test - 4 · 2020-04-01 · test series for neet-2020 test-4 (code-a) (3) 14. figure shown below (a)...

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31/03/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 4 Topics covered : Physics : Mechanical Properties of Solid and Fluids, Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics,

Kinetic Theory

Chemistry : Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals), The p-Block Elements (Group-13 & 14)

Botany : Mineral Nutrition, Photosynthesis in Plants Zoology : Body fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and Their Elimination, Locomotion and

Movement

Instructions : (i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. (iii) Dark only one circle for each entry. (iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet. (vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : 1. The uniform additional pressure applied on a

sphere is P. How much its temperature should be raised to maintain its original volume? (The bulk modulus of elasticity of the sphere is β and the coefficient of volume expansion is α )

(1) Pαβ

(2) 3Pαβ

(3) Pβα

(4) Pαβ

2. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is decreased, the ratio of stress to strain (in elastic limit)

(1) Decrease (2) Increase

(3) Remains same (4) Becomes zero

3. A metallic rod of length l and area of cross section A is made of material Young’s modulus Y. If rod is elongated by an amount x and work done is y, then which one of the following graph is correct?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

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4. For which of the following types of material stress-strain curve is not a straight line within elastic limit and strain produced is much large for small stress applied?

(1) Brittle material

(2) Ductile material

(3) Elastomers

(4) Both (1) and (2)

5. Two wires A and B of diameter of cross section 0.5 cm each are loaded as shown in figure. The unloaded length of wire A is 3 m and that of wire B is 2 m. If Young’s Modulus of both wire is same, then the ratio of elongation of wire A to the wire B will be

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 1

6. A metal wire 8 m long is suspended vertically. How much does it stretch under its own weight? (Density of material is 1600 kg/m3, Y = 4 × 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2) (within elastic limit)

(1) 6.4 mm (2) 1.28 mm

(3) 40 mm (4) 80 mm

7. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2000 m. The compressibility of water is 40 × 10–11 Pa–1 and average density of water is 103 kg/m3. The fractional compression of water at the bottom of the ocean will be (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 10–3

(3) 8 × 10–3 (4) 4 × 10–3

8. A wire of length l is hanging from a fixed support. The length changes to l1 and l2 when masses m and 2m are suspended separately from its free end. Then l is equal to

(1) 2l1– l2 (2) l1– l2

(3) l1– 2l2 (4) 3l1– 2l2

9. If the interatomic spacing in steel wire is 4.0 Å and Young’s modulus of steel Ysteel = 20 × 1010 N/m2 then force constant is

(1) 6 × 10–3 N/Å (2) 2 × 10–9 N/Å

(3) 8 × 10–9 N/Å (4) 4 × 10–3 N/Å

10. A steel wire can support a maximum load of W before reaching its elastic limit. How much load can another wire, made out of identical steel, but with double the radius of cross section as that of the first wire, support before reaching its elastic limit

(1) 2 W (2) W

(3) 8 W (4) 4 W

11. The area of cross-section of the wider limb shown in figure is 500 cm2. If a mass of 10 kg is placed on the piston, on the wider tube the difference in height h in level of water in two tubes is ( waterρ =

1000 kg/m3)

(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm

12. Consider the following statements

(a) With increase in temperature, viscosity of gas increases

(b) With decrease in temperature, viscosity of liquids increases

Correct statements are

(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

13. The terminal velocity of copper ball of radius 2 mm falling through a tank of oil at 20°C is 6.5 cm/s. If viscosity of the oil at 20°C is 9.9 × 10–1 kg m–1 s–1 and density of copper is 8.9 × 103 kg m–3. Then density of the oil will be

(1) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 8.0 × 102 kg/m3

(3) 1.66 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3

Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

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14. Figure shown below (a) and (b) indicates venturi meter tube connected to the steady flow of a (non-viscous) liquid. Which of the two figures is correct regarding the static water levels in the tubes?

(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

15. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 4P where P is the atmospheric pressure. If the water is drawn out such that the level of water is lowered by one third, the pressure at the bottom of the tank will now be

(1) 23P (2) 3P

(3) 4P (4) 53P

16. The surface tension and vapour pressure of a fluid at 20°C is 8 × 10–2 N/m and 4 × 103 Pa, respectively. What is the radius of the smallest spherical fluid droplet which can form without evaporating at 20°C?

