this book let con tains up17—ii ques tion book let no. ‡å ... paper- t-tet...2. this test is of...

48
This Booklet contains 48 printed pages. Question Booklet No. &Òü y 48> ‡[ t¡ õ¸¡ " á¡ú - [ zA¡ }J‚ PAPER—II ¹ª ¡ y II Question Booklet Series-Code y¹ [ [¹\-ëA¡ l¡¡ Do not open this Question Booklet until you are asked to do so. &Òü y ™t¡ ¡o J” t¡ > ” Ò t¡t¡ ¡o ™¢ z J” > > ¡ú Read carefully all the instructions given at the back page and on the front page of this Question Booklet. &Òü =‡ õ ¸¡ * ë È õ¸¡ ë* ‡ z [> ¢ ”ª ‡ > ™ K ÒA¡ ¹ l¡æ>¡ú Instructions for Candidates 1. Use Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars of this Question Booklet and marking responses on the OMR Answer Sheet. 2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3. There is no negative marking for any wrong answer. 4. This Question Booklet has Five Parts—I, II, III, IV and V consisting of 150 MCQ-type Questions and each question carries 1 mark : Part–I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1–30) Part–II : Language–I (English) (Q. Nos. 31–60) Part–III : Language–II (Bengali) (Q. Nos. 61–90) Part–IV : Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 91–150) Part–V : Social Studies (Q. Nos. 91–150) 5. Candidates have to do Question Nos. 91 to 150 EITHER from Part–IV (Mathematics and Science) OR Part–V (Social Studies). 6. Please ensure that Question Booklet Series-Code is correctly written and shaded on the OMR Answer Sheet. 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Question Booklet. 8. The answers are to be marked on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully since there is no chance of alteration/correction. 9. Use of eraser or whitener is strictly prohibited. 10. Candidates should note that each question in Part—I, IV and V is given in bilingual form (English and Bengali). In case of any discrepancy or confusion in the medium/ version, the English Version will be treated as the authentic version. ¹ª ¡ =¢ª ¹ \>‚ [> ¢ ”ª 1. &Òü y ë”J ¹ \>‚ & } OMR l¡üv¡¹ y l¡üv¡¹ [W¡[Òß¡t¡ A¡¹ t¡ ¡ ‡y A¡ ” A¡[”¹ ” –i¡ A¡”‡ ‚ Ò ¹ A¡¹¡>¡ú 2. &Òü ¹ª ¡ ¹ ‡ 2 Qsi¡ 30 [‡[>i¡¡ú ¹ª ¡ ë‡i¡ 150 [i¡ MCQ ¹ >¹ = A¡ ¡ú 3. ¡” l¡üv¡ ¹¹ \>‚ ëA¡ > ¡o uA¡ >´‹¹ = A¡ > ¡ú 4. &Òü W¡[i¡ ¡ K ™= yß¡ ‡ Parts—I, II, III, IV &} V ë™J > 1 ‡”‚ S¡¹ 150 [i¡ MCQ ¹ >¹ = A¡ : ¡K–I :[ ¡ [ A¡ * [ ¡o- ”ª ( }J‚ 1–30) ¡K–II : ¡È —I (Òü}¹ \ª) ( }J‚ 31–60) ¡K–III : ¡È —II ( }”) ( }J‚ 61–90) ¡K–IV : K[ot¡ & } [ ‘¡ > ( }J‚ 91–150) ¡K–V : ‡ \[ ( }J‚ 91–150) 5. ¹ª ¡ =¢ª A¡ >´‹¹ 91 ë= A¡ 150-&¹ l¡üv¡¹ A¡¹ t¡ Ò Part—IV (K[ot¡ & } [ ‘¡ > [ ¡ K) "= Part—V ( ‡\[ [ ¡ K)-&¹ ‡ ‚ ë= A¡ ë™ ëA¡ >* &A¡[i¡ [ ¡ K ë= A¡¡ú 6. OMR l¡üv¡¹ y [k¡A¡ ¡ y¹ [ [¹\-ëA¡ l¡ [”J t¡ Ò ¡ú 7. ¹ª ¡ =¢ª A¡ ¹ ¡ * A¢¡ A¡¹ t¡ Ò ¡ ‡ y ëA¡ W¡> A¡ ” i¡ ( y) [>[ ¢ ¡ A¡¹ ‚ >¡ú 8. ¹ l¡üv¡¹ ¡ ‡y OMR l¡üv¡¹ y [W¡[Òß¡t¡ A¡¹ t¡ Ò ¡ú l¡üv¡¹ [W¡[Òß¡t¡ A¡¹ ¹ [ È ¹ª ¡ =¢ª A¡ ¢ ZW¡ t¡A¢¡t¡ " ”´‹> A¡¹ t¡ Ò ¡ú ¹ l¡üv¡¹ &A¡ ¹ [W¡[Òß¡t¡ A¡¹ Ò ëK ” ëA¡ > " ‚ t¡Òü t¡ A¡ [¹ t¢¡> } > A¡¹ ™ > ¡ú 9. A¡ [” ë‡ W¡>ª Òü ¹\ ¹ -t¡¹” \ t¡ª æ¹ ‚ Ò ¹ ´ o¢¹Œ¡ [>[È ¡¡ú 10. ¹ª ¡ =¢ª ¹ ‡ > ¹ J t¡ Ò ë™ Part—I, IV &} V-&¹ P¡[” [ - ¡ [ÈA¡ (Òü}¹ \ª * }” ) Ò ¡ú &Òü ë ¡ y ¡ È -‡ ‚‡ ¡ È - } H¹ o ëA¡ > ¹ >¹ " U[t¡ "= ë c¡¹ "[ l¡ü ”§¡ Ò ” Òü}¹ \ª } H¹o A¡Òü Aõ¡t¡ ¡¡ ” Ko‚ A¡¹ >¡ú A UP17—II Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : __________________________________________________________________________ ¹ª ¡ =¢ª¹ > ‡ ( l¡ " ¡ ¹) Roll No. : _________________________________________________ OMR Answer Sheet No. ____________________________ ë¹ ” >} OMR l¡üv¡¹ y¹ >´‹¹ Full Signature of the Candidate with date ¹ª ¡ =¢ª¹ ´ o¢ ‹ ¡¹ t¡ [¹J Ò Signature of the Invigilator with date [>¹ª ¡ A¡¹ ‹ ¡¹ t¡ [¹J Ò

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Page 1: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

This Book let con tains 48 printed pages. Ques tion Book let No.

&Òü šøÅ—šìy 48> ³å[‰t¡ šõË¡à "àìá¡ú šøÅ—-šå[ÑzA¡à Î}J¸à

PAPER—II

š¹ãÛ¡àšyççII

Question Booklet Series-Code

šøÅ—šìy¹ [Î[¹\-ëA¡àl¡¡

Do not open this Question Book let un til you are asked to do so.

&Òü šøÅ—šy ™t¡Û¡o Jåºìt¡ >à ¤ºà Òì¤ t¡t¡Û¡o š™¢”z Jåºì¤> >à¡ú

Read care fully all the in struc tions given at the back page and on the front page of this Ques tionBook let.

&Òü šøÅ—šìy¹ šø=³ šõË¡à * ëÅÈ šõË¡àÚ ëƒ*Úà γÑz [>샢Åऺ㠳ì>àì™àK ÎÒA¡àì¹ šØl¡æ>¡ú

In struc tions for Candidates

1. Use Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars

of this Question Booklet and marking responses on the

OMR Answer Sheet.

2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and

consists of 150 MCQ-type questions.

3. There is no negative marking for any wrong answer.

4. This Question Booklet has Five Parts—I, II, III, IV and V

consisting of 150 MCQ-type Questions and each

question carries 1 mark :

Part–I :Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1–30)

Part–II : Language–I (English) (Q. Nos. 31–60)

Part–III : Language–II (Bengali) (Q. Nos. 61–90)

Part–IV :Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 91–150)

Part–V :Social Studies (Q. Nos. 91–150)

5. Candidates have to do Question Nos. 91 to 150 EITHER

from Part–IV (Mathematics and Science) OR Part–V

(Social Studies).

6. Please ensure that Question Booklet Series-Code is

correctly written and shaded on the OMR Answer Sheet.

7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in

the Question Booklet.

8. The answers are to be marked on the OMR Answer Sheet

only. Mark your responses carefully since there is no

chance of alteration/correction.

9. Use of eraser or whitener is strictly prohibited.

10. Candidates should note that each question in Part—I, IV

and V is given in bilingual form (English and Bengali). In

case of any discrepancy or confusion in the medium/

version, the English Version will be treated as the

authentic version.

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã샹 \>¸ [>샢Åऺã1. &Òü šøÅ—šìy ëºJ๠\>¸ &¤} OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy l¡üv¡¹ [W¡[Òû¡t¡ A¡¹ìt¡

Ç¡‹å³ày A¡àìºà A¡à[º¹ ¤ºšìÚ–i¡ A¡º³ ¤¸¤Ò๠A¡¹ç¡>¡ú

2. &Òü š¹ãÛ¡à¹ Î³Ú 2 Qsi¡à 30 [³[>i¡¡ú š¹ãÛ¡àÚ ë³ài¡ 150 [i¡ MCQ

‹¹ì>¹ šøÅ— =àA¡ì¤¡ú

3. ®å¡º l¡üv¡ì¹¹ \>¸ ëA¡àì>à ˜¡oàuA¡ >´¬¹ =àA¡ì¤ >à¡ú

4. &Òü šøÅ—šìy¹ šòàW¡[i¡ ®¡àK ™=àyû¡ì³ Parts—I, II, III, IV &¤} V

ë™Jàì> 1 ³èº¸àìS¡¹ 150 [i¡ MCQ ‹¹ì>¹ šøÅ— =àA¡ì¤ :

®¡àK–I : [ÅÇ¡ [¤A¡àÅ * [ÅÛ¡o-íźã (šøÅ— Î}J¸à 1–30)

®¡àK–II : ®¡àÈà—I (Òü}¹à\ã) (šøÅ— Î}J¸à 31–60)

®¡àK–III : ®¡àÈà—II (¤à}ºà) (šøÅ— Î}J¸à 61–90)

®¡àK–IV : K[ot¡ &¤} [¤`¡à> (šøÅ— Î}J¸à 91–150)

®¡àK–V : γà\[¤ƒ¸à (šøÅ— Î}J¸à 91–150)

5. š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ãìA¡ šøÅ— >´¬¹ 91 ë=ìA¡ 150-&¹ l¡üv¡¹ A¡¹ìt¡ Òì¤

Part—IV (K[ot¡ &¤} [¤`¡à> [¤®¡àK) "=¤à Part—V (γà\[¤ƒ¸à

[¤®¡àK)-&¹ ³‹¸ ë=ìA¡ ë™ ëA¡à>* &A¡[i¡ [¤®¡àK ë=ìA¡¡ú

6. OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy Î[k¡A¡®¡àì¤ šøÅ—šìy¹ [Î[¹\-ëA¡àl¡ [ºJìt¡ Ò줡ú

7. š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ãìA¡ ¹àó¡ *ÚàA¢¡ A¡¹ìt¡ Òì¤ Ç¡‹å³ày ëA¡àìÆW¡> ¤åA¡ìºìi¡

(šøÅ—šìy) [>[ƒ¢Ê¡ A¡¹à Ñ‚àì>¡ú

8. šøìÅ—¹ l¡üv¡¹ Ç¡‹å³ày OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy [W¡[Òû¡t¡ A¡¹ìt¡ Ò줡ú l¡üv¡¹

[W¡[Òû¡t¡ A¡¹à¹ [¤ÈìÚ š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ãìA¡ Î줢àZW¡ Ît¡A¢¡t¡à "¤º ¬> A¡¹ìt¡

Ò줡ú šøìÅ—¹ l¡üv¡¹ &A¡¤à¹ [W¡[Òû¡t¡ A¡¹à ÒìÚ ëKìº ëA¡àì>à "¤Ñ‚àìt¡Òü

t¡àìA¡ š[¹¤t¢¡> ¤à Î}ìÅà‹> A¡¹à ™àì¤ >à¡ú

9. A¡à[º ë³àW¡>ãÚ Òüì¹\๠¤à Îàƒà-t¡¹º \àt¡ãÚ ¤Ññ¹ ¤¸¤Ò๠δšèo¢¹ê¡ìš

[>[ȇý¡¡ú

10. š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã샹 ³ì> ¹àJìt¡ Òì¤ ë™ šøÅ—šìy¹ Part—I, IV &¤}

V-&¹ šøÅ—P¡[º [‡-®¡à[ÈA¡ (Òü}¹à\ã * ¤à}ºà) Ò줡ú &Òü ëÛ¡ìy

®¡àÈà-³à‹¸³ ¤à ®¡àÈà-Î}ÑH¹ìo ëA¡àì>à ‹¹ì>¹ "ÎU[t¡ "=¤à ë¤àc¡à¹

"Îå[¤‹à l¡üšº§¡ Òìº Òü}¹à\ã Î}ÑH¹oìA¡Òü šøAõ¡t¡ Ç¡‡ý¡ ¤ìº Ko¸

A¡¹ì¤>¡ú

A

UP17—II

II/2-A

Name of the Can di date (in Cap i tals) : __________________________________________________________________________

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã¹ >à³ (¤Øl¡ "Û¡ì¹)

Roll No. : _________________________________________________ OMR An swer Sheet No. ____________________________

ë¹àº >} OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy¹ >´¬¹

Full Sig na ture of the Can di date with dateš¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã¹ δšèo¢ ѬàÛ¡¹ t¡à[¹JÎÒ

Sig na ture of the In vigi la tor with date[>¹ãÛ¡ìA¡¹ ѬàÛ¡¹ t¡à[¹JÎÒ

Page 2: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

PART—I / ®¡àKççI

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / [ÅÇ¡ [¤A¡àÅ * [ÅÛ¡o-íźã

II/2-A 2

Directions : Answer the following questions

by selecting the correct option.

1. Jean Piaget was a

(A) Biologist

(B) Neurologist

(C) Psychologist

(D) None of the above

2. Learning depends on cognitivedevelopment

(A) always

(B) sometimes

(C) never

(D) None of the above

3. Which of the following is not a signof ‘being gifted’?

(A) Imaginative thinking

(B) Poor personal relationship

(C) Creativity

(D) None of the above

[>샢[ÅA¡à : Î[k¡A¡ l¡üv¡¹ [>¤¢àW¡> A¡ì¹ >ãìW¡¹ šøÅ—P¡[º¹ l¡üv¡¹

ƒà*¡ú

1. \ã> [šÚàì\ [áìº> &A¡\>

(A) Åà¹ã¹[¤ƒô

(B) Ñ•àÚå[¤ƒô

(C) ³ì>à[¤ƒô

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

2. [ÅJ> šø[yû¡Úà `¡à>³èºA¡ [¤A¡àìŹ l¡üš¹ [>®¢¡¹Åãº

(A) ΤγÚ

(B) ëA¡à> ëA¡à> γÚ

(C) A¡Jì>àÒü >Ú

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

3. [>ì³—àv¡û¡ ëA¡à>[i¡ l¡üÄt¡ ¤å[‡ý¡Î´šÄ샹 í¤[ÅÊ¡¸>Ú?

(A) A¡¿>à³èºA¡ [W¡”zà

(B) ƒå¤¢º ¤¸[v¡û¡Kt¡ δšA¢¡

(C) Îõ\>Åãºt¡à

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

Page 3: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

II/2-A 3 [ P.T.O.

4. In the classroom situation,administering a ‘diagnostic test’(not standardized) before or duringinstruction refers to

(A) formative assessment

(B) summative assessment

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

5. _____ is not a product of learning.

