test your understanding - mr. sinkar,...

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What is the runner’s average velocity? A. 4 m/s B. 10 m/s C. 40 m/s D. 60 m/s According to the chart, the object described is __________. A. traveling at a constant velocity B. speeding up at a constant rate C. slowing down at a constant rate D. not in motion The motion of two cars is represented in the graph. Which statement about the cars’ motion is true? Test Your Understanding

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Page 1: Test Your Understanding - Mr. Sinkar, 2012-2013sinkar.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/0/3/13031291/copy_of... · C. slowing down at a constant rate D. not in motion ... B. a point on the surface

What is the runner’s average velocity?

A. 4 m/s

B. 10 m/s

C. 40 m/s

D. 60 m/s

According to the chart, the object described is __________.

A. traveling at a constant velocity

B. speeding up at a constant rate

C. slowing down at a constant rate

D. not in motion

The motion of two cars is represented in the graph. Which statement about the cars’ motion is true?

Test Your Understanding

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A. Car 1 is speeding up whereas Car 2 is slowing down.

B. Car 1 is traveling at constant velocity whereas Car 2 is changing velocity.

C. Car 1 is moving at a faster average velocity than Car 2.

D. Car 1 is traveling in a different direction than Car 2.

What is the shape of a velocity-time graph representing the motion of an object that is speeding up

with increasing acceleration?

A. a straight line that slants downward

B. a straight line that slants upward

C. a line that curves downward

D. a line that curves upward

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A runner travels 658 m to the east in 114 s. What is the runner’s average velocity?

A. 5.44 m/s west

B. 5.77 m/s west

C. 5.44 m/s east

D. 5.77 m/s east

A van slows to a stop with an average acceleration of −2.0 m/s2. How long does it take the van to slow

from 9.2 m/s to 0.0 m/s?

A. 2.4 s

B. 4.6 s

C. 7.2 s

D. 9.8 s

A shopper pushes a cart down an aisle at a velocity of 1.4 m/s. At this rate, how long will it take the

shopper to push the cart down an aisle that is 7.0 m?

A. 5.0 s

B. 5.6 s

C. 7.4 s

D. 8.1 s

A stone falls from the top of a building. The stone starts from rest and hits the ground in 1.5 s with a

velocity of 14.7 m/s. What is the average acceleration of the stone?

A. 3.0 m/s 2

B. 4.7 m/s 2

C. 9.8 m/s 2

D. 13.2 m/s 2

Test Your Understanding

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Two identical balls are released from an upper window of a building at the same time. One is dropped

and the other is projected forward with a horizontal velocity. Which ball strikes the ground first?

(Ignore the effects of air resistance, and assume the ground is flat.)

A. The ball that is dropped lands first.

B. The ball that is projected forward lands first.

C. Either ball might land first.

D. Both balls land at the same time.

Which of the following objects has a trajectory in the shape of a parabola?

A. a package dropped from a moving airplane

B. a point on the surface of a rolling billiard ball

C. a satellite traveling around Earth

D. a steel beam being lifted by a crane

An acorn rolls off a branch 8.6 m high and hits the ground a horizontal distance of 3.2 m away. How

fast was the acorn rolling?

A. 1.4 m/s

B. 2.4 m/s

C. 5.4 m/s

D. 9.8 m/s

A child is riding a stationary horse on a carousel (merry-go-round) and is seated 1.50 m from the

center. The child is moving with a speed of 2.20 m/s and has a centripetal force of 60.0 N acting on

her. What is the child’s mass?

A. 13.6 kg

B. 14.2 kg

C. 18.6 kg

D. 27.3 kg

Test Your Understanding

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Which relationship is represented by the diagram above?

A. A smaller object can exert a greater force than a larger object.

B. An object resists any change to its motion.

C. Forces always exist in equal and opposite pairs.

D. A gravitational force is exerted between every pair of objects.

The piece of furniture shown was at rest on the floor. Both girls then exert forces of equal magnitude

on the furniture. As a result, the furniture __________.