(1) 40 mµ (2) 4 mµ

(3) 36.81 10 m−× (4) 29 10 m−×

17. The minimum force required to separate two glass plate of area 1000 cm2 with film of water 0.1 mm thick between them, is (surface tension of water is 70 × 10–3 N/m and angle of contact is 0°)

(1) 70 N (2) 50 N

(3) 140 N (4) 100 N

18. A cylinder of height 30 m is completely filled with water. If water coming out through a small hole hit the ground 30 m away from the bottom of the cylinder. Then distance of the hole from the bottom of the cylinder will be

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m

(3) 15 m (4) 5 m

19. The viscous fluid is flowing through a cylindrical tube. The velocity distribution of the fluid is best represented by the diagram

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

20. Estimate the drop in temperature when a drop of radius R breaks into N3 small droplets. (T : surface tension, :ρ density, C : specific heat capacity)

(1) 3 ( 1)T NCR

−ρ

(2) 2( 1)T

CR Nρ −

(3) ( 1)T

RC Nρ − (4) 2 ( 1)T N

RC−

ρ

21. A vessel of volume 0.04 m3 contains a mixture of hydrogen and helium at 20°C and 2 atmospheric pressure and the mass of mixture is 10 g. Then the ratio of mass of hydrogen to that of helium in the mixture is nearly (1 atm = 105 Pa)

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2

22. The coefficient of volume expansion of an ideal gas at constant pressure at temp T K is equal to

(1) 11 KT

− (2) 12

1 KT

−

(3) 12 KT

− (4) 13 KT

−

23. A cylinder of fixed capacity 67.2 litre contains helium gas at standard temperature and pressure. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the gas in the cylinder by 20°C will

be 1 125 J mol k3

R − − =

(1) 250 J (2) 750 J

(3) 400 J (4) 900 J


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24. Which of the following figure does not depict ideal gas behaviour for a given amount of gas?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25. The root mean square speed of the molecules of triatomic gas is V. When the absolute temperature is tripled, the molecules dissociate into three atoms, the new root mean square speed of the atoms is

(1) 3 V (2) V

(3) 3 V (4) 2 V 26. A fixed amount of an ideal monoatomic gas is

taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in the figure. The efficiency of the cycle will be

(1) 22.2% (2) 33.33% (3) 20% (4) 40% 27. For two mole of diatomic gas, work done at

constant pressure is W. The heat supplied at constant volume for the same rise in temperature of the gas is

(1) 32W (2) 5

2W

(3) 2 W (4) W

28. Consider the process on an ideal gas as shown in figure. The work done by the system

(1) First positive then negative (2) Always positive

(3) Always negative

(4) First negative then positive 29. If the heat input to a Carnot engine is four times

the work it performs, then the fraction of heat rejected to the sink is

(1) 14

(2) 34

(3) 13

(4) 23

30. When a person jogs, he produces 15 kcal/min. 80% of this heat is removed as the sweat evaporates. The amount of sweat evaporated per minutes is (1 kg sweat requires approximately 580 kcal for evaporation)

(1) 1.6 g (2) 20.7 g (3) 4 g (4) 28 g

31. When one mole of gas expands as per the relation V = KT2/3, where V is volume and T is temperature. For the temperature change of 40 K. Work done is (R is universal gas constant)

(1) 35.6 R (2) 26.6 R

(3) 30.2 R (4) 20.1 R 32. The quantities of heat required to raise the

temperatures of two solid steel spheres of r and 2r respectively through 1 K each are in the ratio of

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 8 : 27

33. The temperature of 200 g of water is to be raised from 20°C to 60°C by adding steam at 100°C to it. The mass of steam required for this purpose nearly is

(1) 10 g (2) 14 g (3) 6 g (4) 18 g


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34. It is difficult to cook rice in open vessel by boiling it at high altitudes because of

(1) High boiling point due to low pressure

(2) Low boiling point due to low pressure

(3) Low boiling point due to high pressure

(4) High boiling point due to high pressure

35. Consider P-V diagram for fixed mass of an ideal gas shown in figure. Choose correct corresponding pressure-density (P- ρ ) diagram.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

36. The increase in moment of inertia I of a uniform rod, having thermal coefficient of linear expansion α, about an axis passing through its one end and perpendicular to its length when its temperature is slightly increased by T∆ .