(A) Skill

(B) Knowledge

(C) Maturation

(D) None of the above

6. ‘Stanford-Binet Test’ measures

(A) personality

(B) reading efficiency

(C) intelligence

(D) None of the above

7. The basic unit of heredity is

(A) gene

(B) chromosome

(C) zygote

(D) None of the above

8. Mental age and chronological age ofa student are 8 and 8 respectively.Then his IQ would be

(A) above average level

(B) of average level

(C) below average level

(D) None of the above

4. ëÅøoãA¡Û¡ š[¹ì¤ìÅ [ÅÛ¡àšøƒàì>¹ šè줢 ¤à[ÅÛ¡àšøƒàì>¹ Î³Ú ë™ ‘diagnostic test’

¤¸¤Òê¡t¡ ÒÚ (standardized >Ú) t¡àìA¡ ¤ºàÒÚ

(A) ó¡¹ì³[i¡®¡ "¸àìÎÎôì³–i¡

(B) Îàì³[i¡®¡ "¸àìÎÎôì³–i¡

(C) (A) &¤} (B) ƒåìi¡àÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

5. _____ [ÅJì>¹ ó¡ºÅøç¡[t¡ >Ú¡ú

(A) ƒÛ¡t¡à

(B) `¡à>

(C) š[¹o³>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

6. ‘Stanford-Binet Test’ š[¹³àš A¡ì¹

(A) ¤¸[v¡û¡ìŒ¹

(B) šØl¡à¹ ƒÛ¡t¡à¹

(C) ¤å[‡ý¡¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

7. ¤}ÅK[t¡¹ šøà=[³A¡ &A¡A¡ Òº

(A) [\>

(B) ëyû¡àì³àìÎà³

(C) \àÒüìKài¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

8. &A¡[i¡ áàìy¹ ³à>[ÎA¡ ¤ÚÎ &¤} šøAõ¡t¡ ¤ÚÎ Òº ™=àyû¡ì³ 8 &¤} 8, t¡àÒìº t¡à¹ IQ Òì¤

(A) KØl¡ ¤å[‡ý¡ Ñzì¹¹ ë¤Åã

(B) KØl¡ ¤å[‡ý¡ Ñzì¹¹

(C) KØl¡ ¤å[‡ý¡ Ñzì¹¹ >ãìW¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

Page 4: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

II/2-A 4

9. Education that teaches the values of cultural diversity is known as

(A) Multicultural education

(B) Cultural education

(C) Multiple education

(D) None of the above

10. Kohlberg’s theory of ‘moraldevelopment’ is consisting of _____levels of moral development.

(A) two

(B) four

(C) six

(D) None of the above

11. The concept of ‘mental age’ was firstintroduced by

(A) William Stern

(B) Alfred Binet

(C) Wechsler

(D) None of them

12. The principle of ‘spiral versus linearadvancement’ is associated with

(A) personality and attitude

(B) reading and writing

(C) growth and development

(D) None of the above

13. The _____ word ‘emovere’ indicates astate of action and to move.

(A) Greek

(B) French

(C) Latin

(D) None of the above

9. ë™ [ÅÛ¡à-[¤ƒ¸à¹ ³à‹¸ì³ Î}ÑAõ¡[t¡Kt¡ [¤[®¡Ät¡à¹³èº¸ì¤à‹ (values of cultural diversity)

δšìA¢¡ \à>à ™àÚ t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ

(A) ³à[Âi¡A¡àºW¡à¹àº &lå¡ìA¡Å>

(B) A¡àºW¡à¹àº &lå¡ìA¡Å>

(C) ³à[Âi¡šº &lå¡ìA¡Å>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

10. ëA¡àÒºô¤àìK¢¹ í>[t¡A¡ [¤A¡àìŹ t¡w[i¡ìt¡_____ [i¡ í>[t¡A¡ [¤A¡àìŹ Ñz¹ (level) "àìá¡ú

(A) ƒåÒü

(B) W¡à¹

(C) áÚ

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

11. ‘³à>[ÎA¡ ¤ÚÎ’-&¹ ‹à¹oà[i¡ šø=³ šøA¡àÅ A¡ì¹>

(A) l¡üÒü[ºÚ³ Сà>¢

(B) "àºìóø¡l¡ [¤ì>

(C) *ìÚWô¡ìκ¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

12. ‘Spiral versus linear advancement’

>ã[t¡[i¡

(A) ¤¸[v¡û¡Œ * ³ì>஡à줹 ÎìU Î}™åv¡û¡

(B) šØl¡à * ëºJ๠ÎìU Î}™åv¡û¡

(C) ¤õ[‡ý¡ * [¤A¡àìŹ ÎìU Î}™åv¡û¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

13. _____ Ŧ ‘Òüì³à®¡à¹’ Òº &A¡[i¡ "¤Ñ‚à ™à¤¸[v¡û¡ìA¡ K[t¡Å㺠* Î[yû¡Ú A¡ì¹ ët¡àìºú

(A) NøãA¡

(B) ëóø¡e¡

(C) º¸à[i¡>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

Page 5: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

II/2-A 5 [ P.T.O.

14. ‘Thematic Apperception Test’ is adevice for measuring

(A) intelligence

(B) aptitude

(C) personality

(D) None of the above

15. Drawing a geometrical design is atype of _____ learning.

(A) verbal

(B) motor

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

16. Which of the following is not astructural element of personality asproposed by Freud?

(A) Id

(B) Superego

(C) Ego

(D) None of the above

14. ‘Thematic Apperception Test’ Òº&³> &A¡[i¡ "®¡ãÛ¡à ™à¹ ÎàÒà외 š[¹³àš A¡¹à™àÚ

(A) ¤å[‡ý¡¹

(B) šø¤ot¡à¹

(C) ¤¸[v¡û¡ìŒ¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

15. \¸à[³[t¡A¡ [W¡y "}A¡> Òº &A¡ šøA¡à¹ _____

[ÅÛ¡o¡ú

(A) ®¡àÈàKt¡

(B) ëšÅãKt¡

(C) (A) &¤} (B) ƒåìi¡àÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

16. [>³—[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ Freud šøƒv¡¤¸[v¡û¡ìŒ¹ Kk¡>³èºA¡ (structural) l¡üšàƒà>>Ú?

(A) Òülô¡

(B) Îåšà¹ÒüìKà

(C) ÒüìKà

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

Page 6: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

II/2-A 6

17. ‘Acceleration’ is a measure whichis generally used to solve theproblems of

(A) economically backward children

(B) academically backward children

(C) mentally retarded children

(D) None of the above

18. ‘Rorschach Inkblot Test’ is a/an_____ technique for measuringpersonality.

(A) projective

(B) non-projective

(C) associative

(D) None of the above

19. Which of the following can betreated as the best adjustmentmechanism?

(A) Rationalization

(B) Regression

(C) Repression

(D) None of the above

17. ‘Acceleration’ š‡ý¡[t¡[i¡ ³èºt¡@ ¤¸¤Òê¡t¡ ÒÚ™à샹 γθà γà‹àì> t¡à¹à Òº

(A) "à[=¢A¡®¡àì¤ [š[áìÚ šØl¡à [ÅÇ¡

(B) [ÅÛ¡àìÛ¡ìy [š[áìÚ šØl¡à [ÅÇ¡

(C) ³à>[ÎA¡®¡àì¤ šø[t¡¤Þê¡ã [ÅÇ¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

18. ‘Rorschach Inkblot Test’ Òº _____

š‡ý¡[t¡ ™à¹ ÎàÒà외 ¤¸[v¡û¡ìŒ¹ š[¹³àš A¡¹à ÒÚ¡ú

(A) šøìÛ¡šo³èºA¡

(B) "-šøìÛ¡šo³èºA¡

(C) ">åÈU³èºA¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

19. [>³—[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ Î}K[t¡[¤‹àì>¹ëÛ¡ìy ΤìW¡ìÚ ®¡àìºà š‡ý¡[t¡?

(A) ë™ï[v¡û¡A¡¹o

(B) šøt¡¸à¤õ[v¡

(C) "¤ƒ³>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

Page 7: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

II/2-A 7 [ P.T.O.

20. _____ describes the child as a ‘moralphilosopher’.

(A) Piaget

(B) Erikson

(C) Kohlberg

(D) None of them

21. The causes of learning disabilitiesare

(A) genetic factors

(B) organic and environmentalfactors

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

22. The concept of ‘emotionalintelligence’ was first formallydefined in 1990 by

(A) Peter Salovey

(B) John D. Mayer

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of them

23. Which of the following refers to theability of a student to speak twolanguages fluently?

(A) Bilingualism

(B) Semilingualism

(C) Multilingualism

(D) None of the above

20. _____ [Åǡ샹 ‘moral philosopher’

[ÒÎàì¤ ¤¸àJ¸à A¡ì¹ìá>¡ú

(A) [šÚàì\

(B) &[¹A¡Î>

(C) ëA¡àÒºô¤àK¢

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

21. [ÅJì>¹ "Û¡³t¡à¹ (learning disabilities)

A¡à¹o Òº

(A) ë\ì>[i¡A¡

(B) Åà¹ã[¹A¡ &¤} š[¹ì¤ÅKt¡

(C) (A) &¤} (B) ƒåìi¡àÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

22. ‘Emotional intelligence’-&¹ ‹à¹oà[i¡1990 Îàìº šø=³ Kk¡>Kt¡®¡àì¤ l¡üìÀJ A¡ì¹>

(A) [ši¡à¹ ëÎìºà[®¡

(B) \>. [l¡. ë³Úà¹

(C) (A) &¤} (B) ƒå\>Òü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

23. [>³—[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ ëA¡à> áàìy¹ ƒå[i¡®¡àÈàÚ A¡=à ¤ºà¹ Îऺ㺠ƒÛ¡t¡àìA¡ šøA¡àÅA¡ì¹?

(A) ¤àÒü[ºUåÚà[º\³ô

(B) ëÎ[³[ºUåÚà[º\³ô

(C) ³à[Âi¡[ºUåÚà[º\³ô

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

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II/2-A 8

24. In the hierarchical theory of Maslow, the needs are classified as

1. physiological needs

2. self-actualization needs

3. needs to belong

4. esteem needs

5. safety needs

Which of the following is the correctsequence of the hierarchy of theseneeds from bottom to the topaccording to Maslow?

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(B) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

(C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

(D) None of the above

25. Phenylketonuria (PKU), which maylead to mental retardation, is a

(A) metabolic disorder

(B) personality disorder

(C) psychological disorder

(D) None of the above

26. The smallest meaningful unit in thestructure of language is called

(A) symbol

(B) morpheme

(C) phoneme

(D) None of the above

24. ³àÎìºà-&¹ hierarchical ³t¡¤à샹W¡à[ÒƒàP¡[º Òº

1. Åà¹ã¹¤õv¡ãÚ (Physiological) W¡à[Òƒà

2. "àìuàšº[§¡¹ (Self-actualization)

W¡à[Òƒà

3. "”z®å¢¡[v¡û¡¹ (Belongingness) W¡à[Òƒà

4. "àuδ¶àì>¹ (Esteem) W¡à[Òƒà

5. [>¹àšv¡à¹ (Safety) W¡à[Òƒà

[>³—[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ ³àÎìºà-&¹³t¡à>åÎàì¹ ™=à™= hierarchical W¡à[҃๠š™¢àÚ (>ãW¡ ë=ìA¡ l¡üšì¹)?

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(B) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

(C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

25. Phenylketonuria (PKU) ™à ³à>[ÎA¡šø[t¡¤Þê¡A¡t¡à (mental retardation) Îõ[Ê¡A¡¹ìt¡ šàì¹, Òº &A¡[i¡

(A) [¤šàA¡ãÚ ¤¸à[‹

(B) ¤¸[v¡û¡ìŒ¹ ¤¸t¡¸Ú

(C) ³à>[ÎA¡ ¤¸à[‹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

26. ®¡àÈà A¡àk¡àì³à¹ Û塉t¡³ "=¢¤Ò "}ÅìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ

(A) [몧

(B) ³¹ìó¡³ô

(C) ëó¡àì>³ô

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

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II/2-A 9 [ P.T.O.

27. When a learner follows the learningmethod from ‘general to specific’,then the method is called _____method.

(A) deductive

(B) inductive

(C) mixed

(D) None of the above

28. Who assumed that every functionof a child’s cultural developmentappears twice—firstly, inter-psychologically and secondly, intra-psychologically?

(A) Kohlberg

(B) Hull

(C) Vygotsky

(D) None of them

29. ‘Operant conditioning’ theory wasadvocated by

(A) Pavlov

(B) Skinner

(C) Thorndike

(D) None of them

30. Ivan Pavlov was a/an

(A) American Psychologist

(B) German Psychologist

(C) French Psychologist

(D) None of the above

27. ™J> &A¡\> [ÅÛ¡à=¢ã ‘Îà³[NøA¡ ë=ìA¡ [>[ƒ¢Ê¡’[ÅÛ¡o š‡ý¡[t¡ "¤º´¬> A¡ì¹ t¡J> t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ _____ š‡ý¡[t¡¡ú

(A) "¤ì¹àÒo

(B) "àì¹àÒo

(C) [³Åø

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

28. A¡à¹ ³t¡¤àƒ ">åÎàì¹ šø[t¡[i¡ [ÅÇ¡¹ cultural

development-&¹ šø[yû¡ÚàÚ ƒå[i¡ ‹à¹à"àìΗšø=³[i¡ inter-psychologically &¤} [‡t¡ãÚ[i¡ intra-psychologically?

(A) ëA¡àÒºô¤àK¢

(B) 񈼙

(C) ®¡àÒüKiô¡[ÑH

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

29. ‘Operant conditioning’ t¡w[i¡ l¡üŠ±à¤>A¡ì¹>

(A) š¸à®¡º®¡

(B) [ÑH>à¹

(C) =>¢l¡àÒüA¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

30. "àÒü®¡à> š¸à®¡º®¡ [áìº> &A¡\>

(A) "àì³[¹A¡à> ³ì>à[¤ƒô

(B) \à³¢à> ³ì>à[¤ƒô

(C) ëóø¡e¡ ³ì>à[¤ƒô

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú¡

Page 10: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

PART—II : Language—IENGLISH

Direction : Read the passage given

below and answer the questions (Q. Nos.

31 to 35) that follow by selecting the correct

options.

The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen

edge of the Arctic Ocean. It stretches

southward across the largest and

northernmost state in United States,

ending at a remote ice-free seaport village

nearly 800 miles from where it begins. It is

massive in size and extremely complicated

to operate. The steel pipe crosses

windswept plains and endless miles of

delicate tundra that tops the frozen

ground. It weaves through crooked

canyons, climbs sheer mountains, plunges

over rocky crags, makes its way through

thick forests, and passes over or under

hundreds of rivers and streams. The pipe is

4 feet in diameter and up to 84 million

gallons of crude oil can be pumped through

it daily. Resting on H-shaped steel racks

called ‘bents’, long sections of the pipeline

follow a zigzag course high above the frozen

earth. Other long sections drop out of sight

beneath spongy or rocky ground and

return to the surface later on. The pattern

of the pipeline’s up-and-down route is

determined by the often harsh demands of

the arctic and subarctic climate, the

tortuous lay of the land, and the varied

compositions of soil, rock, or permafrost

(permanently frozen ground). A little more

than half of the pipeline is elevated above

the ground. The remainder is buried

anywhere from 3 to 12 feet, depending

largely upon the type of terrain and the

properties of the soil. One of the largest in

the world, the pipeline cost-approximately

$ 8 billion and is by far the biggest and

most expensive construction project ever

undertaken by private industry. In fact, no

single business could raise that much

money, so 8 major oil companies formed a

consortium in order to share the cost.

Today, despite enormous problems of

climate, supply shortages, equipment

breakdowns, labour disagreements,

treacherous terrain, a certain amount of

mismanagement, and even theft, the

Alaska pipeline has been completed and is

operating.

