test_ nbme 15 review _ quizlet

8/11/2019 Test_ NBME 15 Review _ Quizlet

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2/10/2014 Test: NBME 15 review | Quizlet

http://quizlet.com/23071157/test?mult_choice=on&prompt-with=1&limit=168

168 Multiple Choice Questions

1. Posterior 1/3 of tongue

(No Answer)

a. Prevalence

b. Vitamin C

c. CORRECT:Arches 3 & 4

d. A-a gradient

2. Stating there is not an effect when there is one

(No Answer)

a. Trapezium bone

b. Case Control

c. Hyperammonia

d. CORRECT:Type II error

3. Irreversible enzyme in Gluconeogenesis

(No Answer)

a. Phosphorylase kinase

b. Histone deacetylase

c. Homonymous hemianopsia

d. CORRECT:Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

4. Inability to transport LCFA (Long chain fatty acids) into mitochondria

Results in toxic accumulation in the cytoplasm

Causes weakness, hypotonia, hypoketotic hypoglycemia

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Carnitine deficiency

b. Incidence

c. Case series

d. Ureteric orifice

0%

F

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8. Two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some

supposed causal attribute

(No Answer)

a. Case series

b. CORRECT:Case Control

c. Scurvy

d. Type I error

9. Facultative anaerobic Gram-positive coccal bacterium

Appears as grape-like clusters when viewed through a microscope, and has large, round,

golden-yellow colonies, often with hemolysis, when grown on blood agar plates

Catalase-positive

-Able to convert hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to water and oxygen

Virulence factors:

Enzymes

-Coagulase clots plasma and coats the bacterial cell which probably prevent phagocytosis

-Hyaluronidase breakdown hyaluronic acid and help in spreading

Toxins

-Superantigens (TSST-1) induce toxic shock syndrome (TSS), usually from prolonged tampon

use. Cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and

massive cytokine release (IFN)

-Enterotoxin that is the causative of gastroenteritis that is self-limiting, characterized by

vomiting and diarrhea one to six hours after ingestion of the toxin with recovery in eight to

24 hours. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and major abdominal pain.

-Exfoliative toxins implicated in (SSSS), which occurs most commonly in infants and youngchildren. Protease activity of the exfoliative toxins causes peeling of the skin observed with

SSSS.

Other

-Protein A, an IgG-binding protein, binds to the Fc region of an antibody

(No Answer)

a. Valproic acid

b. CORRECT:Staphylococcus aureus

c. Scaphoid bone

d. Phytanic acid


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10. Abnormally deep attachment of the placenta to the myometrium without penetrating it.

Placenta grows completely through the endometrium

Great risk of haemorrhage during placental removal

-Commonly requires surgery to stem the bleeding and fully remove the placenta

-In severe forms can often lead to a hysterectomy or be fatal

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Placenta accreta

b. Peptic ulcers

c. Prevalence

d. Pipecolic acid

11. Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint

-Main agonist muscle for this movement during the first 10-15 degrees of its arc

Can test:

Shoulder at 90%

Empty can (Wrists pronated)

(No Answer)

a. Vitamin C

b. Hypoxemia

c. CORRECT:Supraspinatus

d. Peroxisome

12. Receptors that form ligand-gated ion channels in the plasma membranes of certain neurons

and on the postsynaptic side of the neuromuscular junction

As ionotropic receptors, these are directly linked to ion channels and do not use second

messengers (as metabotropic receptors do).

(No Answer)

a. Insulin secretion

b. Phytanic acid

c. CORRECT:Nicotinic ACh receptor

d. Ureteric orifice


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13. Caused by lysosomal dysfunction usually as a consequence of deficiency of a single enzyme

required for the metabolism of lipids, glycoproteins (sugar containing proteins) or so-called

mucopolysaccharides

When a particular lysosomal enzyme exists in too small an amount or is missing altogether,

substances accumulate in the cell.

In other words, when the lysosome doesn't function normally, excess products destined for

breakdown and recycling are stored in the cell.

(No Answer)

a. Anabolic steroids

b. Phosphorylase kinase

c. CORRECT:Lysosomal storage disease

d. Dysthymic disorder

14. SSRI

Use:

Depression, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, OCD, bulimia, social phobias,

PTSD

(No Answer)

a. Olanzapine

b. Hypoxemia

c. Leukemia

d. CORRECT:Fluoxetine

15. Dorsal wings

-Superior parathyroid

(No Answer)

a. cardiac output

b. CORRECT:4th Brachial Pouch

c. 4th-6th Brachial arches

d. Trapezium bone


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16. Better buffer for H than oxyhemoglobin

-Advantageous that hemoglobin has been deoxygenated by the time it reaches the venous

end of the capillaries

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Deoxyhemoglobin

b. Carbaminohemoglobin

c. Erythropoietin

d. Hyperammonia

17. Characterized by a need for social isolation, anxiety in social situations, odd behavior and

thinking, and often unconventional beliefs

May feel extreme discomfort with maintaining close relationships with people, and

therefore they often do not

May display peculiar manners of talking and dressing and often have difficulty in forming

relationships.

May react oddly in conversations, not respond or talk to themselves

Frequently misinterpret situations as being strange or having unusual meaning for them;

paranormal and superstitious beliefs are not uncommon

(No Answer)

a. Avoidant Personality Disorder

b. Holosystolic murmur

c. Maintenance dose

d. CORRECT:Schizotypal personality disorder

18. Looks at all current cases

(No Answer)

a. Anemia

b. CORRECT:Prevalence

c. pVHL

d. Incidence


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19. Blood that is unmodified except for the presence of an anticoagulant

Usually not used because the extra plasma can contribute to transfusion associated

circulatory overload (TACO), a potentially dangerous complication

(No Answer)

a. SNoW DRoP

b. Scaphoid bone

c. Albinism

d. CORRECT:Whole blood

20. Rectum (lower portion) of anal canal (Above pectenate line)

Ends up in these lymph nodes

(No Answer)

a. Trapezium bone

b. Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes

c. CORRECT:Internal iliac lymph nodes

d. Mesoblastic nephroma

21. 1. Inflammatory (immediate)

-Platelets, neutrophils, macrophages

2. Proliferative (2-3 days after wound)

-Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, macrophages

-Granulation tissue depostion, angiogenesis, wound contraction (mediated by

myofibroblasts)

3. Remodeling (1 week after wound)

-Fibroblasts

-Type III collagen replaced by type I collagen

(No Answer)

a. Anemia

b. Leukemia

c. Case series

d. CORRECT:Wound healing


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22. Discrete tumor masses arising from lymph nodes.