(1) I Tα∆ (2) 2

I Tα∆

(3) 2I Tα∆ (4) 3I Tα∆

37. Ends of a rod A of length l having thermal conductivity K is maintained at temperature T1 and T2 (T1>T2). The thermal current through the rod is Q. Now another rod B of same length and area of cross section as that of rod A and having thermal conductivity 2K is welded together side by side and common ends of the combination is maintained at temperature T1 and T2. The new thermal current through the combination will be

(1) Q (2) 2Q

(3) 2Q (4) 3Q

38. Choose the correct graph which represent Wien’s displacement law. (Symbols have their usual meanings)

(1) (2)

(3) (4) Both (1) and (3)

39. If l is the distance between lower fixed point and upper fixed point of thermometer and X is the length of the mercury column above the lower fixed point for temperature t°C, then value of t will be

(1) 100Xl

(2) 50Xl

(3) Xl

(4) 50lX

40. The rate of cooling of a body is

(1) Independent of the nature of the surface of the body

(2) Independent of the area of the body

(3) Independent of the temperature of the surrounding

(4) Depend on the excess of temperature of the body above that of surrounding

41. In which of the following phenomena, the heat travels along straight line with speed of light

(1) Thermal radiation

(2) Thermal conduction

(3) Natural convection

(4) Forced convection

42. Hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in the first 10 minutes and to 42°C in next 10 minutes. Then the temperature of the surrounding is

(1) 10°C

(2) 30°C

(3) 20°C

(4) 15°C


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43. Two spherical black bodies have radii r and 9r. Their surface temperature are T1 and T2. If they

radiates same power then value of 1

2

TT

is

(1) 1 : 9 (2) 3 : 1

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 8

44. If for an ideal gas 25V

RC

= then the degree of

freedom of the gas will be

(1) 3 (2) 8

(3) 6 (4) 5

45. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy around the wavelength

0λ . If the temperature of the black body is now

changed so that its radiates maximum energy

around the wavelength 03 ,4λ the power radiated

by it will increase by factor of

(1) 25681

(2) 6427

(3) 169

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CHEMISTRY 46. Oxidation state of nitrogen in HCN is (1) –2 (2) –3 (3) –1 (4) –5 47. In the balanced equation

3 2 2xHNO yH S pNO qS zH O+ → + +

x and q respectively are (1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 2 (3) 2, 4 (4) 2, 3 48. In all of its compounds, oxidation state of oxygen

may vary from (1) + 6 to – 6 (2) + 2 to –2 (3) + 2 to + 6 (4) 0 to –2 49. Which of the following species may undergo

oxidation and reduction both? (1) CO (2) N2

(3) SO2 (4) All of these

50. + =oAg /Ag

E 0.8 V and + = −2oZn /Zn

E 0.76 V . ocellE

value when these electrodes are connected to construct a working cell will be

(1) 1.56 V (2) –1.56 V (3) 0.04 V (4) –0.04 V 51. Consider the given reaction

alkalinemedium 23 4Zn NO Zn NH− + ++ → +

In alkaline medium, coefficients of Zn and OH−

ion in the balanced equation respectively are (1) 4, 7 (2) 4, 10 (3) 2, 5 (4) 1, 7

52. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in acidic medium is

(1) M2

(2) M3

(3) M5

(4) M4

53. Nitrogen atom exhibits more than one oxidation state in

(1) NH4NO3 (2) N2H4

(3) N2O5 (4) N2O4

54. Permanent hardness of water is most likely due to

(1) CaHCO3 (2) NaHCO3

(3) CaSO4 (4) NaCl 55. Temporary hardness can be removed by (1) Boiling (2) Clark’s method (3) Solvay process (4) Both (1) and (2) 56. In ion exchange method hydrated salt of (X) is

used, (X) is (1) Na2SO4 (2) NaAlF3

(3) NaAlSiO4 (4) NaAlO2

57. Value of which physical property of H2O is greater than that of D2O

(1) Dielectric constant (2) Density (3) Viscosity (4) Molar mass 58. