vardhaman college of engineering9. a) explain the principle and working of hydraulic press with a...

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3010 VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15) ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE (Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology, Electrical and Electronics Engineering & Mechanical Engineering) Date: 11 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks Unit I 1. a) Characterize Environment? Discuss the scope of Environment. 8M b) Emphasize the importance of environment studies. 7M 2. a) Substantiate with examples the following statement. The need for public awareness about environment is of vital importance. 8M b) Write about the impacts of Over Utilization of Underground and Surface Water. 7M Unit II 3. a) Analyze the in situ and ex- situ conservation concept? Explain them briefly. 8M b) Illustrate the concept of conservation of biodiversity in India. 7M 4. a) Analyze and substantiate the fact that INDIA is a mega biodiversity nation. 8M b) Explain the three types of biodiversity with suitable examples. 7M Unit III 5. a) List and explain typical sources of noise pollution. What are the methods to control noise pollution? 8M b) Estimate the different practices used to reduce environmental pollution. 7M 6. a) Scrutinize the impact of soil pollution and mention at least three sources of soil pollution. 8M b) What are the different stages of Disaster management? List the process of Disaster Management. 7M Unit IV 7. a) Recognize the social benefits with reference to green building. 8M b) Characterize carbon foot printing. Why are individual carbon footprints so alarmingly high? 7M 8. a) Signify the advantages of storm water management. Justify with examples. 8M b) Classify nanotechnology. Mention its applications and benefit to environmental issues. 7M Unit V 9. a) List and discuss the Aims and objectives of Environmental NGOs. 8M b) What is environmental impact assessment? Illustrate with examples. 7M 10. a) Highlight the positive contributions made by the NGOs to the field of environment. 8M b) Discuss the water (prevention and control Of pollution) act. What can individuals do to prevent water pollution? 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3010

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE (Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology,

Electrical and Electronics Engineering & Mechanical Engineering) Date: 11 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Characterize Environment? Discuss the scope of Environment. 8M b) Emphasize the importance of environment studies.

7M

2. a) Substantiate with examples the following statement. “The need for public awareness about environment is of vital importance”.

8M

b) Write about the impacts of Over Utilization of Underground and Surface Water. 7M

Unit – II

3. a) Analyze the in – situ and ex- situ conservation concept? Explain them briefly. 8M b) Illustrate the concept of conservation of biodiversity in India.

7M

4. a) Analyze and substantiate the fact that INDIA is a mega biodiversity nation. 8M b) Explain the three types of biodiversity with suitable examples.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) List and explain typical sources of noise pollution. What are the methods to control noise pollution?

8M

b) Estimate the different practices used to reduce environmental pollution.

7M

6. a) Scrutinize the impact of soil pollution and mention at least three sources of soil pollution. 8M b) What are the different stages of Disaster management? List the process of Disaster

Management.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Recognize the social benefits with reference to green building. 8M b) Characterize carbon foot printing. Why are individual carbon footprints so alarmingly

high?

7M

8. a) Signify the advantages of storm water management. Justify with examples. 8M b) Classify nanotechnology. Mention its applications and benefit to environmental issues.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) List and discuss the Aims and objectives of Environmental NGOs. 8M b) What is environmental impact assessment? Illustrate with examples.

7M

10. a) Highlight the positive contributions made by the NGOs to the field of environment. 8M b) Discuss the water (prevention and control Of pollution) act. What can individuals do to

prevent water pollution? 7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3316

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

HYDRAULIC MACHINES (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive an expression for the force exerted by a jet on stationary inclined flat plate. 7M b) A jet of water of diameter 10cm strikes a flat plate normally with a velocity of 15m/s.

The plate moving with a velocity of 6m/s in the direction of the jet and away from the jet. Find: i. The force exerted by the jet on the plate ii. Work done by the jet on the plate per second iii. Find the power iv. Efficiency of the jet

8M

2. a) Obtain an expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on a series of flat vanes on a wheel.

7M

b) A jet of water of diameter 50mm strikes a fixed plate in such a way that the angle between the plate and the jet is 30°. The force exerted in the direction of the jet is 1471.5N. Determine the rate of flow of water.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) What is a draft-tube? Why is it used in a reaction turbine? Describe with a neat sketch two different types of draft tube

8M

b) Explain the classification of Hydraulic Turbines briefly.

7M

4. a) Draw a neat sketch of Kaplan turbine and explain its parts. 7M b) A pelton wheel is having a mean bucket diameter of 1m and is running at 1000rpm.

The net head on the pelton wheel is 700m. If the side clearance angle is 15° and discharge through nozzle is 0.1m³/s, find the power available at the nozzle and hydraulic efficiency of the turbine.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Obtain the expression for effect of the acceleration in suction pipe on the pressure head in the cylinder.

7M

b) What is Cavitation? Explain its effects on performance of turbines.

8M

6. a) Explain the main parts of a reciprocating pump with a neat sketch. 8M b) A single-acting reciprocating pump, running at 50rpm and delivers 0.01m³/s of water.

The diameter of the piston is 200mm and stroke length 400mm. Determine the theoretical discharge and coefficient of discharge of the pump.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Differentiate between the volute casing and vortex casing for the centrifugal pump. 6M b) The internal and external diameters of the impellar of a centrifugal pump are 200mm

and 400mm respectively. The pump is running at 1200rpm. The vane angles of the impeller at inlet and outlet are 200 and 300 respectively. The water enters the impellar radially and velocity of flow is constant. Determine the work done by the impellar per unit weight of water.

9M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

8. a) Obtain an expression for the minimum speed for starting a centrifugal pump. 7M b) A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net head of 14.5meters and a design speed

of 1000rpm. The vanes are curved back to an angle of 300 with the periphery. The diameter of impellar is 300mm and outlet width is 50mm. Determine the discharged of the pump if manometric efficiency is 95%.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the principle and working of hydraulic press with a neat sketch. 8M b) A hydraulic press has a ram of 200mm diameter and plunger of 30mm diameter, It is

used for lifting a weight of 3KN. Find the force required at the plunger.

7M

10. a) With a neat sketch explain the following: i. Hydraulic torque converter ii. Air lift pump

8M

b) With the help of a neat sketch, explain the principle and working of the hydraulic crane.

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3405

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I 1. a) Evaluate the following integrals:

i. 1

2

1

3 1t t dt

ii. 2

2

1

3 1t t dt

8M

b) Define periodic signals. Determine whether the signal 2 2

cos sin5 3

x t t t

is

periodic or not? If periodic find the fundamental period.

7M

2. a) Derive the invertibility property of LTI systems. 8M b) Find the convolution sum of the two sequences, x1(n), and x2(n), given below:

1 1, 2, 3x n

2 2, 1, 4x n

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Determine the trigonometric form of Fourier series representation of the signal shown in Fig.1:

Fig.1

8M

b) Perform convolution of the following signals using graphical method:

3

1 2 , tx t e u t x t t u t

7M

4. a) Consider a continuous time LTI system with unit impulse response h t u t , and input

; 0atx t e u t a . Find the output y(t) of the system.

9M

b) Define exponential and trigonometric form of Fourier series.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) State and prove time convolution theorem of Fourier series. 8M b) State and prove Hilbert transform properties. 7M

Cont…2

::2::

6. a) Determine the DTFS coefficient of the periodic sequence given by

8m

X n n m

8M

b) Find the inverse of

2)

2(

wx w

w

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) State initial value theorem of Laplace transforms. Determine the initial value of a signal

45 tx t e

6M

b) Determine the inverse Laplace transform of

8s 6

s 1 s 1 s 2X s

using partial

fraction method.

9M

8. a) Find the Laplace transform of 4x t u t using time scaling property. 6M

b) Use Laplace transform to find the output of the system described by the equation

2

25 6 2 2

d y t dy t dx ty t x t with x t u t

dt dt dt and

0 2(0 ) 1 ,|t

dy ty and

dt

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain: i. Sampling theorem ii. Properties of ROC for Z-transform

9M

b) Find the Z-transform and ROC of:

i. x n n u n

ii. 2n u n

iii. 2u n

6M

10. a) Explain reconstruction of signal from its samples. 7M

b) If 1 – 2 2 1 2 2y n y n y n u n u n , find .y n

Given 1 0.5, 2 0.25y y .

8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3410

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ELECTROMAGNETICS AND TRANSMISSION LINES

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Applying Coulomb’s law, derive an expression for the Electric field intensity due to the infinite line charge with charge density ρLC/m.

7M

b) A charge is distributed on a circular ring: or R cm,z 0 with density 2 1

l oρ ρ sin φ .Cm Set up an expression of the differential element of electric field

dE

, at P o0,0,z due to a differential element of charge (dq) on the ring with

appropriate limits of integration using cylindrical co-ordinates. Write an expression for the total charge on the ring. Will the direction of electric field change as the point P moves along the z-axis?

8M

2. a) Define work done, potential and potential gradient. 7M b) Using the principle of charge conservation deduce the equation of continuity. Given that

current density in a region is j sin 3ωt cos kx cos 3ωt sin kyx ya a

find the

charge density at some time‘t’, in the region, using continuity equation.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Apply Biot Savart law to obtain expression for the magnetic field intensity of an infinitely long straight filament carrying a direct current I along thez-axis.

7M

b) Derive an expression for the inductance for a solenoid. Using the formula obtained and

data below: a very long solenoid with 2 X 2 cm cross section has an iron core (r r=1000) and 4000 turns/meter. If it carries a current of 500mA, find: i. Its self-inductance per meter ii. The energy per meter stored in its field

8M

4. a) Apply Amperes circuit Law and find magnetic field intensity due to coaxial cable. 8M b) The parallel filamentary conductors shown in Fig.1 below lie in free space. Plot |H|

versus y, -4 < y < 4, along the line x=0, z=2.