(No Answer)

a. Lorazepam

b. Glipizide

c. CORRECT:Lymphoma

d. Hypoxemia

23. In ER

Glucose-6-P Glucose

Liver (Not present in muscle)

Probably stimulated by glucacon

Deficient in Von Gierke's disease

-Severe fasting hypoglycemia

- glycogen in liver

- blood lactate

-hepatomegaly

(No Answer)

a. Rouleaux formation

b. CORRECT:Glucose-6-phosphatase

c. Glucokinase

d. Case series

24. Used to compare causes of hypoxemia

PAo - Pao

Normal < 10

-O normally equilibrates between alveolar gas and arterial blood (PAo ~ Pao) (High

altitude, hypoventilation)

If > 10

-O does not equilibrate between alveolar gas and arterial blood (diffusion defect, V/Qdefect, right to left shunt)

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:A-a gradient

b. Olanzapine

c. Cytarabine

d. Anemia


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25. Tricuspid insufficiency

-Best heard over the fourth left sternal border, radiates to right sternal border

-Intensity can be accentuated following inspiration

--Due to increased regurgitant flow in right ventricular volume

-most often secondary to pulmonary hypertension

Mitral regurgitation

-Best heard at the apex with diaphragm, radiates toward axilla

-No intensification upon inspiration

-Difference in pressure extends throughout systole and can even continue after the aortic

valve has closed

Ventricular septal defect

-Best heard over the left third and fourth intercostal spaces and along the sternal border

-S2 Normal (Distinguish from pulmonary stenosis, which has a wide splitting S2)

-No intensification upon inspiration

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Holosystolic murmur

b. Phytanic acid

c. Oxytocin

d. SNoW DRoP

26. O content of blood hypoxia

(No Answer)

a. Scaphoid bone

b. Parvovirus inclusions

c. CORRECT:Carbon monoxide poisoning

d. Major depressive disorder


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27. Alcohol:

Leading cause of birth defects and mental retardation; fetal alcohol syndrome

Cocaine:

Abnormal fetal development and fetal addiction; placental abruption

Smoking:

Preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADI-ID

(No Answer)

a. Tanner stages

b. CORRECT:Substance Abuse Teratogens

c. Branchial apparatus

d. Histone deacetylase

28. Hypoaldosteronism or lack of collecting tubule response to aldosterone

Resulting hyperkalemia impairs ammoniagenesis in the proximal tubule

buffering capacity and urine pH

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:RTA4 ("hyperkalemic", Renal tubular acidosis)

b. Density Gradient Centrifuge

c. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

d. Narcissistic personality disorder

29. Opening of the urinary bladder into the urethra

(No Answer)


b. Complex partial seizure

c. Simple partial seizures

d. CORRECT:Internal urethral orifice


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30. Required fro the hydroxylation of specific purine and lysine residues

-If deficient, will cause scurvy

--Inadequate hydroxylation of collagen peptides

(No Answer)

a. Phytanic acid

b. CORRECT:Vitamin C

c. Oxytocin

d. Aplasia

31. Nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension.

(No Answer)

a. micrognathia

b. glossoptosis

c. CORRECT:Broca's aphasia

d. Aplasia

32. When at the golden arches,

1. Chew

2. Smile

3. swallow stylishly or 4. simply swallow

6. speak

There is no 5!

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)

b. Cyanide poisoning

c. Alveolar ventilation

d. Temporal lobe lesion


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33. Congenital deficiency in:

Tyrosinase

Defective tyrosine transporter ( tyrosine melanin)

Can result from lack of migration of neural crest cells

Lack of melanin results in risk of skin cancer

(No Answer)

a. pVHL

b. CORRECT:Albinism

c. ARDS

d. Oxytocin

34. The bacteria behind post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

PHaryngitis can results in PHever & glomerulonePHritis

(No Answer)

a. Type II error

b. Testosterone

c. CORRECT:S. pyogenes (Group A)

d. SNoW DRoP

35. The ratio of partial pressure arterial oxygen and fraction of inspired oxygen

Comparison between the oxygen level in the blood and the oxygen concentration that is

breathed

Helps to determine the degree of any problems with how the lungs transfer oxygen to the

blood

If equal to or less than 200 mmHg is one criteria for diagnosing ARDS

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:PaO2/FiO2 ratio

b. Stratification

c. Ubiquitin

d. Diaphoresis


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36. Can be acquired (e.g., liver disease) or hereditary (e.g., urea cycle enzyme deficiencies)

excess NH4+ depletes a-ketoglutarate inhibition of TCA cycle

Rx: limit protein in diet

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Hyperammonia

b. Hypoxemia

c. Peroxisome

d. Hypoxia

37. Aberrant development of 3rd & 4th pouches:

T-cell deficiency (thymic aplasia)

Hypocalcemia (failure of parathyroid development)

(No Answer)

a. Case Control

b. Loading dose

c. Whole blood

d. CORRECT:DiGeorge syndrome

38. Method of separating biochemical mixtures

-Based on a highly specific interaction such as that between antigen and antibody, enzyme

and substrate, or receptor and ligand.

Can be used to.

1. Purify and concentrate a substance from a mixture into a buffering solution

2. Reduce the amount of a substance in a mixture

3. Discern what biological compounds bind to a particular substance

4. Purify and concentrate an enzyme solution.

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Affinity column chromatography

b. Glycogen phosphorylase

c. Carbaminohemoglobin

d. Nicotinic ACh receptor


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39. Cartilage:

Meckel's (Mandible, Malleus, Mandibular)

Muscles:

Muscles of mastication (Masseter, medial pterygoids, Mylohyoid)

Neves:

CN V2, V3

-Chew

(No Answer)

a. 1st Brachial Pouch

b. 4th Brachial Pouch

c. CORRECT:1st Brachial arch

d. Prevalence

40. Identifies DNA-binding proteins

(No Answer)

a. Interferons

b. CORRECT:Southwestern blot

c. Testosterone

d. Cytarabine

41. Located on parietal cells and vascular smooth muscle cells

Causes:

Primarily involved in vasodilation

Also stimulate gastric acid secretion

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:H2 (Histamine)

b. Wound healing

c. Tanner stages

d. Hypokinesis


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42. Being excessively preoccupied with issues of personal adequacy, power, prestige and vanity

(No Answer)

a. Schizotypal personality disorder

b. Schizoid personality disorder

c. CORRECT:Narcissistic personality disorder

d. Maintenance dose

43. From Th cell

Promotes differentiation of B-cell

Enhances class switching of IgA.

Stimulates the growth of and differentiation of eosinophils

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:IL-5

b. Scurvy

c. ARDS

d. Anemia

44. Results from inhibition of DNA synthesis in red blood cell production

-Most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically a deficiency of vitamin B12 and/or folic

acid

Characterized by:

Many large immature and dysfunctional red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow

Hypersegmented neutrophils (those exhibiting five or more nuclear lobes ("segments"), with

up to four lobes being normal)

(No Answer)

a. Mesoblastic nephroma

b. CORRECT:Megaloblastosis (Megaloblastic anemia)

c. Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)

d. Dysostosis multiplex


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45. An E3 ligase that ubiquitinates HIF1 and causes its degradation by the proteasome.