A. moves at constant velocity toward the left

B. moves at constant velocity toward the right

C. accelerates in the direction of the taller girl

D. remains at rest

The apple at rest on the table has a mass of 0.25 kg. Acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2. What is

the overall force acting on the apple?

Test Your Understanding

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A. 0 N

B. 2.5 N

C. 3.9 N

D. 7.3 N

A player kicks a soccer ball with a force of 12.2 N, causing the ball to accelerate at 5.8 m/s2 to the left.

What is the mass of the ball?

A. 1.0 kg

B. 2.1 kg

C. 4.8 kg

D. 6.4 kg

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In the free body diagram for a box, the arrows around the central point represent

A. the four cardinal directions of the compass.

B. the acceleration of the box.

C. the forces on the box.

D. the motion of the box.

A soda bottle is at rest on a table. No applied forces are acting on the bottle. How many arrows are

included in its free body diagram?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

A hockey puck is sliding from left to right across the ice, gradually slowing down due to friction. What

arrow represents the deceleration of the puck?

A. an arrow to the right

B. an arrow to the left

C. an arrow pointing up

D. an arrow pointing down

What could this free body diagram represent?

A. a girl jumping in the air

B. a boy at rest on a swing

C. a box as it is lifted by one rope

D. a box as it is lifted by two ropes

Test Your Understanding

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Two objects are in the same inertial frame of reference. Therefore, the two objects must be

A. completely motionless.

B. approximately the same size.

C. travelling relatively close to one another.

D. travelling at the same velocity.

An astronaut travels for two years at a speed that is 99 percent of the speed of light. When he returns

to Earth and steps out of his spacecraft, which observation will he most likely make?

A. Two months have passed on Earth.

B. Fourteen years have passed on Earth.

C. Everything on Earth appears very thin and short.

D. The laws of physics no longer apply on Earth.

If an object could be accelerated to the speed of light, its mass would be

A. zero.

B. infinite.

C. equal to its resting mass.

D. any random value.

Which physicist is most responsible for describing motion, time, mass, and distance in terms of frames

of reference?

A. Henry Cavendish

B. Niels Bohr

C. Sir Isaac Newton

D. Albert Einstein

Test Your Understanding

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Which scientist developed equations that describe the relationship between electricity and

magnetism?

A. Isaac Newton

B. James Clerk Maxwell

C. Hideki Yukawa

D. Albert Einstein

Which of the four fundamental forces acts effectively over the longest range?

A. weak nuclear force

B. electromagnetic force

C. strong nuclear force

D. gravitational force

Which observation led scientists to look for the strong nuclear force?

A. Protons and neutrons stay together within the atomic nucleus.

B. Planets stay in orbit over long distances.

C. Radioactive elements emit particles as they decay.

D. Electrons are held in a cloud surrounding the atomic nucleus.

Which of the fundamental forces is effective across the smallest distances?

A. weak nuclear force

B. electromagnetic force

C. strong nuclear force

D. gravitational force

Test Your Understanding

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Directions:

For these problems, use the following values:

mass of Earth: 5.98 × 10 24

kg

mass of Sun: 1.99 × 10 30 kg

distance between Earth and Sun: 15 × 10 10

m

mass of Moon: 7.35 × 10 22

kg

distance between Earth and moon: 3.84 × 10 8 m

What is the force of gravitational attraction between Earth and the Sun?

A. 7.94 × 10 14 N

B. 3.53 × 10 22

N

C. 6.29 × 10 28

N

D. 5.05 × 10 33

N

What is the force of gravitational attraction between Earth and the Moon?

A. 1.99 × 10 20

N

B. 7.63 × 10 28 N

C. 2.98 × 10 30 N

D. 2.93 × 10 37 N

How much greater is the gravitational force on a 70-kg student on Earth than on the Moon?

A. 117 N

B. 324 N

C. 569 N

D. 686 N

Jupiter has a radius of 6.98 x 10 7 m and a mass of 1.901 x 1027 kg. The gravitational force on a 70-kg

student on the surface of Jupiter would be

A. 3.7 × 10 2 N

B. 1.8 × 10 3 N

C. 2.7 × 10 9 N

D. 1.2 × 10 11 N

Test Your Understanding

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When the distance between two charged particles is doubled, the magnitude of the force between

them is:

A. one fourth the original force.

B. half the original force.

C. twice the original force.

D. four times the original force.

Let X be the force between two charged particles. If the magnitude of the charge on one of the

particles is tripled, then the force becomes:

A. 1/9X

B. 1/3X

C. 3X

D. 9X

Two objects repel each other after each is given an electric charge. What can be concluded about the

charge on each object?

A. Both objects carry a negative charge.

B. One object carries a negative charge and the other object carries a positive charge.

C. Both objects carry either a negative charge or a positive charge.

D. At least one object carries a negative charge.

Two positive charges of 5.0 10-6

C are separated by 0.30 m. What is the magnitude of the electrostatic

force between them?

A. 2.5 N

B. 25 N

C. 75 N

D. 150 N

Test Your Understanding

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The flow of an electric current is responsible for the magnetic properties of

A. cotton socks.

B. an iron nail.

C. an electromagnet.

D. a permanent magnet.

A compass needle will swing on its pivot in response to

A. Earth's magnetic field only.

B. a magnetic field created by an electric current only.

C. very small, localized magnetic fields only.

D. any magnetic field of great enough magnitude, regardless of origin.

Which is an example of degaussing?

A. stopping the current through an electromagnet

B. erasing the information encoded in the magnetic strip of a credit card

C. sawing a permanent magnet in half

D. using a transformer to induce a smaller current

A student is investigating the effect of static electricity by rubbing a balloon vigorously against the

carpet and then attempting to stick the balloon to the wall. But the balloon falls down instead of

sticking. Which of these facts, if it were true, would best explain why the student's procedure does not

produce the expected results?

A. The balloon is made of latex, a type of plastic that conducts electricity poorly.

B. The wall contains aluminum, a metal that conducts electricity very well.

C. The wall is made of plaster, a material that conducts electricity poorly.

D. The air in the room is especially dry, and the temperature is warm.

Test Your Understanding

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Wearing rubber-soled shoes and rubber gloves helps electricians stay safe because

A. rubber is a good insulator.

B. rubber is a poor insulator.

C. rubber is a good conductor.

D. rubber is neither a conductor nor insulator.

Which of these materials is the best conductor?

A. plastic

B. wood

C. aluminum

D. rubber

Why are many metals good conductors?

A. Metals are made of charged particles, called ions.

B. Metal atoms hold all their electrons very tightly.

C. Electrons can move freely from atom to atom in a metal.

D. Electrons can move freely in the space around a single metal atom.

In order to keep an electrified box from shocking someone who touches it, you could

A. wrap the box in aluminum foil.

B. store the box in a tank of salt water.

C. turn the box upside down.

D. coat the box in plastic.

Test Your Understanding

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Four resistors are wired in a series circuit. Their values are 10 Ω, 30 Ω, 20 Ω, and 40 Ω. What is the total

resistance of the circuit?

A. 25 Ω

B. 40 Ω

C. 100 Ω

D. 130 Ω

What is the total resistance of the circuit shown?

A. 6 Ω

B. 15 Ω

C. 45 Ω

D. 60 Ω

A 45.0-W lamp is connected in parallel to a circuit. The potential difference across the lamp is 15.0 V.

What is the current through the lamp?

A. 2.00 A

B. 3.00 A

C. 30.0 A

D. 675 A

A circuit consists of two 100-ohm resistors connected in series to a 24.0-V battery. What is the current

through the circuit?

A. 0.240 A

B. 0.180 A

C. 0.140 A

D. 0.120 A

Test Your Understanding

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The armature of an electric motor continues to rotate in one direction because

A. the permanent magnet around it flips back and forth.

B. the magnetic field between the magnets turns on and off.

C. the voltage of the electric current increases and decreases.

D. the direction of current in the wire keeps reversing.

How is an electric current produced in an electric generator?