Fig.1

7M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5.

a) Starting from Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, derive X EB

t

7M

b) Uniform current sheets are located in free space as follows: 8az A/m at y=0, -4az A/m at y=1 and -4az A/m at y=-1. Find the vector force per meter length exerted on a current filament carrying 7mA in a aL direction if the filament is located at: i. x=0,y=0.5 and aL= az; ii. y=0.5, z=0 and aL= ax; iii. (c) x=0,y=1.5 and aL= a

8M

6. a) State and derive Maxwell's equation in Integral form for static and time varying fields. 7M

b) A homogeneous dielectric rε 2.5 fills regions 1 (x < 0) while region 2 (x > 0) is free

space. If 2

1 x y zD 12a 10a 4a nC / m

, find 2 1D E

,

2E

and 1 2, .

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) From the basic four Maxwell equations show that the time varying electric fields in vacuum satisfy a wave equation. From this deduce an expression for the speed of EM Wave and its magnitude in vacuum.

7M

b) In free space (z < 0), a plane wave with 8

i xH 10cos 10 t βz a / mA m

is incident

normally on a lossless medium o oε 2ε ,μ 8μ in region z 0 . Find the reflection

and transmission coefficients. Using them determine the reflected wave rH

and

tH

, the

reflected and the transmitted wave amplitudes respectively.

8M

8. a) Describe the characteristics of the following media in terms of dielectric permittivity, magnetic permeability, and conductivity: i. Vacuum ii. Good Conductor iii. Perfect Dielectric iv. Lossy Dielectric Deduce an expression for the corresponding attenuation and propagation constants of these media.

8M

b) An EM wave travels in free space with electric field component 0.866 0.5

100 / .j y z

s xE e a v m

Determine:

i. and ii. The magnetic field component iii. The time average power in the wave

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Show, from first principles, that the characteristic impedance of a transmission line is

given by R j L

G j C

8M

b) A transmission line operating at 500MHz has Zo=80 , =0.04Np/m, =1.5rad/m.

Find the line parameters R, L, G and C.

7M

10. a) Derive an expression for input impedance for a lossless transmission line characterized

by and Zo which is connected to a load impedance ZL.

7M

b) A 30m long lossless transmission line with Zo=50 operating at 2MHz is terminated with

a load ZL=60+j40 . If =0.6c (where c is the velocity of light) on the line using smith

chart, find:

i. The reflection coefficient, ii. The standing wave ratio, S iii. The input impedance

8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3508

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE (Common to Information Technology & Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the different performance measures used to represent a computer system performance?

9M

b) What are the basic functional units present in the computer and explain each of them?

6M

2. a) Explain arithmetic, logical and shift operations with examples. 10M b) Let AR, BR, CR and DR the 8 bit registers with the following values. AR=11110010

BR=11111111 CR=10111011 DR=11101010. Determine the values of each register after execution of the sequence of micro-operations. AR <- AR+BR CR <- CR^DR, BR<-BR+1 AR<- AR-CR

5M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain stack memory organization in detail. 7M b) A computer uses a memory unit with 256K words of 32 bits each. A binary instruction

code is stored in one word of memory. The instruction has four parts: an indirect bit, an operation code, a register code part to specify one of 64 registers and an address part: i. How many bits are there in the operation code, the register code part and the address

part? ii. Draw the instruction word format and indicate the number of bits in each part. iii. How many bits are there in the data and address inputs of the memory

8M

4. a) Account on Interrupt cycle. 9M b) Given the 16bit value of 1001101011001101. What operation must be performed in order

to: i. Clear to 0 the first eight bits ii. Set to 1 the last eight bits iii. Complement the middle eight bits

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Define the following:

i. Micro operation

ii. Micro instruction

iii. Micro program

iv. Micro code

7M

b) Derive an algorithm in flowchart form for addition and subtraction of fixed point binary numbers in signed-magnitude representation with the magnitudes subtracted by the two

micro-operations EA A+B 1 if E=1 and sA A .

8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

6. a) The system uses a control memory of 1024 words of 32 bits each. The microinstruction has three fields and the micro operations field has 16 bits: i. How many bits are there in the branch address filed and the select field ii. If there are 16 status bits in the system, how many bits of the branch logic are used to

select a status bit iii. How many bits are required to select an input for the multiplexers

8M

b) Perform the arithmetic operations below with binary numbers with negative numbers in signed 2’s complement representation. Use seven bits to accommodate each number together with its sign. In each case, determine if there is an overflow by checking the carries into and out of the sign bit position. i. (+35) +(+40) ii. (-35) + ( - 40) iii. (-35) - ( + 40)

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Give block diagram for the organization of 2MX32 memory module using 512KX8 static memory chip.

8M

b) Explain the memory hierarchy with neat diagram.

7M

8. a) List and explain different types of memory mapping, 9M b) With concept explain DMA.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain arbitration schemes in multiprocessors. 6M b) Draw and explain the 8 X 8 omega switch network.

9M

10. a) Explain the methodology of different dynamic arbitration algorithms. 10M b) Describe the mutual exclusion principle with a semaphore in multiprocessors. 5M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3512

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PRINCIPLES OF PROGRAMMING LANGUAGES (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss briefly a few of the areas of computer applications and their associated languages.

10M

b) What are the different categories of programming languages?

5M

2. a) What are the factors that influence the basic design of programming languages? 7M b) Explain language evaluation criteria in detail.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain different types of subscript binding and Array categories. 8M b) Briefly discuss different design issues of array and highlight what is array indexing.

7M

4. a) Illustrate the structure of Ada union types. 7M b) Compare the characteristics of user defined Ordinal types and enumeration types.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Briefly discuss how parameter passing methods are supported in Fortron and Ada. 7M b) Assume you have been given:

int x = 8, y = 7, z = 1; double a = 2.0, b = 3.5; Evaluate the following expressions: i. y * 2 + x / 3 ; ii. (a + 3.0) * -b + 4.5 ; iii. x % 5 + y * a ; iv. y / a + b - x / (-4 + y)

8M

6. a) What are selection statements? Give the comparison of different categories of selection statements.

7M

b) Illustrate the possible execution controls of coroutines with and without loops.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the features of C# and Ada in support of object oriented programming. 8M b) Explain different states in tasks execution.

7M

8. a) Elaborate access controls to class entities support for OOP in C++. 8M b) Explain cooperation synchronization with respect to semaphores.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Write the general syntax of Ada Exception Handler and discuss different predefined Exceptions.

8M

b) Write a Python program to display all the prime numbers within an interval by taking an input from the user.

7M

10. a) Explain the purpose of finally clause and enumerate the usage of try construct with a finally clause.

8M

b) Give the comparison among functional and imperative programming. 7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3513

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

FORMAL LANGUAGE AND AUTOMATA THEORY (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 15 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Design Deterministic Finite Automata (DFA) accepts all strings without two consecutive 1’s over an alphabet 0, 1.

6M

b) Convert the following Nondeterministic Finite Automata (NFA) to Deterministic Finite Automata (DFA).

Fig.1

9M

2. a) Illustrate what does the given NFA accept.

Fig.2

5M

b) Design Deterministic Finite Automata (DFA) for the following languages, over the alphabet 0,1: i. Set of all strings containing the substring 0110 ii. Set of all strings that do not contain the substring 1010

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Write regular expressions for the following languages over the alphabet Σ = a, b: i. All strings that do not end with aa ii. All strings that contain an even number of b’s iii. All strings which do not contain the substring ba iv. The language of all words v. All words ending with b vi. All words that start with a vii. The language of all strings, not beginning with b viii. All words that start with a double letter

8M

b) Prove the language L = 1n| n is a square is not regular by applying pumping lemma.

7M

4. a) Prove the language L over 0,1 that contains 01 or 10 as sub-string is regular. 7M b) Construct Regular Expression for the given DFA.

Fig.3

8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the two major normal forms for context-free grammar. 7M b) Given the grammar G = (A, B, a, b, a, b, R, S)

R = S -> aB | bA, A -> a B -> aBB | bS | b i. Show a leftmost derivation of the string aaabbabbba ii. Show a rightmost derivation of the string aaabbabbba

8M

6. a) Construct a context-free grammar for strings over a,b with exactly twice as many "a"s as "b"s.

7M

b) Consider the following language : L = wwR : w € a, b*. Give a context-free grammar G that generates L and a parse tree that shows that aababb ∈ L.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define the pushdown automata for language anbn | n > 0. 7M b) Write the Algorithm to find PDA corresponding to a given CFG.

Construct a PDA from the following CFG=(S, X, A, a, b, P, S)where the productions are −S → XS | ε , A → aXb | Ab | ab.

8M

8. a) Construct the Deterministic Push Down Automata for anbncm n, m≥1. 8M b) Construct a PDA that accepts L = wwR | w = (a+b)* .

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Find out whether “Is a number ‘m’ prime?” decidable or not. 7M b) Consider a Turing machine with start state 0 and the following transitions:

State Symbol (State, Symbol)

0 a (1, #, R)

0 b (4, #, R)

0 # (0, #, Y)

1 a (1, a, R)

1 b (1, b, R)

1 # (2, #, L)

2 a (3, #, L)

2 # (2, #, Y)

3 a (3, a, L)

3 b (3, b, L)

3 # (0, #, R)

4 a (4, a, R)

4 b (4, b, R)

4 # (5, #, L)

5 b (3, #, L)

5 # (5, #, Y)

Trace the execution of this Turing machine with the stringbaaab#as input.

8M

10. a) Design a Turing machine that transforms a string containing only a’s, b’s, and c’s by replacing each letter preceding an ‘a’ to ‘b’. The Turing machine should always eventually enter an accepting state to terminate.

7M

b) Describe what is meant by each of the following: i. Recursive languages ii. Recursively enumerable languages iii. Chomsky hierarchy

8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3514

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain how both the waterfall model of the software process and the prototyping model can be accommodated in the spiral process model.

8M

b) Many modern applications change frequently-before they are presented to the end user and then after the first version has been put into use. Suggest a few ways to build software to stop deterioration due to change.

7M

2. a) Explain a generic process framework for software engineering activities. 8M b) What is Team Software Process and what are its objectives?

7M

Unit – II

3. a) What is Scrum Process? Explain Agile Project Management in detail. 8M b) What do you mean by Extreme Programming (XP)? What are the tasks associated with XP

process?

7M

4. a) Briefly Explain the Agility principles. 8M b) Why does an iterative process make it easier to manage change? Is every agile process

iterative? Is it possible to complete a project in only one iteration and still be agile? Explain your answers.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) What is a data object? How does a data object manifest itself within the context of an application?

7M

b) Using the technique suggested here, where natural language descriptions are presented in a standard format, write plausible user requirements for cash-dispensing function in a bank ATM.

8M

6. a) How can one determine whether a potential class should, in fact, become an analysis class?

8M

b) Discover ambiguities or omissions in the following statement of requirements for part of a ticket-issuing system: An automated ticket-issuing system sells rail tickets. Users select their destination and input a credit card and a personal identification number. The rail ticket is issued and their credit card account charged. When the user presses the start button, a menu display of potential destinations is activated, along with a message to the user to select a destination. Once a destination has been selected, users are requested to input their credit card. Its validity is checked and the user is then requested to input a personal identifier. When the credit transaction has been validated, the ticket is issued.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Discuss the quality attributes developed by HP. 7M b) The user interface analysis and design process encompasses four distinct framework

activities-Explain them.

8M

8. a) Explain briefly data-centered and data-flow architectures. 10M b) If a design model of the interface has been created, a number of evaluation criteria can

be applied during early design reviews. Suggest any three of them. 5M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – V

9. a) What are the different ways in which quality can be viewed? 5M b) Explain briefly different debugging strategies.

10M

10. a) Explain briefly software quality control and quality assurance. 7M b) What is black box testing? Is it alternative to white-box testing? What categories of

errors do black-box testing attempts to find? 8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3515

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

OPERATING SYSTEMS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 22 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss with examples, how the problem of maintaining coherence of cached data manifests itself in the following processing environments: i. Single-processor systems ii. Multiprocessor systems iii. Distributed systems

6M

b) List four services provided by an operating system and explain how each of these creates convenience for users. In which cases would it be impossible for user-level programs to provide these services? Explain your answer.

9M

2. a) The issue of resource utilization shows up in different forms in different types of operating systems. List what resources must be managed carefully in the following settings: i. Work station connected to servers ii. Mobile computers

8M

b) With suitable example, describe the following commands of UNIX: i. ls ii. mv iii. cat

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Define a process. With a neat diagram, explain its states. 8M b) What are the requirements for providing a solution to critical section problem? Explain.

7M

4. a) Draw Gantt chart for SJF algorithm. Calculate average waiting time, average turnaround time and average response time.

Process Arrival Time

(ms) CPU Time

(ms)

P1 0 3

P2 0 7

P3 2 6

P4 5 4

P5 3 5

7M

b) Demonstrate the following system calls with syntax: i. msgget() ii. msgctl() iii. semop() iv. semget()

8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) The time to read or write a 32-bit memory word of 10nsec. Assume the total holes take one fourth of the 512MB memory. What is the time needed to eliminate holes by compaction?

5M

b) Suppose we have three processes and four resources, in the following situation:

Requested

Granted

Deficit

R1 R2 R3 R4

R1 R2 R3 R4

R1 R2 R3 R4

P1 4 2 3 1

-

P1 0 0 0 0

=

P1 4 2 3 1

P2 2 1 4 4 P2 0 1 2 2 P2 2 0 2 2

P3 5 1 2 2 P3 5 1 1 1 P3 0 0 1 1

Totals

R1 R2 R3 R4

5 2 4 4

In the above, "Totals" indicate total resources available. Using Banker’s Algorithm: i. Prove that this situation is safe by giving a schedule under which all processes can

complete ii. Under what conditions does a process in a Banker's Algorithm tableau remain

runnable iii. Suppose that we start with the above configuration and P1 asks for 3 more units of

R4. Is that allocation safe? Why or why not iv. Suppose that we start again from the above configuration and that P3 asks for 1

more unit of R3. Is that allocation safe? Why or why not

10M

6. a) Bring out the significance of swapping with a suitable example. 9M b) Consider the following three scenarios. One of them is best described as deadlock, one

as livelock and one as starvation. Explain which is which: i. Philosophers A and B want to pick up a chopstick. They try to be nice by waiting for

one second if the other one is about to take the chopstick. They both try to pick up the chopstick, wait for a second, try again, wait again, and infinitum

ii. Process A is waiting for the result of a computation performed by process B. However, A has higher priority than B, and so the OS prefers A and refuses to give CPU time to B. Therefore, both A and B are stuck

iii. Processes A and B communicate through a buffer. Process A is waiting for the buffer to be full before it reads it. Process B is waiting for the buffer to be empty before it writes more data to it. Therefore, both A and B are stuck

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) Compare the throughput achieved by a RAID Level 5 organization with that achieved by a RAID Level 1 organization for the following: i. Read operations on single blocks ii. Read operations on multiple contiguous blocks

8M

b) Consider a file currently consisting of 100 blocks. Assume that the file index information (and index block, in the case of indexed allocation) is already in memory. Calculate how many I/O operations are required for contiguous, linked and single-level indexed strategies, if, for one block: i. The block is removed from the beginning of the file ii. The block is removed from the middle of the file iii. The block is removed from the end In the contiguous allocation case, assume there is no room to grow at the beginning, but there is room to grow at the end. Assume the contents of the new block are already in memory.

7M

Cont…3

:: 3 ::

8. a) Explain briefly how operating system supports file locking. 7M b) Suppose that a disk drive has 5,000 cylinders, numbered 0 to 4,999. The drive is

currently serving a request at cylinder 2,150, and the previous request was at cylinder 1,805. The queue of pending requests, in FIFO order, is: 2,069, 1,212, 2,296, 2,800, 544, 1,618, 356, 1,523, 4,965, 3,681. Starting from the current head position, what is the total distance (in cylinders) that the disk arm moves to satisfy all the pending requests for each of the following disk-scheduling algorithms: i. FCFS ii. SCAN iii. C-LOOK

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of implementing an access matrix using access lists that are associated with objects and domains.

10M

b) Bring out the significance of umask with respect to file security in UNIX.

5M

10. a) How are the access-matrix facility and the role-based access-control facility similar? How do they differ?

8M

b) What is the purpose of using a “salt” along with the user-provided password? Where should the “salt” be stored, and how should it be used?

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3516

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat diagram explain the various components of a database system and their connections.

8M

b) Explain the differences between physical and logical data independence. 7M 2. a) Construct an E-R diagram for a car insurance company whose customers own one or more

cars each. Each car has associated with it zero to any number of recorded accidents. 8M

b) Define the concept of aggregation. Give two examples of where this concept is useful.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the trigger mechanism. Contrast triggers with other integrity constraints supported by SQL.

7M

b) Consider the following relational database. employee (person_name, street, city) works (person_name, company_name, salary) company (company_name, city) manages (person_name, manager_name) Give a relational – algebra expression for each of the following queries: i. Find the company with the most employees ii. Find the company with the smallest payroll iii. Find those companies whose employees earn a higher salary, on average, than the

average salary at First Bank Corporation

8M

4. a) Consider a database schema with the following relations: Student (ssn, name) Prof (ssn, name) Course (number, instructor-ssn, title, credits, room#) Enroll (student-ssn, course#) Room (number, capacity) i. Write an SQL query that lists, in alphabetical order, the title of all courses either

taught by “Smith” OR are taught in room number 444. Do not list duplicate titles. ii. Write an SQL query that considers all the courses that have ever been taught by

“Brown” and are of 3 credits, and groups them according to title. For each course, the query gives the average capacity of rooms in which the course has been offered, and the query only returns courses for which this average is more than 20.

7M

b) Consider a database schema with the following relations: Student (ssn, name) Prof (ssn, name) Course (number, instructor-ssn, title, credits, room#) Enroll (student-ssn, course#) Room (number, capacity) i. Write a tuple relational calculus query that finds the names of all students who are

enrolled in a class taught by “Jones,” AND are enrolled in a class called “Physics” ii. Write a tuple relational calculus query that finds the names of all students who are

NOT enrolled in two classes held in the same room

8M

Cont…2

::2::

Unit – III

5. a) What is a functional dependency? How is a functional dependency like a candidate key? What is the meaning of an FD with multiple columns on the right-hand side?

7M

b) Consider the following relation scheme for compact discs CD (Company, Date, CatalogNum, Composer, Track, Group, Artist, Title, Instrument, Duration) together with the following functional dependencies: Artist -> Instrument, Group Composer, Title, Company -> CatalogNum, Track, Duration CatalogNum -> Company, Date CatalogNum, Title -> Composer i. Calculate the closure of the attribute set CatalogNum, Title with respect to the given functional dependencies ii. Find two candidate keys for CD

8M

6. a) Explain briefly 4NF and 5 NF. 7M b) Consider a relational schema R with attributes A, B, C, D, E and the set of functional

dependencies A → CD, B → CE, E → B: i. Give a lossless-join decomposition of R into BCNF ii. Give a lossless-join decomposition of R into 3NF preserving FD. Is you answer is in

BCNF

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is recoverable schedule? Why is recoverability of schedules desirable? Are there any circumstances under which it would be desirable to allow non – recoverable schedules? Explain your answer.

7M

b) Consider the following two transactions: T11: read(A); read(B); if A=0 then B:=B+1; write (B) T12: read(B); read(A); if B=0 then A:=A+1; write (A); Add lock and unlock transactions to transaction T11 and T12, so that they observe the two phase locking protocol. Can the execution of these transactions result in a deadlock?

8M

8. a) Disk space allocated to a file as a result of a transaction should not be released even if the transaction is rolled back. Explain why, and explain how ARIES ensures that such actions are not rolled back.

7M

b) One problem that can arise with the use of locking protocols is DEADLOCK – Justify with suitable example.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is the deference between a clustered index and an unclustered index? If an index contains data records as ‘data entries,’ can it be unclustered.

8M

b) What is a B+ tree? Explain its dynamic structure.

7M

10. a) Write short notes on RAID. 7M b) What is index data structure? Discuss various types of file organizations and their pros

and cons. 8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3110

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

HYDRAULICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 11 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Briefly explain different types of flow in channels. 7M b) A trapezoidal channel has side slopes of 1 horizontal to 2 vertical and the slope of the

bed is 1 in 1000. The area of the section is 42m2. Determine the dimension of the section if it is most economical. Also determine the discharge of the most economical section if C=60.

8M

2. a) Find the velocity of flow and rate of flow of water through a rectangular channel of 6m wide and 3m deep, when it is running full. The channel is having bed slope as 1 in 2000. Take Chezy's constant C=55.

8M

b) Find the discharge through a trapezoidal channel of width 8m and side slop 1 horizontal and 3 vertical. The depth of flow of water is 2.4m and chezy constant is 50. The slope of bed of channel is 1 in 4000.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) State and explain Buckingham’s pi theorem. 7M b) A 1:50 spillway model has a discharge of 1.25m3/s. What is the corresponding prototype

discharge? If a flood phenomenon takes 12 hours to occur in the prototype, how long should it take in the model?

8M

4. a) Explain the similarities that must exist between prototype and model. 6M b) Explain the significance of:

i. Weber number ii. Euler’s number iii. Reynolds number

9M

Unit – III

5. a) Derive an expression for torque exerted on a wheel with radial curved vanes. 8M b) A jet of water 75mm in diameter having velocity of 20m/s strikes a series of the flat

plates arranged around the periphery of a wheel such that each plate appears successively before the jet. If the plates are moving at a velocity of 5m/s, compute the force exerted by the jet on the plate, the work done per second on the plate and the efficiency of the jet.

7M

6. a) Show that the force exerted by a jet on semi-circular curved vane (when the jet strikes at its centre) in the direction of motion of the jet is more than as that of the force on a flat plate.

8M

b) A 75mm diameter jet has a velocity of 35m/s. It strikes a moving curved vane in the same direction at 20m/s. The deflection angle of the vane is 150°. Assuming no friction, calculate the X and Y components of the force exerted by the water on the vane.

7M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) Draw general layout of a hydro-electric power plant when the type of turbine is: i. Impulse turbine ii. Reaction turbine

8M

b) A Kaplan turbine produces 60,000Kw under a net head of 25m with an overall efficiency of 90%. Taking the value of speed ratio Ku as 1.6, flow ratio as 0.5 and the hub diameter as 0.35 times the outer diameter, find the diameter and speed of the turbine.

7M

8. a) With the help of a neat sketch explain various components in Francis turbine. 8M b) Explain draft tube theory and derive an expression for the efficiency of a draft tube.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Define cavitation and discuss the effects of cavitaiton. 5M b) Find the power required to drive a centrifugal pump which delivers 40litres of water per

second to a height of 20m through a 150mm diameter 100m long pipeline. The overall efficiency of pump is 70% and Darcy’s f=0.06 for the pipeline. Assume inlet losses in suction pipe equal to 0.33m.

10M

10. a) Define the following and write corresponding equations: i. Manometer efficiency ii. Volumetric efficiency iii. Mechanical efficiency iv. Overall efficiency

8M

b) A centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 1800lpm, to a height of 20m, through a 0.1m diameter, 80m long pipe. Find the power required to drive the pump, if the overall efficiency is 65%, and Darcy’s friction factor=0.02.

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3213

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PRINCIPLES OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) State faraday’s laws of Electromagnetic Induction. Derive an expression for the value of induced EMF.

6M

b) i. A coil of 500 turns is linked by a flux of 0.4mWb. If the flux is reversed in 0.01sec, find the EMF induced in the coil

ii. If a coil of resistance 100Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 1mWb. The coil has 100 turns and a galvanometer of 400Ω resistance is connected in series with it. Find the average EMF and current if the coil is moved in 0.01sec from the given field to a field of strength 0.2mWb

9M

2. a) Calculate the total inductance of two coils when joined in series aiding. 7M b) The number of turns in a coil is 250. When a current of a 2A flows in this coil. The flux in

the coils 0.3mWb when this current reduces to zero in 2 millisecond. The voltage in the coil lying in the vicinity of the coil is 63.75 Volts. If the co-efficient of coupling between the coils is 0.85, find self-inductances of the two coils, mutual inductance and the number of turns in the secondary coil.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive an expression for current in RL series circuit for DC excitation. 6M b) In the circuit diagram, steady state is reached with the switch closed. The switch is

opened at t=0. Obtain expressions for IL(t) and VL(t).

Fig.1

9M

4. a) Derive an expression for current in RC Series Circuit for DC excitation. 7M b) In the network, the switch is moved from 1 to 2 at t=0. Determine i(t).

Fig.2

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain speed control methods of DC shunt motor. 6M b) Derive the emf equation of a dc generator. A 2 pole wave wound generator has 51 slots

and 24conductors/slot. If the flux per pole is 0.01Wb, determine the speed at which the armature be driven to give an induced emf of 220V.

9M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

6. a) Explain principle of operation of DC machines with relevant diagrams. 8M b) The current drawn from the mains by a 220V, DC shunt motor is 3A on no load. The

armature and field resistance are respectively 0.5Ωand 200Ω. If the line current on load is 51A at a speed of 1200rpm, find the no load speed.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the working principle of a single phase transformer with constructional features. 8M b) A 150 KVA single phase transformer working at unity power factor has efficiency of 96%

both at 70% full load and at full load. Find the load at which maximum efficiency occurs and also the value of maximum efficiency.

7M

8. a) Explain the OC test of a transformer. 8M b) The efficiency of a 400kVA single phase transformer is 98.77% when delivering full load at

0.8 p.f. and 99.13% at half load and unity power factor. Calculate iron losses and full load copper losses.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain slip torque characteristics of a 3-phase Induction motor. 7M b) Compare slip ring and squirrel cage induction motors with necessary figures.

8M

10. a) Derive an expression for the torque developed by an IM under running condition. When does it achieve maximum value?

8M

b) The power input to the rotor of a 440V, 50Hz 3 phase, 12 pole IM is 75W. The rotor EMF has a frequency of 2Hz. Calculate: i. Slip ii. Rotor speed

iii. Rotor Copper loss

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3411

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the working of a High Pass RC circuit for a sinusoidal input. Why is the Capacitor ‘C’ called as a blocking capacitor?

7M

b) For a High Power RC circuit an exponential input is applied, prove that smaller the time constant smaller will be the output peak with an example.

8M

2. a) Explain the working of the Ringing circuit. Derive the expression of Vmax. 7M b) For a High Pass RC circuit, prove that for any periodic input waveform the average level

of the steady state output signal is always zero independently of the d-c level of the input.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the following with respect to a diode: i. Forward recovery time ii. Reverse recovery time

8M

b) A silicon diode operates at forward voltage of 0.4v, calculate the factor by which the current will be multiplied when the temperature is increased from 25 to 150oc.

7M

4. a) Discuss the effect on diode characteristics on clamping voltage. 7M b) Describe the design aspects of transistor switch.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is a Multivibrator? Differentiate the three types of Multivibrators. 8M b) Design a fixed bias binary with the given following specifications: VCC=VBB=12V, hfe(min)=20

and ic(sat)=4mA. Assume n-p-n silicon transistor.

7M

6. a) Illustrate the design process of self-biased transistor binary. 8M b) Design a self biased bistable multivibrator using silicon transistors given Vcc=6V, hfe(min)=30,

ice(sat) =10ma. Assume appropriate junction voltages for your design.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Derive the expression for sweep speed error and displacement error in time base generators.

8M

b) Explain the basic principle of bootstrap sweep circuit.

7M

8. a) Explain the different methods for linearity improvement. 8M b) Bring out the necessity and importance of current sweep circuits. List out its application.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the four diode sampling gate with a neat circuit diagram. 8M b) Write a short note on:

i. Chopper stabilized amplifier ii. Six diode sampling rate

7M

10. a) Explain realization of two input NOR gate using DCTL. 7M b) Realize two input OR and AND using diodes. 8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3601

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Information Technology)

Date: 18 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Briefly discuss different ways to place Javascript for use in a web page. 8M b) What are Lists in HTML? Explain different types of lists along with syntax for each type.

7M

2. a) Build a Javascript program to display multiplication tables from 1 to 10. 7M b) Explain the different ways in which CSS can be used in a Web page with suitable

examples. 8M

Unit – II

3. a) What are the rules to be followed while naming XML Elements and attributes? 7M b) List various control structures in PHP. Write a PHP program to find prime numbers in

between 1 to 100.

8M

4. a) Write a PHP script to insert data into database. 8M b) How XML documents are validated using a Document Type Definition file?

7M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the advantages of java beans? Explain about the Bound properties of java bean. 8M b) Write a servlet program to set and read the cookies on any web browser.

7M

6. a) Explain how the methods of “DriverManger” Class and “Connection” Interface are useful in establishing database connectivity in java.

8M

b) Explain the methods of a generic servlet with a simple example.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the architecture of JSP Application Design with MVC. 8M b) List and briefly discuss the functionalities of standard action tags defined by JSP

specification.

7M

8. a) Briefly explain the process of handling errors and debugging in JSP. 8M b) Briefly explain the process of sharing data between JSP Pages, Requests, and Users.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) List and briefly discuss the functionalities of different drivers supported for JDBC. 7M b) Briefly discuss the properties and methods of XMLHttpRequest object.

8M

10. a) What is AJAX? Briefly discuss the advantages and disadvantages of AJAX. 8M b) Write a simple AJAX function to request data from a web server and displays it. 7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3602

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPUTER GRAPHICS (Information Technology)

Date: 25 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Mention the different input devices and explain two of them in detail. 8M b) Suppose an RGB raster system is to be designed using an 8 inch x 10 inch screen with a

resolution of 100 pixels per inch n each direction. If we want to store 6 bits/pixel in the frame buffer, how much storage (in bytes) do we need for the frame buffer?

7M

2. a) Explain the working of a refresh-cathode ray tube. 8M b) How much time is spent scanning across each row of pixels during screen refresh on a

raster system with a resolution of 1280 x 1024 and a refresh rate of 60 frames/second? 7M

Unit – II 3. a) Write and explain the Bresenhams line drawing algorithm and compare its advantage

over DAA line drawing algorithm. 9M

b) Using Midpoint circle algorithm generate pixel activation list for drawing a circle with the given radius of r = 10.

6M

4. a) Illustrate a procedure for implementation of mid-point ellipse algorithm. 9M b) Discuss how boundary fill algorithm can be used to fill interior region of an arbitrary

shaped object drawn on a scene.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Define Shearing. Write the Shearing matrix for both X and Y direction in 2D. 8M b) Rotate the rectangle formed by points A(1,1), B(2,1), C(2,3), and D(1,3) 300 about the pivot

point (3,2).

Fig.1

7M

6. a) Define the following: i. Clipping window ii. Viewing-coordinate reference frame iii. Viewport iv. Workstation transformations

8M

b) Illustrate the procedure to clip a polygon using Sutherland-Hodgeman Algorithm. Write the steps involved in the same.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Write the 3D transformations with the transformation matrices. 8M b) Illustrate the transformation from world to viewing coordinates.

7M

Cont…2

::2::

8. a) Explain the method of perspective projection transformation. 8M b) Explain geometric continuity conditions.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the depth sorting method for solving the hidden surface problem. 8M b) Write short note on general computer animation functions and Raster animations.

7M

10. a) Compare and contrast the difference between object space methods and image space methods in visible surface detection methods? Explain the back face detection algorithm.

9M

b) Explain the ways in which the motion of objects can be specified in an animation system.

6M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3011

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS (Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering & Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Identify and explain the cross elasticity of demand with suitable examples. 5M b) Discuss in detail, the functional nature of market demand.

10M

2. a) Demonstrate in detail the technique of trend line by observation in demand forecasting. 10M b) Calculate 3-day moving average from the following daily sales data:

Date and month Daily sales (Lakhs of tones)

Jan 1 40

2 44

3 48

4 45

5 53

5M

Unit – II

3. a) What is the difference between Iso-Cost and Iso-Quant Curve? Draw a suitable diagram. 7M b) What is law of variable proportion? Explain change in production with change in

one variable.

8M

4. a) What is the significance of Break Even Analysis? Mark profit making Zone, Loss making Zone, Total Contribution and Margin of Safety in graph representing Break Even Point.

7M

b) The Quiet Blow Company has a small plant that manufactures noise suppressors for blowers. Its annual fixed costs are Rs.30,000 and its variable costs are Rs.10 per unit. It can sell a suppressor for Rs.25: i. How many suppressors must the company sell to break even ii. What is the break-even revenue

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What are the features of perfect competition? 6M b) Write a note on Price-Output determination under Monopoly. Illustrate the same with a

graph.

9M

6. Write Short notes on following topics: i. Cost plus pricing strategy ii. Market skimming pricing strategy iii. Peak load pricing strategy iv. Block pricing strategy

15M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is capital budgeting? Explain the features of capital budgeting proposals. 7M b) Define working capital? Explain the components and features of working capital.

8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

8. Two projects M and N which are mutually exclusive are being under consideration. Both of

them require an investment of Rs. 1,00,000 each. The net cash inflows are estimated as under:

Year M Rs.

N Rs.

1 10,000 30,000

2 40,000 50,000

3 30,000 80,000

4 60,000 40,000

5 90,000 60,000

The company’s targeted rate of return on investment is 12%.You are required to assess the projects on the basis of their present values, using NPV method and Profitability index method. Present values of Re.1 at 12% interest for five years are given below: 1styear : 0.893; 2nd year : 0.797; 3rd year : 0.712; 4th year : 0.636; 5th year : 0.567.

15M

Unit – V

9. a) Differentiate between trial balance and balance sheet. 5M b) i. What are the advantages of trading account?

ii. What is the difference between trading account and profit and loss account?

10M

10. The following trial balance was taken from the books of Habib-ur-Rehman on December 31, 1980:

Cash 13,000

Sundry debtors 10,000

Bill receivable 8,500

Opening stock 45,000

Building 50,000

Furniture and fittings 10,000

Investment (Temporary) 5,000

Plant and Machinery 15,500

Bills payable 9,000

Sundry creditors 20,000

Habib's capital 78,200

Habib's drawings 1,000

Sales 100,000

Sales discount 400

Purchases 30,000

Freight in 1,000

Purchase discount 500

Sales salary expenses 5,000

Advertising expenses 4,000

Miscellaneous sales expenses 500

Office salary expenses 8,000

Misc. general expenses 1,000

Interest income 1,000

Interest expenses 800

2,08,700 2,08,700

Closing stock on December 31, 1980 was $10,000 Prepare income statement/trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet from the above trial balance in report form.

15M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3107

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

(Civil Engineering)

Date: 08 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the difference between the wet and dry process of manufacturing of Portland Cement.

8M

b) What are the different raw materials required for the manufacture of cement? Explain how the quality of raw materials influences the properties of cement.

7M

2. a) Explain different grades of cement and explain Fineness Modulus. 9M b) Explain the properties of aggregates to be used in concrete.

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Define workability, And explain the factors affected by workability. 8M b) What are the different tests used for measurement of workability, explain any one?

7M

4. a) Differentiate between true slumps, shear slump with neat sketches. 7M b) Explain segregation and bleeding in fresh concrete? Mention what are their effects on

strength properties.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Calculate the gel/space ratio and theoretical strength of a sample of concrete made with 800 grams of cement with water cement ratio as 0.65 on: i. Full hydration ii. 65% hydration

8M

b) As Site engineer how do you identify the difference between creep and shrinkage? Enlist the Factors Affecting the Creep. What are the design strategies that you adopt to avoid creep?

7M

6. a) List out the different tests to evaluate properties of concrete in hardened state. Explain any one.

8M

b) Differentiate between secant modulus, tangent modulus and initial tangent modulus. Explain these with respect to stress-strain diagram of concrete.

7M

Unit – IV

7. Design a mix design for M25 grade of concrete with the following data: i. Type of cement: opc with 30% of flyash ii. Maximum size of aggregates: 20mm iii. Workability:100mm slump iv. Min cement content:300kg/m3 e. w/c: 0.5 v. Method of placing of concrete: pumping vi. Degree of supervision: good vii. Specific gravity of coarse aggregate: 2.8 viii. Specific gravity of fine gravity:2.65 ix. Water absorption-nil x. Free surface moisture: nil

15M

8. a) Explain the chloride and sulphate attack on concrete. How can it be prevented? 8M b) What is mix design of concrete? Elaborate various factors to be considered for mix

design of concrete? 7M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – V

9. a) As an engineer at site explain the type to concrete to be adopted at following condition? Also explain at least three important property they posses: i. At heavily reinforced structure ii. As non load bearing structure

8M

b) How no-fines concrete is prepared? What are its applications?

7M

10. a) How the cellular concrete is prepared? What are its applications? 7M b) Write a note on self compacting concrete. 8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3211

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ELECTRICAL MACHINES-II

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Draw the exact equivalent circuit of 3-phase induction motor and obtain the relationship between: i. Rotor copper loss and rotor power input ii. Mechanical power developed and rotor copper loss

6M

b) Draw the torque-speed or torque-slip characteristics of a 3-phase induction machine and mark the regions of operation, operating point, starting torque and maximum torque on it.

9M

2. a) Mention advantages and disadvantages of three phase slip ring induction motor. 6M b) A 6-pole, 50Hz three phase induction motor has a rotor resistance of 0.25Ω per phase

and a maximum torque of 10Nm at 875rpm. Calculate: i. The torque when the slip is 5% ii. The resistance to be added to the rotor circuit to obtain 60% of the maximum

torque at starting. Neglect stator impedance

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the necessary tests to be conducted for constructing the circle diagram of a three phase slip ring induction motor.

10M

b) Find the percentage tapping required on an auto transformer for a squirrel cage motor to start the motor against (1/4)th of full load torque. The short circuit current on normal voltage is four times the full load current and full load slip is 3%.

5M

4. a) With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the working of DOL method of starting of three phase induction motor.

8M

b) Mention the different methods of starting of 3-phase induction motor. Explain (V/f) method of speed control of 3-phase induction motor.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain with the help of phasor diagram and from OC & SC tests, how the percentage regulation can be determined from synchronous impedance method.

5M

b) Calculate the rms value of the induced emf per phase of a 10 pole, 3-phase 50Hz alternator with 2 slots per pole per phase and four conductors per slot in two layers. The coil span is 1500. The flux per pole has a fundamental component of 0.12wb and a 20% third harmonics component.

10M

6. a) With neat sketches of salient pole and non salient pole rotor, bring out the difference between salient pole and non-salient pole rotor alternator.

7M

b) The data obtained on 100kva, 1100V, three phase alternator is: DC resistance test: E between line - 6V D.C, I in lines = 10A D.C Open circuit test: Field current = 12.5A D.C., line voltage = 420V A.C Short circuit test: Field current = 12.5A, line current = rated value. Calculate the voltage regulation of alternator at 0.8p.f lagging.

8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the advantages of connecting the alternators in parallel? What conditions are required to be fulfilled for the successful parallel operation of alternators?

7M

b) A 75kW, 400V, 4-pole, 3-phase star connected synchronous motor has a resistance and synchronous reactance per phase of 0.04Ω and 0.4Ω respectively. Compute for full load 0.8p.f lead, the open circuit emf per phase and gross mechanical power developed. Assume an efficiency of 92.5%.

8M

8. a) Explain the principle of operation of a synchronous motor. 6M b) Two A.C. generators running in parallel supply a lighting load of 2000kw and a motor

load of 4000kw at 0.8 p.f lagging. One machine is loaded to 2400kw at 0.95 p.f lagging. What is the output and power factor of the second machine?

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Draw the circuit diagram, phasor diagram and torque-speed characteristic of a two value capacitor phase split single phase induction motor and mention any two applications of this induction motor.

9M

b) The main and auxiliary winding currents of a 50Hz, 4-pole, 373W, 100V single-phase induction motor are 6A at power factor of 0.766 lagging and 4A at power factor of 0.9659 lagging. Determine total current, power factor, efficiency and shaft torque during running conditions if the motor is running at a speed of 1450rpm.

6M

10. a) Draw the labeled speed-torque characteristics of a single phase induction motor and show that it is not self starting.

8M

b) Draw the circuit diagram and phasor diagram of an A.C series motor. Also justify the necessity of compensating winding.

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3212

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

CONTROL SYSTEMS

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define closed loop control system. with a neat diagram explain closed loop control system. List the advantages and disadvantages of closed loop system.

9M

b) For the mechanical system shown in Fig. 1 below, write the differential equations for the system.

Fig. 1

6M

2. a) Explain different classifications of control systems. 8M b) Write the differential equations for the mechanical system having friction less wheels

shown in Fig.2.

Fig. 2

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Obtain C(s)/R(s) using block diagram reduction rules.

Fig. 3

9M

b) Write a brief note on synchro transmitter receiver.

6M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

4. a) Using Mason’s gain formula determine Y(s)/X(s) for the signal flow graph shown in Fig.4.

where k=1 and S-1=1/S.

Fig. 4

9M

b) Derive the transfer function of field controlled DC servo motor.

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Briefly discuss the different rules for constructing the root locus. 6M b) A second order system is given by C(s)/R(s)= 25/[s2+6s+25]. Find rise time, peak time,

peak overshoot and settling time if subjected to unit step input.

9M

6. a) Find Kp, Kv and Ka and steady state error for a system with open transfer function G(s)H(s)=10(s+2)(s+3)/s(s+1)(s+5)(s+4).

9M

b) Derive the time domain expression for C(t) for a second order system excited by unit step signal.

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) Write a brief note on the limitations of frequency domain analysis. 6M b) Determine the transfer function of the system whose magnitude plot w1=5 and w2=500

is shown in Fig.5 below.

Fig.5

9M

8. a) Briefly describe the steps to solve problems by Nyquist criterion. 7M

b) Consider the system with transfer function

1

1 2G s H s

s s

. Draw its polar

plot.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Obtain the state model of the system whose transfer function in CCF form given as Y(s)/U(s) =10/ (s3+4s2+2s+1).

11M

b) What are the characteristics of lag compensation? When it is employed.

4M

10. a) Describe the procedure to find controllability and observability of a system with an example.

8M

b) Consider the matrix A compute state transition matrix (STM) where.

0 1

2 3A

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3412

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ANALOG COMMUNICATIONS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat circuit diagram explain the generation of AM wave using switching modulator.

8M

b) With a neat diagram explain detection of AM wave using envelop detector.

7M

2. a) With a neat diagram explain generation of DSBSC using Ring Modulator. 7M b) Consider the message signal m(t)=20 Cos (2πt) Volts and the carrier wave

c(t)=50 Cos(100πt) volts: i. Give the time time-domain expression for the resulting conventional AM wave for

75% modulation ii. Find the power developed across a load of 100Ω due to this AM wave

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the concept of frequency division multiplexing with relevant block diagram. 7M b) Consider the message signal m(t) containing the frequency components 100, 200 and

400Hz. This message signal is applied to an SSB modulator together with a carrier at 100kHz with only USB retained. The coherent detector employed at the receiver uses a local oscillator that gives a sine wave of frequency 100.02kHz: i. Determine the frequency components of the detector output ii. Repeat your analysis assuming only LSB is transmitted

8M

4. a) Derive a time domain expression for SSB modulated wave in which only the upper sideband is retained.

8M

b) Why VSB modulation is used in the transmission of video signal and how it can be demodulated in the receiver.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Derive a mathematical equation for the WBFM wave with sinusoidal modulating signal and show that the bandwidth required for an ideal WBFM is infinity.

7M

b) An angle modulated signal with carrier frequency fc = 106Hz is described by the equation

s(t) = 20cos[2fct + 10 sin(3000t) + 5 sin(2000t)] volts. Find the following: i. The power in the modulated signal ii. The maximum frequency deviation iii. The deviation ratio iv. The approximate transmission bandwidth

8M

6. a) Explain demodulation of an FM wave using PLL with the help of neat sketch. 8M b) Explain with the help of block diagram and relevant mathematical equation the

generation of NBFM and also show that how it can be used in generating WBFM. 7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Derive an expression for figure of merit of an AM receiver that uses a non-coherent detector and show that it reduces to 2/( 2+ 2) for a single tone modulation .

8M

b) Average noise power per unit bandwidth measured at front end of the AM receiver is 10-3w/Hz. The modulating wave is sinusoidal with carrier power of 80kw and sideband power of 10kw/sideband. The message bandwidth is 5KHz. Assuming the use of an envelope detector in the receiver; determine the output signal to noise ratio of the receiver. By how many dB is system inferior to a DSBSC modulation system?

7M

Cont…2

::2::

8. a) Explain the generation and de-modulation of pulse width modulation with waveforms. 7M b) Derive an expression for figure of merit of a DSBSC receiver using synchronous detector.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain with suitable block diagram and necessary waveforms the working of superhetrodyne receiver with its characteristics.

8M

b) Find the tuning range necessary for the oscillator capacitor in a medium wave superhetrodyne receiver which tunes over the range of signals from 530kHz to 1650kHz and uses an IF of 455 kHz if the oscillator frequency is: i. Higher than the signal frequency ii. Lower than the signal frequency

7M

10. a) Draw the block diagram of AM transmitter using high level modulation and explain the various blocks.

8M

b) In a broadcast superhetrodyne receiver having no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the antenna coupling circuit(at the input to the mixer) is 80. If the intermediate frequency is 455 kHz, calculate: i. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 1000kHz ii. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 50MHz

7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3210

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

POWER SYSTEM GENERATION (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat schematic, explain the structure of a power system with a single line diagram.

8M

b) If the catchment area of a reservoir is 200Km2 and annual rainfall is 1000mm, find the available continuous power in KW for which the station having effective head of 200m. Yield factor to allow run off and loss by evaporation is 50%. Efficiency of the plant is 80%. Explain the formula used.

7M

2. a) Explain how a pumped storage results in overall economy in an interconnected system. 7M b) Explain the various aspects of combined operation of power stations. Also define base

loads and peak loads.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) With a block diagram, explain coal handling in a thermal power plant. 9M b) A thermal power plant spends Rs.25lakh in one year as coal consumption. The coal has

heating value of 5000kcal/kg and costs Rs.500 per ton. If the thermal efficiency is 35% and the electrical efficiency is 90%, find the average load on the power plant.

6M

4. a) Describe the schematic arrangement of a thermal power station. Briefly explain the functions of each.

9M

b) What are the functions of economizer and super heater in a thermal power plant?

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Discuss some of the safety measures incorporated in nuclear power plants. 6M b) Explain the functions of each of the following:

i. Control rod ii. Moderator iii. Reflector iv. Biological shield

9M

6. a) Briefly discuss on nuclear materials used in nuclear power plant. 9M b) What are the advantages of a gas turbine plant over a steam power plant?

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) With neat sketches, explain the different arrangements of bus bars. 7M b) What are the rules to be followed to select an ideal location for a distribution substation?

8M

8. a) What are the different classes of substations? 7M b) Draw and briefly explain the double breaker scheme in substation. 8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – V

9. a) Define the following: i. Diversity factor ii. Load factor iii. Plant capacity factor iv. Plant use factor v. Plant utilization factor vi. Loss factor

8M

b) A generating station has connected load of 450MW and a maximum demand of 250MW,

units generated being 6615 10 kWh per annum. Calculate the demand factor and load factor.

7M

10. a) What is the need for power factor improvement? Explain briefly. 5M b) Load factor is 35% and the monthly consumption is 504kWh. If the rate of electricity is

Rs.180 per kW of maximum demand plus Rs.2.00 per kWh, find: i. The monthly bill and the average cost per kWh ii. The overall cost per kWh if the consumption is increased by 20% with the same load

factor

10M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3313

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) State first law of thermodynamics applicable to the closed system undergoing a cycle and a change of state. Also mention the limitations of first law.

7M

b) In a system 80KJ of heat is supplied from state 1 to state 2 by a constant volume process. The internal energy at state 1 is 90KJ. The system rejects 95KJ of heat from state 2 to state 3 by constant pressure process and 30KJ of work is done on it. The system is brought back from state 3 to state 1 by a reversible adiabatic process. Calculate the adiabatic work and the values of internal energy at state 2 and state 3.

8M

2. a) Sketch the Carnot cycle on P-V and T-S diagrams and derive an expression for its efficiency in terms of source and sink temperatures.

8M

b) A fluid expands in a frictionless closed system from a volume of 0.1m3 to 0.16m3 in such a manner that the pressure is given by P=C/V2, where C is constant. The initial pressure is 300kpa. Calculate the amount of work done.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the importance of vapour pressure. 3M b) Calculate specific weight, mass density, specific volume and specific gravity of a liquid

having a volume of 4m3 and weighing 29.43kN. Assume missing data suitably.

12M

4. a) Derive hydrostatic law of pressure. 7M b) The right limb of a simple U-tube manometer containing mercury is open to the

atmosphere while the left limb is connected to a pipe in which a fluid of specific gravity 0.9 is flowing. The centre of the pipe is 12cm below the level of mercury in the right limb. Find the pressure of fluid in the pipe if the difference of mercury level in the two limbs is 20 cm.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is the need of draft tube? 3M b) A reaction turbine works at 450rpm under a head of 120m. Its diameter at inlet is 1.2m

and the flow area is 0.4m2. The angle made by the absolute and relative velocities at inlet is 200 and 600 respectively with the tangential velocity. Determine: i. The discharge through the turbine ii. Power developed iii. Efficiency Assume radial discharge at outlet.