In low oxygen conditions or in cases of VHL disease where the VHL gene is mutated

-pVHL does not bind to HIF1.

-This allows the subunit to dimerise with HIF1 and activate the transcription of a number

of genes (vascular endothelial growth factor, platelet-derived growth factor B,

erythropoietin and genes involved in glucose upatake and metabolism)

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:pVHL

b. Prevalence

c. Hypoxemia

d. Lymphoma

46. CO bound to hemoglobin

-Account for very small amount of CO in blood

(No Answer)

a. PaO2/FiO2 ratio

b. Erythropoietin

c. Carnitine deficiency

d. CORRECT:Carbaminohemoglobin

47. Fifth disease

-Develop the illness after an incubation period of four to fourteen days.

-Fever and malaise while the virus is most abundant in the bloodstream

-Patients are usually no longer infectious once the characteristic rash of this disease has

appeared

Parvovirus B19 is a cause of chronic anemia in individuals who have AIDS

Aplastic anemia

-Patients have an arrest of erythropoiesis (production of red blood cells) during infection

-Patients who have sickle cell anemia or hereditary spherocytosis are heavily dependent on

erythropoeisis due to the reduced lifespan of the red cells

Infection in pregnant women is associated with hydrops fetalis due to severe fetal anemia

(No Answer)

a. Peroxisome

b. CORRECT:Parvovirus inclusions

c. Hypokinesis

d. Stratification


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48. Inflammation of the lung parenchyma leads to impaired gas exchange with systemic release

of inflammatory mediators, causing:

Inflammation

Hypoxemia

Frequently multiple organ failure.

Condition has a 90% death rate in untreated patients. With treatment, usually mechanical

ventilation in an intensive care unit, the death rate is 50%.

A less severe form is called acute lung injury (ALI)

3 main clinical causes

1. Sepsis (most important)

2. Severe multiple trauma

3. Aspiration of saliva / gastric contents

Any cardiogenic cause of pulmonary edema should be excluded-Done by placing a pulmonary artery catheter for measuring the pulmonary artery wedge

pressure

4 main criteria for ARDS:

1. Acute onset

2. Chest X-Ray: Bilateral diffuse infiltrates of the lungs

3. No cardiovascular lesion

4. No evidence of left atrial hypertension: PaO2/FiO2 ratio equal to or less than 200 mmHg.

(No Answer)a. Anemia

b. IB

c. CORRECT:ARDS

d. Scurvy

49. 1st arch neural crest fails to migrate

-Mandibular hypoplasia

-Facial abnormalities

(No Answer)

a. Case Control

b. Staphylococcus aureus

c. DiGeorge syndrome

d. CORRECT:Treacher Collins Syndrome


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50. Stacks of red blood cells (RBCs) which form because of the unique discoid shape of the cells

in vertebrates

Conditions which cause:

Infections

Multiple myeloma

Inflammatory and connective tissue disorders

Cancers

Occurs in diabetes mellitus (one of the causative factors for microvascular occlusion in

diabetic retinopathy)

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Rouleaux formation

b. Stratification

c. PaO2/FiO2 ratio

d. A-a gradient

51. Often preceded by a seizure aura.

-A simple partial seizure.

Aura may manifest itself as a feeling of dj vu, jamais vu, fear, euphoria or

depersonalization.

Seizure aura might also occur as a visual disturbance, such as tunnel vision or a change in

the size of objects (macropsia or micropsia).

Once consciousness is impaired, the person may display automatisms such as lip smacking,

chewing or swallowing.

There may also be loss of memory (amnesia) surrounding the seizure event.

Person may still be able to perform routine tasks such as walking, although such

movements are not purposeful or planned.

Witnesses may not recognize that anything is wrong.

(No Answer)

a. Type I error

b. CORRECT:Complex partial seizure

c. Complete hydatidiform mole

d. Type II error


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52. Defect in proximal tubule HC03- reabsorption

Fanconi's syndrome

urine pH < 5.5

hypokalemia

risk for hypophosphatemic rickets

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:RTA2 ("proximal", Renal tubular acidosis)

b. Staphylococcus aureus

c. Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)

d. Medial Longitudinal faciculus

53. Lead poisoning

Accumulates:

Protoporphyrin, -ALA

Microcytic anemia, GI and kidney disease.

Children-exposure to lead paint -+ mental deterioration

Adults-environmental exposure (battery/ ammunition/radiator factory) -+ headache,

memory loss, demyelination

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Ferrochelatase

b. Supraspinatus

c. Glucokinase

d. Peptic ulcers

54. 1. Glucose binds Glut2 receptor on -cells

2. Glucose oxidizes to ATP closes K channels in cell membrane depolarization of -

cells

3. Depolerizatino opens Ca channels intracellular [Ca] [name of this card]

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Insulin secretion

b. Incidence

c. Type I error

d. Supraspinatus


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55. An early component of Gluconeogenesis

(No Answer)

a. Glucokinase

b. CORRECT:Phosphorylase kinase

c. Diaphoresis

d. Hypokinesis

56. The volume of gas per unit time that reaches the alveoli

(No Answer)

a. SLE Criteria

b. Parietal lobe lesion

c. Leukocidin

d. CORRECT:Alveolar ventilation

57. Proteins that place uninfected cells in an antiviral state

Induce production of ribonuclease that inhibits viral protein synthesis by degrading viral

mRNA (but not host mRNA)

& : inhibit viral protein synthesis

: MHC I & II expression and antigen presentation in all cells

Activate NK cells to kill virus-infected cells

(No Answer)

a. PTH

b. CORRECT:Interferons

c. Scurvy

d. Hyperammonia


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58. Found on smooth muscle, endothelium, and central nervous system tissue

Causes:

Bronchoconstriction

Bronchial smooth muscle contraction

Vasodilation

Separation of endothelial cells (responsible for hives)

Pain and itching due to insect stings;

the primary receptors involved in allergic rhinitis symptoms and motion sickness;

sleep and appetite suppression.

