test booklet series answer key to 1 terminal test wbcs ...siclasses.com/img/20180326192057answer to...

SI Classes www.siclasses.com

SI Classes for WBCS/ Course Conducted By: Sirajul Islam: 9051419808

1. ‘die in harness’ means – (A) die with dignity (B) die while eating (C) die while in service (D) die from a chronic pain

2. ‘Meteorology’ is the study of – (A) Weights and measure (B) Soil (C) Antique artefacts (D) Weather

3. ‘Everybody’ falls into the category of a/an –

(A) Noun (B) Adjective (C) Pronoun (D) Adverb

4. ‘To pay off old scores’ means – (A) clearing debts (B) to take revenge (C) to suffer for a wrong deed (D) to so gratitude

5. Anis _________ me a watch a few days back. (A) gives (B) has given (C) gave (D) had given

6. ‘Tall story’ means – (A) something difficult to achieve (B) a long story (C) a lie (D) none of the above

7. Fill in the blanks with the correct word: You had better _______ permission. (A) want (B) ask (C) call (D) order

Choose the right word from the options given (Q.8-11)

8. One who collects coin is called (A) Epitaph (B) Necrophilia (C) Numismatist (D) Lunar

9. One who leaves his country for another is (A) A traitor (B) A refugee (C) An emigrant (D) An immigrant

10. A dwelling in which soldiers live (A) Camp (B) Barracks (C)Tents (D) Cottage

11. Piece of writing done by hand is called a (A)Script (B) Copy (C) Manuscript (D) Essay

Choose the exact meaning of the underlined part of the sentence(Q.12 -16):

12. Your essay contains much superfluous matter. (A) Unnecessary (B) Needless (C) Digressive (D) Redundant

13. It was arduous task (A) Difficult (B) problematic (C) Effortless (D) Fitting

14. The old lady is extremely Loquacious (A) Humorous (B) Talkative (C) Foul-mouthed

15. The University Commission has declared to revoke

affiliation of those colleges which have chosen to float

its administrative decisions.

(A) deny (B) obey (C) disregard (D) condemn

16. His arrogance is exceeded only by his Abysmal ignorance. (A) Bottomless (B) Eternal (C) Diabolic (D) Internal

Choose the appropriate preposition to fill in the blanks in the sentences given (Q.17-22)

17. Hard work is indispensable ________success (A) for (B) at (C) to (D) in

18. He was honourably acquitted _________ the charge. (A) of (B) from (C) on (D) with

19. He died _____ a severe head injury. (A) on (B) of (C) from (D) with

20. _____his illness, he attains the exam. (A) In spite (B) Due (C) As of (D) Despite

21. The crew were _____ the ship for a month. (A) on (B) aboard (C) on board (D) off

22. Open defecation dropped 11% _____very high levels _____ Community-Led Total Sanitation programme. (A) from, after (B) to, for (C) from, about (D) to, in

From the option choose the words most nearly opposite (Q.23-26)

23. Extravagance (A) Rashness (B) Meanness (C) Prudence (D) Excess

24. Reprisal (A) Chaste (B) Candid (C) Soothing (D) Forgive

25. Allay (A)Elation (B) agitate (C) Abet (D) deter

26. Tremulous (A) Steady (B) Gusto (C) Wary (D) Colossal

Use suitable idiom to substitute the sentence (Q.27-29)

27. Destroy Someone’s reputation (A) Turn over to a new leaf (B) Dog in a Manger (C) With flying colour (D) Bolt one’s copy book

28. A welcome sight (A) Made light off (B) Sight for sore eyes (C) Bull in the china shop (D) Bone of contention

29. Face difficult problem courageously (A) By the skin of one’s teeth (B) Walk on air

ANSWER KEY to 1st Terminal Test

WBCS (Exe) Examination (Prelims), 2019 GENERAL STUDIES

Full Marks: 200 Test Code: P1801 Date: 25/03/2018 Time: 2 hour 30 minutes

Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3rd

marks will be deducted for each wrong attempt.

Test Booklet Series



(C) To take the bull by the horns (D) Harp on

30. A day in winter is cold but to turn a cold shoulder to a person is to (A) Pursue him (B) Ignore him (C) Approach him (D) Hurt him

31. Deeds are better than _______ (A) Actions (B) Appearances (C) words (D) Hopes

Choose the Appropriate phrasal verbs of the underline part of the sentence: (Q32 -33)

32. I can’t understand your teaching (A) Turns out (B) Take in (C) Threw over (D) Turn down

33. He fell asleep due to exhaustion (A) Ties in (B) Pulled through (C) Flaked out (D) Let off

34. Spot the correct spelling: (A) Einstine (B) Commitee (C) Cigarette (D) Colera

35. What do you mean by ‘Tour de force’? (A) Masterpiece (B) Grand tour (C) Long Tour (D) Art and culture

36. ‘A good Samaritan’ is (A) Very claver (B) A fool (C) Someone who tries to help people (D) Smart and clean

37. Choose the opposite of the following idiomatic expression from the options given: “To go to the dogs” (A) To turn over a new leaf (B) To oil one’s own machine (C) be off one’s head (D) To breathe one’s last

38. A person who readily believes others is called – (A) credulous (B) believer (C) subservient (D) veteran

39. ‘To be above board’ means (A) To have a good height (B) To be honest in any business deal (C) They have no debts (D) To try to be beautiful

40. ‘To end in smoke’ means – (A) To make completely understand (B) To ruin oneself (C) To excite great applause (D) To overcome someone

41. “You are permitted to ____ this test booklet after examination.” (A) take (B) keep (C) take away (D) keep up

42. A person who renounces the world and practices self-discipline in order to attain salvation: (A) Sceptic (B) Ascetic (C) Devotee (D) Antiquarian

43. An act of speaking one's thoughts aloud when by oneself or regardless of any hearers, especially by a character in a play: (A) Sinecure (B) Soliloquy (C) Pessimist (D) Philanthropist

44. ‘Mellifluous’ means: (A) Sweet-sounding (B) Cacophonic (C) Loud (D) Irritating

45. A ‘misanthrope’ is a person who (A) Dislikes women (B) Dislikes other people (C) Dislikes children (D) Dislikes nature

46. My friend was a person apt to act suddenly without thinking. Select the single word that expresses the meaning of the underlined part: (A) Impulsive (B) Excitable (C) Thoughtless (D) Violent

47. To regret is to be – (A) Sad (B) Sorrowful (C) Tragic (D) Sorry

48. He is not fit to hold a candle to predecessor. Choose the exact meaning of the underlined: (A) unable to enlighten (B) incapable of following (C) to be name in comparison with (D) Unfit to guide

49. A person out to destroy the government – (A) An anarchist (B) A bigot (C) A dictator (D) A heretic

50. I can’t walk any ________. (A) farther (B) further (C) distance (D) far

51. Magadha was founded by – (A) Jarasandha (B) Prosenjit (C) Udayana (D) Bimbisara

52. ‘Anguttara Nikaya’ is – (A) Jain Scripture (B) Buddhist Scripture (C) Scripted by Satavahana (D) none of this

53. Royal Emblem of the Cholas was – (A) Bow (B) Carp (Fish) (C) Vessel (D) Tiger

54. The conquest of Kalinga by the Nandas is referred in – (A) Allahabad Inscriptions (B) Hathigumpha Inscriptions (C) Aihole Inscriptions (D) none of these

55. Official Language of the Satavahana Empire was – (A) Sanskrit (B) Pali (C) Prakit (D) Hindi

56. Alexander marched to India in – (A) 326 BC (B) 325 BC (C) 324 BC (D) 321 BC



57. Kharoshti script is said to be derived from Armaic script, which is brought to India by – (A) Greeks (B) Persians (C) Aryans (D) Turks

58. Who wrote ‘Mudrarakshasa’? (A) Sudraka (B) Kautilya (C) Vishakhdatta (D) Banavatta

59. Who was the first Independent King of Bengal? (A) Gopal (B) Shashanka (C) Mahasenagupta (D) Dharmapala

60. The Vikramashila Mahavihara was founded by – (A) Mahipala I (B) Lakshman Sena (C) Dev Pala (D) Dharmapala

61. Which among the following statements is/are correct? (A) James Prinsep deciphered Brahmi script in 1837. (B) Wilkins translated Abhijnan-Shakuntalam into English in 1789. (C) William Jones translated the Bhagwat Gita into English in 1784. (D) All of the above