31. The passage primarily discusses the

pipeline’s

(A) operating costs

(B) employees

(C) consumers

(D) construction

32. According to the passage, 84 million

gallons of crude oil can travel

through the pipeline each

(A) day

(B) week

(C) month

(D) year

II/2-A 10

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33. The phrase ‘resting on’ is closest in

meaning to

(A) consisting of

(B) supported by

(C) passing under

(D) protected with

34. The author mentions all of the

following as important in

determining the pipeline’s route

except the

(A) climate

(B) lay of the land itself

(C) local vegetation

(D) kind of soil and rock

35. How many companies shared the

cost of constructing the pipeline?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 12

Direction : Fill in the blanks with the right

alternative :

36. Water turns _____ ice.

(A) into

(B) from

(C) out of

(D) through

37. It is raining _____ she still wants to

go out.

(A) although

(B) unless

(C) and yet

(D) since

38. _____ of these dresses do you like

most? I like _____.

(A) Whose/the blue ones

(B) What/the blue dress

(C) Which/the blue

(D) Which/the blue one

II/2-A 11 [ P.T.O.

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39. Find the passive voice form of the

following sentence from the

alternatives given below :

Bob won’t repair my car until

tomorrow.

(A) My car won’t repair Bob until

tomorrow.

(B) My car would not be repaired by

Bob until tomorrow.

(C) My car will not be repaired by

Bob until tomorrow.

(D) None of the above

40. Didn’t he _____ his leg last summer?

(A) breaking

(B) broken

(C) broke

(D) break

41. ‘At one’s wit’s end’ means

(A) perplexed

(B) clear up

(C) explain

(D) enlighten

42. Which group of words from the

following means ‘agnostic’?

(A) One who is not sure about God’s

existence

(B) One who believes in God’s

existence

(C) One having different styles of

living

(D) None of the above

Directions : Read the following poem

carefully and answer the questions (Q. Nos.

43 to 47) by choosing the correct

alternative given below :

Not gold, but only men can make

A people great and strong;

Men who, for truth and honor’s sake,

Stand fast and suffer long.

Brave men who work while others sleep,

Who dare while others fly…

They build a nation’s pillars deep

And lift them to the sky.

43. ‘A people’ in the poem stands for

(A) common man

(B) a nation

(C) a group

(D) None of the above

44. A nation and a building both require

(A) people

(B) security

(C) wealth

(D) deep foundation

45. ‘Honor’s sake’ in the poem means

(A) for their own honour

(B) for the sake of other people

(C) for their pride

(D) for the sake of nation’s honour

46. ‘Others fly’ in the poem means

(A) they run away in the face of

danger

(B) they reach higher levels

(C) they become the heroes

(D) they react quickly

II/2-A 12

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47. A nation does not require

(A) material wealth

(B) idlers and cowards

(C) hard working people

(D) courageous people

48. Fill in the blank with the right

article from the following options :

The camel is _____ ship of the desert.

(A) an

(B) a

(C) the

(D) None of the above

49. Fill in the blank with the

appropriate word from the following

options :

_____ is a good exercise.

(A) Swam

(B) Swimming

(C) Swim

(D) None of the above

50. An incorrect form of sentence is

given below. Choose the correct

sentence from the following :

Whose idea was it to eat here

grumbled mr. Sharma.

(A) Whose idea was it to eat here

grumbled Mr. Sharma?

(B) Whose idea was it to eat here?,

grumbled Mr. Sharma.

(C) Whose idea was it to eat here,

grumbled mr. Sharma.

(D) “Whose idea was it to eat here?”

grumbled Mr. Sharma.

51. What is IPA?

(A) Indo-Pak Association

(B) Indian Phonetic Association

(C) International Phonetic Alphabet

(D) None of the above

52. Which of the following is kinds of

speaking situations in which we find

ourselves?

(1) Interactive

(2) Partially interactive

(3) Non-interactive

(A) Only (1)

(B) Only (2)

(C) (1) and (2)

(D) (1), (2) and (3)

II/2-A 13 [ P.T.O.

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53. Which one of the following is not

one of the stages of learning?

(A) Acquisition

(B) Maintenance

(C) Generalization

(D) Adoptation

54. Halliday identified seven functions

that language has for children in

their early years. Which one of the

following is not one of them?

(A) Instrumental

(B) Regulatory

(C) Interactional

(D) Reflective

55. What should be the order for the

process of remedial teaching?

(1) Collecting and preparing the

support materials

(2) Adapting the curriculum

(3) Choosing the appropriate

teaching strategies

(4) Organizing teaching materials

(5) Setting teaching objectives

(A) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

(B) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

(C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

56. The word ‘education’ will be stressed

on

(A) first syllable

(B) fourth syllable

(C) second syllable

(D) third syllable

57. What does teaching of prose

include?

(A) Novel

(B) Composition

(C) Story

(D) All of the above

58. What is the nucleus in a syllable?

(A) Vowel

(B) Consonant

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

59. Which method is based on the

theory “From example to

generalization”?

(A) Deductive method

(B) Inductive method

(C) Incidental method

(D) None of the above

60. Keeping in view the significance of

textbook, what should one keep in

his/her mind while selecting a text-

book?

(A) Age, interest and individual

differences

(B) The cover should be attractive

and qualitative

(C) Textbook should cover the

objectives of the subject

(D) The publisher of the book

should be well-known

II/2-A 14

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®¡àK—III : ®¡àÈà—II

¤à}ºà

[>샢[ÅA¡à : [>³—[º[Jt¡ šƒ¸à}Å[i¡¡ šìØl¡ 61 >} ë=ìA¡ 66 >} šøìÅ—¹ l¡üv¡¹ ƒà*¡ú

‘‘ÎàK¹ K쮢¡, [>@Îã³ >쮡 [ƒK[ƒK”z \å’ìØl¡

\ã¤ì>àì‡K, t¡àØl¡à A¡’ì¹ ëó¡ì¹ [>[t¡ ™à¹à ³õt塸ì¹,

³à[>A¡ "àÒ[¹’ "àì> ™à¹à Jåò[Øl¡’ šàt¡àº ™Û¡šå¹ã,

>à[K>ã¹ [¤È-aàºà ÎìÚ A¡ì¹ ó¡oà Ò’ìt¡ ³[o Wå¡[¹¡ú

Òà[>Úà ¤b-šà[o¹ ¤b l¡ü‡ý¡t¡ [Åì¹ ‹[¹,

™àÒà¹à W¡šºà ë³Q-A¡>¸àì¹ A¡[¹Úàìá [A¡S¡¹ã!

š¤> ™à샹 ¤¸\>ã ƒåºàÚ ÒÒüÚà "à`¡à¤àÒã,—

&ìÎ[á t¡à샹 \à>àìt¡ šøoà³, t¡àÒà샹 Kà> Kà[Ò!

P¡g[¹ ëó¡ì¹ yû¡–ƒ> ë³à¹ t¡à샹 [>[Jº 뤸욗

óò¡à[ι ¹ðå Aáà”z "à[\ìA¡ ™àÒà샹 iåò¡[i¡ ëW¡ìš!’’

61. ‘>쮡’ Ŧ[i¡¹ "=¢ Òº

(A) ѬìK¢

(B) "àA¡àìÅ

(C) >¹ìA¡

(D) šàt¡àìº

62. ‘\ã¤ì>àì‡K’ Ŧ[i¡¹ Î[Þê¡[¤ìZრA¡¹ìº Òì¤

(A) \ã¤>@ + l¡üì‡K

(B) \ã¤> + ">åì‡K

(C) \ã¤> + l¡üì‡K

(D) \㤠+ ">ô + l¡üì‡K

63. ‘[¤È-aàºà’ Ŧ[i¡¹ ¤¸àΤàA¡¸ A¡¹ìº Òì¤

(A) [¤È ¹ê¡š aàºà

(B) [¤ìȹ aàºà

(C) [¤ìÈ-[¤ìÈ aàºà

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

64. ‘¤b-šà[o > ¤bšà[o’ Òìº>

(A) Òü–ƒø샤

(B) ¤¹ç¡o샤

(C) š¤>샤

(D) ³¹ç¡;샤

65. ‘‘&ìÎ[á t¡à샹 \à>àìt¡ šøoà³, ...¡!’’

[>³—ì¹J ¤àA¡¸à}Å[i¡ Òº

(A) A¡tõ¢¡A¡à¹A¡

(B) A¡³¢A¡à¹A¡

(C) "[‹A¡¹oA¡à¹A¡

(D) A¡¹oA¡à¹A¡

66. ‘W¡šºà’ Ŧ[i¡¹ [¤š¹ãt¡ "=¢ Òº

(A) W¡e¡ºà

(B) [Ñ‚¹à

(C) "[Ñ‚¹à

(D) l¡ü–µv¡à

II/2-A 15 [ P.T.O.

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[>샢[ÅA¡à : [>³—[º[Jt¡ šøÅ—P¡[º¹ Î[k¡A¡ l¡üv¡¹[i¡ [>¤¢àW¡> A¡ì¹67 >} ë=ìA¡ 90 >} šøìÅ—¹ l¡üv¡¹ ƒà*¡¡ú

67. A¡[¤ Aõ¡[v¡¤àÎ *c¡à¹ ëºJà A¡à줸¹ >à³

(A) ‘Åøã¹à³šòàW¡àºã’

(B) ‘¹à³àÚoA¡=à’

(C) ‘¹à³àÚo’

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

68. A¡[¤ Aõ¡[v¡¤àÎ *c¡à tò¡à¹ A¡à줸¹ "àuš[¹W¡Ú"}ìÅ [št¡à¹ >à³ ¤ìºìá>

(A) ">à[ƒ

(B) [¤ƒ¸à‹¹

(C) ¤}Åã³àºã

(D) ¤>³àºã

69. A¡[¤ A¡àÅã¹à³ ƒàìι íš[yA¡ l¡üšà[‹ [áº

(A) 냤

(B) ëÎ>

(C) ¹àÚ

(D) P¡œ¡

70. ‘‘ët¡ìº¹ [Å[Å ®¡àR¡ìºà ¤ìº JåA塹’šì¹ ¹àK A¡ì¹à,

ët¡à³¹à ë™Î¤ ¤åìØl¡à ëJàA¡à ®¡à¹t¡ë®¡ìR¡ ®¡àK A¡ì¹à¡ú’’

—&Òü š}[v¡û¡ ƒå[i¡ [ºìJìá>

(A) ÎåA塳๠¹àÚ

(B) l¡üìš–ƒø[A¡ìÅ๠¹àÚìW¡ï‹å¹ã

(C) "ăàÅS¡¹ ¹àÚ

(D) >\¹ç¡º Òüκà³

71. ‘®å¡¤>ìÎà³’ l¡üš>¸àÎ[i¡¹ ëºJA¡ Òìº>

(A) t¡à¹àÅS¡¹ ¤ì–ƒ¸àšà‹¸àÚ

(B) ³à[>A¡ ¤ì–ƒ¸àšà‹¸àÚ

(C) ¹à\ìÅJ¹ ¤Îå

(D) ¤ºàÒüWò¡àƒ ³åìJàšà‹¸àÚ

72. ‘šˆà>ƒã¹ ³à[c¡’ l¡üš>¸àÎ[i¡ šø=³ Nø”‚àA¡à칚øA¡à[Åt¡ ÒÚ

(A) 1932 [JøСàì¦

(B) 1936 [JøСàì¦

(C) 1938 [JøСàì¦

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

73. [‡ì\–ƒøºàº ¹àìÚ¹ ëºJà &A¡[i¡ '[t¡Òà[ÎA¡>ài¡A¡ Òº

(A) ‘[Î}Òº-[¤\Ú’

(B) ‘"ìÅàA¡’

(C) ‘³ã¹A¡à[ų’

(D) ‘[ιà\ì„ïÀà’

74. ‘ƒåJå[³d¡à’ >à³[i¡ [áº

(A) ëKàºà³ ë³àÑzàó¡à-¹

(B) >\¹ç¡º Òüκà³-&¹

(C) \Îã³l¡ü„ã>-&¹

(D) íÎÚƒ ³å\t¡¤à"àºã-¹

II/2-A 16

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75. ¤[S¡³W¡ì–ƒø¹ ‘[¤Øl¡àº’ šø¤Þê¡[i¡ ¹ìÚìá

(A) ‘[¤[¤‹ šø¤Þê¡’-&

(B) ‘[¤`¡à> ¹Òθ’-ët¡

(C) ‘A¡³ºàA¡àì”z¹ ƒœ¡¹’-&

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ìt¡Òü >Ú

76. ¤Uàºã l¡üš®¡àÈ๠뮡ïìKà[ºA¡ "¤Ñ‚à> Òº

(A) ×Kºã * ëA¡àW¡[¤Òà¹

(B) ¤òàAå¡Øl¡à * [ƒ>à\šå¹

(C) n¡àA¡à * ó¡[¹ƒšå¹

(D) ³àºƒÒ * ÅøãÒj¡

77. ³‹¸ ¤à}ºà ®¡àÈ๠Îà‹à¹o γÚÎã³à Òº

(A) ‡àƒÅ ë=ìA¡ še¡ƒÅ Åt¡à¦ã

(B) še¡ƒÅ ë=ìA¡ $>[¤}Å Åt¡à¦ã

(C) ƒÅ³ ë=ìA¡ še¡ƒÅ Åt¡à¦ã

(D) W¡t塃¢Å ë=ìA¡ "Ê¡àƒÅ Åt¡à¦ã

78. ‘‘"àš>à ³òàìÎò Ò[¹oà í¤[¹¡ú’’

&Òü š}[v¡û¡[i¡

(A) "à[ƒ ¤à}ºà ®¡àÈ๠[>ƒÅ¢>

(B) ³‹¸ ¤à}ºà ®¡àÈ๠[>ƒÅ¢>

(C) "à‹å[>A¡ ¤à}ºà ®¡àÈ๠[>ƒÅ¢>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

79. Ò}Î > ÒòàÎ, &Òü š[¹¤t¢¡ì>¹ ‹ÿ¤[>t¡à[wA¡ Îèy[i¡Òº

(A) ³Òàšøào㮡¤>

(B) >à[ÎA¡¸ã®¡¤>

(C) [¤È³ã®¡¤>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

80. Îà‹à¹ot¡ "[š[>[Ò[t¡¹ ¤×º ¤¸¤Ò๠Qìi¡

(A) ¤Uàºã l¡üš®¡àÈàÚ

(B) ¹àØn¡ã l¡üš®¡àÈàÚ

(C) c¡àØl¡J“¡ã l¡üš®¡àÈàÚ

(D) A¡à³¹ê¡šã l¡üš®¡àÈàÚ

81. ‘‘&A¡Îèìy ¤òà[‹Úà[á ÎÒÑ÷[i¡ ³>¡ú’’

[>³—ì¹J ¤àA¡¸à}Å[i¡ Òº

(A) A¡³¢A¡à¹A¡

(B) "šàƒà>A¡à¹A¡

(C) A¡¹oA¡à¹A¡

(D) A¡tõ¢¡A¡à¹A¡

82. [štõ¡ + ">å³[t¡ = ?

(A) [šyà>å³[t¡

(B) [šy>å³[t¡

(C) [štõ¡>å³[t¡

(D) [šìyà>å³[t¡

II/2-A 17 [ P.T.O.