(No Answer)

a. Peroxisome

b. CORRECT:H1 (Histamine)

c. Scaphoid bone

d. Fluoxetine

59. eye is "down and out" with ptosis and pupil dilation

(No Answer)

a. Case series

b. Hypokinesis

c. IL-5

d. CORRECT:CN III Palsy

60. Placed at the postero-lateral angles of the trigonum vesicae, and are usually slit-like in

form

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Ureteric orifice

b. Hyperammonia

c. Stratification

d. Vitamin C

61. Allows the blood to flow readily without the addition of saline

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Packed RBCs with adenine-saline added

b. Carnitine deficiency

c. 2nd Brachial Pouch



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62. Gram-negative bacillus bacterium species

Involved in 90% of anaerobic peritoneal infections

Predominates in bacteremia associated with intraabdominal infections, peritonitis and

abscesses following rupture of viscus, and subcutaneous abscesses or burns near the anus

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Bacteroides fagilis

b. Pipecolic acid

c. Leukemoid reaction

d. Case series

63. Pre-peripubertal:

Causes growth spurt / accelerated bone maturation

Pubertal:

Completion of bone maturation / termination of growth

(No Answer)

a. Interferons

b. Case series

c. CORRECT:Testosterone

d. Type I error

64. Pyrimidine analog inhibition of DNA polymerase

Used with:

Leukemia, lymphomas

Toxicity:

Leukopenia

Thrombocytopenia

Megaloblastic anemia

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Cytarabine

b. Glucokinase

c. Anemia

d. Ubiquitin


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65. Type of kidney tumor that is usually found before birth by ultrasound or within the first 3

months of life.

It contains fibroblastic cells (connective tissue cells), and may spread to the other kidney or

to nearby tissue

(No Answer)

a. Testosterone

b. CORRECT:Mesoblastic nephroma

c. Supraspinatus

d. Holosystolic murmur

66. Atypical antipsychotic

Use:

Schizophrenia - both +ve and -ve

Bipolar, OCD, anxiety disorder, depression, mania

Fewer extrapyramidal side effects than traditional antipsychotics

(No Answer)

a. Oxytocin

b. Fluoxetine

c. CORRECT:Olanzapine

d. Lorazepam

67. Acute intermittent porphyria

Accumulates:

Porphobilinogen, -ALA, uroporphyrin

5 P's

1. Painful abdomen

2. Port wine-colored urine

3. Polyneuropathy4. Psychological disturbances

5. Precipitated by drugs

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Porphobilinogen deaminase

b. Carnitine deficiency

c. Ammoniagenesis

d. Absence seizure


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68. Consciousness is not impaired

Often precursors to larger seizures, where the abnormal electrical activity spreads to a

larger area of (or all of) the brain, usually resulting in a complex partial seizure or a tonic-

clonic seizure

-In this case they are often known as an aura

(No Answer)

a. Supraspinatus

b. Complex partial seizure

c. CORRECT:Simple partial seizures

d. Absence seizure

69. Pair of tracts that allow for cross talk between CN VI & CN VIII nuclei

Coordinate both eyes to move in the same horizontal direction

Highly myelinated (Communicate quickly so eye's move at the same time)

Lesion:

Lack of communication such that when CN VI nucleus activates ipsilateral rectus,

contralateral CN III nucleus does not stimulate medial rectus to fire (impaired abduction)

Abducting eye get's nystagmus (CN VI overfires to stimulate CN III)

Convergence normal

(No Answer)

a. Parvovirus inclusions

b. CORRECT:Medial Longitudinal faciculus

c. 3rd Brachial arch

d. Valproic acid

70. Display a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, extreme sensitivity

to negative evaluation, and avoidance of social interaction

Consider themselves to be socially inept or personally unappealing and avoid socialinteraction for fear of being ridiculed, humiliated, rejected, or disliked

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Avoidant Personality Disorder

b. Narcissistic personality disorder

c. Schizotypal personality disorder

d. Obsessive compulsive disorder


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71. blood flow hypoxia

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT: cardiac output

b. Supraspinatus

c. Loading dose

d. 2nd Brachial arch

72. Generalized seizure that affects the entire brain

Divided into two phases, the tonic phase and the clonic phase. Preceded by aura

Tonic = skeletal muscles tense

Clonic = Rapid contraction and relaxation of muscles

(No Answer)

a. Bacteroides fagilis

b. CORRECT:Generalized tonic clonic


d. Valproic acid

73. Inherited lysosomal storage disorder

Failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins

-Enzymes are secreted outside the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome

Presentation:

Coarse facial features

Clouded corneas

Restricted joint movement

High plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes

(No Answer)

a. Histone deacetylase

b. Substance Abuse Teratogens

c. Major depressive disorder

d. CORRECT:inclusion cell disease (I-cell disease)


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74. Receptors that form G protein-receptor complexes in the cell membranes of certain neurons

and other cells

Play several roles, including acting as the main end-receptor stimulated by acetylcholine

released from postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic nervous system

(No Answer)


b. CORRECT:Muscarinic ACh receptor

c. Anabolic steroids

d. Ureteric orifice

75. Sigmoid colin Colic


(No Answer)

a. Alveolar ventilation

b. CORRECT:Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes

c. Mesoblastic nephroma

d. Listeria monocytogenes

76. Denaturation and displacement of the DNA strands, resulting in mispairing of the

complementary bases.

Can result in either insertions or deletions.

Insertions are thought to be self-accelerating: as repeats grow longer, the probability of

subsequent mispairing events increases

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Slipped-strand mispairing

b. Wound healing


d. Immunohistochemistry


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77. Fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension.

Wernicke's area-superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe.

Wordy, but makes no sense

(No Answer)

a. Ferrochelatase

b. Ringed sideroblasts

c. Pipecolic acid

d. CORRECT:Wernicke's aphasia

78. Used to separate certain organelles from whole cells for further analysis of specific parts of

cells

1. A tissue sample is first homogenised to break the cell membranes and mix up the cell

contents.

2. The homogenate is then subjected to repeated centrifugations, each time removing the

pellet and increasing the centrifugal force.

3. Finally, purification may be done through equilibrium sedimentation, and the desired

layer is extracted for further analysis.

(No Answer)

a. Absence seizure

b. CORRECT:Density Gradient Centrifuge

c. Histone deacetylase

d. SLE Criteria

79. Excessive sweating

(No Answer)

a. Ammoniagenesis

b. Lymphoma

c. Albinism

d. CORRECT:Diaphoresis

80. Lack of growth

(No Answer)

a. Hypoxemia

b. PTH

c. Imatinib

d. CORRECT:Aplasia


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81. Characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary

lifestyle, secretiveness, emotional coldness and apathy

May simultaneously demonstrate a rich, elaborate and exclusively internal fantasy world

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Schizoid personality disorder

b. Schizotypal personality disorder

c. Right Coronary Artery


82. Mood disorder consisting of the same cognitive and physical problems as in depression,

with less severe but longer-lasting symptoms, which may persist for at least 2 years