A. It is created when a wire is attached to a battery.

B. It is induced when a wire moves through a magnetic field.

C. It is produced when a wire is wrapped around an iron core.

D. It is formed when wires are wrapped around opposite sides of an iron core.

Which energy conversion takes place in a generator?

A. mechanical to electrical

B. chemical to mechanical

C. electrical to mechanical

D. mechanical to nuclear

Suppose 12,000 V of electricity reaches a transformer by your home. The transformer converts the

electricity to 120 V. What is the ratio of windings from the primary coil to the secondary coil?

A. 1:01

B. 10:01

C. 50:10:00

D. 100:01:00

Test Your Understanding

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Which of the four fundamental forces is responsible for holding nucleons together?

A. electromagnetic force

B. gravitational force

C. strong nuclear force

D. weak nuclear force

For elements with low atomic numbers, such as carbon, which ratio of neutrons to protons forms the

most stable nucleus?

A. 2:01

B. 1:01

C. 1:02

D. 2:03

Which phenomenon can be explained only in terms of the weak nuclear force?

A. alpha decay

B. beta decay

C. gamma radiation

D. nuclear fission

When nuclei undergo beta decay, they release

A. electrons.

B. helium nuclei.

C. protons.

D. neutrons.

Test Your Understanding

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Which expression shows the kinetic energy (KE ) of a moving object?

A. at2

B.

C. mv2

D. mgh

From which law is the work-energy theorem directly derived?

A. law of inertia

B. law of conservation of energy

C. law of universal gravitation

D. first law of thermodynamics

A 1,000-kg car is traveling at 28 m/s. What amount of work is required to stop the car?

A. 1.4 × 10 4 J

B. 2.8 × 10 4 JC. 1.9 × 10 5 JD. 3.9 × 10 5 J

An acorn falls from a height of 10 m. According to the work-energy theorem, and assuming air

A. 10 m/s

B. 11 m/s

C. 14 m/s

D. 19 m/s

Test Your Understanding

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As a pendulum moves upward along its arc, its energy changes from

A. thermal energy to kinetic energy.

B. potential energy to kinetic energy.

C. kinetic energy to potential energy.

D. potential energy to electrical energy.

The potential energy of an object is equal to the product of

A. its mass, height, and the acceleration due to Earth’s gravity.

B. its mass and the accleration due to Earth’s gravity.

C. one-half its mass and its speed.

D. one-half its mass and the square of its speed.

A rock has 58 J of energy as it drops off a cliff, then 54 J of energy just before it strikes the bottom.

What does the difference in energy (4 J) most likely indicate?

A. The rock became cooler as it fell.

B. A chemical change took place in the rock.

C. The rock lost 4 J of energy because of friction with the air.

D. A falling rock violates the law of conservation of energy.

A woman carries a book from ground level to the highest floor of a building, where she places it at rest

on a window ledge. After she completes this task, the work she performed on the book equals

A. the kinetic energy of the book on the window ledge.

B. the chemical energy of the book on the window ledge.

C. the potential energy of the book on the window ledge.

D. the product of the kinetic energy and potential energy of the book.

Test Your Understanding

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A system of marbles is made of one steel marble that is moving rapidly and several glass marbles that

are at rest. Which information is necessary to calculate the total momentum of the system?

A. the mass and velocity of the steel marble

B. the mass of each marble

C. the velocity of the steel marble and the area of the system that contains the marbles

D. the velocity of the steel marble and the average density of the glass marbles

Billiard balls A and B, each of mass m, are traveling directly toward each other at a speed of 0.50 m/s.

After they collide, each reverses direction at a speed of 0.50 m/s.

What is the magnitude of the impulse that one billiard ball exerted on the other?

A. 0.5m

B. m

C. m2

D. 2m

A motor has a power output of 760 watts. It is connected to a pulley to lift objects. What minimum

length of time would the motor take to lift a 50-kg mass to a height of 4.5 meters?

A. 0.55 seconds

B. 1.3 seconds

C. 34 seconds

D. 2.9 seconds

In any mechanical system, why will all moving parts slow to a stop without additional energy added to

the system?

A. Moving parts always decrease in speed as explained by the law of conservation of momentum.

B. Moving parts always decrease in speed as explained by the law of conservation of energy.

C. The total mechanical energy of a system includes only kinetic energy, not potential energy.

Test Your Understanding

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D. Moving parts always lose some mechanical energy to heat.

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The momentum of a moving object is equal to the product of its ___________.

A. mass and speed

B. kinetic energy and speed

C. mass and velocity squared

D. mass and velocity

Two billiard balls are traveling directly toward each other, each with a momentum of magnitude p.

What is the total momentum of the two-ball system?

A. p

B. 2p

C. p2

D. 0

When two objects collide in an inelastic collision, the total kinetic energy of the two objects

_____________.

A. decreases

B. increases

C. remains the same

D. changes direction

Which of these collisions is likely to be the most elastic?

A. a rubber ball falling onto a soft cushion

B. two ice skaters colliding at high speed and falling to the ice

C. two marbles bouncing off each other

D. two chocolate cakes sticking together as they collide

Test Your Understanding

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According to kinetic theory, the pressure that a gas exerts on its container is a result of __________.

A. the vibrational energy of the gas particles

B. the heat released by the collisions of the gas particles

C. gas particles sticking to the walls of the container

D. gas particles colliding with the walls of the container

If a sample of matter could be cooled to the theoretical temperature of absolute zero (0 K), which

property of the sample would also equal zero?

A. the total kinetic energy of its particles

B. the total mass of its particles

C. the total volume of its particles

D. the density of the sample

A sample of copper is at rest on the ground. Heat is added to the copper, causing its temperature to

rise. What kind of energy is that heat transformed into within the copper sample?

A. vibrational energy, involving both kinetic and potential energy

B. translational kinetic energy

C. gravitational potential energy

D. chemical energy

An ice cube is placed in a cup of water. The heat that flows from the water into the ice cube is the

product of which quantities?

A.the mass of the water, the specific heat of liquid water, and the final temperature of the water

B. the mass of the water, the specific heat of ice, and the temperature change of the water

C.the mass of the water, the specific heat of liquid water, and the temperature change of the water

D. the mass of the water and the specific heat of liquid water

Test Your Understanding

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What is heat?

A. another name for the temperature of a substance

B. the energy due to the kinetic energy of particles in a substance

C. the flow or transfer of thermal energy

D. the product of the mass and temperature of a substance

Which form or forms of heat can travel through empty space?

A. conduction only

B. convection only

C. thermal radiation only

D. conduction, convection, and thermal radiation

When two objects of different temperatures come in contact, heat will flow between them until:

A. the warmer object has twice the thermal energy as the colder object.

B. both objects have the same mass.

C. both objects have the same amount of thermal energy.

D. both objects reach the same temperature.

Which is an example of convection?

A. a pot of water being heated on the stove

B. sunlight traveling through space en route to Earth

C. a warm hand touching a cold ice cube

D. a mitten keeping the hand inside it warm

Test Your Understanding

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What is another name for the first law of thermodynamics?

A. the law of conservation of energy

B. the law of conservation of mass

C. the law of entropy

D. quantum theory

What is a consequence of the third law of thermodynamics?

A. chemical reactions release heat

B. as temperature decreases, energy decreases

C. vibrating objects make sound

D. heat flows from warm objects to cool objects

The law of entropy explains which of these events?

A. a baseball rises up, reaches a peak, and then falls down

B. a rolling golf ball slows down across a lawn

C. a mixture of hot water and cold water reaches a consistent lukewarm temperature

D. liquid water boils at 100°C

What is heat?

A. another word for thermal energy

B. the flow or transfer of thermal energy

C. a form of potential energy related to the position of an object

D. another word for temperature

Test Your Understanding

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What happens to gas molecules in the air as a sound wave passes by?

A. the molecules move along with the sound wave

B. the molecules begin vibrating back and forth

C. the molecules move perpendicular to the wave, like a rope wave

D. the molecules transmit electrons from one to another

What is the only type of wave that can travel through empty space?

A. waves similar to water waves

B. mechanical waves

C. sound waves

D. electromagnetic waves

An electromagnetic wave propagates in which way?

A. an electric field and a magnetic field induce one another

B. vibrating molecules transfer energy to one another

C. electrons travel from one atom or molecule to the next

D. gravity causes molecules to fall on one another, like dominoes

Under which circumstance will wave refraction be observed?

A. light waves travel through empty space

B. light waves strike a mirror at an angle of 45°

C. light waves strike a mirror at an angle of 90°

D. light waves travel from the air to a plastic block at an angle of 45°

Test Your Understanding

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Sound waves are traveling through air. Waves that have a longer wavelength will have a lower

_________.

A. amplitude

B. frequency

C. wave speed

D. density

Some public streetlights use sodium vapor lamps, which give off light with a wavelength of 589 nm.

Light travels at a speed of 3.0 × 10 8 m/s. What is the frequency of the light from the lamps?

A. 1.9 × 10 8 Hz

B. 5.89 × 10 −7 Hz

C. 5.09 × 10 14 Hz

D. 6.3 × 10 8 Hz

A wave has a wavelength of 1.75 m and a frequency of 2.00 Hz. What is its speed?

A. 1.10 m/s

B. 3.50 m/s

C. 3.75 m/s

D. 8.80 m/s

What is the wavelength of a wave that has a frequency of 60 Hz and travels at 19 m/s through a

uniform medium?

A. 28 cm

B. 32 cm

C. 41 cm

D. 56 cm

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Which is an example of longitudinal waves?

A. sound waves

B. electromagnetic waves

C. water waves

D. waves in a rope

Unlike all other types of waves, electromagnetic waves are able to travel

A. at extremely slow speeds.

B. as either longitudinal or transverse waves.

C. through a solid, liquid, or gas.

D. through empty space.

On a diagram of a wave, the height of the crests and depths of the troughs is a measure of which

property of the wave?

A. amplitude only

B. frequency only

C. wavelength only

D. amplitude, frequency, and wavelength

Which of these actions creates a longitudinal wave?

A. dropping a pebble into still water

B. rapidly pushing and pulling one end of a stretched spring

C. rapidly lifting and dropping one end of a stretched rope

D. the wind blowing steadily across the water's surface

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A light wave is refracted when it __________.

A. enters a new medium at any angle

B. “bounces off” a shiny surface, such as a mirror

C. enters a new medium at a slanted angle

D. travels through empty space

Which of the following is an example of the Doppler effect?

A. The pitch of a sound changes as a truck blaring its horn passes by.

B. A shadow is formed when Earth passes between the moon and sun.

C. A straw in a glass of water appears to be bent when viewed from the side.

D. Red light bounces off an apple whereas other colors of light are absorbed.

What effect does resonance have on a sound wave?

A. It causes the wave to be absorbed by a surface.

B. It increases the amplitude at certain frequencies.

C. It develops an echo that returns to the source of the wave.

D. It cancels out the crests and troughs of a wave.

An example of diffraction occurs when __________.

A. sound waves combine to form beats

B. laser light bounces off a mirror

C. ocean waves bend around a jetty

D. white light is separated into colors in a prism

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What is always true about a real image formed by a thin convex lens?

A. the image appears at the focal point of the lens

B. the image forms on the same side as the object

C. magnification is negative

D. magnification is positive

The Thin Lens Equation relates which of the following variables?

A. object distance, focal length and object height

B. object distance, image distance, and focal length

C. image height, object height, and focal length

D. focal length and magnification

An object is placed 20 cm in front of a plane mirror. What type of image forms?