12M

6. a) Differentiate between reaction and impulse turbine. 5M b) An inward flow reaction turbine running at 500rpm has an external diameter is 700mm

and a width of 180mm. If the guide vanes are at 200 to the wheel tangent and the absolute velocity of water at inlet is 25m/s, find: i. Discharge through the turbine ii. Inlet vane angle

10M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) Define specific speed of a centrifugal pump and derive an expression for the same with usual notations.

7M

b) A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net head of 14.5m and a design speed of 1000rpm. The vanes are curved back to an angle of 300 with the periphery. The impeller diameter is 300mm and outlet width 50mm. Determine the discharge of the pump if manometric efficiency is 95%.

8M

8. a) Explain with a neat sketch the working of a reciprocating pump. 8M b) A single acting reciprocating pump running at 50rpm delivers 0.01m3/s of water. The

diameter of the piston is 200mm and stroke length 400mm. Determine: i. The theoretical discharge of the pump ii. Co-efficient of discharge and iii. Slip and the percentage slip of the pump

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Derive an expression for temperature distribution and heat transfer in a sphere under one dimensional steady state condition using general heat conduction equation.

8M

b) A steam pipe of 100mm outer diameter is covered with two layers of insulating material each 25mm thick, one having thermal conductivity thrice the other. Determine the percentage increase in heat loss when the better insulating material is inside than when it is outside.

7M

10. a) What is the physical significance of critical radius of insulation? Derive an expression for the same for a sphere.

6M

b) Steam flows through a pipe of internal diameter. 150mm and wall thickness 10mm. The pipe is insulated with two layers, the inner layer of thickness 25mm with a material having thermal conductivity 0.233W/m-k and the outer layer has thickness of 40mm and the material has a conductivity of 0.1163W/m-k, pipe material has thermal conductivity of 46.51W/m-k. Determine the heat loss through the pipe per meter length if the inner wall temperature is 2000C and the outer surface temperature is 500C. Also find the temperature at the surface between insulations.

9M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3314

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

THERMAL ENGINEERING-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) List seven differences between SI engines and CI engines. 9M b) Define the following terminology as related to internal combustion engines:

i. Bore ii. Stroke iii. Clearance volume iv. Displacement volume v. Top dead centre vi. Bottom dead centre

6M

2. a) Discuss the reasons that are responsible for deviation of actual fuel air cycles from ideal thermodynamic air standard cycles.

8M

b) List out advantages and disadvantages of a two-stroke cycle engine over a four-stroke cycle engine.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) What is meant by abnormal combustion? Explain the phenomenon of knock in SI engines.

8M

b) What are homogenous and heterogeneous mixtures? In which engines these mixtures are used? Explain.

7M

4. a) Bring out clearly the process of combustion in CI engines and also explain the various stages of combustion.

7M

b) Explain with figures the various types of combustion chambers used in CI engines.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain Morse test used to determine friction power of IC engine. 5M b) A six cylinder, gasoline engine operates on the four stroke cycle. The bore of each

cylinder is 80mm and the stroke is 100mm. The clearance volume in each cylinder is 70cc. At a speed of 4000rpm the fuel consumption is 20kg/h. The torque developed is 150 N-m. Calculate: i. The brake power ii. The brake mean effective pressure iii. Brake thermal efficiency if the calorific value of the fuel is 43000kJ/kg iv. The relative efficiency if the ideal cycle for the engine is Otto cycle

10M

6. a) Write short notes on positive displacement machines. 5M b) A gasoline engine working on four- stroke develops a brake power of 20.9kW. A Morse

test was conducted on this engine and the brake power (kW) obtained when each cylinder was made inoperative by short circuiting the spark plug are 14.9, 14.3, 14.8 and 14.5 respectively. The test was conducted at constant speed. Find the indicated power, mechanical efficiency and brake mean effective pressure when all the cylinders are firing. The bore of the engine is 75mm and the stroke is 90mm. The engine is running at 3000rpm.

10M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the advantages of multistage compression over a single stage compression for the same pressure ratio? Why inter-cooling is necessary in multi-stage compression?

6M

b) A single cylinder, single acting air compressor delivers 10kg of air per minute from 1 bar and 270C to 6 bar. The compression follows the law pv1.25= C. Determine: i. Work required to compress and deliver 1kg of air ii. Actual power required to run the compressor if the mechanical efficiency is 80% iii. Heat lost through the cylinder walls per minute iv. Isothermal efficiency

9M

8. a) What is the benefit of using after cooler with an air compressor when air under pressure has to be stored over long periods?

8M

b) A single stage single acting air compressor of 30cm bore and 40cm stroke is running at a speed of 100RPM. It takes in air at 1 bar and 200C and compresses it to a pressure of 5bar. Find the power required to drive it when compression is: i. isothermal ii. PV1.2 = C iii. Adiabatic Also find the isothermal efficiencies for the cases (ii) and (iii). Neglect clearance.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) With line diagram explain the essential parts of a centrifugal compressor. Also draw the pressure and velocity variations, and explain briefly.

8M

b) A centrifugal compressor running at 60000rpm having an impeller diameter tip diameter of 101cm has the following test data: Mass flow rate=25kg/s Static pressure ratio=2.12 Pressure at inlet 100kPa Temperature=280C Mechanical efficiency= 0.97 Find: i. Slip coefficient ii. Temperature of air at exit iii. Power input iv. Power coefficient

7M

10. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of an axial flow compressor? 6M b) An air compressor has eight stages of equal pressure ratio 1.35. The flow rate through

the compressor and its overall efficiency are 50kg/s and 82% respectively. If the condition of air at entry are 1 bar and 400C determine: i. The state of air at the compressor exit ii. Polytropic efficiency iii. Efficiency of each stage iv. Power required to drive the compressor assuming overall efficiency of the drive as

90%

9M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3317

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

KINEMATICS OF MACHINERY (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Differentiate the following: i. Structure and machine ii. Mechanism and machine iii. Completely constrained and successfully constrained kinematic chain

9M

b) Schematically explain the classification of kinematic pairs based on the relative motion between the elements.

6M

2. a) Schematically explain the inversions of four bar mechanism. 9M b) Illustrate with a neat sketch whitworth quick return motion mechanism.

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the mechanism which is used to enlarge a given figure with proof. 6M b) Obtain condition for correct steering for four wheeler. Sketch and explain the

working of Ackermann steering gear. State its merits and demerits.

9M

4. The Fig.1 shows quick return mechanism. Link 2 rotates uniformly at 20rad/s in clockwise direction. Determine angular acceleration of link 3:

Fig.1

15M

Unit – III

5. a) Derive an expression for ratio of shaft velocities for universal joints. 8M b) Explain with a neat sketch, the Davis steering gear mechanism.

7M

6. a) Derive the condition for equal speed of driving and driven shaft in hook's joint. 10M b) Two shafts with an included angle of 1600 are connected by a Hooke's joint. The

driving shaft runs at a uniform speed of 1500r.p.m. The driven shaft carries a flywheel of mass 12Kg and 100mm radius of gyration. Find the maximum angular acceleration of the driven shaft and the maximum torque required.

5M

Cont…2

::2::

Unit – IV

7. a) Mention the factors to be considered for selection of belt. 5M b) A cam is to give the following motion to a knife-edged follower:

i. Outstroke during 600 of cam rotation ii. Dwell for the next 300 of cam rotation iii. Return stroke during next 600 of cam rotation iv. Dwell for the remaining 2100 of cam rotation The stroke of the follower is 40mm and minimum radius of the cam is 50mm. The follower moves with uniform velocity during both the outstroke and return strokes. Draw the profile of the cam when the axis of the follower passes through the axis of the cam shafts.

10M

8. a) Derive an expression for centrifugal tension of belt. 6M b) A pulley is driven by a flat belt. The angle of lap being 120o. The belt is 100mm wide

by 6mm thick and density 1000kg/m3. If the coefficient of friction is 0.3 and the maximum stress in the belt is not to exceed 2MPa, find the greatest power which the belt can transmit and the corresponding speed of the belt.

9M

Unit – V

9. a) Derive an expression for the minimum number of teeth required on the gear in order to avoid the interference in involute gear teeth.

8M

b) Two mating gears have 20 and 40 involute teeth of module 10mm and 20o pressure angle. The addendum on each wheel is to be made of such a length that the line of contact of each side of the pitch point has half the maximum possible length. Determine the addendum height for each gear wheel, length of the path of contact, arc of contact and contact ratio.

7M

10. a) Explain briefly algebraic method of finding the velocity ratio of epicyclic gear train. 6M b) In an epicyclic gear of sun and planet type shown in Fig.2, the pitch circle diameter of

the internally toothed ring is to be 224mm and the module 4mm. When the ring D is stationary, the spider A, which carries three planet wheels C of equal size, is to make one revolution in the same sense as the sun wheel B for every five revolutions of the driving spindle carrying sun wheel B. Determine suitable numbers of teeth for all the wheels.

Fig.2

9M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3108

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 15 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Derive the torsional equation for a circular shaft subjected to torque. 5M b) A close coiled cylindrical spiral spring of circular section has coils with a 75mm mean

diameter. When loaded with an axial load of 250N, it is found to extend 160mm and when subjected to a twisting couple of 3Nm there is an angular rotation of 60 degrees. Determine the Poisson’s ratio for the material.

10M

2. a) Distinguish between close coiled springs and open coiled springs also list any five functions of the spring.

7M

b) A closely coiled helical spring of 100mm mean diameter is made up of 10mm diameter rod and has 20 turns. The spring carries an axial load of 200N. Determine the shearing stress. Take the value of G=8.4x104MPa, determine the deflection, also calculate stiffness of the spring.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Obtain an expression for Euler’s buckling load of a column with both ends hinged. 8M b) A column of 5m length is fixed at both ends. The column is of rectangular cross-section

20cm x 10cm. Determine the Euler’s load on the column if E=200GN/m².

7M

4. a) State the assumptions made in Euler’s analysis. 7M b) A 1.5m long column has a circular cross-section of 5cm diameter. One of the ends of the

column is fixed in direction and position and the other end is free. Taking the factor of safety as 3, calculate the safe load using: i. Rankin Gordon formulae- take yield stress=56kN/cm2 and =1/1600 for pinned

ends ii. Euler’s formula, E=12MN/cm2

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What are retaining walls? Explain Rankine’s assumptions made for the theory of earth pressure.