A serious state of chronic depression, which persists for at least 2 years; it is less acute and

severe than major depressive disorder

Sufferers may experience symptoms for many years before it is diagnosed, if diagnosis

occurs at all

(No Answer)

a. Case series

b. CORRECT:Dysthymic disorder

c. Type I error

d. Stratification

83. Upper quadrantic anopia

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Temporal lobe lesion

b. Type I error

c. Optic chiasm lesion

d. Alveolar ventilation


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84. Defect in collecting tubule's ability to excrete H+

urine pH >5.5

hypokalemia

risk for calcium phosphate kidney stones as a result of urine pH and bone resorption

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:RTA1 ("distal", Renal tubular acidosis)

b. RTA4 ("hyperkalemic", Renal tubular acidosis)

c. Megaloblastosis (Megaloblastic anemia)

d. RTA2 ("proximal", Renal tubular acidosis)

85. Lower quadrantic anopia

(No Answer)

a. Parvovirus inclusions

b. Optic chiasm lesion

c. CORRECT:Parietal lobe lesion

d. Prevalence

86. A small molecular inhibitor of bcr-abl tyrosine kinase

Treatment of CML

Trade name Gleevec

(No Answer)

a. IB

b. CORRECT:Imatinib

c. Hypoxia

d. Albinism


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87. Cartilage:

Thyroid, cricoid,

Muscles:

4 = pharynheal constrictors

6 = intrinsic muscles of larynx

Nerves:

4 = CN X (superior laryngeal branch)

-Simply swallow

6 = CN X (recurrent laryngeal branch)

-Speak

(No Answer)

a. 3rd Brachial Pouch

b. 2nd Brachial Pouch

c. CORRECT:4th-6th Brachial arches

d. 4th Brachial Pouch

88. Decreased O delivery to tissues

O delivery = Cadiac output x O content of blood

Dependes on:

Hemoglobin concentrationO-binding capacity of hemoglobin

% saturation of hemoglobin by O (Depends on Po)

Can be caused by:

cardiac output

O-binding capacity of hemoglobin

arterial Po

(No Answer)

a. Glipizideb. Hypoxemia

c. CORRECT:Hypoxia

d. NF-B


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89. Age < 15

Found in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

TdT+ (Marker of pre-t & pre-b cells)

CALLA+

t(12;21) = good prognosis

Increased incidence in people with Down Syndrome

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Excess lymphoblasts

b. 3rd Brachial arch

c. glossoptosis

d. -ALA synthase

90. Results most commonly from brain injury to the right cerebral hemisphere, causing visual

neglect of the left-hand side of space

A stroke affecting the right parietal lobe of the brain can lead to neglect for the left side of

the visual field, causing a patient with neglect to behave as if the left side of sensory space

is nonexistent (although they can still turn left)

-Extreme case, a patient with neglect might fail to eat the food on the left half of their plate,

even though they complain of being hungry

-Someone with neglect is asked to draw a clock, their drawing might show only numbers 12

to 6, or all 12 numbers on one half of the clock face, the other side being distorted or leftblank

(No Answer)

a. Imatinib

b. CORRECT:Hemispatial neglect

c. 2nd Brachial arch

d. Peptic ulcers


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91. Porphyria cutanea tarda

Accumulates:

Uroporphyrin (tea colored urine)

Blistering cutaneous photosensitivity. Most common porphyria.

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

b. Maintenance dose

c. S. pyogenes (Group A)

d. Glycogen phosphorylase

92. Forms the radial border of the carpel tunnel

Distal to the Scaphoid

Some might say it is in close proximity to

-Abductor pollicis longus

-Extensor pollicis brevis

That being side, is not the right answer for the question that you seek!

(No Answer)

a. Loading dose

b. Glipizide

c. Hyperammonia

d. CORRECT:Trapezium bone

93. CAP Covers outside from inside

Clefts = ectoderm

Arches = mesoderm

Pouches = endoderm

(No Answer)


b. CORRECT:Branchial apparatus

c. Tanner stages

d. PaO2/FiO2 ratio


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94. Rate determining enzyme for glycogenolysis

Skeletal component deficient in McArdle's disease

- glycogen in muscle, but can't break it down

-Painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria w/ strenuous exercise

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Glycogen phosphorylase

b. -ALA synthase

c. Diaphoresis

d. Scaphoid bone

95. Its primary effect on red blood cell progenitors and precursors (which are found in the bone

marrow in humans) is promoting their survival through protecting these cells from

apoptosis

(No Answer)

a. Cytarabine

b. CORRECT:Erythropoietin

c. Hypoxemia

d. SLE Criteria

96. Lead poisoning

Accumulates:

Protoporphyrin, -ALA

Microcytic anemia, GI and kidney disease.

Children-exposure to lead paint -+ mental deterioration

Adults-environmental exposure (battery/ ammunition/radiator factory) -+ headache,

memory loss, demyelination

(No Answer)

a. PaO2/FiO2 ratio

b. -ALA synthase

c. CORRECT:-ALA dehydratase

d. Fluoxetine


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97. Medical research descriptive study that:

1. Tracks patients with a known exposure given similar treatment

2. Examines their medical records for exposure and outcome

Can be retrospective or prospective

Usually involves a smaller number of patients than more powerful case-control studies or

randomized controlled trials

May be consecutive or non-consecutive

-Depends on whether all cases presenting to the reporting authors over a period were

included, or only a selection

May be confounded by selection bias

-Limits statements on the causality of correlations observed

-Physicians who look at patients with a certain illness and a suspected linked exposure will

have a selection bias in that they have drawn their patients from a narrow selection (Theirhospital)

(No Answer)

a. ARDS

b. Scurvy

c. CORRECT:Case series

d. Leukemia

98. Cp x CL/F

Cp = target plasma concentration

Remember:

If volume of distribution is given in L/kg

-Need to multiply by body weight to find actual volume distribution

(No Answer)

a. Phytanic acid

b. Incidence

c. CORRECT:Maintenance dose

d. Tanner stages


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99. Gram-positive bacterium

Motile via flagella at 30C and below

Can move within eukaryotic cells by explosive polymerization of actin filaments (known as

comet tails or actin rockets).