Page 18: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

83. Åô, Èô, Îô, Òô—&P¡ìºàìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ

(A) l¡üͶ¤o¢

(B) >à[ÎA¡¸¤o¢

(C) ³Òàšøào¤o¢

(D) "¿šøào¤o¢

84. ‘"àt¡à’ * ‘"àW¡à¹’ Ŧ ƒå[i¡ Òº

(A) ëƒÅã Ŧ

(B) [¤ìƒÅã Ŧ

(C) "‹¢t¡;γ Ŧ

(D) t¡Š±¤ Ŧ

85. "ìNø Ko¸ = "NøKo¸—¤¸àΤàA¡¸ÎÒ &Òü γàÎ[i¡Òº

(A) ‡–‡ γàÎ

(B) A¡³¢‹à¹Ú γàÎ

(C) t¡;šå¹ç¡È γàÎ

(D) ¤×¤øã[Ò Î³àÎ

86. ‘ƒ[¹‰t¡à’ Ŧ[i¡ Òº &A¡[i¡

(A) Ç¡‡ý¡ Ŧ

(B) "Ç¡‡ý ¡Å¦

(C) "à}[ÅA¡ Ç¡‡ý¡ Ŧ

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú¡

87. ‘"àA¡àÅ’-&¹ γà=¢A¡ Ŧ Òº

(A) l¡üƒA¡

(B) l¡ü¹K

(C) šà¹à¤à¹

(D) 뤸à³

88. ‘"àºÎ¸’ Ŧ[i¡-¹¡ šƒà”z¹ A¡¹ìº Òì¤

(A) "ºÎt¡à

(B) "ºÎ

(C) "àºÎ¸t¡à

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

89. [ÅÛ¡à=㢹 Òàìt¡¹ ëºJà Îå–ƒ¹ Òì¤ >à, ™[ƒ ëÎ

(A) [>Ú[³t¡ ëºJ๠"®¡¸àÎ >à A¡ì¹

(B) ëºJà¹ Î³Ú ™â—¤à> >à ÒÚ

(C) ëºJà¹ Î³Ú ³ì>àì™àKã >à ÒÚ

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤA¡[i¡Òü

90. &A¡\> [ÅÛ¡A¡ t¡J>Òü Îó¡º ¤ìº šø[t¡šÄ Òì¤>, ™J> [t¡[>

(A) [ÅÛ¡à=ã¢ìƒ¹ ™â— A¡ì¹ šØl¡àì¤>

(B) [ÅÛ¡à=ã¢ìƒ¹ l¡ü;Îà[Òt¡ A¡¹ì¤>

(C) [ÅÛ¡à=ã¢ìƒ¹ γθà [¤ÈìÚ "à”z[¹A¡ Òì¤>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤA¡[i¡Òü

II/2-A 18

Page 19: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

PART—IV / ®¡àKççIV

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE / K[ot¡ &¤} [¤`¡à>

[>샢[ÅA¡à : Î[k¡A¡ l¡üv¡¹ [>¤¢àW¡> A¡ì¹ >ãìW¡¹ šøÅ—P¡ìºà¹l¡üv¡¹ ƒà*¡ú

91. >ãìW¡¹ [W¡ìy AB BD^ . C &¤} P ™åv¡û¡ A¡ì¹E š™¢”z ¤[‹¢t¡ A¡¹à Òìº, x-&¹ ³à> Òì¤

(A) 18º

(B) 22º

(C) 25º

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

92. ABCD &A¡[i¡ W¡tå¡®¢å¡ì\¹ A¡o¢ ƒå[i¡ š¹Ñš¹ìA¡Î³[‡J[r¡t¡ A¡ì¹¡ú ™[ƒ Ð =A 70º ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ ( )Ð + ÐB D -&¹ ³à> Òì¤

(A) 220º

(B) 110º

(C) 200º

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 19 [ P.T.O.

Directions : Answer the following questions

by selecting the correct option.

91. In the following figure, AB BD^ . C is

joined with P and is produced to E.

Then the value of x is

(A) 18º

(B) 22º

(C) 25º

(D) None of the above

92. The two diagonals of a quadrilateral

ABCD bisect each other. If Ð =A 70º,

then the value of ( )Ð + ÐB D will be

(A) 220º

(B) 110º

(C) 200º

(D) None of the above

Candidates have to answer Question

Nos. 91 to 150 Either from Part—IV

(Mathematics and Science) Or from

Part—V (Social Studies).

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã샹 šøÅ— Î}J¸à 91 ë=ìA¡ 150 l¡üv¡¹ A¡¹ìt¡ Òì¤

ÒÚ ®¡àK–IV (K[ot¡ &¤} [¤`¡à>) ë=ìA¡ "=¤à ®¡àK–V

(γà\[¤ƒ¸à) ë=ìA¡¡ú

DC

B

A

P

E

32º

x

x +14º DC

B

A

P

E

32º

x

x +14º

Page 20: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

93. DABC-&¹ ëÛ¡ìy OB * OC ™=àyû¡ì³ ÐB

* ÐC-&¹ γ[‡Jr¡A¡ Òìº, ÐBOC-&¹ ³à> Òì¤

(A) 901

2º - ÐBAC

(B) 1801

2º - ÐBAC

(C) 901

2º + ÐBAC

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

94. &A¡[i¡ γìA¡àoã ëW¡ïšìº¹ ëA¡ï[oA¡ [¤–ƒå¹ Î}J¸à p, ‹àì¹¹ Î}J¸à q &¤} t¡ìº¹ Î}J¸à r Òìº, ( )p q r+ + -&¹ ³à> Òì¤

(A) 26

(B) 12

(C) 20

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

95. &A¡[i¡ KàØl¡ã¹ W¡àA¡à¹ ¤¸àÎ d óå¡i¡¡ú šø[t¡ [³[>ìi¡W¡àA¡à[i¡ 56 ¤à¹ ëQà칡ú 1 ³àÒüº š= "[t¡yû¡³A¡¹ìt¡ KàØl¡ã[i¡¹ Î³Ú ºàìK

(A)20

d [³[>i¡

(B)30

d [³[>i¡

(C)40

d [³[>i¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 20

93. In DABC , OB and OC are the

bisectors of ÐB and ÐC respectively.

Then the value of ÐBOC is

(A) 901

2º - ÐBAC

(B) 1801

2º - ÐBAC

(C) 901

2º + ÐBAC

(D) None of the above

94. A rectangular parallelepiped has

number of vertices p, number of

edges q and number of surfaces r.

Then the value of ( )p q r+ + is

(A) 26

(B) 12

(C) 20

(D) None of the above

95. The diameter of a wheel of a car is

d ft. The wheel revolves 56 times

in a minute. To cover 1 mile

distance, the car will take

(A)20

d minutes

(B)30

d minutes

(C)40

d minutes

(D) None of the above

Page 21: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

96. ™[ƒ ëA¡àì>à ¹à[Åt¡ì=¸¹ KØl¡ * ³‹¸³à ™=àyû¡ì³5 &¤} 6 ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ *Òü t¡ì=¸¹ Î}J¸àP¡¹ç¡ ³à>Òì¤

(A) 11

(B) 9

(C) 8

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

97. ™[ƒ ƒå[i¡ š[¹Î}J¸à [¤®¡à\ì>¹ KØl¡ ³à> M1 &¤} M 2 ÒÚ, ™J> t¡à샹 ">å¹ê¡š š[¹Î}J¸à™=àyû¡ì³ f1 &¤} f 2, t¡J> [¤®¡à\> ƒå[i¡¹Î}™åv¡û¡ KìØl¡¹ ³à> Òì¤

(A)M M

f f1 2

1 2

+

+

(B)M f M f

f f1 1 2 2

1 2

+

+

(C)M f M f

M M1 1 2 2

1 2

+

+

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

98. [>ì³—¹ šàÒü-[W¡y Åθ l¡ü;šàƒ>ìA¡ Îè[W¡t¡ A¡ì¹ :

™[ƒ ëÛ¡y A-&¹ l¡ü;šàƒ> 400 [A¡.Nøà. ÒÚ,t¡ì¤ ëÛ¡y B-&¹ l¡ü;šàƒ> Òì¤

(A) 600 [A¡.Nøà.

(B) 800 [A¡.Nøà.

(C) 900 [A¡.Nøà.

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 21 [ P.T.O.

96. If the mean and median of a

statistical data be 5 and 6 respec-

tively, then the value of mode is

(A) 11

(B) 9

(C) 8

(D) None of the above

97. If the means of two distributions are

M1 and M 2, while their respective

frequencies are f1 and f 2, then

the combined mean of the two

distributions will be

(A)M M

f f1 2

1 2

+

+

(B)M f M f

f f1 1 2 2

1 2

+

+

(C)M f M f

M M1 1 2 2

1 2

+

+

(D) None of the above

98. The following pie-charts represent

the yield of corn :

If the yield of field A is 400 kg, thenthe yield of field B will be

(A) 600 kg

(B) 800 kg

(C) 900 kg

(D) None of the above

2 cm 3 cm

Field B

Field A

ëÛ¡y A

ëÛ¡y B

2 ëÎ.[³. 3 ëÎ.[³.

Page 22: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

99. &A¡[i¡ [¤ƒå¸; l¡ü;šàƒA¡ ™ì”|¹ ³èº¸ R 60,000.™[ƒ ™”|[i¡¹ ¤à[È¢A¡ ³èº¸ Òùàìι Ò๠5% ÒÚ,t¡ì¤ ƒåÒü ¤á¹ š¹ ™”|[i¡¹ ³èº¸ Òì¤

(A) R 54,000

(B) R 54,100

(C) R 54,150

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

100. ëA¡àì>à [y®å¡ì\ t¡à¹ [¤ìÅÈ W¡à¹[i¡ [¤–ƒå γàš[t¡t¡ Òìº, [y®å¡\[i¡ Òì¤

(A) γìA¡àoã [y®å¡\

(B) γ¤à× [y®å¡\

(C) γ[‡¤à× [y®å¡\

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

101. ABCD Îà³à”z[¹ìA¡¹ AC * BD A¡o¢ ƒå[i¡š¹Ñš¹ìA¡ O [¤–ƒåìt¡ ëრA¡ì¹¡ú ™[ƒÎà³à”z[¹A¡[i¡¹ ëÛ¡yó¡º 62 ¤K¢ ëÎ.[³. ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ DOBC-&¹ ëÛ¡yó¡º Òì¤

(A) 15·5 ¤K¢ ëÎ.[³.

(B) 16·5 ¤K¢ ëÎ.[³.

(C) 15 ¤K¢ ëÎ.[³.

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

102. ™[ƒ &A¡[i¡ "àÚt¡àA¡à¹ ³àìk¡¹ íƒQ¢¸ 40% ¤àØl¡àì>à ÒÚ &¤} šøÑ‚ 10% A¡³àì>à ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ ³àk¡[i¡¹ëÛ¡yó¡ìº¹ Åt¡A¡¹à š[¹¤t¢¡ì>¹ Ò๠Òì¤

(A) 26% ¤õ[‡ý¡

(B) 30% ÒùàÎ

(C) 30% ¤õ[‡ý¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 22

99. The cost of a generator is R 60,000.

If its value depreciates at the rate of

5% p.a., then its value after two

years will be

(A) R 54,000

(B) R 54,100

(C) R 54,150

(D) None of the above

100. In a triangle, all of its four special

points are coincident. The triangle is

(A) right-angled triangle

(B) equilateral triangle

(C) isosceles triangle

(D) None of the above

101. The diagonals AC and BD of a

parallelogram ABCD intersect at O.

If the area of the parallelogram is

62 sq. cm, then the area of DOBC

will be

(A) 15·5 sq. cm

(B) 16·5 sq. cm

(C) 15 sq. cm

(D) None of the above

102. The percentage change in the area of

a rectangular field, if its length is

increased by 40% and breadth is

decreased by 10%, is

(A) 26% increase

(B) 30% decrease

(C) 30% increase

(D) None of the above

Page 23: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

103. a &¤} b ƒå[i¡ Ѭ஡à[¤A¡ Î}J¸à &¹ê¡š ë™ a b2 2- &A¡[i¡ ë³ï[ºA¡ Î}J¸à¡ú t¡ì¤a b2 2- &¹ ³à> Òì¤

(A) a b-

(B) a b+

(C) ab

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

104. ™[ƒ ( ) :( ) :2 3 3 5 18 29x y x y+ + = ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ x y: Òì¤

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 2 : 3

(C) 3 : 4

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

105. ™[ƒ x x2 6 1 0- + = ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ xx

22

1+ &¹

³à> Òì¤

(A) 30

(B) 34

(C) 32

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

106. &A¡[i¡ KàØl¡ã Qsi¡àÚ 40 [A¡.[³. ë¤ìK "àK¹t¡ºàë=ìA¡ l¡üƒÚšå¹ ™àÚ &¤} l¡üƒÚšå¹ ë=ìA¡"àK¹t¡ºà Qsi¡àÚ 60 [A¡.[³. ë¤ìK [ó¡ì¹ "àìΡú t¡ì¤ KàØl¡ã[i¡¹ ™àt¡àÚàìt¡ KØl¡ K[t¡ì¤K Òº

(A) 48 [A¡.[³./Qsi¡à

(B) 50 [A¡.[³./Qsi¡à

(C) 43 [A¡.[³./Qsi¡à

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 23 [ P.T.O.

103. a and b are two natural numbers

such that a b2 2- is a prime

number. Then the value of a b2 2- is

(A) a b-

(B) a b+

(C) ab

(D) None of the above

104. If ( ) :( ) :2 3 3 5 18 29x y x y+ + = , then

x y: equals

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 2 : 3

(C) 3 : 4

(D) None of the above

105. If x x2 6 1 0- + = , then the value of

xx

22

1+ is

(A) 30

(B) 34

(C) 32

(D) None of the above

106. A car runs from Agartala to Udaipur

at the speed of 40 km/hr and

returns from Udaipur to Agartala at

the speed of 60 km/hr. The average

speed of the car in the journey is

(A) 48 km/hr

(B) 50 km/hr

(C) 43 km/hr

(D) None of the above

Page 24: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

107. šøƒv¡ [W¡ìy ABC γìA¡àoã [y®å¡ì\¹ C [¤–ƒåìt¡Î³ìA¡ào &¤} CD AB^ . ™[ƒ AD = 2 ëÎ.[³. &¤} AB = 10 ëÎ.[³. ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ CD-&¹íƒQ¢¸ Òì¤

(A) 5 ëÎ.[³.

(B) 4 ëÎ.[³.

(C) 3 ëÎ.[³.

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

108. ëA¡àì>à &A¡ ¤¸¤ÎàÚã š¹Ñš¹ 15% &¤} 10%

áàØl¡ [ƒìÚ &A¡[i¡ ‰¤¸ [¤yû¡Ú A¡¹º¡ú *Òü ¤¸¤ÎàÚã™[ƒ &A¡Îàì= 25% áàØl¡ [ƒìÚ ‰¤¸[i¡ [¤yû¡ÚA¡¹t¡, t¡àÒìº

(A) šø=³ šøA¡à¹ áàìØl¡ J[¹„๠ºà®¡¤à> Òìt¡>

(B) [‡t¡ãÚ šøA¡à¹ áàìØl¡ J[¹„๠ºà®¡¤à> Òìt¡>

(C) l¡ü®¡Ú šøA¡à¹ áàìØl¡Òü J[¹„àì¹¹ l¡üš¹ γà>šø®¡à¤ šØl¡t¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 24

107. In the given figure, DABC is

right-angled at C and CD AB^ . If

AD = 2 cm and AB = 10 cm, then the

length of CD is

(A) 5 cm

(B) 4 cm

(C) 3 cm

(D) None of the above

108. A businessman sold an article after

allowing 15% and 10% successive

discounts to a customer. If the

businessman would have sold the

article allowing 25% discount at a

time, then

(A) the first type of discount is

profitable to the customer

(B) the second type of discount is

profitable to the customer

(C) both types of discount have

same effect on the customer

(D) None of the above

C B

A

D

C B

A

D

Page 25: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

109. &A¡ "Îà‹å ¤¸¤ÎàÚã [¤ìyû¡t¡à * ëyû¡t¡à l¡ü®¡ÚìA¡Òü10% A¡ì¹ k¡A¡àÚ¡ú ¤¸¤ÎàÚã[i¡ šøAõ¡t¡šìÛ¡Åt¡A¡¹à ºà®¡ A¡ì¹

(A) 20%

(B) 21%

(C) 25%

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

110. ™[ƒ &A¡[i¡ º´¬¤õv¡àA¡à¹ ÅS塹 "àÚt¡> V , ®è¡[³¹

ëÛ¡yó¡º A &¤} l¡üZW¡t¡à H ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ AH

V-&¹

³à> Òì¤

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

111. 0·12 ëA¡ p

q "àA¡àì¹ šøA¡àÅ A¡¹ìº ( )p q+ -&¹

³à> Òì¤

(A) 28

(B) 21

(C) 17

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

112. ™[ƒ xx

+ =1

3 ÒÚ, t¡ì¤ xx

55

1+ &¹ ³à>

Òì¤

(A) 133

(B) 143

(C) 123

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 25 [ P.T.O.

