the industrial disputes act

The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 came into force on a)15th August 1947 b)11thMarch 1947 c)1st April 1947 d)15th April 1947

2. According to Sec 2(k) of I D Act, 1947, an Industrial dispute means a dispute or difference between a)employers and employers b)workmen and workmen c) employers and workmen d) all the above

3. Generally an industrial dispute is implied to mean a dispute between a)employers and employers b)workmen and workmen c) workmen and the management d) all the above

4. According to Sec 2(aaa) of I D Act, 1947, average pay means the average of the wages payable to a monthly paid workman a) in the 3 completed calandar months b) in the 2 completed calandar months c) in the 4 completed calandar months d) in the 6 completed calandar months

5. According to Sec 2(aaa) of I D Act, 1947, average pay means the average of the wages payable to a weekly paid workman a) in the 5 completed weeks b) in the 2 completed weeks c) in the 3 completed weeks d) in the 4 completed weeks.

6. According to Sec 2(aaa) of I D Act, 1947, average pay means the average of the wages payable to a daily paid workman a) 7 full working days b) 15 full working days c) 12 full working days d) 30 full working days

7. According to Sec 2(ee) of I D Act, 1947, controlled industry means a) the industry is controlled by Central Government b) the industry is controlled by public c) the industry is controlled by a private company d) the industry is controlled by a multinational company

8. This is not a wage a) the value of house accommodation b) bonus c) dearness allowance d) value of concessional supply of food grains

9. Before making any change in the conditions of services, the management should issue notice to registered trade unions under a) section 9-A of ID act, 1947 b) section 9-B of ID act, 1947 c) section 9-C of ID act, 1947 d) section 9-D of ID act, 1947

10. Which one of the following is not fall within the definition of strike a) go slow b) pen downc)work to rule d)tools down

11. According to Sec 9-A of I D Act, 1947, an employer should issue notice to change conditions of services as enumerated in a)II schedule b) III schedule c)IV schedule d) V schedule

12. Unfair labour practice means any of the practices specified in the a)II schedule b) III schedule c)IV schedule d) V schedule

13. An industrial strike is illegal a) within 14 days of strike notice b) Before the expiry of the date of strike c) without giving notice within 6 weeks before striking d) all the above

14. Penalty for illegal strikes and lock-outs a) Imprisonment up to 1 month b) fine up to Rs.50 c) both a) & b) d) any one of the above.

15. Penalty for instigating a illegal strike a) Imprisonment up to 6 months b) fine up to Rs.1000 c) both a) & b) d) any one of the above.

1. In which year did the act come into operation?

a. 1947b. 1949c. 1953d. 1963

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2. To which settlement machinery can the central government refer the disputes under rule 81 - A?

a. Conciliationb. Arbitrationc. Adjudicatord. Supreme Court


3. Before the industrial disputes act was implemented in the year 1947, which act took care of the industrial disputes?

a. Trade Disputes Act, 1929b. Royal Commission on Labour, 1934c. Labour Management Relations Act, 1947d. None of the above


4. Choose the correct option that correctly states out the defect in the Trade Disputes Act, 1929.

a. Restraints imposed on the rights of strike

b. To render the proceedings unstatutable under the Act for the settlement of an industrial dispute

c. Solution to industrial unrest

d. All of the above


5. The bill passing rule 81A has made two new institutions for the prevention and settlement of industrial disputes, i.e. Work Committees and _______

a. Industrial Tribunalb. Commission on Labourc. Arbitrationd. Adjudication


6. The industrial peace is secured through voluntary _______ and compulsory ________

a. Compromise and Arbitrationb. Adjudication and Arbitrationc. Work Committee and Industrial Tribunald. Negotiation and Adjudication