A. a virtual image at an apparent distance of 20 cm behind the mirror

B. a real image at a distance of 20 cm in front of the mirror

C. a virtual image that is distorted and exaggerated

D. a real image that is distorted and exaggerated

An object is placed 25 cm in front of a convex lens that has a focal length of 30 cm. The resulting image

is __________.

A. real and inverted

B. virtual and upright

C. real and upright

D. virtual and inverted

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Which property of waves describes how the speed of sound changes when it passes from one type of

body tissue to another?

A. interference

B. diffraction

C. reflection

D. refraction

Which of the following is not a type of electromagnetic radiation?

A. X-rays

B. ultrasound

C. radio waves

D. infrared light

Cell phones use the same range of the electromagnetic spectrum as

A. radios.

B. microwave ovens.

C. HD televisions.

D. airport radar systems.

Which property explains how a fiber optic cable can carry a signal of light for long distances that are

not in a straight line?

A. diffusion

B. constructive interference

C. destructive interference

D. internal reflection

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What best describes a photon?

A. an electron that is released during the photoelectric effect

B. one wavelength of light

C. a small packet of light, similar to a particle except it has no mass at rest

D. a particle that travels faster than the speed of light

Light can be described both as a particle and as a __________.

A. wave

B. current

C. vacuum

D. force

Which observation or conclusion is part of the photoelectric effect?

A. An electric current causes a bulb to light in a closed circuit.

B. Electrons are emitted from metals when light shines on them.

C. White light can be separated into its component colors according to wavelength.

D. The wavelength of light is inversely proportional to its frequency.

Which scientist was the first to successfully explain the photoelectric effect?

A. Hertz

B. Lenard

C. Heisenberg

D. Einstein

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The light from a gaseous glowing element, such as neon or argon, is an example of a

A. continuous spectrum.

B. discrete spectrum.

C. proton spectrum.

D. nuclear spectrum.

The unique spectrum of each element is a direct result of which property of the element.

A. electron number and configuration

B. number of neutrons in the nucleus

C. radioactive properties

D. inner shell electrons only

What does a spectroscope do?

A. It combines light of various colors into white light.

B. It reflects and refracts light to form an image.

C. It separates light into its component frequencies.

D. It change light into other useful forms of energy.

What best describes the possible amounts of energy, if any, that an electron may emit or absorb?

A. No amounts of energy are possible.

B. Only certain discrete amounts are possible.

C. All amounts are possible within a certain range.

D. All amounts are possible, from zero to infinity.

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The joining of two small nuclei to form a larger nuclei is called

A. nuclear fission.

B. nuclear fusion.

C. radioactive decay.

D. a combustion reaction.

Which is fuel for a nuclear power plant?

A. uranium or other elements with very large nuclei

B. helium or other elements with very small nuclei

C. hydrogen, oxygen, and water

D. coal, petroleum, or other fossil fuels

By which process is the energy of the Sun released?

A. combustion reactions

B. radioactive decay

C. nuclear fission

D. nuclear fusion

By which of these events is a nuclear chain reaction typically initiated?

A. a proton striking a large, unstable atomic nucleus

B. a neutron striking a large, unstable atomic nucleus

C. two small nuclei joining together to form a large nucleus

D. the radioactive decay of a stable nucleus

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Which of these values is quantized?

A. water flowing over a waterfall

B. the passage of time

C. pennies adding to one dollar

D. air blowing in the atmosphere

Which device is an application of the photoelectric effect?

A. laser pointer

B. X-ray machine

C. microwave oven

D. digital camera

Nuclear imaging is used to _______________.

A. see inside the human body without surgery

B. trace the formation of distant stars

C. track the progress of a chemical reaction in a beaker

D. release energy that can be used to do work

Electricity is produced in nuclear power plants as the result of _______________.

A. combusting radioactive materials

B. splitting the nuclei of large atoms

C. accelerating atoms to high speeds

D. combining light nuclei together

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