109. A dishonest businessman defrauds

to the extent 10% both in buying

and in selling goods. The actual gain

percent of the businessman is

(A) 20%

(B) 21%

(C) 25%

(D) None of the above

110. If V be the volume of a right circular

cone, A be the area of the base and

H be its height, then the value ofAH

V is

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) None of the above

111. If 0·12 is expressed in the form of p

q,

then the value of ( )p q+ is

(A) 28

(B) 21

(C) 17

(D) None of the above

112. If xx

+ =1

3, then the value of xx

55

1+

is

(A) 133

(B) 143

(C) 123

(D) None of the above

Page 26: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

113. ( ) ( ) ( )x x x- + - + - =1 2 3 02 2 2

γãA¡¹ìo¹ ëÛ¡ìy

(A) x-&¹ ³à> 1, 2, 3

(B) x-&¹ ³à> – 1, – 2, – 3

(C) x-&¹ ëA¡àì>à ¤àÑz¤ ³à> ë>Òü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

114. &A¡[i¡ ¹´¬ìι A¡o¢‡ìÚ¹ "”z¤¢t¢¡ã ëA¡ào Òº

(A) 80º

(B) 90º

(C) 60º

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

115. ">å¤ÞꡳèºA¡ >ã[t¡ ">å™àÚã K[oìt¡ A¡t¡ šøA¡à¹">å¤Þê¡ "àìá?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

116. K[oìt¡ še¡³ [>Ú³[i¡ Òº

(A) ë™àìK¹ [>Ú³

(B) ®¡àìK¹ [>Ú³

(C) Îà‹à¹o `¡à> šøìÚàìK¹ [>Ú³

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 26

113. For the equation

( ) ( ) ( )x x x- + - + - =1 2 3 02 2 2

(A) values of x are 1, 2, 3

(B) values of x are – 1, – 2, – 3

(C) there is no real value of x

(D) None of the above

114. The angle between two diagonals of

a rhombus is

(A) 80º

(B) 90º

(C) 60º

(D) None of the above

115. How many types of correlation of

mathematics are there based on the

principle of correlation?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) None of the above

116. The fifth rule of mathematics is

(A) addition rule

(B) division rule

(C) the rule for application of

general knowledge

(D) None of the above

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117. šøK[t¡Å㺠¤à "à‹å[>A¡ [ÅÛ¡àš‡ý¡[t¡ Òº

(A) [ÅÇ¡ìA¡[–ƒøA¡ š‡ý¡[t¡

(B) [ÅÛ¡A¡ìA¡[–ƒøA¡ š‡ý¡[t¡

(C) ѬÚ}-[ÅJ> š‡ý¡[t¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

118. [ÅÛ¡ìo šøA¡¿ š‡ý¡[t¡¹ l¡üŠ±à¤A¡ Òìº>

(A) &ÒüW¡. Òü. "ೢСö}

(B) ÒüÚ}

(C) \> [l¡l¡üÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

119. ³¸àA¡-&¹ ³ìt¡ K[oìt¡¹ í¤[ÅÊ¡¸ ÒìZá

(A) [W¡”z஡à¤>à Î}[Û¡œ¡ A¡¹à

(B) [W¡”z஡à¤>à [¤Ñz๠A¡¹à

(C) ή¡¸t¡à [¤A¡àÅ A¡¹à

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

120. ‘‘K[ot¡ γÑz [¤`¡àì>¹ šøì¤Å‡à¹ *W¡à[¤A¡à[k¡¡ú’’ l¡ü[v¡û¡[i¡ A¡ì¹>

(A) ëšÃìi¡à

(B) ë¤A¡>

(C) ÒüÚ}

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 27 [ P.T.O.

117. The method for progressive or

modern education system is

(A) child-centric method

(B) teacher-centric method

(C) self-learning method

(D) None of the above

118. The founder of the project method in

teaching is

(A) H. E. Armstrong

(B) Young

(C) John Dewey

(D) None of them

119. According to Mach, the charac-

teristic of mathematics is

(A) to concise thinking

(B) to expand thinking

(C) to develop civilization

(D) None of the above

120. ‘‘Mathematics is the gateway and

key to all sciences.’’ It is quoted by

(A) Plato

(B) Bacon

(C) Young

(D) None of them

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121. Û塉àì”| ë™ Î¤ Jà샸¹ š[¹šàìA¡¹ ó¡ìº"¸à³àÒüì>à "¸à[Îl¡ l¡ü;šÄ ÒÚ, ëÎÒü Jà샸¹šø‹à> l¡üšàƒà>[i¡ Òº

(A) A¡à줢àÒàÒüìl¡öi¡

(B) ó¡¸ài¡

(C) [®¡i¡à[³>

(D) ëšøà[i¡>

122. l¡ü[Š±ìƒ¹ &A¡[i¡ ³àÒüìyû¡à[>l¡ü[i¡öìÚ–i¡ * &A¡[i¡³¸àìyû¡à[>l¡ü[i¡öìÚ–i¡ Òº ™=àyû¡ì³

(A) Fe &¤} Mg

(B) N &¤} C

(C) P &¤} Zn

(D) S &¤} Ca

123. ël¡Úà¹ã¹ ƒå‹ * l¡ü[Š±ð šƒàì=¢¹ ëA¡àÒº ÎÞê¡àì>¹ \>¸ šøìÚà\>ãÚ ¤¸àAô¡ìi¡[¹Úà Òº

(A) ¹àÒüì\à[¤Úà³

(B) ëÒ ¤¸à[κàÎ

(C) º¸àìC¡à¤¸à[κàÎ

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

124. [‡šyA¡ A¡šà[i¡A¡à =àìA¡

(A) Òê¡;[šìr¡¹ ¤à³[ƒìA¡

(B) Òê¡;[šìr¡¹ l¡à>[ƒìA¡

(C) Òê¡;[šìr¡¹ l¡ü®¡Ú [ƒìA¡Òü

(D) Òê¡;[šìr¡¹ ÎA¡º ‹³>ãìt¡

125. l¡ü[Š±ìƒ ™à¹ ³à‹¸ì³ Î}¤Ò> ÒÚ t¡à Òº

(A) \àÒü캳

(B) ëóáàìÚ³

(C) (A) &¤} (B) l¡ü®¡ÚÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 28

121. The digestion of a particular food in

the small intestine produces amino

acids. The food contains mainly

(A) carbohydrate

(B) fat

(C) vitamin

(D) protein

122. One micronutrient and one macro-

nutrient of plants are respectively

(A) Fe and Mg

(B) N and C

(C) P and Zn

(D) S and Ca

123. The bacteria responsible for

fermentation of dairy milk and plant

product are

(A) Rhizobium

(B) Hay bacillus

(C) Lactobacillus

(D) None of the above

124. Bicuspid valve is found in

(A) the left side of heart

(B) the right side of heart

(C) both sides of heart

(D) all the ar ter ies of heart

125. Conduction in plants occurs

through

(A) xylem

(B) phloem

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

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126. [>³—[º[Jt¡P¡ìºà¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>ô ¤v¡û¡¤¸[i¡ Î[k¡A¡ >Ú?

(A) γÑz Τå\ l¡ü[Š±ƒ &¤} >ãº-Τå\ íŤàºÒº l¡ü;šàƒA¡¡ú

(B) Τå\ l¡ü[Š±ƒ t¡à샹 Jàƒ¸ NøÒo A¡ì¹ í\¤ë™ïK ë=ìA¡¡ú

(C) l¡ü;šàƒA¡¹à t¡à샹 Jàƒ¸ ít¡¹ã A¡ì¹ "î\¤ë™ïK ë=ìA¡¡ú

(D) l¡ü[Š±ƒ ëÎï¹Å[v¡û¡ìA¡ ¹àÎàÚ[>A¡ Å[v¡û¡ìt¡š[¹¤[t¢¡t¡ A¡ì¹¡ú

127. Jàƒ¸-\àºìA¡¹ ³ì‹¸ Å[v¡û¡¹ šø¤àÒ

(A) &A¡³åJã

(B) ¤×³åJã

(C) (A) &¤} (B) l¡ü®¡ÚÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

128. [>³—[º[Jt¡P¡ìºà¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ \[³ìt¡ Îà¹[ÒÎàì¤ ¤¸¤Òê¡t¡ ÒÚ?

(A) >àÒüìi¡öàì\>

(B) CaO

(C) CaNCN

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤP¡ìºàÒü

129. ®è¡t¡º-ëÎìW¡ \º ¤[si¡t¡ ÒÚ

(A) "[®¡A¡È¢ ‡à¹à

(B) šàì´š¹ ‡à¹à

(C) (A) &¤} (B) l¡ü®¡ÚÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

130. "àƒÅ¢ "´Ã¤õ[Ê¡¹ pH Òº

(A) 7–6·6

(B) 6·6–6

(C) < 5·6

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 29 [ P.T.O.

126. Which of the following statements is

incorrect?

(A) All green plants and blue-green

algae are producers.

(B) Green plants get their food from

organic compounds.

(C) Producers prepare their own

food from inorganic compounds.

(D) Plants convert solar energy into

chemical energy.

127. Energy flow in the food web is

(A) unidirectional

(B) multidirectional

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

128. Which of the following is used as

fertilizer?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) CaO

(C) CaNCN

(D) All of the above

129. In surface irrigation, water is

distributed across the land by

(A) gravity

(B) pump

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

130. The pH of a typical acid rain is

(A) 7–6·6

(B) 6·6–6

(C) < 5·6

(D) None of the above

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131. 1984 Îà캹 ®è¡šàº K¸àÎ ƒåQ¢i¡>๠A¡à¹o 񼑪 [³=àÒüº "àÒüìÎàÎàÚà>àÒül¡ [¤[yû¡Úà A¡ì¹[áº

(A) >àÒüìi¡öàì\ì>¹ ÎìU

(B) \캹 ÎìU

(C) A¡à¤¢> l¡àÒü"GàÒüìl¡¹ ÎìU

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤP¡ìºàÒü

132. >ãìW¡¹ ëºJ[W¡ìy ιºì¹Jà AB

(A) γŒ¹o Îè[W¡t¡ A¡ì¹

(B) Œ¹ìo¹ ¤õ[‡ý¡ Îè[W¡t¡ A¡ì¹

(C) γìÚ¹ Îàì= &A¡Òü ιo Îè[W¡t¡ A¡ì¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

133. 20 m/s2 Œ¹o™åv¡û¡ 150 g ®¡ì¹¹ &A¡[i¡¤ºìA¡ 0·1 s Î³Ú ‹ì¹ "àQàt¡ A¡¹à Òº¡út¡àÒìº Qàt¡ Òì¤

(A) 1·2 N s (B) 0·3 N s

(C) 0·1 N s (D) 0·5 N s

134. x ºC = x ºF, ™J> x-&¹ ³à> Òº

(A) 0 (B) – 29

(C) – 68 (D) – 40

135. ëA¡à>ô ³à‹¸ì³ Ŧ t¡àØl¡àt¡à[Øl¡ ™àÚ?

(A) A¡[k¡>

(B) t¡¹º

(C) K¸àÎ

(D) Åè>¸

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 30

131. Bhopal Gas Tragedy of 1984 took

place because methyl isocyanide

reacted with

(A) nitrogen

(B) water

(C) carbon dioxide

(D) All of the above

132. The straight line AB in the graph

shown below indicates the

(A) constant acceleration

(B) increase in acceleration

(C) constant displacement with

time

(D) None of the above

133. A ball of mass 150 g moving with

an acceleration 20 m/s2 is hit by a

force which acts on it for 0·1 s. The

impulse is

(A) 1·2 N s (B) 0·3 N s

(C) 0·1 N s (D) 0·5 N s

134. x ºC = x ºF, when the value of x is

(A) 0 (B) – 29

(C) – 68 (D) – 40

135. In which medium, sound travels

faster?

(A) Solid

(B) Liquid

(C) Gas

(D) Vac uum

A

B

Velocity

Time

A

B

γÚ

ë¤K

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136. ÒüìºìC¡öàìÑHàš "à[¤ÍH๠A¡ì¹[áìº>

(A) l¡üÒü[ºÚà³ [Kº¤ài¢¡

(B) ë¤gà[³> óø¡àS¡[º>

(C) θ๠"àÒü\àA¡ [>l¡üi¡>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

137. ƒå[i¡ "à‹àì>¹ ³ì‹¸ ¤ìº¹ š[¹³ào 900 N.&J> ™[ƒ t¡à샹 ƒè¹Œ ™à [Ạt¡à¹ [t¡>P¡o ÒÚ,t¡àÒìº t¡à샹 ³ì‹¸ ¤ìº¹ š[¹³ào Òì¤

(A) 300 N

(B) 100 N

(C) 30 N

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

138. l¡üv¡º ƒš¢ìo¹ šø[t¡[¤´¬

(A) Î¤Î³Ú Îƒô ÒÚ

(B) Î¤Î³Ú "[®¡[Û¡œ¡ (projected) ÒÚ

(C) Î¤Î³Ú "΃ô ÒÚ

(D) A¡Jì>à "΃ô ÒÚ >à

139. 20 ëÎ.[³. ëó¡àA¡àÎ ƒè¹Œ™åv¡û¡ &A¡[i¡ l¡üv¡º ëºXë=ìA¡ 30 ëÎ.[³. ƒèì¹ ™[ƒ ëA¡àì>à ¤Ññ =àìA¡,t¡àÒìº t¡à¹ šø[t¡[¤ì´¬¹ šøAõ¡[t¡ * [¤¤‹¢> Òì¤

(A) ëÎà\à &¤} ƒåP¡o [¤¤[‹¢t¡

(B) l¡üìÂi¡à &¤} W¡à¹P¡o [¤¤[‹¢t¡

(C) ëÎà\à &¤} W¡à¹P¡o [¤¤[‹¢t¡

(D) l¡üìÂi¡à &¤} ƒåP¡o [¤¤[‹¢t¡

140. ëA¡à>ô ëÎï¹NøìÒ¹ &A¡[i¡ [ƒ> t¡à¹ ¤áì¹¹ ëW¡ìÚº´¬à?

(A) ¤å‹

(B) Ç¡yû¡

(C) ¤õÒÑš[t¡

(D) Å[>

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 31 [ P.T.O.

136. Electroscope was invented by

(A) William Gilbert

(B) Benjamin Franklin

(C) Sir Isaac Newton

(D) None of them

137. The force between two charges is

900 N. If the distance between the

charges becomes three times, the

force will be

(A) 300 N

(B) 100 N

(C) 30 N

(D) None of the above

138. The image formed by a convex

mirror will

(A) always be real

(B) always be projected

(C) always be virtual

(D) never be vir tual

139. If an object is placed at a distance of

30 cm from a convex lens of focal

length 20 cm, then the nature and

magnification of the image will be

(A) erect and two times magnified

(B) inverted and four times

magnified

(C) erect and four times magnified

(D) in verted and two times

magnified

140. The solar planet that has a day

longer than its year is

(A) Mercury

(B) Venus

(C) Jupiter

(D) Sat urn

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141. ëA¡à>ô ëÎï¹NøÒ[i¡ šø‹à>t¡@ K¸àÎ [ƒìÚ ít¡¹ã?