62. Pataliputra was the capital of which among the following dynasties – (A) Gupta (B) Kanva (C) Shunga (D) All of them

63. The King who built the ‘Sun Temple of Konark’ was from (A) Rastrakuta dynasty (B) Ganga dynasty (C) Pallava dynasty (D) none of these

64. Which of the following became Ashoka’s capital after Kalinga war? (A) Pataliputra (B) Toshali (C) Rajgir (D) Taxila

65. ‘Tirukkural’ – the Bible of Tamil Land is written by – (A) Tiruttakrdevas (B) Sittalai Sattanar (C) Tiruvalluvar (D) Ilango Adigal

66. Who named Samudragupta as ‘Napoleon of India’? (A) R C Majumder (B) V A Smith (C) James Prinsep (D) Irfan Habib

67. Fahien visited India during the reign of – (A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Samudragupta (C) Vikramaditya (D) Harshavardhan

68. The Ramayana and the Mahabharata were compiled in – (A) Mauryan period (B) Saka era (C) Gupta period (D) Harsha era

69. Charak was the famous court physician of – (A) Harsha (B) Chandragupta Maurya (C) Samudragupta (D) Kanishka

70. Which of the following is not among the Three Principles of Jainism? (A) Right Desire (B) Right Faith (C) Right Knowledge (D) Right Conduct

71. Mahavira born in – (A) 563 BC (B) 540 BC (C) 483 BC (D) 468 BC

72. Which of the following pairs (Buddha’s Life-events and symbol) is wrongly matched?

(A) Birth – Lotus and bull (B) Great Renunciation - Horse (C) Nirvana – Bodhi tree (D) Death – Wheel

73. Who was the chairman of the First Buddhist Council? (A) Sabakami (B) Mahakashyap (C) Upagupta (D) Vasumitra

74. Who was called by Mahabhasya as ‘Amitra-ghata’? (A) Bimbisara (B) Ajatasatru (C) Asoka (D) Bindusara

75. Which of the following animals is not found in the Sarnath Pillar of Ashoka? (A) Bull (B) Horse (C) Elephant (D) Tiger

76. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct: I). Aryans were first people in India to know the use of iron and brought horses along with them II). Battle of Ten Kings is mentioned in Anguttara Nikaya (A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

77. Arrange the following dynasties in chronological order in terms of their arrival in India 1. Sakas 2. Indo-Greeks 3. Parthians 4. Kushanas Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (C) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (D)2, 3, 1 and 4

78. Which of the following sources contains the pronouncement “All men are my children”? (A) 1st separate rock edict (B) 2nd separate rock edict (C) 5th Rock edict (D) 6th pillar edict

79. Sulpani was a famous artist of the – (A) Kushana period (B) Gupta period (C) Pala period (D) Sena period

80. Who wrote Kitab-ur-Rahla? (A) Al Beruni (B) Ibn Batuta (C) Hasan Nizami (D) Abul Fazl

81. The Lion capital of currency notes was discovered from – (A) Sanchi (B) Bharat (C) Bodh Gaya (D) Sarnath

82. Who among the following were the first rulers to make land grants to the Brahmanas? (A) Shungas (B) Satabahanas (C) Guptas (D) Khushanas

83. Which ruler was contemporary of both Buddha and Mahavira? (A) Bindusara (B) Chandragupta (C) Ajatsatru (D) Pradyot

84. Who introduced Kaulinya System in Bengal? (A) Gopal (B) Ballal Sen (C) Kakshman Sen (D) Dharmapal

85. Who was the first important ruler of the Pushyabhuti Dynasty? (A) Harshavaedhana (B) Rajyavardhana



(C) Prabhakaravardhana (D) Pushyabhuti

86. Mathura was famous for ‘Shataka’, which is a special kind of – (A) food (B) cloth (C) jewellery (D) shoe

87. Mural painting at Ajanta, which mainly depicts the life stories of Buddha as in the Jataka stories, belong to – (A) Maurya period (B) Gupta period (C) Kushana period (D) Saka period

88. Who among the following ruler defeated the Hunas? (A) Skandagupta (B) Kumaragupta II (C) Chandragupta II (D) none of them

89. Who among the following is described as ‘Hero of Hundred Battles’ by V A Smith? (A) Ashoka (B) Skandagupta (C) Chandragupta Maurya (D) Samudragupta

90. The most famous Saka ruler in India was – (A) Menander (B) Rudradaman I (C) Kadphises I (D) Darius

91. Kandahar Inscription of Ashoka mentions: (A) hunters and fisherman gave up hunting and killing

and began practicing agriculture. (B) The Victory over Kalinga and the destruction of war. (C) Details of visit to the Bodhi tree. (D) None of the above

92. Kautilya’s Arthashashtra is divided into main theme as – 1. The king and his council and departments of government 2. Diplomacy of war 3. Economic planning 4. Civil and criminal laws 5. Art and Culture (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 4 and 5 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

93. Who among the following also known as ‘Upagupta’? (A) Mahakashyap (B) Sabakami (C) Mogliputra Tissa (D) Vasumitra

94. Which of the following statements is not correct? (A) In Mahayana sect, idol worship is believed. (B) The Buddhism established in Tibet in 11th century

was a result of a mission by Mahayana sect. (C) Hinayana sect is known as ‘Southern Buddhist

Religion’. (D) Pali language was used by Hinayana Buddhist.

95. Which of the Buddhist scripture is also called a ‘Book of Discipline’? (A) The Vinaya Pitaka (B) The Sutta Pitaka (C) The Abhidhamma Pitaka (D) None of these

96. The Jain religious literature was written in – (A) Pali (B) Sanskrit (C) Ardhamagadhi (D) Persian

97. Which of the following is called ‘the city of the ten temples’? (A) Pattadakal (B) Kanchipuram

(C) Mahabalipuram (D) Madurai

98. The founder of ‘Elephanta Caves’ was is – (A) Krishna I (B) Narsingh Varman I (C) Narsingh Varman II (D) Vimala

99. The Satavahanas were succeeded by – (A) Kanvas (B) Ikshvakus (C) Pandyas (D) Parthians

100. Who wrote Ramcharitam? (A) Banabhatta (B) Kalidasa (C) Sandhyakar Nandi (D) Tulsi Das

101. Emergency provisions in Indian Constitution is taken from – (A) Weimer Constitution of Germany (B) US Constitution (C) South African Constitution (D) Government of India Act, 1935

102. Which type of Veto Power is not enjoyed by the President of India? (A) Absolute Veto (B) Suspensive Veto (C) Qualified Veto (D) Pocket Veto

103. Parliament can approve the extension of an emergency in a single instance for maximum period of – (A) 2 months (B) 6 months (C) 3 years (D) no such limit is there

104. National Emergency was declared for the second time due to – (A) Indo-Pak War (B) Chinese Aggression (C) Internal disturbance (D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is not true? (A) Article 72 provides for the Pardoning power of the

President of India. (B) Awarding lesser sentence on special ground (i.e.

pregnancy) is called – Respite. (C) Governor can give relief to convict on death sentence

by changing it to life imprisonment. (D) In India, Nuclear Command is under the control of

the President of India.

106. How many members attended the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on 9th December 1946? (A) 389 (B) 296 (C) 211 (D) 193

107. Flag Committee in the Constituent Assembly was headed by – (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Sardar V B Patel (C) Dr Rajendra Prashad (D) K M Munshi

108. The Objective Resolution moved by J L Nehru was accepted in the Assembly on – (A) 13th December 1946 (B) 22nd January 1947 (C) 22nd July 1947 (D) 26th November 1949



109. The provision of Nominating members in the Rajya Sabha was taken from? (A) South African Constitution (B) British Constitution (C) Irish Constitution (D) Canadian Constitution

110. Who defined the Preamble as – ‘Political Horoscope of the Indian Constitution’? (A) K M Munshi (B) K T Shah (C) Thakurdas Bhargav (D) N A Palkivala

111. Which of following group of words was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (A) SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST AND SECULAR (B) SOCIALIST, SECULAR AND INTEGRITY (C) SECULAR, SOVEREIGN AND REPUBLIC (D) SECULAR, SOCIALIST AND DEMOCRATIC

112. The Distribution of Power between the Union and the Sate Government is contained in – (A) 6th Schedule (B) 7th Schedule (C) 8th Schedule (D) 9th Schedule

113. How many languages were initially recognized by the Constitution of India? (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 19

114. Which of the following Part contains only one Article? (A) Part IV (B) Part IVA (C) Part XX (D) both (B) & (C)

115. Part IXA contains the provisions for – (A) The Panchayats (B) The Municipalities (C) The Co-operatives (D) Relations between the Union and the States

116. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India as - (A) Federal State (B) Quasi-Federal State (C) Unitary State (D) Union of States

117. Which commission recommended that 27% of the jobs should be reserved for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? (A) Shah Commission (B) Mandal Commission (C) Kothari Commission (D) Fazal Ali Commission

118. If Bangladesh (which is not a part of India) wishes to be a part of Indian Union as a state, with the help of which Article Parliament may do so? (A) Article 1 (B) Article 2 (C) Article 3 (D) none of these

119. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of press? (A) Article 16 (B) Article 19 (C) Article 21 (D) Article 25

120. Which among the following chronological order of formation of these states as full States of Indian Union? (A) Nagaland-Haryana-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh (B) Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh- Haryana-Nagaland

(C) Arunachal Pradesh-Sikkim-Haryana-Nagaland (D) Haryana-Nagaland-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh

121. Article 8 provides for the Citizenship of – (A) A person who migrated to India from Pakistan. (B) A person who migrated to Pakistan from India but

later latter returned to India for resettlement. (C) A person of Indian origin residing outside of India. (D) None of these

122. The concept of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) was launched during the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention at Hyderabad on 9th January of – (A) 2000 (B) 2004 (C) 2006 (D) 2008

123. Which of the following is not one of the Fundamental Rights? (A) Right to freedom of religion (B) Right to freedom of thoughts and expression (C) Right to equality (D) Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as woman

124. Which Part of Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’? (A) Part II (B) Part III (C) Part IV (D) Part IVA

125. Impeachment of the President of India is a __________ process in Parliament. (A) Legislative (B) Judicial (C) Quasi-judicial (D) Executive

126. By which Amendment, ‘Right to Property’ was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution? (A) 36th Amendment Act (B) 42nd Amendment Act (C) 44th Amendment Act (D) 69th Amendment Act

127. Which of the following is broader in the sense? (A) Union of India (B) Territory of India (C) Both represents same (D) Union Territory

128. Which Article says that an accused person cannot be compelled to become a witness against himself? (A) Article 19 (B) Article 20 (C) Article 21 (D) Article 36

129. Article 21A declares that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of age – (A) 3 to 6 years (B) 0 to 6 years (C) 6 to 14 years (D) 3 to 14 years

130. Who called Right to Constitutional Remedies as the “Soul of the Constitution and very heart of it”? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) K T Shah (C) K M Munshi (D) Dr B R Ambedkar

131. Who among the following was elected President of India unopposed? (A) Dr Rajendra Prasad (B) Dr S Radhakrishnan (C) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (D) K R Narayan

132. How many schedule was originally there in the constitution? (A) 12 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 6



133. Who among the following were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution? 1. KM Munshi 2. Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar 4. Sardar Patel

(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4

134. Which article provided for organization of Village Panchayats (A) Article 39 (B) Article 37 (C) Article 40 (D) Article 73

135. Which of the following Writs could be issued only against Judicial and Quashi-Judicial authorities? 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Prohibition 4. Certiorari 5. Qua-Warranto

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3, 4 and 5

136. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principles of State Policy (C) Extent of Executive Power of State (D) Conduct of business of the Government of India

137. The ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution includes: 1. The Government and Parliament of India 2. The Government and legislature of the states 3. Local authorities or other authorities within the territories of India or under the control of Government of India Which of the following are included? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3

138. Right to Education is a Fundamental Right emanating from Right to – (A) Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19 (B) Culture and Education under Article 29 and 30 (C) Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 (D) Equality before law and equal protection of the laws under Article 14

139. Which of the following are included in the DPSP in the Constitution of India? 1. Uniform civil code for the citizens 2. Separation of judiciary from executive 3. Protection of monuments of national importance


140. Which of the following Articles are based on Gandhian Principles? 1. Article 39 2. Article 40 3. Article 43 4. Article 45 5. Article 47 6. Article 51

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 4, 5 and 6 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 5

141. Which of the following Directive Principles are added after 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978?

(A) 38(2) (B) 39(a) (C) 43A (D) All of these

142. The concept of Directive Principles of Sate Policies is borrowed from – (A) US Constitution (B) Irish Constitution (C) French Constitution (D) Russian Constitution

143. Fundamental Duties were added on the basis of – (A) Objective Resolution (B) ‘Instrument of Instruction’ (C) Swaran Singh Committee Report (D) None of these

144. Consider the following statements and answer using the codes given below: Electoral Collage for Presidential Election consistent of – 1. Elected members of both Houses 2. Nominated members of both Houses 3. Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states 4. Elected members of the Legislative assemblies of two UTs – Delhi and Puducherry 5. Elected members of the Legislative Council of the states Code: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 5

145. The President of India takes the oath under the supervision of – (A) The Prime Minister (B) The Vice President (C) The Chief Justice of India (D) Any of them

146. Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policies? (A) Prohibition of liquor (B) Right to work (C) Equal pay for equal work (D) Right to Information

147. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment.” This statement refers to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (A) Article 21 (B) Article 48A (C) Article 51A (D) Article 56

148. How many Fundamental Duties were originally there at the time of enactment of the Indian Constitution? (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 7 (D) None of these

149. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (A) The President has no veto power in respect of a

Constitutional Amendment Bill. (B) Directive Principles are non-justiciable. (C) Nominated members of both Houses of the

Parliament can take part in the impeachment process of the President

(D) All are correct

150. The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Preamble



(D) Fundamental Rights

151. LCM OF 22, 54, 108, 135, 198 (A) 330 (B) 1980 (C) 5940 (D) 11880

152. The L.C.M of 2/3, 4/9,5/6, 7/12 (A) 1/18 (B) 1/36 (C) 35/9 (D) 140/3

153. The HCF two numbers is 12 and their difference is also 12. The numbers are: (A) 66, 78 (B) 70, 82 (C) 94,106 (D) 84, 96

154. The largest number that divides 210,315,147, and 168 exactly is (A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 21 (D) 4410

155. The capacity of two pots is 120 litres and 56 litres respectively. The capacity of a container which can exactly measure the contents of the two pots is: (A) 7500cc (B) 7850cc (C) 8000cc (D) 9500cc

156. The H.C.F of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is: (A) 279 (B) 283 (C) 308 (D) 318

157. The sum of two numbers is 216 and their H.C.F is 27. The numbers are (A) 54,162 (B) 108,108 (C) 27, 189 (D) None of these

158. Two 3 digit numbers have their H.C.F 29 and L.C.M 4147. The sum of the numbers is: (A) 666 (B) 669 (C) 696 (D) 966

159. What is the least number which when divided by 5, 6, 8, 9, 12 gives reminder 1 in each case and completely divisible by 13? (A) 361 (B) 721 (C) 1801 (D) 3601

160. If two numbers are in the ratio 5:7 and their L.C.M is 315, then their product is: (A) 2358 (B) 2385 (C) 2538 (D)2835

161. H.C.F and L.C.M of two numbers x and y are respectively 3 and 105. If x + y =36 then 1/x +1/y=? (A) 35 (B) 3/5 (C) 4/35 (D) 1/35

162. The H.C.F of two numbers is 24. The number which can be their L.C.M. is: (A) 84 (B) 120 (C)128 (D)148

163. Which greatest number will divide 3026 and 5053 leaving reminder 11 and 13 (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 60

164. The greatest number of 5 digits, which is divisible by 15, 36, 21 is (A) 99459 (B) 99540 (C) 99979 (D) 99999

165. Three sets of English, Mathematics and Science books containing 336, 240, and 96 books respectively have to be stacked in such a way that all the books are stored subject wise and the height of the each stacked is the same. The total number of stacks will be: (A) 14 (B) 21 (C) 22 (D) 48

166. What is the least number which when diminished by 5, is divisible by each one of 21,28,36,45?

(A) 425 (B) 1259 (C) 1260 (D) 1265

167. What is the least multiple of 7 which when divided by each one of 6, 9, 15, 18 gives reminder 4 in each case? (A) 74 (B) 94 (C) 184 (D) 364

168. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 second respectively. In 30 minutes how many times do they toll together? (A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 16

169. Look at this series: 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ... What number should come next? (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 13 (D) 12

170. The traffic lights at three different road crossing change after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds, and 108 seconds respectively. If they all charge simultaneously at 8.20pm, then what time will they again change simultaneously? (A) 8:27:12hrs (B) 8.27:24hrs (C) 8:27:36hrs (D) 8:27:48hrs

171. Reduce

to lowest term.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

172. The L.C.M of two prime numbers x and y (x>y) is 161. The value of (3y-x) is: (A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 2

173. Three different containers contain different qualities of mixtures of milk and water whose measurement are 403kg, 434kg, and 465kg. What biggest measure must be there to be measure all the different quantities exactly? (A) 1kg (B) 7 kg (C) 31kg (D) 41Kg

174. The product of two co-prime is 117 their L.C.M should be (A) 1 (B) 117 (C) Equal to their H.C.F (D) can’t be calculated

175. H.C.F of 3240, 3600 and the third number is 36 and their L.C.M Is (24 × 35 × 52 × 72). The third number is: (A) 25 × 52 × 72 (B) 23 × 35 × 72 (C) 22× 35 × 72 (D) 22 × 53 × 72

176. The largest number which divides 77, 147 and 252 to leave the same reminder in each case (A) 9 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 35

177. It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the following numbers is definitely divisible by the same number? (A) (216 + 1) (B) (216 - 1) (C) (7 x 223) (D) (296 + 1)

178. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by 23? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 18 (D) 21

179. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next? (A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 27 (D) 53

180. Identify the missing number in the series: 2, 3, 12, 37, 86, 167, ? (A) 204 (B) 258 (C) 288 (D) 402



181. Look at this series: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87 , ... What number should come next? (A) 128 (B) 226 (C) 324 (D) 429

182. (51 + 52 + 53 + ... + 100) = ? (A) 2525 (B) 2975 (C) 3225 (D) 3775

183. If (6767 + 67) is divided by 68, the remainder is – (A) 1 (B) 63 (C) 66 (D) 67

184. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? (A) 73 (B) 75 (C) 76 (D) 78

185. 70, 40, 50, 90, 200, ? (A) 400 (B) 450 (C) 475 (D) 525

186. 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, ? (A) 76 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 50

187. What is the unit digit in (4517)754? (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 9

188. A number is as much greater than 31 as is less than 55. The number is – (A) 47 (B) 52 (C) 39 (D) 43

189. Replace the question mark (?) with the suitable option: 2, 3, 7, ?, 32 (A) 21 (B) 20 (C) 16 (D) 13

190. Which of the following number is exactly divisible by

11?

(A) 235641 (B) 245642 (C) 315624 (D) 415624

191.

=?

(A) 1000 (B) 1001 (C) 1002 (D) 1003

192. If the product of three consecutive integers is 120, the sum of the integers is – (A) 9 (B) 15 (C) 14 (D) 12

193.

of a number is 64. Half of the number is –

(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 16

194. Identify the wrong number in the series: 69, 55, 26, 13, 5 (A) 5 (B) 13 (C) 26 (D) 55

195. Find the wrong term in the series: 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, 93 (A) 30 (B) 14 (C) 55 (D) 93

196. Find the wrong term in the series: 1, 3 , 12, 25, 48 (A) 3 (B) 12 (C) 25 (D) 48

197. What will come next in the series?

√ ,

,

√ ,

, ?

(A)

√ (B)

√ (C)

(D)

√

198. Complete the series: 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ? (A) 316 (B) 1135 (C) 1288 (D) 2254

199. In the series 7, 14, 28, ... , what will be the 6th term? (A) 56 (B) 224 (C) 112 (D) 3584






2. He fell asleep due to exhaustion (A) Ties in (B) Pulled through (C) Flaked out (D) Let off 3. Spot the correct spelling:

(A) Einstine (B) Commitee (C) Cigarette (D) Colera






9. ‘To end in smoke’ means – (A) To make completely understand (B) To ruin oneself (C) To excite great applause

(D) To overcome someone 10. ‘die in harness’ means –

(A) die with dignity (B) die while eating (C) die while in service (D) die from a chronic pain 11. ‘Meteorology’ is the study of –

(A) Weights and measure (B) Soil (C) Antique artefacts (D) Weather 12. ‘Everybody’ falls into the category of a/an –

(A) Noun (B) Adjective (C) Pronoun (D) Adverb 13. ‘To pay off old scores’ means –

(A) clearing debts (B) to take revenge (C) to suffer for a wrong deed (D) to so gratitude 14. Anis _________ me a watch a few days back.

(A) gives (B) has given (C) gave (D) had given

15. ‘Tall story’ means – (A) something difficult to achieve (B) a long story (C) a lie (D) none of the above 16. Fill in the blanks with the correct word:

You had better _______ permission. (A) want (B) ask (C) call (D) order

Choose the exact meaning of the underlined part of the sentence (Q.17 -21): 17. Your essay contains much superfluous matter.

(A) Unnecessary (B) Needless (C) Digressive (D) Redundant


19. The old lady is extremely Loquacious (A) Humorous (B) Talkative (C) Foul-mouthed (D) Dumb






Choose the appropriate preposition to fill in the blanks in the sentences given (Q.22-27) 22. Hard work is indispensable ________success

(A) for (B) at (C) to (D) in 23. He was honourably acquitted _________ the charge.

(A) of (B) from (C) on (D) with 24. He died _____ a severe head injury.

(A) on (B) of (C) from (D) with 25. _____his illness, he attains the exam.

(A) In spite (B) Due (C) As of (D) Despite 26. The crew were _____ the ship for a month.

(A) on (B) aboard (C) on board (D) off 27. Open defecation dropped 11% _____very high levels

_____ Community-Led Total Sanitation programme. (A) from, after (B) to, for (C) from, about (D) to, in

Choose the words most nearly opposite (Q.28-31)

1st Terminal Test





Test Booklet Series







Use suitable idiom to substitute the sentence (Q.32-34) 32. Destroy Someone’s reputation

(A) Turn over to a new leaf (B) Dog in a Manger (C) With flying colour (D) Bolt one’s copy book


34. Face difficult problem courageously (A) By the skin of one’s teeth (B) Walk on air (C) To take the bull by the horns (D) Harp on













Choose the right word from the options given (Q.47-50) 47. One who collects coin is called (A) Epitaph (B) Necrophilia (C) Numismatist (D) Lunar 48. One who leaves his country for another is (A) A traitor (B) A refugee (C) An emigrant (D) An immigrant 49. A dwelling in which soldiers live (A) Camp (B) Barracks (C)Tents (D) Cottage 50. Piece of writing done by hand is called a (A)Script (B) Copy (C) Manuscript (D) Essay 51. Magadha was founded by –

(A) Jarasandha (B) Prosenjit (C) Udayana (D) Bimbisara



54. Which of the following pairs (Buddha’s Life-events and symbol) is wrongly matched?

(A) Birth – Lotus and bull (B) Great Renunciation - Horse (C) Nirvana – Bodhi tree

(D) Death – Wheel 55. Royal Emblem of the Cholas was –

(A) Bow (B) Carp (Fish) (C) Vessel (D) Tiger 56. The conquest of Kalinga by the Nandas is referred in

– (A) Allahabad Inscriptions (B) Hathigumpha Inscriptions (C) Aihole Inscriptions (D) none of these

57. Consider the following statements and answer using the codes given below:

Electoral Collage for Presidential Election consistent of – 1. Elected members of both Houses 2. Nominated members of both Houses 3. Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states 4. Elected members of the Legislative assemblies of two UTs – Delhi and Puducherry 5. Elected members of the Legislative Council of the states



Code: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 5 58. The President of India takes the oath under the

supervision of – (A) The Prime Minister (B) The Vice President (C) The Chief Justice of India (D) Any of them 59. Official Language of the Satavahana Empire was –

(A) Sanskrit (B) Pali (C) Prakit (D) Hindi 60. Kharoshti script is said to be derived from Armaic

script, which is brought to India by – (A) Greeks (B) Persians (C) Aryans (D) Turks




64. Which among the following statements is/are correct?

(A) James Prinsep deciphered Brahmi script in 1837. (B) Wilkins translated Abhijnan-Shakuntalam into English in 1789. (C) William Jones translated the Bhagwat Gita into English in 1784. (D) All of the above

65. Which among the following chronological order of formation of these states as full States of Indian Union?

(E) Nagaland-Haryana-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh (F) Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh- Haryana-Nagaland (G) Arunachal Pradesh-Sikkim-Haryana-Nagaland (H) Haryana-Nagaland-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh 66. Which of the following became Ashoka’s capital

after Kalinga war? (A) Pataliputra (B) Toshali (C) Rajgir (D) Taxila 67. ‘Tirukkural’ – the Bible of Tamil Land is written by – (A) Tiruttakrdevas (B) Sittalai Sattanar (C) Tiruvalluvar (D) Ilango Adigal 68. Who named Samudragupta as ‘Napoleon of India’? (A) R C Majumder (B) V A Smith (C) James Prinsep (D) Irfan Habib 69. Fahien visited India during the reign of – (A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Samudragupta (C) Vikramaditya (D) Harshavardhan 70. The Ramayana and the Mahabharata were compiled

in – (A) Mauryan period (B) Saka era (C) Gupta period (D) Harsha era 71. Charak was the famous court physician of – (A) Harsha (B) Chandragupta Maurya

(C) Samudragupta (D) Kanishka 72. Which of the following is not among the Three

Principles of Jainism? (A) Right Desire (B) Right Faith (C) Right Knowledge (D) Right Conduct 73. Mahavira born in – (A) 563 BC (B) 540 BC (C) 483 BC (D) 468 BC 74. Who was the chairman of the First Buddhist Council? (A) Sabakami (B) Mahakashyap (C) Upagupta (D) Vasumitra 75. Sulpani was a famous artist of the – (A) Kushana period (B) Gupta period (C) Pala period (D) Sena period 76. Who wrote Kitab-ur-Rahla? (A) Al Beruni (B) Ibn Batuta (C) Hasan Nizami (D) Abul Fazl 77. Who was the first important ruler of the

Pushyabhuti Dynasty? (A) Harshavaedhana (B) Rajyavardhana (C) Prabhakaravardhana (D) Pushyabhuti 78. Mathura was famous for ‘Shataka’, which is a special

kind of – (A) food (B) cloth (C) jewellery (D) shoe 79. Mural painting at Ajanta, which mainly depicts the

life stories of Buddha as in the Jataka stories, belong to –

(A) Maurya period (B) Gupta period (C) Kushana period (D) Saka period 80. Who among the following ruler defeated the Hunas? (A) Skandagupta (B) Kumaragupta II (C) Chandragupta II (D) none of them 81. Kautilya’s Arthashashtra is divided into main theme

as – 1. The king and his council and departments of government 2. Diplomacy of war 3. Economic planning 4. Civil and criminal laws 5. Art and Culture (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 4 and 5 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 82. Who among the following also known as

‘Upagupta’? (A) Mahakashyap (B) Sabakami (C) Mogliputra Tissa (D) Vasumitra 83. Which of the following statements is not correct? (E) In Mahayana sect, idol worship is believed. (F) The Buddhism established in Tibet in 11th century

was a result of a mission by Mahayana sect. (G) Hinayana sect is known as ‘Southern Buddhist

Religion’. (H) Pali language was used by Hinayana Buddhist. 84. 70, 40, 50, 90, 200, ? (A) 400 (B) 450 (C) 475 (D) 525 85. 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, ? (A) 76 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 50



86. Who among the following is described as ‘Hero of Hundred Battles’ by V A Smith?

(A) Ashoka (B) Skandagupta (C) Chandragupta Maurya (D) Samudragupta 87. What is the unit digit in (4517)754?

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 9 88. A number is as much greater than 31 as is less than

55. The number is – (A) 47 (B) 52 (C) 39 (D) 43 89. Replace the question mark (?) with the suitable

option: 2, 3, 7, ?, 32 (A) 21 (B) 20 (C) 16 (D) 13 90. Which of the following number is exactly divisible by

11?

(A) 235641 (B) 245642 (C) 315624 (D) 415624

91.

=?

(A) 1000 (B) 1001 (C) 1002 (D) 1003 92. If the product of three consecutive integers is 120,

the sum of the integers is – (A) 9 (B) 15 (C) 14 (D) 12

93.


(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 16 94. Pataliputra was the capital of which among the

following dynasties – (A) Gupta (B) Kanva (C) Shunga (D) All of them

95. The King who built the ‘Sun Temple of Konark’ was from

(A) Rastrakuta dynasty (B) Ganga dynasty (C) Pallava dynasty (D) none of these

96. Identify the wrong number in the series: 69, 55, 26, 13, 5 (A) 5 (B) 13 (C) 26 (D) 55 97. Find the wrong term in the series: 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, 93

(A) 30 (B) 14 (C) 55 (D) 93 98. The Satavahanas were succeeded by –

(A) Kanvas (B) Ikshvakus (C) Pandyas (D) Parthians 99. Find the wrong term in the series: 1, 3 , 12, 25, 48

(A) 3 (B) 12 (C) 25 (D) 48 100. Which of the Buddhist scripture is also called

a ‘Book of Discipline’? (A) The Vinaya Pitaka (B) The Sutta Pitaka (C) The Abhidhamma Pitaka (D) None of these 101. The Jain religious literature was written in – (A) Pali (B) Sanskrit (C) Ardhamagadhi (D) Persian 102. Which of the following is called ‘the city of

the ten temples’? (A) Pattadakal (B) Kanchipuram (C) Mahabalipuram (D) Madurai 103. The founder of ‘Elephanta Caves’ was is – (A) Krishna I (B) Narsingh Varman I (C) Narsingh Varman II (D) Vimala 104. Who wrote Ramcharitam?

(A) Banabhatta (B) Kalidasa

(C) Sandhyakar Nandi (D) Tulsi Das 105. Emergency provisions in Indian Constitution

is taken from – (A) Weimer Constitution of Germany (B) US Constitution (C) South African Constitution (D) Government of India Act, 1935 106. Which type of Veto Power is not enjoyed by

the President of India? (A) Absolute Veto (B) Suspensive Veto (C) Qualified Veto (D) Pocket Veto 107. What is the least number which when

diminished by 5, is divisible by each one of 21,28,36,45?

(A) 425 (B) 1259 (C) 1260 (D) 1265 108. Six bells commence tolling together and toll

at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 second respectively. In 30 minutes how many times do they toll together?

(A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 16 109. Parliament can approve the extension of an

emergency in a single instance for maximum period of –

(A) 2 months (B) 6 months (C) 3 years (D) no such limit is there 110. National Emergency was declared for the

second time due to – (A) Indo-Pak War (B) Chinese Aggression (C) Internal disturbance (D) None of these 111. Which of the following statements is not

true? (E) Article 72 provides for the Pardoning power of the

President of India. (F) Awarding lesser sentence on special ground (i.e.

pregnancy) is called – Respite. (G) Governor can give relief to convict on death sentence

by changing it to life imprisonment. (H) In India, Nuclear Command is under the control of


112. How many members attended the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on 9th December 1946?

(A) 389 (B) 296 (C) 211 (D) 193 113. Flag Committee in the Constituent Assembly

was headed by – (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Sardar V B Patel (C) Dr Rajendra Prashad (D) K M Munshi 114. The Objective Resolution moved by J L Nehru

was accepted in the Assembly on – (A) 13th December 1946 (B) 22nd January 1947 (C) 22nd July 1947 (D) 26th November 1949



115. The provision of Nominating members in the Rajya Sabha was taken from?

(A) South African Constitution (B) British Constitution (C) Irish Constitution (D) Canadian Constitution 116. Two 3 digit numbers have their H.C.F 29 and

L.C.M 4147. The sum of the numbers is: (A) 666 (B) 669 (C) 696 (D) 966 117. What is the least number which when

divided by 5, 6, 8, 9, 12 gives reminder 1 in each case and completely divisible by 13?

(A) 361 (B) 721 (C) 1801 (D) 3601 118. Who defined the Preamble as – ‘Political

Horoscope of the Indian Constitution’? (A) K M Munshi (B) K T Shah (C) Thakurdas Bhargav (D) N A Palkivala 119. The Lion capital of currency notes was

discovered from – (A) Sanchi (B) Bharat (C) Bodh Gaya (D) Sarnath 120. Who among the following were the first

rulers to make land grants to the Brahmanas? (A) Shungas (B) Satabahanas (C) Guptas (D) Khushanas 121. Which ruler was contemporary of both

Buddha and Mahavira? (A) Bindusara (B) Chandragupta (C) Ajatsatru (D) Pradyot 122. Who introduced Kaulinya System in Bengal? (A) Gopal (B) Ballal Sen

(C) Kakshman Sen (D) Dharmapal 123. Which of following group of words was

added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

(E) SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST AND SECULAR (F) SOCIALIST, SECULAR AND INTEGRITY (G) SECULAR, SOVEREIGN AND REPUBLIC (H) SECULAR, SOCIALIST AND DEMOCRATIC 124. The Distribution of Power between the Union

and the Sate Government is contained in – (A) 6th Schedule (B) 7th Schedule (C) 8th Schedule (D) 9th Schedule 125. How many languages were initially

recognized by the Constitution of India? (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 19 126. Which of the following Part contains only one

Article? (A) Part IV (B) Part IVA (C) Part XX (D) both (B) & (C) 127. Part IXA contains the provisions for – (A) The Panchayats (B) The Municipalities (C) The Co-operatives (D) Relations between the Union and the States

128. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India as -

(A) Federal State (B) Quasi-Federal State (C) Unitary State (D) Union of States 129. Which commission recommended that 27%

of the jobs should be reserved for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)?

(A) Shah Commission (B) Mandal Commission (C) Kothari Commission (D) Fazal Ali Commission 130. If Bangladesh (which is not a part of India)

wishes to be a part of Indian Union as a state, with the help of which Article Parliament may do so?

(A) Article 1 (B) Article 2 (C) Article 3 (D) none of these 131. Which of the following Articles of Indian

Constitution guarantees freedom of press? (A) Article 16 (B) Article 19 (C) Article 21 (D) Article 25 132. What is the least multiple of 7 which when

divided by each one of 6, 9, 15, 18 gives reminder 4 in each case?

(A) 74 (B) 94 (C) 184 (D) 364 133. Article 8 provides for the Citizenship of – (E) A person who migrated to India from Pakistan. (F) A person who migrated to Pakistan from India but

later latter returned to India for resettlement. (G) A person of Indian origin residing outside of India. (H) None of these 134. The concept of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)

was launched during the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention at Hyderabad on 9th January of –

(A) 2000 (B) 2004 (C) 2006 (D) 2008 135. Which of the following is not one of the

Fundamental Rights? (A) Right to freedom of religion (B) Right to freedom of thoughts and expression (C) Right to equality (D) Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as woman 136. Which Part of Indian Constitution deals with

‘Fundamental Rights’? (A) Part II (B) Part III (C) Part IV (D) Part IVA 137. Impeachment of the President of India is a

__________ process in Parliament. (A) Legislative (B) Judicial (C) Quasi-judicial (D) Executive 138. By which Amendment, ‘Right to Property’

was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution?

(A) 36th Amendment Act (B) 42nd Amendment Act (C) 44th Amendment Act (D) 69th Amendment Act 139. The most famous Saka ruler in India was – (A) Menander (B) Rudradaman I (C) Kadphises I (D) Darius 140. Kandahar Inscription of Ashoka mentions: (E) hunters and fisherman gave up hunting and killing

and began practicing agriculture.



(F) The Victory over Kalinga and the destruction of war. (G) Details of visit to the Bodhi tree. (H) None of the above 141. Who called Right to Constitutional Remedies

as the “Soul of the Constitution and very heart of it”?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) K T Shah (C) K M Munshi (D) Dr B R Ambedkar 142. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? (A) 73 (B) 75 (C) 76 (D) 78 143. What will come next in the series?

√ ,

,

√ ,

, ?

(A)

√ (B)

√ (C)

(D)

√

144. Complete the series: 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?

(A) 316 (B) 1135 (C) 1288 (D) 2254 145. In the series 7, 14, 28, ... , what will be the 6th

term? (A) 56 (B) 224 (C) 112 (D) 3584 146. Who among the following was elected

President of India unopposed? (A) Dr Rajendra Prasad (B) Dr S Radhakrishnan

(C) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (D) K R Narayan 147. How many schedule was originally there in

the constitution? (A) 12 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 6

148. Who among the following were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?

1. KM Munshi 2. Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar 4. Sardar Patel

(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 149. Which article provided for organization of

Village Panchayats (A) Article 39 (B) Article 37 (C) Article 40 (D) Article 73 150. Which of the following Writs could be issued

only against Judicial and Quashi-Judicial authorities? 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Prohibition 4. Certiorari 5. Qua-Warranto

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3, 4 and 5 151. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in

the Government of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

(A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principles of State Policy (C) Extent of Executive Power of State (D) Conduct of business of the Government of India 152. The ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian

Constitution

includes: 1. The Government and Parliament of India

2. The Government and legislature of the states 3. Local authorities or other authorities within the territories of India or under the control of Government of India Which of the following are included? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 153. Right to Education is a Fundamental Right

emanating from Right to –

(A) Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19 (B) Culture and Education under Article 29 and 30 (C) Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 (D) Equality before law and equal protection of the laws under Article 14 154. Which of the following are included in the

DPSP in the Constitution of India?

1. Uniform civil code for the citizens 2. Separation of judiciary from executive 3. Protection of monuments of national importance

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 155. Which of the following Articles are based on

Gandhian Principles? 1. Article 39 2. Article 40 3. Article 43 4. Article 45 5. Article 47 6. Article 51

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 4, 5 and 6 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 5 156. Which of the following Directive Principles

are added after 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978?

(A) 38(2) (B) 39(a) (C) 43A (D) All of these 157. The concept of Directive Principles of Sate

Policies is borrowed from – (A) US Constitution (B) Irish Constitution (C) French Constitution (D) Russian Constitution 158. Complete the series: 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ?

(A) 32 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64 159. Fundamental Duties were added on the basis

of – (A) Objective Resolution (B) ‘Instrument of Instruction’ (C) Swaran Singh Committee Report (D) None of these 160. Which of the following is not included in the

Directive Principles of State Policies? (A) Prohibition of liquor (B) Right to work (C) Equal pay for equal work (D) Right to Information 161. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India

to protect and improve the natural environment.” This statement refers to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 21 (B) Article 48A (C) Article 51A (D) Article 56



162. How many Fundamental Duties were originally there at the time of enactment of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 7 (D) None of these 163. Which of the following statements is/are

correct? (E) The President has no veto power in respect of a

Constitutional Amendment Bill. (F) Directive Principles are non-justiciable. (G) Nominated members of both Houses of the


(H) All are correct 164. The mind and ideals of the framers of

Constitution are reflected in the (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Preamble (D) Fundamental Rights 165. LCM OF 22, 54, 108, 135, 198

(A) 330 (B) 1980 (C) 5940 (D) 11880 166. The L.C.M of 2/3, 4/9,5/6, 7/12

(A) 1/18 (B) 1/36 (C) 35/9 (D) 140/3 167. The HCF two numbers is 12 and their

difference is also 12. The numbers are: (A) 66, 78 (B) 70, 82 (C) 94,106 (D) 84, 96 168. The largest number that divides 210,315,147,

and 168 exactly is (A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 21 (D) 4410 169. The capacity of two pots is 120 litres and 56

litres respectively. The capacity of a container which can exactly measure the contents of the two pots is:

(A) 7500cc (B) 7850cc (C) 8000cc (D) 9500cc 170. The H.C.F of two numbers is 11 and their

L.C.M is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is:

(A) 279 (B) 283 (C) 308 (D) 318 171. The sum of two numbers is 216 and their

H.C.F is 27. The numbers are (A) 54,162 (B) 108,108 (C) 27, 189 (D) None of these 172. If two numbers are in the ratio 5:7 and their

L.C.M is 315, then their product is: (A) 2358 (B) 2385 (C) 2538 (D)2835 173. H.C.F and L.C.M of two numbers x and y are

respectively 3 and 105. If x + y =36 then 1/x +1/y=? (A) 35 (B) 3/5 (C) 4/35 (D) 1/35 174. The H.C.F of two numbers is 24. The number

which can be their L.C.M. is: (A) 84 (B) 120 (C)128 (D)148 175. Which greatest number will divide 3026 and

5053 leaving reminder 11 and 13 (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 60 176. The greatest number of 5 digits, which is

divisible by 15, 36, 21 is (A) 99459 (B) 99540 (C) 99979 (D) 99999

177. Three sets of English, Mathematics and Science books containing 336, 240, and 96 books respectively have to be stacked in such a way that all the books are stored subject wise and the height of the each stacked is the same. The total number of stacks will be:

(A) 14 (B) 21 (C) 22 (D) 48 178. Look at this series: 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ... What

number should come next? (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 13 (D) 12 179. The traffic lights at three different road

crossing change after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds, and 108 seconds respectively. If they all charge simultaneously at 8.20pm, then what time will they again change simultaneously?

(A) 8:27:12hrs (B) 8.27:24hrs (C) 8:27:36hrs (D) 8:27:48hrs

180. Reduce

to lowest term.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

181. The L.C.M of two prime numbers x and y (x>y) is 161. The value of (3y-x) is:

(A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 2 182. Three different containers contain different

qualities of mixtures of milk and water whose measurement are 403kg, 434kg, and 465kg. What biggest measure must be there to be measure all the different quantities exactly?

(A) 1kg (B) 7 kg (C) 31kg (D) 41Kg 183. The product of two co-prime is 117 their

L.C.M should be (A) 1 (B) 117 (C) Equal to their H.C.F (D) can’t be calculated 184. H.C.F of 3240, 3600 and the third number is

36 and their L.C.M Is (24 × 35 × 52 × 72). The third number is:

(A) 25 × 52 × 72 (B) 23 × 35 × 72 (C) 22× 35 × 72 (D) 22 × 53 × 72 185. Which of the following is broader in the

sense? (A) Union of India (B) Territory of India (C) Both represents same (D) Union Territory 186. Which Article says that an accused person

cannot be compelled to become a witness against himself?

(A) Article 19 (B) Article 20 (C) Article 21 (D) Article 36 187. Article 21A declares that the state shall

provide free and compulsory education to all children of age –

(A) 3 to 6 years (B) 0 to 6 years (C) 6 to 14 years (D) 3 to 14 years 188. The largest number which divides 77, 147

and 252 to leave the same reminder in each case (A) 9 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 35



189. It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the following numbers is definitely divisible by the same number?

(A) (216 + 1) (B) (216 - 1) (C) (7 x 223) (D) (296 + 1) 190. What least number must be added to 1056,

so that the sum is completely divisible by 23? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 18 (D) 21 191. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ...

What number should come next? (A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 27 (D) 53 192. Who was called by Mahabhasya as ‘Amitra-

ghata’? (A) Bimbisara (B) Ajatasatru (C) Asoka (D) Bindusara 193. Which of the following animals is not found

in the Sarnath Pillar of Ashoka? (A) Bull (B) Horse (C) Elephant (D) Tiger 194. Which of the following statement(s) is/are

correct: I). Aryans were first people in India to know the use of iron and brought horses along with them II). Battle of Ten Kings is mentioned in Anguttara Nikaya (A) I only (B) II only

(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 195. Arrange the following dynasties in

chronological order in terms of their arrival in India 1. Sakas 2. Indo-Greeks 3. Parthians 4. Kushanas

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (C) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (D)2, 3, 1 and 4 196. Which of the following sources contains the

pronouncement “All men are my children”? (A) 1st separate rock edict (B) 2nd separate rock edict

(C) 5th Rock edict (D) 6th pillar edict 197. Identify the missing number in the series: 2, 3, 12, 37, 86, 167, ? (A) 204 (B) 258 (C) 288 (D) 402 198. Look at this series: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87 , ... What

number should come next? (A) 128 (B) 226 (C) 324 (D) 429 199. (51 + 52 + 53 + ... + 100) = ?

(A) 2525 (B) 2975 (C) 3225 (D) 3775 200. If (6767 + 67) is divided by 68, the remainder

is – (A) 1 (B) 63 (C) 66 (D) 67



























(D) To overcome someone


1st Terminal Test





Test Booklet Series













Choose the exact meaning of the underlined part of the sentence (Q.33 -37):












40. He died _____ a severe head injury.

(A) on (B) of (C) from (D) with

41. _____his illness, he attains the exam. (A) In spite (B) Due (C) As of (D) Despite


















55. Official Language of the Satavahana Empire was – (A) Sanskrit (B) Pali (C) Prakit (D) Hindi

56. Kharoshti script is said to be derived from Armaic script, which is brought to India by –

(A) Greeks (B) Persians (C) Aryans (D) Turks





61. Which among the following chronological order of formation of these states as full States of Indian Union? (I) Nagaland-Haryana-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh (J) Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh- Haryana-Nagaland (K) Arunachal Pradesh-Sikkim-Haryana-Nagaland (L) Haryana-Nagaland-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh







68. Which of the following is not among the Three Principles of Jainism? (A) Right Desire (B) Right Faith

(C) Right Knowledge (D) Right Conduct


70. Which of the following statements is not true? (I) Article 72 provides for the Pardoning power of the

President of India. (J) Awarding lesser sentence on special ground (i.e.

pregnancy) is called – Respite. (K) Governor can give relief to convict on death sentence

by changing it to life imprisonment. (L) In India, Nuclear Command is under the control of




73. Who was the first important ruler of the Pushyabhuti Dynasty? (A) Harshavaedhana (B) Rajyavardhana (C) Prabhakaravardhana (D) Pushyabhuti






79. Which of the following statements is not correct? (I) In Mahayana sect, idol worship is believed. (J) The Buddhism established in Tibet in 11th century

was a result of a mission by Mahayana sect. (K) Hinayana sect is known as ‘Southern Buddhist

Religion’.



(L) Pali language was used by Hinayana Buddhist.





84. Which of the following number is exactly divisible by 11?

(A) 235641 (B) 245642 (C) 315624 (D) 415624

85.

=?

(A) 1000 (B) 1001 (C) 1002 (D) 1003



88.


(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 16

89. Pataliputra was the capital of which among the following dynasties –

(A) Gupta (B) Kanva (C) Shunga (D) All of them


91. Who was called by Mahabhasya as ‘Amitra-ghata’? (A) Bimbisara (B) Ajatasatru (C) Asoka (D) Bindusara




95. Look at this series: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87 , ... What number should come next? (A) 128 (B) 226

(C) 324 (D) 429

96. The King who built the ‘Sun Temple of Konark’ was from (A) Rastrakuta dynasty (B) Ganga dynasty (C) Pallava dynasty (D) none of these







103. Which of the following is called ‘the city of the ten temples’? (A) Pattadakal (B) Kanchipuram (C) Mahabalipuram (D) Madurai



106. Who wrote Ramcharitam? (A) Banabhatta (B) Kalidasa (C) Sandhyakar Nandi (D) Tulsi Das


108. 70, 40, 50, 90, 200, ? (A) 400 (B) 450 (C) 475 (D) 525


110. What is the least number which when diminished by 5, is divisible by each one of 21,28,36,45? (A) 425 (B) 1259 (C) 1260 (D) 1265

111. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India as (A) Federal State (B) Quasi-Federal State



(C) Unitary State (D) Union of States

112. The conquest of Kalinga by the Nandas is referred in (A) Allahabad Inscriptions (B) Hathigumpha Inscriptions (C) Aihole Inscriptions (D) none of these



115. 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, ? (A) 76 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 50










125. Who introduced Kaulinya System in Bengal? (A) Gopal (B) Ballal Sen

(C) Kakshman Sen (D) Dharmapal

126. Which of following group of words was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (I) SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST AND SECULAR (J) SOCIALIST, SECULAR AND INTEGRITY (K) SECULAR, SOVEREIGN AND REPUBLIC (L) SECULAR, SOCIALIST AND DEMOCRATIC









135. Which of the following pairs (Buddha’s Life-events and symbol) is wrongly matched? (A) Birth – Lotus and bull (B) Great Renunciation - Horse (C) Nirvana – Bodhi tree

(D) Death – Wheel

136. Which commission recommended that 27% of the jobs should be reserved for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? (A) Shah Commission (B) Mandal Commission



(C) Kothari Commission (D) Fazal Ali Commission




140. Article 8 provides for the Citizenship of – (I) A person who migrated to India from Pakistan. (J) A person who migrated to Pakistan from India but

later latter returned to India for resettlement. (K) A person of Indian origin residing outside of India. (L) None of these


142. Which of the following is not one of the Fundamental Rights? (A) Right to freedom of religion (B) Right to freedom of thoughts and expression (C) Right to equality (D) Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as woman





147. Kandahar Inscription of Ashoka mentions: (I) hunters and fisherman gave up hunting and killing

and began practicing agriculture. (J) The Victory over Kalinga and the destruction of war. (K) Details of visit to the Bodhi tree. (L) None of the above


149. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?

(A) 73 (B) 75 (C) 76 (D) 78


√ ,

,

√ ,

, ?