Facultative anaerobic bacterium (Capable of surviving in the presence of oxygen)

Can grow and reproduce inside the host's cells

One of the most virulent food-borne pathogens, with 20 to 30 percent of clinical infections

resulting in death

Due to its frequent pathogenicity, causing meningitis in newborns (acquired transvaginally),

pregnant mothers are often advised not to eat soft cheeses

-It is the third-most-common cause of meningitis in newborns

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Listeria monocytogenes

b. Stratification

c. Maintenance dose

d. Leukemoid reaction

100. Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium

Infections show evidence of tissue necrosis, bacteremia, emphysematous cholecystitis, and

gas gangrene

Toxin involved in gas gangrene is known as -toxin

-Inserts into the plasma membrane of cells, producing gaps in the membrane that disrupt

normal cellular function

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Clostridium perfringens

b. Trapezium bone

c. glossoptosis

d. Cyanide poisoning

101. Sideroblastic anemia

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:-ALA synthase

b. Glucokinase

c. Case Control

d. -ALA dehydratase


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102. Epithelial lining of palatine tonsil

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:2nd Brachial Pouch

b. 2nd Brachial arch

c. 3rd Brachial Pouch

d. 4th Brachial Pouch

103. Caused by a single (90%) or two (10%) sperm combining with an egg which has lost its DNA

The genotype is typically 46,XX (diploid)

(No Answer)

a. Stratification

b. Loading dose

c. Type II error

d. CORRECT:Complete hydatidiform mole

104. Unregulated growth of leukocytes in *bone marrow*

or in # of circulating leukocytes in blood

Marrow failure anemia (RBC), infections (WBC), hemorrhage (platelets)

Infiltrates in liver, spleen, and lymph nodes possible

(No Answer)

a. Aplasia

b. Lymphoma

c. SLE Criteria

d. CORRECT:Leukemia


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105. Strata are constructed based on values of prognostic variables and a randomization scheme

is performed separately within each stratum

Put another way:

Achieved by performing a separate randomisation procedure within each of two or more

subsets of participants

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Stratification

b. Trapezium bone

c. Staph -toxin

d. Ferrochelatase

106. Stating there is an effect when none exist

(No Answer)

a. Case series

b. Testosterone

c. Hypoxia

d. CORRECT:Type I error

107. Numbness and tingling of extremities

Dysesthesia (abnormal sensation to a body part)

Diarrhea

Erectile dysfunction

Urinary incontinence (loss of bladder control)

Facial, mouth and eyelid drooping

Vision changes

Dizziness

Muscle weakness

Difficulty swallowing

Speech impairment

Fasciculation (muscle contractions)

Anorgasmia

*Burning or electric pain*(No Answer)

a. DiGeorge syndrome

b. Nicotinic ACh receptor

c. Treacher Collins Syndrome

d. CORRECT:Diabetic neuropathy symptoms


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108. Swollen gums

Bruising

Hemarthrosis

Anemia

Poor wound healing

(No Answer)

a. PTH

b. pVHL

c. NF-B

d. CORRECT:Scurvy

109. Associated with premature birth, birth defects, attention deficit disorder

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Prenatal cocaine effects

b. Glucokinase

c. Treacher Collins Syndrome

d. 3rd Brachial Pouch

110. O utilization by tissues hypoxia

(No Answer)

a. CN III Palsy

b. CORRECT:Cyanide poisoning

c. Deoxyhemoglobin

d. Erythropoietin

111. A wide spectrum seizure medication

-1st line for tonic-clonic

Not for status epilepticus

(No Answer)

a. Aplasia

b. Oxytocin

c. Phytanic acid

d. CORRECT:Valproic acid


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112. Downward displacement or retraction of the tongue

(No Answer)

a. Hypoxia

b. Leukocidin

c. CORRECT:glossoptosis

d. Glucokinase

113. Acute inflammatory response to infection

WBC count with neutrophils and neutrophil precursors such as band cells

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

(No Answer)

a. Erythropoietin

b. CORRECT:Leukemoid reaction

c. Phytanic acid

d. Leukemia

114. Characterized by intrusive thoughts that produce uneasiness, apprehension, fear, or worry

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Obsessive compulsive disorder

b. Absence seizure

c. Avoidant Personality Disorder

d. Schizotypal personality disorder

115. Hb concentration causes O content of blood hypoxia

(No Answer)

a. Aplasia

b. ARDS

c. CORRECT:Anemia

d. Hypoxemia


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116. RBCs washed in sterile saline to remove:

WBCs

Lytic mediators

Non-self antigens

Most useful in IgA deficient persons who have circulating anti-IgA Abs

-Use febrile, urticarial and anaphylactic reactions

(No Answer)

a. Hypokinesis

b. 1st Brachial arch

c. SNoW DRoP

d. CORRECT:Washed packed RBCs

117. Anal canal (below pectenate line)

Scrotum

Thighs


(No Answer)

a. Type II error

b. Wernicke's aphasia

c. Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes

d. CORRECT:Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

118. Releases NF-B after undergoing phosphorylation

(No Answer)

a. Imatinib

b. CORRECT:IB

c. Lymphoma

d. ARDS

119. Occurs when an egg is fertilized by two sperm or by one sperm which reduplicates itself

yielding the genotypes of 69,XXY

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Partial hydatidiform mole

b. Complete hydatidiform mole

c. Type II error

d. Dysthymic disorder


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120. Destroys DNA in WBCs

-Prevents graft vs host disease occurring from transfusion

Important if transfusion is from:

1. Close family relation

2. Someone who is immunocompromised (Di George Syndrome, Wiskott Aldrich, and SCID)

(No Answer)

a. 3rd Brachial arch

b. Case Control

c. CORRECT:Irradiated packed RBCs

d. Diaphoresis

121. Liver and cells of pancreas

Low affinity (High Km), high capacity (High Vm)

Induced by insulin

It's a *glu*ton has high Vmax b/c it can't be satisfied

At low glucose concentration, hexokinase sequesters glucose in the tissues.

Ah high glucose concentration, excess glucose is stored in the liver

(No Answer)

a. Anemia

b. CORRECT:Glucokinase

c. Aplasia

d. glossoptosis

122. Decrease in arterial Po

(No Answer)

a. Anemia

b. Cytarabine

c. CORRECT:Hypoxemia

d. Leukemia


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123. Cartilage:

Reichert's (Stapes, Styloid, Stylohyoid)

Muscles:

Stapedius, Stylohyoid

Nerves:

CN VII

-Smaile

(No Answer)


b. CORRECT:2nd Brachial arch

c. 1st Brachial arch

d. 3rd Brachial arch

124. Persistence of cleft and pouch fistula between tonsillar area, cleft in lateral neck

(No Answer)

a. Immunohistochemistry

b. CORRECT:Congentio pharyngo-cutaneous fistula

c. Listeria monocytogenes

d. Phosphorylase kinase

125. Cartilage:

Greater horn of hyoid

Muscles:

Stylopharyngeus

-Stylopharyngeus innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve

Nerves:

CN IX

-Swallow stylishly

(No Answer)

a. 1st Brachial arch

b. CORRECT:3rd Brachial arch

c. A-a gradient

d. Branchial apparatus


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126. Hereditary disease (autosomal recessive) consisting of an error is mucopolysaccharide

metabolism

Characterized by severe abnormalities in development of skeletal cartilage and bone and

mental retardation

(No Answer)

a. Southwestern blot

b. CORRECT:Dysostosis multiplex

c. Testosterone

d. Mesoblastic nephroma

127. Bitemporal anopia

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Optic chiasm lesion

b. Peptic ulcers

c. Temporal lobe lesion

d. Type I error

128. Accumulates in Pipecolic acidemia

- Very rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that is caused by a peroxisomal defect