(A) ¤å‹ (B) Ç¡yû¡(C) ³Uº (D) ¤õÒÑš[t¡

142. [>³—[º[Jt¡P¡ìºà¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ "ì´Ã¹ ‹³¢ >Ú?

(A) ºàº [ºi¡³àÎìA¡ >㺠A¡ì¹

(B) Ñ¬àƒ i¡A¡

(C) ÒàÒüìl¡öàì\> "àÚ> ëƒÚ

(D) ëšøài¡> ƒà> A¡¹ìt¡ šàì¹

143. t¡[Øl¡;-¹àÎàÚ[>A¡ Îà¹oã ">å™àÚã Q>ÒàÒüìl¡öàìAáà[¹A¡ "¸à[Îl¡ ë=ìA¡ ëA¡à>ô ë³ïº[i¡ÒàÒüìl¡öàì\> l¡ü;šÄ A¡¹ìt¡ šàì¹ >à?

(A) Na (B) K

(C) Ca (D) Au

144. >ãìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô ë³ïº[i¡ t¡[Øl¡; š[¹¤Òì> ÎÛ¡³?

(A) S (B) P

(C) Br (D) C

145. ‹àt¡¤ ë³ïº Î}J¸à * "‹àt¡¤ ë³ïº Î}J¸à¹">åšàt¡ Òº

(A) 1-&¹ ëW¡ìÚ ë¤Åã

(B) 1-&¹ ëW¡ìÚ A¡³

(C) 1-&¹ γà>

(D) [>[ƒ¢Ê¡ A¡¹à ™àÚ >à

146. [>³—[º[Jt¡ ¤v¡û¡¤¸P¡ìºà¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ [k¡A¡?

(A) [³Åøo [yû¡Úà Î¤Î³Ú &A¡[i¡ 뮡ït¡š[¹¤t¢¡>¡ú

(B) [³Åøo [yû¡Úà Î¤Î³Ú &A¡[i¡ 뮡ït¡ &¤}&A¡[i¡ ¹àÎàÚ[>A¡ š[¹¤t¢¡>¡ú

(C) [³Åøo [yû¡Úà Î¤Î³Ú &A¡[i¡ ¹àÎàÚ[>A¡š[¹¤t¢¡>¡ú

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 32

141. The solar planet made up of mainlygas is

(A) Mer cury (B) Ve nus

(C) Mars (D) Ju pi ter

142. Which of the following is not aproperty of acids?

(A) Turning red litmus blue

(B) Having a sour taste

(C) Yielding hydrogen ions

(D) Being proton donors

143. According to electrochemical series,hydrogen cannot be obtained fromthe reaction of concentrated hydro-chloric acid and the element

(A) Na (B) K

(C) Ca (D) Au

144. Which of the following elements canconduct electricity?

(A) S (B) P

(C) Br (D) C

145. The ratio between the total numberof metal elements and that ofnon-metal elements is

(A) greater than 1

(B) lesser than 1

(C) equal to 1

(D) un de fined

146. Which of the following statements iscorrect?

(A) Making mixture is always a

physical change.

(B) Making mixture is always a

physical as well as a chemical

change.

(C) Making mixture is always a

chemical change.

(D) None of the above

Page 33: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

147. W¡A¡W¡ìA¡ (Lustre) "‹àt¡¤ ë³ïº Òº

(A) Îàºó¡à¹

(B) ó¡Îó¡¹àÎ

(C) "àìÚà[l¡>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤP¡ìºàÒü

148. [¤`¡à> [Åۡ๠ºÛ¡¸ Òº

(A) šøàt¡¸[ÒA¡ \ã¤ì> A¡à™¢A¡¹ã ë³ï[ºA¡ >ã[t¡ *‹à¹oà δšìA¢¡ `¡à> ºà®¡ A¡¹à

(B) šøAõ¡[t¡¹ [yû¡ÚàA¡ºàšìA¡ [¤>¸Ñz &¤} ¤¸àJ¸àA¡¹à

(C) (A) &¤} (B) l¡ü®¡ÚÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

149. &A¡\> [¤`¡à> [ÅÛ¡ìA¡¹ ®è¡[³A¡à Òº

(A) [¤`¡à> [\`¡àÎ๠ƒÛ¡t¡à¹ l¡üÄÚ> A¡¹à

(B) l¡üZW¡[Åۡ๠\>¸ ">åšøà[ot¡ A¡¹à

(C) [¤`¡à> * A¡ºà[¤®¡àìK¹ "[‹Aõ¡t¡ Ñ‚à>γèìÒ¹ šà=¢A¡¸ ëƒJàì>à

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤP¡ìºàÒü

150. [>³—[º[Jt¡ ¤v¡û¡¤¸P¡ìºà¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ Ît¡¸?

(A) [¤`¡à>δ¶t¡®¡àì¤ Î´šÄ A¡à\ ΤγÚ[>Jåòt¡ ÒÚ¡ú

(B) [¤`¡à>δ¶t¡®¡àì¤ Î´šÄ A¡à\ìA¡ W¡¸àìºgA¡¹à ™àÚ >à¡ú

(C) [¤`¡à>δ¶t¡®¡àì¤ Î´šÄ A¡à\ t¡à¹Òü[t¡Òàìι l¡üš¹ ƒòà[Øl¡ìÚ =àìA¡¡ú

(D) Òü[t¡Òàìι ÎìU [¤`¡àì>¹ ëA¡àì>à δšA¢¡ë>Òü¡ú

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

II/2-A 33 [ P.T.O.

147. Lustre of the non-metal can be seen

in

(A) sulphur

(B) phosphorus

(C) iodine

(D) All of the above

148. The aim of science education is

(A) to acquire the knowledge of

fundamental principles and

concepts useful in daily life

(B) to organize and interpret the

functions of nature

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

149. The role of a science teacher is

(A) to develop skills of scientific

inquiry

(B) to motivate for higher study

(C) to show the differences of

domains between science and

arts

(D) All of the above

150. Which of the following statements is

true?

(A) Scientific achievement is always

perfect.

(B) Scientific achievement cannot

be challenged.

(C) Scientific achievement stands

on its history.

(D) History has no relation with

science.

Page 34: This Book let con tains UP17—II Ques tion Book let No. ‡å ... Paper- T-TET...2. This test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes duration and consists of 150 MCQ-type questions. 3.There

II/2-A 34

Directions : Answer the following questions

by selecting the correct option.

91. The dockyard of the Indus Valley

Civilization has been discovered at

(A) Mohenjo Daro

(B) Harappa

(C) Lothal

(D) None of the above

92. Northern India was known as

‘Aryavarta’ during the

(A) Vedic period

(B) Gupta period

(C) Maurya period

(D) None of the above

93. The last Tirthankara of Jainism was

(A) Parshvanath

(B) Mahavira

(C) Ajitnath

(D) None of them

94. Gautam Buddha delivered his first

sermon at

(A) Sarnath

(B) Gaya

(C) Rajgriha

(D) None of the above

95. After the Kalinga War, Ashoka

adopted the Policy of

(A) Ahimsa

(B) Dharmavijaya

(C) Digvijaya

(D) None of the above

[>샢[ÅA¡à : Î[k¡A¡ l¡üv¡¹ [>¤¢àW¡> A¡ì¹ >ãìW¡¹ šøÅ—P¡[º¹l¡üv¡¹ ƒà*¡ú

91. [ÎÞêå¡Î®¡¸t¡àÚ ëšàt¡àÅøÚ "à[¤ÍAõ¡t¡ ÒìÚìá

(A) ³ìÒìgàƒàì¹àìt¡

(B) Ò¹Ùàìt¡

(C) ëºà=àìº

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

92. l¡üv¡¹ ®¡à¹t¡ ‘"à™¢à¤t¢¡’ >àì³ š[¹[W¡t¡ [áº

(A) í¤[ƒA¡ ™åìK

(B) P¡œ¡™åìK

(C) ë³ï™¢ ™åìK

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

93. í\>‹ì³¢¹ Τ¢ìÅÈ t¡ã=¢}A¡¹ [áìº>

(A) šàÅ«¢>à=

(B) ³Òà¤ã¹

(C) "[\t¡>à=

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

94. ëKït¡³ ¤å‡ý¡ tò¡à¹ šø=³ ‹ì³¢àšìƒÅ ëƒ>

(A) Îà¹>àì=

(B) KÚàìt¡

(C) ¹à\KõìÒ

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

95. A¡[ºU ™åì‡ý¡¹ š¹ "ìÅàA¡

(A) "[Ò}Î >ã[t¡ NøÒo A¡ì¹>

(B) ‹³¢[¤\Ú >ã[t¡ NøÒo A¡ì¹>

(C) [ƒ[M\Ú >ã[t¡ NøÒo A¡ì¹>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

Candidates have to answer Question Nos. 91

to 150 Either from Part—IV (Mathematics

and Science) Or from Part—V (Social

Studies).

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã샹 šøÅ— Î}J¸à 91 ë=ìA¡ 150 l¡üv¡¹ A¡¹ìt¡ Òì¤

ÒÚ ®¡àK—IV (K[ot¡ &¤} [¤`¡à>) ë=ìA¡ "=¤à ®¡àK—V

(γà\[¤ƒ¸à) ë=ìA¡¡ú

PART—V / ®¡àKççV

SOCIAL STUDIES / γà\[¤ƒ¸à

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96. During the Gupta Age,

Varahamihira was a/an

(A) sculptor

(B) artist

(C) scientist

(D) None of the above

97. The origin of Dravidian style of

architecture in South India started

with

(A) the Pallavas

(B) the Cholas

(C) the Chalukyas

(D) None of them

98. The First Battle of Tarain was fought

in the year

(A) 1191 AD

(B) 1192 AD

(C) 1193 AD

(D) None of the above

99. Bhakti means

(A) devotion to God

(B) sacrifice for God

(C) reluctance towards God

(D) None of the above

100. Between whom was the Second

Battle of Panipat fought?

(A) Babar and Rana Pratap

(B) Akbar and Hemu

(C) Akbar and Sher Shah

(D) None of them

96. P¡œ¡™åìK ¤¹àÒ[³[Ò¹ [áìº> &A¡\>

(A) ®¡àÑH¹

(B) [W¡yA¡¹

(C) [¤`¡à>ã

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

97. ƒ[Û¡o ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ Ñ‚àšìt¡¸ ‰à[¤Øl¡ ¹ã[t¡¹ l¡üŠ±à¤A¡[áìº>

(A) šÀ¤¹à

(B) ëW¡àº¹à

(C) W¡àºåA¡¸¹à

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

98. t¡¹àÒüì>¹ šø=³ ™å‡ý¡ ÒìÚ[áº

(A) 1191 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(B) 1192 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(C) 1193 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

99. ®¡[v¡û¡ Òº

(A) #Å«ì¹¹ šø[t¡ ">å¹àK

(B) #Å«ì¹¹ \>¸ "àut¡¸àK

(C) #Å«¹ δ¬ìÞê¡ [¤tõ¡Ì¡à

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

100. [‡t¡ãÚ šà[ošì=¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡à샹 ³ì‹¸ ÒìÚ[áº?

(A) ¤à¤¹ &¤} ¹àoàšøt¡àìš¹ ³ì‹¸

(B) "àA¡¤¹ &¤} [Ò³å¹ ³ì‹¸

(C) "àA¡¤¹ &¤} ëŹÅàìÒ¹ ³ì‹¸

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

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101. The ‘Buland Darwaza’, a famous

Mughal architectural monument, is

located in

(A) Secunderabad

(B) Agra Fort

(C) Fatehpur Sikri

(D) None of the above

102. Two Generals of Siraj-ud-Daulah

who fought against the English were

(A) Amir Chand and Mohanlal

(B) Mir Madan and Shaukat Jung

(C) Mohanlal and Mir Madan

(D) None of them

103. The social evil ‘Sati’ was prohibited

in the year

(A) 1828 AD

(B) 1829 AD

(C) 1830 AD

(D) None of the above

104. Which Charter Act first granted one

lakh rupees for the cause of

Education of Indians?

(A) 1813 AD

(B) 1833 AD

(C) 1854 AD

(D) None of the above

105. How many marriage forms are there

among the Tripuris?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 1

(D) None of the above

101. [¤J¸àt¡ ³åKº Ñ‚àšìt¡¸¹ Ѷõ[t¡Ñz ± ‘¤åº–ƒƒ¹*Úà\à’ "¤[Ñ‚t¡

(A) ëÎìA¡–ƒøà¤àìƒ

(B) "àNøà ëA¡ÀàÚ

(C) ó¡ìt¡šå¹ [Î[yû¡ìt¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

102. Òü}ì¹\샹 [¤šìÛ¡ ™å‡ý¡¹t¡ [ιà\ìƒïÀ๠ƒåÒü\>ëÎ>àš[t¡ [áìº>

(A) "à[³¹Wò¡àƒ &¤} ë³àÒ>ºàº

(B) ³ã¹³ƒ> &¤} ëÎïA¡; \}

(C) ë³àÒ>ºàº &¤} ³ã¹³ƒ>

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

103. γàì\¹ ¤¸à[‹ ‘Ît¡ã’ [>[ȇý¡ ÒìÚ[áº

(A) 1828 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(B) 1829 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(C) 1830 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

104. ëA¡à>ô W¡ài¢¡à¹ "¸àìC¡ šø=³ ®¡à¹t¡ãÚ샹 [Åۡ๠\>¸ &A¡ ºÛ¡ i¡àA¡à ">åƒà> ëƒ*Úà ÒÚ?

(A) 1813 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(B) 1833 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(C) 1854 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

105. [yšå¹ã샹 ³ì‹¸ A¡Ú šøA¡à¹ í¤¤à[ÒA¡ šø=àšøW¡[ºt¡?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 1

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

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106. The average circumference of the

earth is

(A) 25000 km

(B) 40001 km

(C) 40000 km

(D) None of the above

107. The longitude of Greenwich is

extended at

(A) 1°

(B) 0°

(C) 0 30° ¢

(D) None of the above

108. The Barysphere is made of

(A) silica and nickel

(B) aluminium and nickel

(C) nickel and ferrous

(D) None of the above

109. Shale is transformed into which of

the following?

(A) Marble

(B) Slate

(C) China clay

(D) None of the above

106. šõ[=¤ã¹ KØl¡ š[¹[‹ Òº

(A) 25000 [A¡.[³.

(B) 40001 [A¡.[³.

(C) 40000 [A¡.[³.

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

107. Nøã[>ìW¡¹ ‰à[Q³à ë¹Jà[i¡¹ "¤Ñ‚à> Òº

(A) 1°

(B) 0°

(C) 0 30° ¢

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

108. ¤¸à[¹[Ñ£¡Ú๠K[k¡t¡ ÒÚ

(A) [Î[ºA¡à &¤} [>ìA¡º ‡à¹à

(B) "¸àºå[³[>Úà³ &¤} [>ìA¡º ‡à¹à

(C) [>ìA¡º &¤} ëºïÒ ‡à¹à

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

109. ëź ¹ê¡šà”z[¹t¡ ÒÚ >ãìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ìt¡?

(A) ³à줢º

(B) ëÅÃi¡

(C) W¡àÚ>à ëAá

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

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II/2-A 38

110. Which depositional landform is

produced by sea waves?