7. Choose the correct objective of the Industrial Disputes Act.

a. To prevent illegal strikes

b. To promote measures for securing and preserving good relations between the employers and the employees

c. To provide relief to workmen in matters of lay - offs, retrenchment, wrongful dismissals

d. All of the above


8. State true or false

i. Industrial disputes act can be described as the milestone in the historical development of industrial

law in India.

a. Trueb. False


9. The act was first amended in the year ______

a. 1929b. 1946c. 1947d. 1949


10. Power has been given to _______________ to require Works Committee to be constituted in every industrial establishment employing 100 workmen or more.

a. Appropriate Governmentb. State Governmentc. High Courtd. Board of Conciliation


. Which permanent settlement machinery has been mentioned in the act accountable for the speedy and amicable settlement of industrial disputes?

a. Adjudicationb. Conciliationc. Arbitrationd. Appropriate government


2. State true of false.

i. The industrial disputes act bill empowers the conciliation to declare emergency if required, by notification in the official Gazette.

a. Trueb. False


3. A report of the select committee on the Industrial Disputes Bill, 1946 was published in the

Gazette of India, Part ____

a. Vb. IVc. IIId. I


4. On which date did the industrial disputes act, 1947 receive assent and came in the Statute Book?

a. 1st April, 1947b. 23rd April, 1936c. 28th April, 1937d. 11th March, 1947


5. ________ means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute or of any question relating thereto by any labour court.

a. Banking Companyb. Closurec. Awardd. Conciliation Proceeding


6. State True or False

i. A controlled industry is any industry which is controlled by the union and has been declared by any central act to be expedient in the public interest.

a. Trueb. False


7. Clause (d) of section 2 of ______________ act defines Khadi.

a. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947b. Payment of wages act, 1936c. Khadi and Village Industries commission Act, 1956d. Industrial Relations Act, 1967


8. How many members does a conciliation board consist of as per the appropriate government?

a. Chairman and 2 or 4 other membersb. Chairman and 1 more memberc. Chairman and 5 or 6 other membersd. Chairman and 10 other members


9. A person shall not be appointed as the presiding officer of a labour court unless he has been the presiding officer under any provincial or state act for not less than ____ years.

a. 2b. 10c. 5d. 15


10. How many persons shall a national tribunal consist of which is to be appointed by the central government?

a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4

1. Which section in the industrial disputes act discusses about the disqualifications of the presiding officers of labour courts?

a. 7Ab. 7Bc. 7Cd. 8


2. What is the required minimum age of the person to be appointed in the office of the presiding officer of a labour court, Tribunal or National Tribunal?

a. 65 yearsb. 60 yearsc. 58 yearsd. 50 years


3. As per section 8, if a vacancy arises in the office of the presiding officer of a labour court, Tribunal or National Tribunal or in the chairman's office in the case of National Tribunal, the __________ and in any other office the ___________ shall appoint another person in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

a. Central Government for both b. Appropriate Government for bothc. Central Government; Appropriate Governmentd. Appropriate Government; Central Government



i. No settlement arrived at in the course of a conciliation proceeding shall be invalid by reason only of the fact that such settlement was arrived at after the expiry of the period referred to in sub-section (6) of section 12 or sub - section (5) of 13.

a. Trueb. False


5. How many days of notice has to be given to the workman by the employer in case of any changes to be made in the service conditions specified in the fourth schedule?

a. 30 daysb. 15 daysc. 21 daysd. 45 days



i. The details in the arbitration act, 1940 are applicable to arbitrations under this section as well

a. Trueb. False


7. Which of the below mentioned is the duty of a conciliation officer?

a. The board shall submit its report within 2 months of the date on which the dispute was referred to

b. The court shall inquire that matters referred to it and report thereon to the appropriate

government within a period of 6 months.

c. Where any industrial dispute exists or is apprehended, the conciliation officer may, or where the dispute relates to a public utility service and a notice under section 22 has been given shall hold the conciliation proceedings in the prescribed manner.

d. All of the above


8. Where do the labour court, tribunal and national tribunals submit their awards of the dispute?

a. Appropriate governmentb. Central governmentc. Employerd. Conciliation



i. Is it necessary for all the members of the board or court to sign the written award as per section 16 of the act or can be signed by the presiding officer as the case may be?

a. Falseb. True

1. What is the time period in which all the awards of the arbitration are to be published from the date of its receipt by the appropriate government?

a. 30 daysb. 15 daysc. 7 daysd. 1 day


2. State true or false.

i. As per section 17A, the award published under sub - section (1) shall be revised and shall not be called in question by in any manner whatsoever.

a. Trueb. False


3. If any declaration has been made in relation to an award under the provision to sub - section (1), the appropriate government or the central government within _______ days from the date of publication of the award under section 17, make an order rejecting or modifying the award.

a. 6 monthsb. 3 monthsc. 90 daysd. 1 year


4. If the date of operation is not mentioned in the awards, then according to sub - section 1 or 3 when is the award put into effect?

a. One month after the date of enforcementb. On the date of enforcementc. One week after the day of enforcementd. None of the above


5. Which section deals with payment of wages to workman pending proceedings in higher courts in the act?

a. 17Bb. 17c. 17Ad. All of the above



i. Both the parties should agree upon the date of settlements and awards.

a. Trueb. False


7. The arbitration award shall remain in operation for a period of _____ year as mentioned in the act.

a. 1 yearb. 6 monthsc. 24 monthsd. None of the above


8. The Central government has the rights to reduce the operation period if it thinks to be fit. State True or False.

a. Trueb. False


9. As per section ___ a conciliation proceeding shall be deemed to have commenced on the date on which a strike or lock - out is received by the conciliation officer.

a. 20b. 18c. 22d. 19



i. Section 21 deals with commencement and conclusion of proceedings.a. Falseb. True

1. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within ____ of giving such a notice.

a. 14 daysb. 6 weeksc. 7 daysd. None of the above


2. Choose the correct option where no workmen shall go on a strike in breach of contract and no employer of any such workmen shall declare a lock - out during:

a. The pendency of conciliation proceedings before a board and 7 days after the conclusion of such proceedings

b. The pendency of proceedings before labour court, tribunal or national tribunal and 2 months, after the conclusion of such proceedings

c. During any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any of the matters

covered by the settlement or award

d. All of the above


3. Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service.

a. 25Bb. 25c. 25Ad. 26


4. How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a mine industry?

a. 190 daysb. 240 daysc. 365 daysd. 180 days



i. If a workmen is laid â€“ off for more than 45 days no compensation shall be payable in respect of any period of the lay - off after the expiry of 45 days.

a. Trueb. False


6. A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___

a. Temporary workmenb. Permanent workmenc. Badli workmend. None of the above


7. Will a workman be entitled to compensation if he does not present himself for work at the establishment at the appointed time during normal working hours at least once a day?

a. Yesb. No


8. How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment?

a. Equivalent to 15 days average payb. 6 monthsc. Equivalent to 30 days average payd. None of the above


9. Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of undertakings?

a. Section 25Fb. Section 25FFc. Section 25d. Section 25E

1. How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in continuous service for more than a year while retrenchment?

a. 1 monthb. 2 monthsc. 15 daysd. 45 days


2. When the ownership or management of an establishment is transferred, whether by agreement or by law, every workman who has been in continuous service for not less than 1 year is entitled to notice and compensation in accordance with the provisions of section ____.

a. 25FFb. 25FFAc. 25Fd. 25FFF


3. How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an establishment as per section 25FFA?

a. 90 days

b. 60 daysc. 30 daysd. 120 days


4. If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the compensation to be paid to the workman under clause b of section 25F shall not exceed his average pay of ____.

a. 1 monthb. 15 daysc. 60 daysd. 3 months


5. Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs?

a. 25Mb. 25Nc. 25Fd. 25


6. What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee without prior permission?

a. Imprisonment for upto a month and a fine of upto 1000 rupeesb. Imprisonment for upto a month or;c. Fine of upto 1000 rupeesd. All of the above


7. The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____.

a. Imprisonment for upto 6 months or;b. Fine upto 5000 rupeesc. Both imprisonment and fine d. All of the above


8. Match the following sections with their penalties.

1. Penalty for committing unfair labour practices ----- A. 272. Penalty for other offences ------------------------- B. 25U

3. Penalty for breach of settlement or award----------- C. 314. Penalty for instigation ---------------------------- D. 29 5. Penalty for aiding illegal strikes /lockout -------- E. 28

a. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-Eb. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-Ac. 1-E, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-Bd. 1-A, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-Ce. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E



i. A proceeding under section 33 and section 33A is pending before a Tribunal or National Tribunal can be transferred to a Labour Court.

a. Trueb. False



i. No employer shall during the pendency of any such proceeding in respect to an industrial dispute, take any action against any protected workmen concerned in such a dispute.

a. Falseb. True

1. What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of workmen employed in any establishment?

a. 1%b. 5%c. 10%d. 15%


2. The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among various trade unions.

a. Central governmentb. State authority c. Appropriate government

d. Conciliation officer


3. A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment is _________

a. Badli workmenb. Conciliation officerc. Skilled labourd. Protected workmen


4. Which section in the act deals with recovery of money due from an employer?

a. 33Cb. 33c. 33Ad. 33B



i. Section 38 deals with the delegation of powers.

a. Trueb. False


6. Choose the correct option that declares the industry to be public utility services under sub - clause VI of clause N of section 2

A. India Security PressB. Banking CompanyC. Defence establishmentD. Insurance Company

a. A, B & Cb. B & Cc. A & Dd. B & D


7. Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?

a. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilegeb. Application and interpretation of standing ordersc. Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock outd. All of the above


8. Which of the options is a mBanning Beef â€“ Is it justified?atter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?

a. The propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing orders

b. Discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to, workmen wrongfully dismissed

c. All matters other than those specified in the Third Schedule

d. Leave with wages and holidays


9. Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which section of the act?

a. Section 9Ab. Section 7Ac. Section 7d. Section 2a


10. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?

a. To recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal

b. To discharge or dismiss workmen

c. Indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative

d. To indulge in acts of force or violence


11. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?

a. To incite or indulge in wilful damage to employerâ€™s property connected with the industry

b. To advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal

c. For a recognised union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer

d. None of the above

1. __________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind of third â€“ party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes.

a. Mediation and Conciliationb. Conciliation and Arbitrationc. Mediation and Court of Enquiryd. None of the above


2. As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair - splitting?

a. Prof. Foxwellb. Prof. Pigouc. Prof. Daveyd. All of the above


3. Which of the settlement machinery implies a stronger form of intervention and a mediator may be permitted to offer to the parties proposals for settlement?

a. Conciliationb. Adjudicationc. Arbitrationd. Mediatione. Court of enquiry


4. The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat.

a. Peace - makerb. Messenger c. Adviserd. None of the above



i. The mediator imposes his will and judgement on both the disputing parties.

a. Trueb. False


6. _________ can be described as - the practice by which the services of a neutral third - party are used in a dispute as a means of helping the disputing parties to reduce the extent of their differences and to arrive at an amicable settlement.

a. Arbitrationb. Mediationc. Adjudicationd. Conciliation


7. Which are the three kinds of mediators according to professor Pigou?

A. The eminent outsiderB. The non - governmental boardC. The board connected with some part of the governmental system of the countryD. Voluntary conciliationE. Compulsory conciliation

a. A, B and Cb. C, D and Ec. A, C and Dd. B, C and E


8. Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two parties?

a. Cognition and Influenceb. Reasoning and Persuasionc. Rationale and Coaxingd. Motivation and Leadership


9. Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process?

a. Flexibility, informality and simplicityb. Blase, clumsy and decisive

c. Candid, conceited and dismayedd. Fierce, intrepid and meticulous



i. Under section 4 of the Industrial Disputes Act, it is the government in India who appoints a conciliation officer for a specific area or even for a specific industry.

a. Trueb. False


11. __________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator should possess.

a. Independence and impartialityb. Technicality and suspicionc. Persuasion and perceivingd. Conviction and arduous


12. Choose the odd man out.

a. Safety valveb. Adviserc. Face saverd. Friendly personality


13. Which of these is one of the phases in the sequence of the conciliation process

A. Emergency of appropriate mood for settlement of compromiseB. The hard posture phaseC. Outlet for feelings

a. Only A & Cb. Only Bc. Only A & Bd. Only B & C


14. Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator?

a. Searching for accommodationb. Being adamantc. Listening attentivelyd. Unbiased


15. What kind of pressures do the disputing parties face from the conciliator?

a. Personalb. Socialc. Politicald. Economice. All of the above

Settlement Machinery - Conciliation, Mediation, Arbitration and Adjudication - MCQs with answers - Part 2

1. ____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the parties.

a. Arbitrationb. Adjudicationc. Court of enquiryd. None of the above


2. What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act?

a. Securing an awardb. Dominance c. Adjudicationd. Binding of the award on the parties


3. Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge.

a. Legal and statutoryb. Lawful and constitutionalc. Legitimate and compromisingd. Judicial and legislative


4. Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on?

a. Compromise and libertyb. Fair play and impartialityc. Equity and Justiced. All of the above


5. The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach?

a. Quasi - judicialb. Split the differencec. Judiciald. Non â€“ judicial


6. In which of these countries has arbitration been a popular way to resolve conflicts?

A. USAB. New ZealandC. IndiaD. UK

a. A & Bb. C & Dc. None of the aboved. All of the above


7. The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or labour tribunals.

a. Expeditiousb. Compromisingc. Bindingd. Delayed



i. Arbitration is formal in character and is an expensive form of settlement.

a. Trueb. False


9. Choose the odd man out.

a. Judgement is often arbitrary and ill - advised as the arbitrators are not well - versed in the economic and technical aspects of industry.

b. Arbitration deprives labour of its right to go on strike because of the provision in the agreement

c. Delay often occurs in arriving at the award and settlement of disputes leading to a morale breakdown of the employees

d. Arbitration is based on the consent of both parties


10. When the two contending parties are unable to compose their differences by themselves or with the help of the mediator or conciliator, agree to submit the dispute to impartial authority whose decision they are ready to accept is called _________

a. Voluntary arbitrationb. Voluntary Mediationc. Compulsory arbitrationd. Compulsory Mediation

ettlement Machinery - Conciliation, Mediation, Arbitration and Adjudication - MCQs with answers - Part 3

1. Which of the following is an essential element in voluntary arbitration?

a. Subsequent attendance of witnesses and investigationsb. Industries of strategic importance are involvedc. Country is passing through grave economic crisisd. All of the above


2. What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?

a. Compulsory implication of award

b. Non - compromising

c. It deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights

d. None of the above


3. Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the disputing parties?

a. When an industrial dispute is apprehended

b. Disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method

c. The issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement

d. All of the above


4. Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful arbitrator?

a. High integrityb. Knowledge of collective bargainingc. Understanding of complexities of labour â€“ management relationshipd. All of the above


5. Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired?