(No Answer)

a. Prevalence

b. Peroxisomec. CORRECT:Pipecolic acid

d. Glucokinase


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129. Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase DNA Synthesis (S-phase specific)

Used with:

Melanoma, CML, Sickle cell disease ( HbF)

Toxicity:

Bone marrow suppression

GI upset

(No Answer)

a. Hypoxia

b. Fluoxetine

c. CORRECT:Hydroxyurea

d. Hypoxemia

130. Process of detecting antigens (e.g., proteins) in cells of a tissue section by exploiting the

principle of antibodies binding specifically to antigens in biological tissues

(No Answer)

a. Absence seizure

b. Hypokinesis

c. Peroxisome

d. CORRECT:Immunohistochemistry

131. Common site ofsaccular (berry) aneurysm.

CN III Palsy: Eye is "down and out" with ptosis and pupil dilation

Lesions are typically aneurysms, not strokes

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Posterior Communicating Artery

b. Dysthymic disorder

c. Obsessive compulsive disorder

d. Prenatal cocaine effects


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132. 4 out of 11 of the following

1. Malar rash

2. Discoid rash

3. Serositis: Pleurisy or Pericarditis

4. Oral ulcers

5. Arthritis

6. Photosensitivity

7. Blood disorder: Hemolytic anemia, leukopenia, lymphopenia, thombocytopenia,

~hypocomplementemia

8. Renal disorder

9. ANA +ve

10. Immunologic disorder

11. Neurologic disorder

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:SLE Criteria

b. Leukocidin

c. Lorazepam

d. glossoptosis

133. Receive lymphatics from:

All the pelvic viscera

Deeper parts of the perineum

-membranous and cavernous portions of the urethra

Buttock and back of the thighCervix!

Not: Ovary, testis, or superior half of the rectum

Gonads drain to the paraaortic lymph nodes

Superior half of the rectum drains to the pararectal lymph nodes

(No Answer)

a. Trapezium bone

b. Branchial apparatus

c. Anabolic steroids

d. CORRECT:Internal iliac lymph nodes


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134. Southern = DNA

Northern = RNA

Western = Protein

(No Answer)

a. Peroxisome

b. NF-B

c. Scurvy

d. CORRECT:SNoW DRoP

135. Most cases of salmonellosis are caused by food infected with w/ this bacteria, which often

infects cattle and poultry

A remarkable large number of fimbrial and non-fimbrial adhesins are present in Salmonella

-Mediate biofilm formation and contact to host cells

Secreted proteins are also involved in host cell invasion and intracellular proliferation

-Two hallmarks of Salmonella pathogenesis

Usually does not need ABs (Only if complicated in people at risk such as infants, small

children, the elderly)

-Will lead to prolonged fecal excretion of bacteria

(No Answer)

a. Anabolic steroids

b. Ammoniagenesis

c. Alveolar ventilation

d. CORRECT:Salmonella enterica


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136. Supplies blood to right ventricle & 25-30% of left ventricle

In 85% of patients, gives off posterior descending artery

Supplies SA nodal artery in 60% of patients

Give off branch to right marginal artery

If lungs are clear to auscultation, no LVF. Think RVF!

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Right Coronary Artery

b. Hydroxyurea

c. Ringed sideroblasts

d. Glucokinase

137. Most commonly fractured carpel bone

Prone to avascular necrosis due to retrograde blood supply

Receives its blood primarily from the distal end

Failure of the fracture to heal ("non-union") can result in loss of blood supply to the

proximal pole

- Can result in avascular necrosis of the proximal segment.

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Scaphoid bone

b. Fluoxetine

c. Testosterone

d. Whole blood

138. Pao causes %saturation of hemoglobin hypoxia

(No Answer)

a. Peroxisome

b. CORRECT:Hypoxemia

c. Oxytocin

d. Hydroxyurea


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139. Jaw is undersized

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:micrognathia

b. Peroxisome

c. Hyperammonia

d. Hypoxemia

140. 30 - 60 year olds

Myeloid stem cell proliferation

- neutrophils, metamyelocytes, basophils

t(9;22)

Low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (as opposed to leukemoid reaction)

(No Answer)

a. Wernicke's aphasia

b. Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)

c. CORRECT:Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

d. Parietal lobe lesion

141. Looks at new incidents

(No Answer)

a. Leukocidin

b. Scurvy

c. CORRECT:Incidence

d. Glucokinase


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142. Gram-positive, catalase-positive bacterium

Rod-shaped

Has the ability to form a tough, protective endospore, allowing the organism to tolerate

extreme environmental conditions

Only known to cause disease in severely immunocompromised patients

(No Answer)

a. glossoptosis

b. CORRECT:Bacillus subtilis

c. Tanner stages

d. Case series

143. Type of cytotoxin created by some types of bacteria

Is a type of pore forming toxin

Get their names by killing ("-cide") leukocytes

Associated with increased virulence of certain strains (isolates) of Staphylococcus aureus

Cause of necrotic lesions involving the skin or mucosa, including necrotic hemorrhagic

pneumonia

(No Answer)

a. Incidence

b. Glucokinase

c. CORRECT:Leukocidin

d. IB

144. Removes acetyl groups from AA

-Allows histones to wrap DNA more tightly

Actions are opposite to that of histone acetyltransferase

These would affect transcription of DNA!!!!

(No Answer)

a. Ferrochelatase

b. CORRECT:Histone deacetylase

c. Insulin secretion

d. Incidence


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145. I. Childhood (9 and under)

II. Pubic hair appears; breast bud forms

III. Pubic hair darkens and becomes curly; penis size/length ; breast enlarges

IV. Penis width , darker scrotal skin, developed glans; raised areolae

V. Adult; areolae are no longer raised (14 and over)

(No Answer)

a. Loading dose

b. CORRECT:Tanner stages

c. ARDS

d. Diaphoresis

146. Facilitates GABAa action by frequency of Cl channel opening

Use:

Anxiety

Spasticity

Status epilepticus

Detoxification

(No Answer)

a. Hypoxemia

b. Anemia

c. Aplasia

d. CORRECT:Lorazepam

147. Ear, tonsils, bottom to top

1(ear)

2(tonsils)

3 dorsal (bottom for inferior thyroid)

3 ventral (to = thymus)

4 (top = superior parathyroids)

(No Answer)

a. Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)

b. CORRECT:Brachial pouch pneumonic

c. Branchial apparatus

d. 2nd Brachial Pouch


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148. Results from transfusion of immunocompetent T cells capable of engrafting and initiating

an immune response against recipient antigens

The most susceptible patient groups are those who are severely immunocompromised

Gamma irradiation abolishes the proliferative activity of the lymphocytes in the donor

blood.

Fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate do not contain viable lymphocytes and thus do not

need to be irradiated

(No Answer)


b. CORRECT:Transfusion associated GVH

c. 2nd Brachial Pouch

d. Anabolic steroids

149. Characterized by episodes of all-encompassing low mood accompanied by low self-esteem

and loss of interest or pleasure in normally enjoyable activities

Presence of a severely depressed mood that persists for at least two weeks

(No Answer)

a. Schizoid personality disorder

b. Maintenance dose

c. CORRECT:Major depressive disorder

d. Loading dose


52/58



150. Visual field loss that respects the vertical midline, and usually affects both eyes

Vascular and neoplastic (malignant or benign tumours) lesions from the optic tract, to visual

cortex can cause

-If lesion is in optic tract, will be pupillary reflex problem!

The more posterior the cerebral lesion, the more symmetric (congruous) symptoms will be

1. Person who has a lesion of the right optic tract will no longer see objects on his left side

2. Person who has a stroke to the right occipital lobe will have the same visual field defect,

usually more congruent between the two eyes, and there may be macular sparing

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Homonymous hemianopsia

b. Leukemia

c. Hypoxia

d. SNoW DRoP

151. Dorsal wings

-Inferior parathyroids

Ventral wings

-Thymus

3 structures

Thymus, right & left parathyroids(No Answer)

a. Scaphoid bone

b. 3rd Brachial arch

c. CORRECT:3rd Brachial Pouch

d. Ureteric orifice


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152. Occurs within proximal tubular cells

Glutamine made in the liver, is received from peritubular capillaries and is metabolized into

1. Alpha-keto glutarate (Metabolized further into two HCO3- ions, which then leave the cell

and enter systemic circulation by crossing the basolateral membrane)

2. NH4+ (Secreted into renal tubules)

(No Answer)

a. Albinism

b. Anemia

c. CORRECT:Ammoniagenesis

d. micrognathia

153. Membrane-enclosed organelle involved in catabolism of very long fatty acids (VLFA) &

amino acids

(No Answer)

a. Fluoxetine

b. CORRECT:Peroxisome

c. Hydroxyurea

d. Prevalence

154. Most common renal malignancy of early childhood (Age 2-4)

Contains embryonic glomerular structure

Presents with huge flank mass / hematuria

Deletion of WT1 on chromosome 11

Can be hypervascular....

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)

b. Holosystolic murmur

c. Placenta accreta

d. Bacteroides fagilis


54/58



155. Stimulates labour

Uterine contraction

Milk let down

Controls uterine hemorrhage

(No Answer)

a. Anemia

b. CORRECT:Oxytocin

c. Leukemia

d. Imatinib

156. The major cytotoxic agent released by bacterium Staphylococcus aureus and the first

identified member of the pore forming beta-barrel toxin family

(No Answer)

a. Scaphoid bone

b. SNoW DRoP

c. Hypoxia

d. CORRECT:Staph -toxin

157. Tags proteins for destruction by proteasome

(No Answer)

a. Vitamin C

b. CORRECT:Ubiquitin

c. Albinism

d. Fluoxetine

158. Middle ear cavity

Eustachian tube

Mastoid air cells

(No Answer)

a. 2nd Brachial arch

b. 4th Brachial Pouchc. CORRECT:1st Brachial Pouch

d. Scaphoid bone


55/58



159. Body has iron available but cannot incorporate it into hemoglobin, which red blood cells

need to transport oxygen efficiently

Abnormal nucleated erythroblasts (precursors to mature red blood cells) with granules of

iron accumulated in perinuclear mitochondria

-Seen in aspirates of bone marrow

Most common cause of is excessive alcohol use

Primary pathophysiology = failure to completely form heme molecules (whose biosynthesis

takes place partly in the mitochondrion)

(No Answer)

a. Excess lymphoblasts

b. Case series

c. CORRECT:Ringed sideroblasts

d. Myofibroblast

160. Leads to sex-hormone binding globulin free testosterone

-Gynecomastia results

(No Answer)

a. Case Control

b. Ammoniagenesis

c. CORRECT:Anabolic steroids

d. Insulin secretion

161. Ca+ resorption from Kidney (Inhibits PO4 resorption)

Stimulates Vit D. synth

-Increased Ca+ absorbed from intestine

Ca+ release from bone

serum calcium

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:PTH

b. IB

c. pVHL

d. Anemia


56/58



162. Cell that is in between a fibroblast and a smooth muscle cell in differentiation

Can contract by using smooth muscle type actin-myosin complex, rich in a form of actin

called alpha-smooth muscle actin

-These cells are then capable of speeding wound repair by contracting the edges of the

wound

(No Answer)

a. Hypokinesis

b. Hyperammonia

c. Ferrochelatase

d. CORRECT:Myofibroblast

163. Stone, Bones, and Groans

Hypercalcemia

Hypercalciuria (Stones)

Hypophosphatemia

PTH, Alk Phos, cAMP in urine

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Hyperparathyroidism

b. SLE Criteria

c. Peroxisome

d. Erythropoietin

164. Diminished or abnormally slow movement

(No Answer)

a. Hypoxia

b. Hyperammonia

c. CORRECT:Hypokinesis

d. Diaphoresis


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165. Second generation sulfonylurea

Close K+ channel in -cell membrane, so cell depolarizes

+ triggering of insulin release via Ca2+ influx.

Stimulate release of endogenous insulin in type 2 DM. Require some islet function, so

useless in type 1 DM

Toxicity: Hypoglycemia

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Glipizide

b. Incidence

c. Hypoxia

d. Albinism

166. Brief (usually less than 20 seconds), generalized epileptic seizures of sudden onset and

termination

Clinically, the impairment of consciousness (absence)

Electroencephalography (EEG) shows generalized spike-and-slow wave discharges ~3Hz

(No Answer)

a. Incidence

b. CORRECT:Absence seizure

c. Type II error

d. Case Control

167. Cp x Vd

(mass/volume) x (volume)

Remember:

If volume of distribution is given in L/kg

-Need to multiply by body weight to find actual volume distribution(No Answer)

a. Olanzapine

b. Scaphoid bone

c. CORRECT:Loading dose

d. Glucokinase


58/58


168. Chronic inflammation due to Helicobacter pylori that colonizes the antral mucosa

NSAIDs

Some studies have found correlations between smoking and ulcer formation

Caffeine and coffee, also commonly thought to cause or exacerbate ulcers, have not been

found to affect ulcers to any significant exten

(No Answer)

a. CORRECT:Peptic ulcers

b. Leukocidin

c. Leukemia

d. Ferrochelatase

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