(A) Bar

(B) Sea cave

(C) Stack

(D) None of the above

111. The tropopause layer is situated

between

(A) stratosphere and mesosphere

(B) troposphere and stratosphere

(C) stratosphere and mesopause

(D) None of the above

112. ‘Sargasso Sea’ is found in the

centre of

(A) the Pacific Ocean

(B) the Atlantic Ocean

(C) the Indian Ocean

(D) None of the above

113. Exfoliation is the effect of

(A) maximum temperature

(B) maximum pressure

(C) maximum cooling

(D) None of the above

114. In India, the maximum rural

settlement is found in

(A) Jammu and Kashmir

(B) West Bengal

(C) Kerala

(D) None of the above

110. Î³å‰ t¡¹ìU¹ Îe¡Ú A¡à왢¹ ®è¡[³¹ê¡š Òº

(A) ¤òà‹

(B) Î³å‰ P¡Òà

(C) С¸àA¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

111. i¡öìšàšÎô Ñz¹[i¡ "¤[Ñ‚t¡

(A) Сö¸àìi¡à[Ñ£¡Ú๠&¤} ë³ìÎà[Ñ£¡Úàì¹¹ ³ì‹¸

(B) i¡öìšà[Ñ£¡Ú๠&¤} Сö¸àìi¡à[Ñ£¡Úàì¹¹ ³ì‹¸

(C) Сö¸àìi¡à[Ñ£¡Ú๠&¤} ë³ìÎàšìι ³ì‹¸

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

112. ‘íŤຠÎàK¹’ ëƒJìt¡ šà*Úà ™àÚ

(A) šøÅà”z ³ÒàÎàKì¹

(B) "ài¡ºà[si¡A¡ ³ÒàÎàKì¹

(C) ®¡à¹t¡ ³ÒàÎàKì¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

113. &Gìó¡à[ºìÚÅ>ô ÒÚ

(A) "[‹A¡ t¡àš³ày๠\>¸

(B) "[‹A¡ W¡àìš¹ \>¸

(C) "[‹A¡ Åãt¡ºãA¡¹ìo¹ \>¸

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

114. ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ Τ¢à[‹A¡ [¤[Û¡œ¡ Nø೸¤Î[t¡ ëƒJà ™àÚ

(A) \´¶å * A¡àƵãì¹

(B) š[ÆW¡³¤ìU

(C) ëA¡¹àºàÚ

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

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115. The earliest modern means of

communication system is

(A) Post and Telegraph

(B) Press and Print Media

(C) Telephone and Internet

(D) satellites

116. Black cotton soil of India is called

(A) khadar

(B) bhangar

(C) regur

(D) None of the above

117. A famous atomic mineral found

along the Kerala coast is

(A) uranium

(B) zirconium

(C) thorium

(D) None of the above

118. Oilseeds are very important group of

(A) food crops

(B) commercial crops

(C) plantation crops

(D) None of the above

115. ‰ç¡t¡t¡³ "à‹å[>A¡ ë™àKàì™àK ¤¸¤Ñ‚à Òº

(A) l¡àA¡ &¤} ëi¡[ºNøàó¡

(B) Î}¤àƒšy * ">¸à>¸ ³å[‰t¡ ³à‹¸³

(C) ƒè¹®¡àÈ * Òüsi¡à¹ì>i¡ ¤¸¤Ñ‚à

(D) Aõ¡[y³ l¡üšNøÒ

116. ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ Aõ¡Ì¡ A¡àš¢àÎ ³õ[v¡A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ

(A) Jàƒà¹

(B) ®¡àUà¹

(C) ë¹P¡¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

117. &A¡[i¡ [¤J¸àt¡ šà¹³ào[¤A¡ J[>\ šƒà=¢ ëA¡¹àºàl¡üšAè¡ìº ëƒJìt¡ šà*Úà ™àÚ, ëÎ[i¡ Òº

(A) Òül¡üì¹[>Úà³

(B) [\¹ìA¡à[>Úà³

(C) ë=à[¹Úà³

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

118. ít¡º¤ã\P¡[º Òº P¡¹ç¡Œšèo¢

(A) Jàƒ¸Åθ

(B) ¤à[o[\¸A¡ Åθ

(C) ¤à[KW¡à Åθ

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

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119. A coal-based iron and steel centre is

located in

(A) ‘Ruhr’ of Germany

(B) Ukraine

(C) Cleveland

(D) Salem

120. The word ‘hazard’ is derived from

(A) British English and American

English

(B) French and Arabic languages

(C) Hindi and Urdu languages

(D) None of the above

121. Who wrote the book, Caste in Indian

Politics?

(A) Rajni Kothari

(B) R. P. Dutta

(C) M. K. Gandhi

(D) None of them

122. “Man is a political animal.” Who said

this?

(A) Plato

(B) Aristotle

(C) Auguste Comte

(D) None of them

123. Who is regarded as Father of

Sociology?

(A) Auguste Comte

(B) Herbert Spencer

(C) Plato

(D) None of them

119. A¡ÚºàJ[>-ëA¡[–ƒøA¡ &A¡[i¡ ëºïÒ-ÒüÑšàt¡ [Å¿ìA¡–ƒø Òº

(A) \à³¢à>ã¹ ‘¹ç¡Øn¡’

(B) Òül¡üìyû¡>

(C) Aá㮡º¸à“¡

(D) Îà캳

120. ‘Haz ard’ Ŧ[i¡¹ l¡ü;š[v¡ ÒÚ

(A) ¤õ[i¡Å Òü}¹à\ã &¤} "àì³[¹A¡à> Òü}¹à\ãë=ìA¡

(B) ëóø¡e¡ &¤} "๤㠮¡àÈà ë=ìA¡

(C) [Ò[–ƒ &¤} l¡üƒ¢å ®¡àÈà ë=ìA¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

121. Caste in In dian Pol i tics Nø”‚[i¡ ëA¡[ºìJìá>?

(A) ¹\>ã ëA¡àk¡à¹ã

(B) "à¹. [š. ƒv¡

(C) &³. ëA¡. KàÞê¡ã

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

122. ‘‘³à>åÈ Òº ¹à\î>[t¡A¡ \㤡ú’’ l¡ü[v¡û¡[i¡ A¡à¹?

(A) ëšÃìi¡à

(B) "¸à[¹Ê¡i¡º

(C) "KàÊ¡ ëAò¡àt¡

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

123. γà\t¡ìw¹ \>A¡ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?

(A) "KàÊ¡ ëAò¡àt¡

(B) Òढài¢¡ ëÑš>Îà¹

(C) ëšÃìi¡à

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

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II/2-A 41 [ P.T.O.

124. “Family is an organic unit.” Who

propounded?

(A) MacIver

(B) C. H. Page

(C) Nimkoff

(D) Gisbert

125. “It transfers cultural elements from

one generation to another.” What

is it?

(A) Family

(B) School

(C) College

(D) Institution

126. Who was the Chairman of the

Drafting Committee of the Indian

Constitution?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) B. R. Ambedkar

(C) K. M. Munshi

(D) None of them

127. The Constitution of India was

formally inaugurated on

(A) 26th November, 1949

(B) 25th November, 1950

(C) 26th January, 1950

(D) None of the above

128. Right to elementary education in

India has been included under the

(A) Article 19A

(B) Article 19(1)C

(C) Article 20

(D) Article 21A

124. ‘‘š[¹¤à¹ Òº &A¡[i¡ í\¤ &A¡A¡¡ú’’ ¤ìºìá>

(A) ³¸àA¡àÒü®¡à¹

(B) [Î. &ÒüW¡. ëš\

(C) [>³A¡óô¡

(D) [\Τài¢¡

125. ‘‘&[i¡ &A¡ šø\–µ ë=ìA¡ ">¸ šø\ì–µ¹ ³ì‹¸Î}ÑAõ¡[t¡¹ l¡üšàƒà>P¡[ºìA¡ Ñ‚à>à”z¹ A¡ì¹¡ú’’&[i¡ [A¡?

(A) š[¹¤à¹

(B) [¤ƒ¸àºÚ

(C) ³Òà[¤ƒ¸àºÚ

(D) šø[t¡Ë¡à>γèÒ

126. ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ Î}[¤‹àì>¹ JÎØl¡à ¹W¡>à A¡[³[i¡¹Î®¡àš[t¡ ëA¡ [áìº>?

(A) l¡@ ¹àì\–ƒø šøÎàƒ

(B) [¤. "à¹. "àì´¬ƒA¡¹

(C) ëA¡. &³. ³å[X

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

127. ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ Î}[¤‹à> "à>åË¡à[>A¡®¡àì¤ A¡à™¢A¡¹ÒìÚ[áº

(A) 26ëÅ >쮡´¬¹, 1949

(B) 25ëÅ >쮡´¬¹, 1950

(C) 26ëÅ \à>åÚà¹ã, 1950

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

128. ®¡à¹ìt¡ šøà=[³A¡ [Åۡ๠"[‹A¡à¹ "”z®¢å¡v¡û¡ ÒìÚìáÎ}[¤‹àì>¹

(A) ‹à¹à 19A

(B) ‹à¹à 19(1)C

(C) ‹à¹à 20

(D) ‹à¹à 21A

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II/2-A 42

129. Who said the Constitution of India

as quasi-federal?

(A) Ivor Jennings

(B) Austin

(C) K. C. Wheare

(D) Ambedkar

130. The term of Jammu and Kashmir

Legislative Assembly is

(A) 5 years

(B) 6 years

(C) 4 years

(D) None of the above

131. Who was the first Chief Election

Commissioner of India?

(A) Sukumar Sen

(B) T. N. Basu

(C) P. N. Bhagwati

(D) None of them

132. Who can dissolve the Legislative

Assembly of a State?

(A) President

(B) Chief Minister

(C) Chief Justice

(D) None of them

129. ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ Î}[¤‹à>ìA¡ ëA¡ ‘"à‹à-™åv¡û¡¹àÊ¡öãÚ’ ¤ìº"[®¡[Òt¡ A¡ì¹ìá>?

(A) "àÒü®¡¹ ë\[>}Î

(B) "[Ê¡>

(C) ëA¡. [Î. ëÒàÚà¹

(D) "àì´¬ƒA¡¹

130. \´¶å &¤} A¡àƵãì¹¹ [¤‹à>ή¡à¹ ë³Úàƒ Òº

(A) 5 ¤á¹

(B) 6 ¤á¹

(C) 4 ¤á¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

131. ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ ³åJ¸ [>¤¢àW¡> A¡[³Å>๠ëA¡[áìº>?

(A) ÎåA塳๠ëÎ>

(B) [i¡. &>. ¤Îå

(C) [š. &>. ®¡K¤t¡ã

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

132. ëA¡ ¹à\¸ "àÒü>ή¡à 뮡ìU [ƒìt¡ šàì¹>?

(A) ¹àÊ¡öš[t¡

(B) ³åJ¸³”|ã

(C) šø‹à> [¤W¡à¹š[t¡

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >>

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II/2-A 43 [ P.T.O.

133. Who can amend the Constitution?

(A) Parliament

(B) State Legislative Assembly

(C) President

(D) All of them

134. Who is the custodian of

Fundamental Rights in India?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Parliament

(C) Supreme Court

(D) None of them

135. The Panchayat Election took place

for the first time in Tripura in

1962 at

(A) Old Agartala Block

(B) Mohanpur Block

(C) Jirania Block

(D) None of the above

136. Social Studies is a study of

(A) Sociology and History

(B) History and Civics

(C) Geography, Civics and History

(D) Geography, Economics, Civics

and History

137. Social Studies belongs to _____

faculty.

(A) Physical Science

(B) Biological Science

(C) Social Science

(D) Humanities

133. ëA¡ Î}[¤‹à> Î}ìÅà‹> A¡¹ìt¡ šàì¹?

(A) šàº¢àì³si¡

(B) ¹à\¸ "àÒü>ή¡à

(C) ¹àÊ¡öš[t¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ÎA¡ìºÒü

134. ®¡à¹ìt¡ ë³ï[ºA¡ "[‹A¡àì¹¹ "[®¡®¡à¤A¡ ëA¡?

(A) šø‹à>³”|ã

(B) šàº¢àì³si¡

(C) Îåå[šø³ ëA¡ài¢¡

(D) &ò샹 ëA¡l¡üÒü >Ú

135. 1962 Îàìº [yšå¹àÚ šø=³ še¡àìÚt¡ [>¤¢àW¡>">å[Ë¡t¡ ÒÚ

(A) šå¹àt¡> "àK¹t¡ºà ¤ÃìA¡

(B) ë³àÒ>šå¹ ¤ÃìA¡

(C) [\¹à>ãÚà ¤ÃìA¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

136. γà\[¤ƒ¸àÚ "‹¸Ú> A¡¹à ÒÚ

(A) γà\t¡w * Òü[t¡ÒàÎ

(B) Òü[t¡ÒàÎ * ëšï¹[¤`¡à>

(C) ®è¡ìKàº, ëšï¹[¤`¡à> * Òü[t¡ÒàÎ

(D) ®è¡ìKàº, "=¢>ã[t¡, ëšï¹[¤`¡à> * Òü[t¡ÒàÎ

137. γà\[¤ƒ¸à _____ [¤®¡àìK¹ "”zK¢t¡¡ú

(A) šøàAõ¡[t¡A¡ [¤`¡à>

(B) \ã¤[¤`¡à>

(C) γà\[¤`¡à>

(D) ³à>[¤A¡

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II/2-A 44

138. γà\[¤ƒ¸à¹ šø‹à> šàk¡šøì¤Å š‡ý¡[t¡P¡[º Òº

(A) [ÅÇ¡ìA¡[–ƒøA¡

(B) γà\ìA¡[–ƒøA¡

(C) [¤ÈÚìA¡[–ƒøA¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤA¡Ú[i¡

139. Ellis (1977)-&¹ ³ìt¡, γà\[¤ƒ¸à [ÅÛ¡ìA¡¹šø‹à> ®è¡[³A¡àP¡[º Òº

(A) t¡=¸ šøƒà> A¡¹à

(B) [ÅÛ¡ìo¹ Îåì™àK šøƒà> A¡¹à

(C) (A) * (B) l¡ü®¡ìÚÒü

(D) [ÅÛ¡ìo ÎÒàÚt¡à A¡¹à

140. šøÅ— A¡¹à, γà\[¤ƒ¸à [ÅÛ¡A¡t¡à¹ &A¡[i¡ Å[v¡û¡Åàºã š‡ý¡[t¡, [W¡”zàÅ[v¡û¡¹ ƒÛ¡t¡à * l¡ü;A¡È¢t¡à ¤õ[‡ý¡ A¡ì¹, 뙳>

(A) [¤ìÅÃÈo

(B) Î}ìÅÃÈ * ³èº¸àÚ>

(C) [¤ìÅÃÈo * ³èº¸àÚ>

(D) [¤ìÅÃÈo, Î}ìÅÃÈ * ³èº¸àÚ>

141. γà\[¤ƒ¸àÚ ‘ëÛ¡y γãÛ¡à’ [ÅÛ¡à=¢ã샹`¡à>à\¢ì> ëA¡à>ô [¤ÈìÚ ÎàÒà™¸ A¡ì¹?

(A) šøAõ¡t¡ Îà³à[\A¡ Qi¡>ऺã

(B) t¡=¸ Î}NøìÒ¹ š‡ý¡[t¡P¡[º * Î}KõÒãt¡t¡ì=¸¹ [¤ìÅÃÈo

(C) Îà³à[\A¡ Qi¡>ऺ㹠³èº¸àÚ>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤA¡Ú[i¡

138. The main approaches of Social

Studies are

(A) child-centred

(B) society-centred

(C) subject-centred

(D) All of the above

139. According to Ellis (1977), major role

of the teacher of Social Studies is

(A) dispensing of information

(B) facilitation of learning

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) guidance for learning

140. Questioning, a powerful technique of

teaching in Social Studies, facilitates

high order of thinking skills like

(A) analysis

(B) synthesis and evaluation

(C) analysis and evaluation

(D) analysis, synthesis and evalua-

tion

141. In Social Studies, ‘fieldwork’ helps

the students to learn about

(A) actual social phenomena

(B) techniques of data collection

and its analysis

(C) evaluation of social phenomena

(D) All of the above

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II/2-A 45 [ P.T.O.