a. Legal professionb. Government servantsc. Psychologistsd. All of the above


6. Match the following procedure of investigation with the correct step no. in the sequence of events.

A. 1 ------- 1. Collecting facts and supporting materialsB. 2 ------- 2. Hearing out to both the parties along with mastery of the facts of disputeC. 3 ------- 3. Investigation of the facts and circumstances

a. A-1, B-2, C-3b. A-2,B-1,C-3c. A-2,B-3,C-1


7. Choose the correct option that states the principle followed by an arbitrator.

A. High integrityB. Fair hearingC. Natural justiceD. Maintain harmonious labour - management relations

a. A & Db. B & Dc. B & Cd. A & C


8. With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for resolving industrial disputes.

a. Bombay Industrial Disputes Actb. Mahatma Gandhic. V. V. Girid. None of the above


9. __________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.

a. The code of discipline (1958)b. Indian Labour Conference (1962)c. ILOd. Industrial Disputes Act


10. The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____.

a. National Tribunalb. Court of Enquiryc. Indian Labour Conference (1962)d. ILO

1. In which year did the government appoint National Arbitration Promotion Board along with a tripartite composition to make voluntary arbitration more acceptable?

a. July 1965b. July 1968c. July 1966d. July 1967


2. Which of the following option is a factor which has contributed to the slow progress of arbitration?

a. Absence of recognised unions which could bind the workers to a common agreement

b. To advise parties in important cases to accept arbitration

c. To review the position periodically

d. To evolve principles, norms and procedures for the guidance


3. In which year was V.V. Giri appointed as the Labour Minister?

a. 1953b. 1962c. 1947d. None of the above


4. __________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.

a. Alexander Freyb. V.V. Giric. Mahatma Gandhid. American Labour Movement



i. Royal Commission on Labour was against voluntary arbitration.

a. Trueb. False


6. Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute?

a. Court of enquiryb. Adjudicationc. Arbitration

d. National Tribunal


7. Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication?

a. Disputing partiesb. Conciliatorc. Trade Union d. Government


8. __________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final settlement.

a. Adjudicationb. National Tribunalc. Arbitrationd. None of the above


9. The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________.

a. Governmentb. Civil Courtc. Supreme Courtd. None of the above


10. The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______ justice but also the claims of national economy.

a. Economicb. Socialc. Freedom of contractd. None of the above

Settlement Machinery - Conciliation, Mediation, Arbitration and Adjudication - MCQs with answers - Part 5

1. Who was the chairman of the Committee on Unfair Labour Practices?

a. Justice V.A. Naik

b. Chagla C. Jc. Justice Bavdekard. None of the above



i. Compulsory adjudication is when the parties refer the dispute to adjudication.

a. Trueb. False


3. Which of these is a three tier system of adjudication?

A. National TribunalB. Labour CourtC. Court of Enquiry

a. A & Cb. B & Cc. A & Bd. A, B and C


4. Match the following adjuducation system with the disputes listed in the schedule.

1. Labour Court ------------- A. Disputes listed in Schedule II of the act

2. Industrial Tribunal ------ B. Disputes which are of national importance

3. National Tribunal -------- C. Disputes listed in Schedule II or III of the act

a. 1-A, 2-c, 3-bb. 1-c, 2-b, 3-ac. 1-b, 2-c, 3-ad. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c


5. A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a period of not less than ___ years.

a. 3 yearsb. 7 years

c. 5 yearsd. 10 years



i. Submitting the award to the appropriate government as soon as practicable on the conclusion of the proceedings is a duty of the labour court.

a. Trueb. False


7. Which of these matters are specified in the third schedule of the industrial disputes act?

A. Classification of gradesB. RationalisationC. Application and interpretation of standing ordersD. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege

a. A & Bb. A, B & Dc. B, C & Dd. A, B, C & D


8. How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in India?

a. 10b. 9c. 15d. 12


9. In the year 1959, in which place was the Indian Labour Conference held?

a. Coimbatoreb. Madrasc. Mumbaid. Delhi


10. In which year was the central Industrial Relations Machinery set up?

a. 1945b. 1956c. 1965d. 1972


the industrial disputes act

Documents

d of id act

b of id act

c of id act

d section

industrial disputes

management d

trade disputes act

completed calandar months