(A)

√ (B)

√ (C)

(D)

√








157. Which of the following Writs could be issued only against Judicial and Quashi-Judicial authorities? 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Prohibition 4. Certiorari 5. Qua-Warranto




160. Which of the following are included in the DPSP in the Constitution of India? 1. Uniform civil code for the citizens 2. Separation of judiciary from executive



3. Protection of monuments of national importance




162. Which of the following Directive Principles are added after 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978? (A) 38(2) (B) 39(a) (C) 43A (D) All of these




166. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment.” This statement refers to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (A) Article 21 (B) Article 48A (C) Article 51A (D) Article 56


168. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (I) The President has no veto power in respect of a

Constitutional Amendment Bill. (J) Directive Principles are non-justiciable. (K) Nominated members of both Houses of the


(L) All are correct

169. The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Preamble (D) Fundamental Rights

170. LCM OF 22, 54, 108, 135, 198 (A) 330 (B) 1980 (C) 5940 (D) 11880

171. The L.C.M of 2/3, 4/9,5/6, 7/12 (A) 1/18 (B) 1/36 (C) 35/9 (D) 140/3

172. The HCF two numbers is 12 and their difference is also 12. The numbers are:

(A) 66, 78 (B) 70, 82 (C) 94,106 (D) 84, 96














186. (51 + 52 + 53 + ... + 100) = ?



(A) 2525 (B) 2975 (C) 3225 (D) 3775


188. Reduce

to lowest term.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these












200. If (6767 + 67) is divided by 68, the remainder is –

(A) 1 (B) 63 (C) 66 (D) 67














(D) To overcome someone



Choose the Appropriate phrasal verbs of the underline part of the sentence: (Q.13 -14)















1st Terminal Test





Test Booklet Series










Choose the exact meaning of the underlined part of the sentence (Q.33 -37):












40. He died _____ a severe head injury. (A) on (B) of (C) from (D) with

41. _____his illness, he attains the exam.

(A) In spite (B) Due (C) As of (D) Despite















54. Official Language of the Satavahana Empire was –



(A) Sanskrit (B) Pali (C) Prakit (D) Hindi

55. Kharoshti script is said to be derived from Armaic script, which is brought to India by –

(A) Greeks (B) Persians (C) Aryans (D) Turks





60. Which among the following chronological order of formation of these states as full States of Indian Union? (M) Nagaland-Haryana-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh (N) Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh- Haryana-Nagaland (O) Arunachal Pradesh-Sikkim-Haryana-Nagaland (P) Haryana-Nagaland-Sikkim-Arunachal Pradesh







67. Which of the following is not among the Three Principles of Jainism? (A) Right Desire (B) Right Faith (C) Right Knowledge (D) Right Conduct


69. Which of the following statements is not true? (M) Article 72 provides for the Pardoning power of the

President of India. (N) Awarding lesser sentence on special ground (i.e.

pregnancy) is called – Respite. (O) Governor can give relief to convict on death sentence

by changing it to life imprisonment. (P) In India, Nuclear Command is under the control of




72. Who was the first important ruler of the Pushyabhuti Dynasty? (A) Harshavaedhana (B) Rajyavardhana (C) Prabhakaravardhana (D) Pushyabhuti






78. Which of the following statements is not correct? (M) In Mahayana sect, idol worship is believed. (N) The Buddhism established in Tibet in 11th century

was a result of a mission by Mahayana sect. (O) Hinayana sect is known as ‘Southern Buddhist

Religion’. (P) Pali language was used by Hinayana Buddhist.









85. If (6767 + 67) is divided by 68, the remainder is – (A) 1 (B) 63 (C) 66 (D) 67





90. Which of the following number is exactly divisible by 11?

(A) 235641 (B) 245642 (C) 315624 (D) 415624

91.

=?

(A) 1000 (B) 1001 (C) 1002 (D) 1003



94.


(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 16

95. Pataliputra was the capital of which among the following dynasties –

(A) Gupta (B) Kanva (C) Shunga (D) All of them


97. Who was called by Mahabhasya as ‘Amitra-ghata’? (A) Bimbisara (B) Ajatasatru

(C) Asoka (D) Bindusara




101. Look at this series: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87 , ... What number should come next? (A) 128 (B) 226 (C) 324 (D) 429

102. The King who built the ‘Sun Temple of Konark’ was from

(A) Rastrakuta dynasty (B) Ganga dynasty (C) Pallava dynasty (D) none of these







109. Which of the following is called ‘the city of the ten temples’? (A) Pattadakal (B) Kanchipuram (C) Mahabalipuram (D) Madurai



112. Who wrote Ramcharitam?



(A) Banabhatta (B) Kalidasa (C) Sandhyakar Nandi (D) Tulsi Das


114. 70, 40, 50, 90, 200, ? (A) 400 (B) 450 (C) 475 (D) 525


116. What is the least number which when diminished by 5, is divisible by each one of 21,28,36,45? (A) 425 (B) 1259 (C) 1260 (D) 1265

117. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India as (A) Federal State (B) Quasi-Federal State (C) Unitary State (D) Union of States

118. The conquest of Kalinga by the Nandas is referred in (A) Allahabad Inscriptions (B) Hathigumpha Inscriptions (C) Aihole Inscriptions (D) none of these



121. 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, ? (A) 76 (B) 65 (C) 60 (D) 50











132. Who introduced Kaulinya System in Bengal? (A) Gopal (B) Ballal Sen

(C) Kakshman Sen (D) Dharmapal

133. Which of following group of words was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (M) SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST AND SECULAR (N) SOCIALIST, SECULAR AND INTEGRITY (O) SECULAR, SOVEREIGN AND REPUBLIC (P) SECULAR, SOCIALIST AND DEMOCRATIC







138. Which commission recommended that 27% of the jobs should be reserved for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? (A) Shah Commission (B) Mandal Commission (C) Kothari Commission (D) Fazal Ali Commission



√ ,

,

√ ,

, ?

(A)

√ (B)

√ (C)

(D)

√



143. Which of the following pairs (Buddha’s Life-events and symbol) is wrongly matched? (A) Birth – Lotus and bull (B) Great Renunciation - Horse (C) Nirvana – Bodhi tree

(D) Death – Wheel

144. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? (A) 73 (B) 75 (C) 76 (D) 78




148. Article 8 provides for the Citizenship of – (M) A person who migrated to India from Pakistan. (N) A person who migrated to Pakistan from India but

later latter returned to India for resettlement. (O) A person of Indian origin residing outside of India. (P) None of these


150. Which of the following is not one of the Fundamental Rights? (A) Right to freedom of religion (B) Right to freedom of thoughts and expression (C) Right to equality

(D) Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as woman





155. Kandahar Inscription of Ashoka mentions: (M) hunters and fisherman gave up hunting and killing

and began practicing agriculture. (N) The Victory over Kalinga and the destruction of war. (O) Details of visit to the Bodhi tree. (P) None of the above









163. The HCF two numbers is 12 and their difference is also 12. The numbers are: (A) 66, 78 (B) 70, 82 (C) 94,106 (D) 84, 96

164. Which of the following Writs could be issued only against Judicial and Quashi-Judicial authorities?



1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Prohibition 4. Certiorari 5. Qua-Warranto




167. Which of the following are included in the DPSP in the Constitution of India? 1. Uniform civil code for the citizens 2. Separation of judiciary from executive 3. Protection of monuments of national importance




169. Which of the following Directive Principles are added after 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978? (A) 38(2) (B) 39(a) (C) 43A (D) All of these




173. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment.” This statement refers to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 21 (B) Article 48A (C) Article 51A (D) Article 56


175. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (M) The President has no veto power in respect of a

Constitutional Amendment Bill. (N) Directive Principles are non-justiciable. (O) Nominated members of both Houses of the


(P) All are correct

176. The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Preamble (D) Fundamental Rights

177. LCM OF 22, 54, 108, 135, 198 (A) 330 (B) 1980 (C) 5940 (D) 11880

178. The L.C.M of 2/3, 4/9,5/6, 7/12 (A) 1/18 (B) 1/36 (C) 35/9 (D) 140/3
















192. (51 + 52 + 53 + ... + 100) = ? (A) 2525 (B) 2975 (C) 3225 (D) 3775


194. Reduce

to lowest term.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these







test booklet series answer key to 1 terminal test wbcs ...siclasses.com/img/20180326192057answer to...

Documents