142. Line graph, which is used in

teaching of Social Studies, means

(A) it depicts changes in the value

of one variable in relation to

another variable

(B) it represents a change in the

form of ‘bar graph’

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

143. Values related to Social Studies

learning can be grouped into

(A) behavioural values

(B) substantive values

(C) procedural values

(D) All of the above

144. Genuine instructional process must

have the component

(A) planning

(B) execution

(C) monitoring and feedback

mechanism

(D) All of the above

145. Directive of National Curriculum

Framework was enacted in the year

(A) 2000 AD

(B) 2002 AD

(C) 2005 AD

(D) 2006 AD

146. When a teacher evaluates students

unit-wise periodically and conducts

at the end of the course a

comprehensive test, then it is called

as

(A) comprehensive process

(B) continuous process

(C) formative process

(D) None of the above

142. ë¹Jà [W¡yìºJà ™à γà\[¤ƒ¸à [ÅÛ¡ìo ¤¸¤Òê¡t¡ÒÚ, t¡à¹ "=¢ Òº

(A) &[i¡ &A¡[i¡ W¡ºìA¡¹ Îàì= ">¸ W¡ºìA¡¹Î´šìA¢¡¹ ³èº¸Kt¡ š[¹¤t¢¡> [>샢ŠA¡ì¹

(B) &[i¡ ‘¤à¹ Nøàó¡’-&¹ Kk¡>Kt¡ š[¹¤t¢¡>ë¤àc¡àÚ

(C) (A) * (B) l¡ü®¡ÚÒü

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

143. γà\[¤ƒ¸à [ÅÛ¡ìo ³èº¸ì¤à‹ìA¡ [A¡®¡àì¤ [¤®¡à[\t¡ A¡¹à ë™ìt¡ šàì¹?

(A) ¤¸¤Òà[¹A¡ ³èº¸ì¤à‹

(B) [¤ÈÚKt¡ ³èº¸ì¤à‹

(C) š‡ý¡[t¡Kt¡ ³èº¸ì¤à‹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤA¡Ú[i¡

144. šøAõ¡t¡ [>샢ųèºA¡ š‡ý¡[t¡¹ "à¤[ŸA¡ l¡üšàƒà>P¡[º Òº

(A) š[¹A¡¿>à

(B) ¤àÑz¤àÚ>

(C) ³[>i¡[¹} * šå[Ê¡Îà‹>

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤA¡Ú[i¡

145. \àt¡ãÚ šàk¡¸yû¡³ A¡àk¡àì³à¹ [>샢ÅàuA¡ "àÒü>[i¡šøoãt¡ ÒÚ

(A) 2000 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(B) 2002 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(C) 2005 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(D) 2006 JøãÊ¡àì¦

146. ™J> &A¡\> [ÅÛ¡A¡ [>[ƒ¢Ê¡ Î³Ú "”z¹ Òül¡ü[>i¡šø[t¡ šØl¡æÚà샹 ³èº¸àÚ> A¡ì¹> &¤} ëA¡àì΢¹ ëÅÈ Î³ìÚ t¡à샹 &A¡[i¡ Τ¢à=¢Îà‹A¡ ëi¡Ê¡ ë>>, t¡J>&ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ

(A) Τ¢à=¢Îà‹A¡ š‡ý¡[t¡

(B) W¡º³à> š‡ý¡[t¡

(C) ó¡¹³¸à[i¡®¡ š‡ý¡[t¡

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

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II/2-A 46

147. SCERT means

(A) Scientific Council for

Educational Research and

Training

(B) Scientific Council for

Engineering Research and

Training

(C) State Council for Engineering

Research and Training

(D) None of the above

148. In Social Studies, delivery of a

lecture is done through _____

phases.

(A) introduction of lecture

(B) development of lecture

(C) consolidation of lecture

(D) All of the above

149. National Policy of Education (NPE)

was enacted in the year

(A) 1980 AD

(B) 1986 AD

(C) 1990 AD

(D) 1996 AD

150. When a teacher of Social Studies

evaluates pupils’ learning outcomes

on tolerance of different religions,

languages, regions, political

ideologies, etc., and appreciation,

desirable attitude, commitment,

etc., then this evaluation is called as

(A) cognitive

(B) non-cognitive

(C) summative

(D) formative

147. &Î.[Î.Òü."à¹.[i¡. ¤ºìt¡ ë¤àc¡àÚ

(A) ÎàìÚ[–i¡[ó¡Aô¡ A¡àl¡ü[Xº ó¡¹ô &¸àlå¡ìA¡Å>¸àº[¹ÎàW¢¡ &¸à“¡ ëi¡ö[>}

(B) ÎàìÚ[–i¡[ó¡A¡ A¡àl¡ü[Xº ó¡¹ô Òü[g[>Úà[¹}[¹ÎàW¢¡ &¸àr¡ ëi¡ö[>}

(C) ëСi¡ A¡àl¡ü[Xº ó¡¹ô Òü[g[>Úà[¹} [¹ÎàW¢¡ &¸à“¡ ëi¡ö[>}

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ëA¡à>[i¡Òü >Ú

148. γà\[¤ƒ¸àÚ ¤v¡ûõ¡t¡àƒà> A¡¹à ÒÚ _____ [¤[®¡Ä‹àìš¹ ³à‹¸ì³¡ú

(A) ¤v¡ûõ¡t¡àƒàì>¹ l¡üšÑ‚àš>à¹

(B) ¤v¡ûõ¡t¡àƒàì>¹ [¤Ñzà¹Îà‹ì>¹

(C) ¤v¡ûõ¡t¡àƒàì>¹ ÎåÎ}Òt¡A¡¹ìo¹

(D) l¡üšì¹¹ ΤA¡Ú[i¡

149. \àt¡ãÚ [ÅÛ¡à>ã[t¡ (NPE) šøoãt¡ ÒÚ

(A) 1980 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(B) 1986 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(C) 1990 JøãÊ¡àì¦

(D) 1996 JøãÊ¡àì¦

150. ™J> &A¡\> γà\[¤ƒ¸à¹ [ÅÛ¡A¡ šØl¡æÚà샹 ‹³¢,®¡àÈà, "e¡º, ¹à\î>[t¡A¡ ³t¡¤àƒ Òüt¡¸à[ƒ¹ l¡üš¹Î[ÒÌå¡t¡à δš[A¢¡t¡ [Åۡ๠³à> ™àW¡àÒü A¡ì¹>,t¡J> t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ

(A) ë¤ï[‡ý¡A¡

(B) "-ë¤ï[‡ý¡A¡

(C) Îàì³[i¡®¡

(D) ó¡¹³¸à[i¡®¡

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ¹àó¡ A¡àì\¹ \>¸ \àÚKà

H H H

II/2-A 47 [ P.T.O.

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II/2-A 48 KK7—1232×3

READ THE FOL LOW ING IN STRUC TIONS CARE FULLY :

[>³—[º[Jt¡ [>샢Åऺ㠮¡àìºà A¡ì¹ šØl¡æ> :1. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct answer is to be darkened

completely with Black Ballpoint Pen on the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not liable to bechanged.

šø[t¡[i¡ šøìÅ—¹ l¡üv¡¹ [ÒÎàì¤ ë™ W¡à¹[i¡ [¤A¡¿ ëƒ*Úà "àìá t¡à ë=ìA¡ Ç¡‹å³ày Ç¡‡ý¡ l¡üv¡¹[i¡¹ ëšø[Û¡ìt¡ OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy ëƒ*Úà ¤õv¡[i¡ A¡àìºà ¤ºšìÚ–i¡ A¡º³ ‡à¹à δšèo¢¹ê¡ìš A¡àìºà A¡ì¹ [W¡[Òû¡t¡ A¡¹ìt¡ Ò줡ú &A¡¤à¹ l¡üv¡¹ [W¡[Òû¡t¡ A¡¹à ÒìÚ ëKìº t¡àìA¡ "๠š[¹¤t¢¡> A¡¹à ™àì¤ >à¡ú

2. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the AnswerSheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except at the specified space on the OMR Answer Sheet.

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã¹à ëA¡àì>஡àì¤Òü OMR l¡üv¡¹šy[i¡ ®ò¡à\ A¡¹ì¤> >à¡ú OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy ëA¡àì>à¹A¡³ ƒàK A¡ài¡à ¤à ³”z¤¸ ëºJà ™àì¤ >à¡ú š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã¹à tò¡à샹ë¹àº >ബ๠l¡üv¡¹šìy [>[ƒ¢Ê¡ A¡¹à \àÚKà áàØl¡à ">¸ ëA¡àì>à \àÚKàÚ [ºJì¤> >à¡ú

3. Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with utmost care, as under no circumstances (excepttechnical defect), another set of Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet will be provided.

OMR l¡üv¡¹šy &¤} šøÅ—šìy¹ ¤¸¤Òàì¹ Îà[¤¢A¡ Ît¡A¢¡t¡à "¤º ¬> A¡¹ìt¡ Ò줡ú ëA¡àì>à "¤Ñ‚àìt¡Òü (³å‰o yç¡[i¡ * š‡ý¡[t¡Kt¡ yç¡[i¡ áàØl¡à) OMR l¡üv¡¹šy* šøÅ—šy šàìÂi¡ ëƒ*Úà ™àì¤ >à¡ú

4. The candidates will write the correct Question Booklet Number and OMR Answer Sheet Number in theAttendance Sheet.

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ãìA¡ "¸àìi¡ì“¡X Åãi¡-& tò¡à¹ OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy¹ >ബ๠&¤} šøÅ—šìy¹ >ബ๠[>®å¢¡º®¡àì¤ [ºJìt¡ Ò줡ú5. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile

phone, electronic devices or any other material except the Admit Card and Photo Identity Card inside theExamination Hall/Room.

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ãìA¡ "¸àl¡[³i¡ A¡àl¢¡ &¤} ó¡ìi¡à "àÒüìl¡>[i¡[i¡ A¡àl¢¡ áàØl¡à ">¸ ëA¡àì>à áàšàì>à ¤à ëºJà A¡àK\, šk¡> * ³å‰o\àt¡ Îà³Nøã, ëš\à¹, ë³à¤àÒüº ëó¡à>,">¸ ëA¡àì>à¹A¡³ ÒüìºC¡ö[>A¡ [l¡®¡àÒüÎ [>ìÚ š¹ãÛ¡à Òìº/A¡ìÛ¡ šøì¤Å A¡¹ìt¡ ëƒ*Úà Òì¤ >à¡ú

6. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card and Photo Identity Card to theInvigilator/Examination Officials.

š¹ãÛ¡à Òìº Òü>[®¡[\ìºi¡¹ A¡tõ¢¡A¡ [A¡}¤à š¹ãÛ¡à ëA¡ì–ƒø¹ [®¡t¡ì¹ š¹ãÛ¡à-Î}[ÅÃÊ¡ "à[‹A¡à[¹A¡ A¡tõ¢¡A¡ ƒà[¤ A¡¹à Òìº šøìt¡¸A¡ š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã tò¡à¹ "¸àl¡[³i¡ A¡àl¢¡ *ó¡ìi¡à "àÒüìl¡>[i¡[i¡ A¡àl¢¡ ëƒJàìt¡ ¤à‹¸ =àA¡ì¤>¡ú

7. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, should change his/her seat.

ëΖi¡à¹ Îåšà[¹>ìi¡>ìl¡–i¡ ¤à Òü>[®¡[\ìºi¡¹-&¹ [¤ìÅÈ ">å³[t¡ áàØl¡à š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã š¹ãÛ¡à Òìº tò¡à¹ ¤Î๠тà> š[¹¤t¢¡> A¡¹ìt¡ šà¹ì¤> >à¡ú8. Candidates will have to sign twice in the Attendance Sheet presented by the Invigilator on duty; first after

taking their seats in the Examination Hall/Room and second at the time of handing over their OMR AnswerSheet to the Invigilator.

š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã[ƒKìA¡ Òü>[®¡[\ìºi¡ì¹¹ ëƒ*Úà "¸àìi¡ì“¡X Åãi¡-& ƒåÒü¤à¹ ѬàÛ¡¹ A¡¹ìt¡ Òì¤, šø=³¤à¹ š¹ãÛ¡à Òìº tò¡à샹 "àÎ> NøÒìo¹ š¹ &¤} [‡t¡ãÚ¤à¹

Òü>[®¡[\ìºi¡ì¹¹ [>A¡i¡ OMR l¡üv¡¹šy \³à ëƒ*Ú๠γìÚ¡ú9. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/Room without handing over their OMR Answer Sheet

to the Invigilator on duty and without signing the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has notsigned the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet anddealt with as an unfair means case.

"¸àìi¡ì“¡X Åãi¡-& ƒåÒü¤à¹ ѬàÛ¡¹ A¡¹à &¤} A¡t¢¡¤¸¹t¡ Òü>[®¡[\ìºi¡¹-&¹ [>A¡i¡ l¡üv¡¹šy \³à ëƒ*Úà ¤¸t¡ãt¡ ëA¡àì>à š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã š¹ãÛ¡à Òº t¡¸àK A¡¹ìt¡

šà¹ì¤> >à¡ú ™[ƒ ëA¡àì>à š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã "¸àìi¡ì“¡X Åãi¡-& ƒåÒü¤à¹ ѬàÛ¡¹ >à A¡ì¹> t¡ì¤ [t¡[> tò¡à¹ OMR l¡üv¡¹šy \³à A¡ì¹>[> ¤ìº Ko¸ Òì¤ &¤} t¡à">å[W¡t¡ A¡à™¢ [ÒÎàì¤ ‹¹à Ò줡ú

10. Use of any type of calculating device is prohibited.

ë™ ëA¡àì>à ‹¹ì>¹ A¡¸àºAå¡ìºi¡ì¹¹ ¤¸¤Ò๠δšèo¢¹ê¡ìš [>[ȇý¡¡ú11. The candidates are governed by all the rules and regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the

Examination Hall/Room. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per rules and regulations of theBoard.

š¹ãÛ¡à Òº/A¡ìÛ¡¹ ³ì‹¸ š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã¹ "àW¡¹o ë¤àìl¢¡¹ [>Ú³ * [>샢[ÅA¡à ">å™àÚã W¡à[ºt¡ Ò줡ú Τ ‹¹ì>¹ ">å[W¡t¡ A¡à™¢ ë¤àìl¢¡¹ [>Ú³ * [>샢[ÅA¡à">å™àÚã [>[ƒ¢Ê¡ Ò줡ú

12. No part of the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

ëA¡àì>à "¤Ñ‚àìt¡Òü šøÅ—šy &¤} OMR l¡üv¡¹šìy¹ ëA¡àì>à "}Å ëáòØl¡à ¤à "àºàƒà A¡¹à ™àì¤ >à¡ú13. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the

Hall/Room. The candidates are allowed to take away the Question Booklet with them.

š¹ãÛ¡à ëÅÈ Ò*Ú๠šì¹ š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã "¤Å¸Òü tò¡à¹ OMR l¡üv¡¹šy A¡t¢¡¤¸¹t¡ Òü>[®¡[\ìºi¡ì¹¹ A¡àìá \³à ëƒì¤>¡ú š¹ãÛ¡à=¢ã¹à šøÅ—šy[i¡ tò¡à샹 Îàì=[>ìÚ ë™ìt¡ šàì¹>¡ú