5M

b) A square chimney 30m high has a flue opening of size 1.5mx1.5m, find the minimum width required at the base for no tension if the masonry weighs 20kN/m3 and the wind pressure is 1.5kN/m2. The permissible stress in masonry is 1MPa.

10M

6. a) State the conditions of stability in case of dam. 5M b) A masonry retaining wall has the trapezoidal section with top width 1.5m, bottom width

4m and height 6m. The angle of repose of the retained material is 300 the masonry weighs 20kN/m3 and the earth has a density of 18kN/m3. Find the maximum and minimum stress intensities at the base.

10M

Unit – IV

7. a) Write the computational procedure for the deflection of the beam due to unsymmetrical bending.

5M

b) A channel section has flanges 100x10mm and web 160x10mm, determine the shear center of the channel.

10M

8. A cast iron beam is of T-section with top flange 100x20mm and bottom flange 20x80mm. The beam is simply supported on a span of 8m. The beam carries a UDL of 1.5kN/m length on the entire span. Determine the maximum tensile and compressive stresses.

15M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – V 9. a) Obtain an expression for the strains in a thin cylindrical shell due to internal pressure. 7M b) A cylindrical vessel closed with plane ends is made of a 4mm thin steel plate. Its

diameter is 25mm and length is 75mm. It is subjected to an internal fluid pressure of 300N/cm². Calculate the longitudinal and hoop stresses in the shell plate. Also, calculate changes in diameter, length and volume of the cylinder. Take E=210GN/m² and Poisson’s ratio = 0.3.

8M

10. a) Explain Lame’s theorem relating to thick cylinder and state assumptions made in this theory.

7M

b) The diameters of a thick cylindrical vessel are 16cm and 24cm. calculate the maximum and minimum hoop stresses due to an internal pressure of 600kN/cm². Sketch the distribution of circumferential and radial stresses across the section.

8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3111

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

BUILDING PLANNING AND DRAWING

(Civil Engineering)

Date: 22 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is the full form of FAR and FSI and write the importance of FAR? 7M b) Write the importance of Building BYE-LAWS.

8M

2. a) Write a note on sizes of structural elements. 8M b) List out the classification of Buildings and explain any one classification.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain about planning of hospitals building. 8M b) Explain the minimum standards for foyer and kitchen.

7M

4. a) Explain about planning of dispensaries. 7M b) Explain the minimum planning standards for hotels and motels.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) What is CPM and PERT Stands for? Write the difference between CPM and PERT and write the advantages of CPM.

7M

b) Define the following terms: i. Activity ii. Event iii. Earliest Expected time iv. Latest Expected time v. Slack vi. Critical path

8M

6. a) Define the following terms and write the equation for average time: i. Optimistic time ii. Most likely time iii. Pessimistic time

8M

b) Write a note on bar chart with example and mention two limitations of bar chart.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Draw a neat sketch of a Swing ventilator and indicate the parts. 8M b) Draw to a suitable scale, elevation and section of a glazed window of suitable size.

7M

8. a) Draw to a suitable scale for details of Queen post truss. 7M b) Draw the sign conversion for the following materials:

i. Stone ii. Concrete iii. Copper alloy iv. White lead

8M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – V

9. From the line diagram shown in Fig.1, draw to a suitable scale the plan and elevation of the building.

Fig.1

15M

10. From the line diagram shown in Fig.2, draw to a suitable scale the plan and elevation of the building.

Fig.2

15M

REFERENCE D- DOOR PANNELLED -1000X2000 D1- DOOR -900X2000 W-WINDOW - 900X1200 W1-WINDOW -2000X1000 V-VENTILATOR GLAZED-800X300 P-BRICK PILLLAR -300X300

REFERENCE D- DOOR -900X2100 W-WINDOW - 900X1200 O1-OPENING -2400X1200 O2-OPENING -1500X1200 C-COLUMN -300X300

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3112

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

SURVEYING-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 25 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Write a note on the methods of traversing. 7M b) Explain with neat sketches the procedure adopted for setting out buildings.

8M

2. a) Describe horizontal angle measurement using theodolite. 7M b) Indicating a representative table explain traverse computations by Gales traverse table.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) What are the constants of a tacheometer and how they are determined in the field. 7M b) A tacheometer was setup at an intermediate point on a traverse course PO and the

following obervations were made on a staff held vertical. The constants were 100 and 0.3 Compute the length PO and reduced level of Q given RL of P as 350.50m:

Station Vertical angle Staff intercept Axial hair reading

P +90 30’ 2.250 2.105

Q +60 00’ 2.055 1.975

8M

4. a) Demonstrate the method of finding the elevation of an inaccessible point using measurement made from 2 stations. The 2 stations are not in same plane as that of the point.

7M

b) The vertical angles subtended by the top of a tower T at two instrument stations set up at P and Q, are shown in the Fig.1. The two stations are in line with the tower and spaced at a distance of 60 m. Readings taken from these two stations on a levelling staff placed at the benchmark (BM = 450.000 m) are also shown in the figure. Find out reduced level of the top of the tower T from first principles.

Fig.1

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the method of setting a simple curve using two theodolite method. 7M b) Describe the method of setting out simple curve by offsets from the chords produced

with sketch, equations and tabulation column. Calculate necessary data to set the simple curve by above method for the radius of 60m and deflection angle of 420.

8M

6. a) Derive the different elements of a simple curve. 8M b) Two straights AV and BV are intersected by a line MN. The angle AMN and MNB are 30°

and 20° respectively. The radius of the first arc is 650 m and that of the second arc is 450m. Find the chainage of the tangent points and the point of compound curvature, given that the chainage of the point of intersection V is 4756m.

7M

Cont…2

::2::

Unit – IV

7. a) Write a note on types of vertical curves. 7M b) Derive different elements of a reverse curve between parallel straights having different

radii. 8M

8. a) What is a reverse curve? Mention the functions of revese curve. Also state the conditions to be fulfilled by a reverse curve.

7M

b) Two parallel railway lines are to be connected by a reverse curve, each section having the same radius. If the lines are 12m apart and the maximum distance between tangent points measured parallel to the straights is 48m, find the maximum allowable radius.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write a note on components of GIS. 8M b) With a neat sketch list the stages in a remote sensing system.

7M

10. a) Discuss the advantages of total station when compared with other surveying instruments. 8M b) With sketches explain the working principle of GPS. 7M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3315

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular Examinations, May – 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Discuss the steps involved in preparing a casting and list out any four applications. 10M b) What are the materials used for Pattern and mention different types of pattern?

5M

2. a) Differentiate between open riser and blind riser. 7M b) Describe with neat sketch about Cupola operation.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Give the classification of welding process and briefly explain types of welds. 7M b) Explain briefly the principle of gas welding flame with neat sketch.

8M

4. a) Explain in detail the requirements for Arc-welding equipment. 7M b) Explain briefly the working of plasma welding with a neat sketch.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Distinguish between friction and induction welding. 8M b) Explain the working of Explosive welding process.

7M

6. a) Explain the operation of laser welding process with its advantages. 7M b) Explain with neat sketch the working of oxy-acetylene gas cutting process.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Briefly explain the Stamping operation and list the advantages of rolling process. 8M b) Explain briefly with the neat sketch the terms embossing and coining.

7M

8. a) Explain briefly the concept of forging process and its types. 8M b) Explain the working of wire drawing process and die types.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain briefly about the types, advantages and disadvantages of typical extrusion process with neat sketches.

7M

b) Discuss the properties and applications of plastics.

8M

10. a) Briefly explain: i. Hot extrusion ii. Cold extrusion

7M

b) Discuss the processing methods and equipment required for processing of plastics. 8M

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3109

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, May - 2018 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-I

(Civil Engineering)

Date: 18 May, 2018 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Distinguish between perfect, imperfect and redundant frames. 5M b) Analyze the truss shown in Fig.1 by method of joints. Indicate the member forces with a

neat sketch on the truss.

Fig.1

10M

2. a) State the procedure of method of sections. 5M b) A truss of 10m span is loaded as shown in Fig.2 find the forces in the members BE, BC

and AE of truss by method of sections:

Fig.2

10M

Unit – II

3. a) State Castigliano’s first theorem and using this how we can determine the deflection of the beams.

8M

b) Determine the horizontal movement of rollers and vertical deflection at joint C of the truss shown in Fig.3 areas of the chord members are 1000mm2 and the area of the diagonals are 1300mm2. E = 200GPa.

Fig.3

7M

Cont…2

:: 2 ::

4. Determine the support reaction components, normal thrust and radial shear just to right of

the point D of three hinged arch shown in Fig.4.

Fig.4

15M

Unit – III

5. A fixed beam AB of span 5m is subjected to a couple of 500kN-m clockwise at a distance of

3m from left support A. Draw BMD and SFD.

Fig.5

15M

6. A propped cantilever beam ABC of span 6m, fixed at A and propped at B, it is subjected to a

point load of 60kN at C which is at a distance of 3m from fixed support A. Draw BMD and

SFD.

Fig.6

15M

Unit – IV

7. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.7 by slope deflection method. Also draw BMD and SFD.

Fig.7

15M

8. Analyze the continuous beam shown in Fig.8 by Moment distribution method. Also draw BMD and SFD.

Fig.8

15M

Cont…3

:: 3 ::

Unit – V 9. a) Draw ILD for the following forces of simply supported beam AB of span 20m:

i. Reaction at A ii. SF at section 9m from support A

Fig.9

5M

b) Two wheel loads of 160kN and 400kN spaced 2m apart move on a girder of span 16m from left to right with 160kN load leading. Find the maximum positive and negative shear force at a section: i. 4m from the left end ii. 6m from the left end

10M

10. The wheel loads shown in Fig.10 rolls along the Warren truss. Draw the influence line for the forces X, Y and Z. Determine the maximum tensile and compressive forces in these members.

Fig.10

15M