molar mass of water is 18.02 g/mol.)a. 759 kJ c. 2.33 kJb. 0.429 kJ d. 84.4 kJ

____ 91. The standard molar enthalpy of vaporization for water is 40.79 kJ/mol. What mass of steam is required to release 500. kJ of energy upon condensation? (Molar mass of water is 18.02 g/mol.)a. 221 g c. 1130 gb. 325 g d. 1660 g

Short Answer

1. Why are gases described as fluid?

2. How is a solid formed?

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

3. What do points E and F represent in the figure above?

4. What does point A represent in the figure above?

5. Explain what the curves AB, AC, and AD represent in the figure above.

Problem

1. Given that benzoic acid has a molar mass of 122.1 g/mol and a 52.9 g sample of benzoic acid absorbs 7.83 kJ when it melts,a. calculate the number of moles in the sample.b. calculate the molar enthalpy of fusion of benzoic acid.

2. a. Calculate the number of moles in a liquid sample of sodium that has a molar enthalpy of fusion of 2.60 kJ/mol, given that the sample releases 41.4 kJ when it freezes.b. Calculate the molar mass of sodium if the mass of the sample is 363 g.

3. Iron has a molar enthalpy of fusion of 13.807 kJ/mol. Calculate the molar mass of the substance, given that a 125.9 g sample of iron absorbs 31.12 kJ on melting.

4. Given that water has a molar enthalpy of vaporization of 40.79 kJ/mol, how many grams of water could be vaporized by 623 J?

States of matter practice testAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce84678d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce848e9d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce86c9ea-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: ce86f0fa-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce892c47-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

6. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce8df101-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

7. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce8e1811-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce90535e-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce92b5bb-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce92dccb-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

11. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: ce951818-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

12. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce953f28-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

13. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce977a75-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce99dcd2-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: ce9a03e2-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: ce9c3f2f-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

17. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce9ea18c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ce9ec89c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

19. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cea103e9-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cea36646-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

21. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cea38d56-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

22. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: cea5c8a3-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cea5efb3-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

24. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: ceaa8d5d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

25. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: ceacefba-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.7

26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceaf5217-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4

27. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceaf7927-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4

28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: ceb1b474-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

29. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceb416d1-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

30. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceb43de1-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

31. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceb6792e-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

32. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceb6a03e-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

33. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceb8db8b-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

34. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cebb3de8-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

35. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cebb64f8-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

36. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cebda045-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

37. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec002a2-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

38. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec029b2-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.6

39. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec264ff-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.6

40. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec4c75c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec4ee6c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

42. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec729b9-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

43. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec98c16-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

44. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cec9b326-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

45. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cecbee73-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

46. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cecc1583-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

47. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cece50d0-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

48. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I

REF: ced0b32d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1STA: 5.6.A.6

49. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ced0da3d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

50. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ced3158a-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

51. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ced577e7-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

52. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ced59ef7-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

53. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ced7da44-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.6

54. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceda3ca1-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.6

55. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceda63b1-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.6

56. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cedc9efe-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.6

57. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cedf015b-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.6

58. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cedf286b-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3STA: 5.6.A.6

59. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cee163b8-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

60. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cee18ac8-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

61. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cee3c615-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

62. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cee62872-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

63. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cee64f82-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

64. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cee88acf-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

65. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceeaed2c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

66. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceeb143c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 1

67. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I

REF: ceed4f89-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.3.D.1

68. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceefb1e6-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.3.D.1

69. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: ceefd8f6-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.3.D.1

70. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cef21443-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.3.D.1

71. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IIIREF: cef23b53-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.3.D.1

72. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cef476a0-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3

73. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cef6d8fd-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3

74. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cef7000d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3

75. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cef93b5a-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3

76. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cefb9db7-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3

77. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: cefbc4c7-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 3

78. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cefe0014-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4STA: 5.6.A.6

79. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cf006271-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4STA: 5.6.A.6

80. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cf008981-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4STA: 5.6.A.6

81. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: cf02c4ce-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4STA: 5.6.A.6

82. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: cf05272b-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4STA: 5.6.A.6

83. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cf054e3b-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4STA: 5.6.A.6

84. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cf078988-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4STA: 5.6.A.6

85. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cf09ebe5-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 4

STA: 5.6.A.686. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I

REF: cf0a12f5-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.7

87. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cf0c4e42-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.7

88. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: IREF: cf0eb09f-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.7

89. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: IIREF: cf0ed7af-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea OBJ: 2STA: 5.6.A.7

90. ANS: DSolution:

PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: cf1112fc-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 3 STA: 5.3.C.1

91. ANS: ASolution:

PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: cf137559-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 3 STA: 5.3.C.1

SHORT ANSWER

1. ANS:Gas particles glide easily past one another because the attractive forces between them are insignificant. Because this behavior is similar to liquids, gases are classified as fluids.

PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: cf139c69-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 3 STA: 5.6.A.7

2. ANS:When a liquid is cooled, the average energy of its particles decreases. When the energy is low enough, attractive forces pull the particles into a more orderly arrangement. This orderly arrangement is a solid.

PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: cf15d7b6-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 3 STA: 5.6.A.6

3. ANS:E is the normal freezing point, and F is the normal boiling point.

PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: cf183a13-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 2 STA: 5.3.D.1

4. ANS:

Point A is the triple point for water, where the solid, liquid, and vapor phases of water exist in equilibrium.

PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: cf186123-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 2 STA: 5.3.D.1

5. ANS:Curve AB indicates the conditions under which ice and water vapor coexist at equilibrium. Curve AC indicates the conditions under which liquid water and water vapor coexist at equilibrium. Curve AD indicates conditions under which ice and liquid water coexist at equilibrium.

PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: cf1a9c70-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 2 STA: 5.3.D.1

PROBLEM

1. ANS:a. 0.433 mol b. 18.1 kJ/molSolution:

a.

b.

PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: cf1cfecd-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 4 STA: 5.6.A.6

2. ANS:a. 15.9 molb. 22.8 g/mol

Solution:

a.

b.

PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: cf1d25dd-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 4 STA: 5.6.A.6

3. ANS:a. 2.254 molb. 55.86 g/mol

Solution:

PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: cf1f612a-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 4 STA: 5.6.A.6

4. ANS:a. 0.0153 mol of waterb. 0.275 g

Solution:

PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: cf21c387-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2eaOBJ: 3 STA: 5.3.C.1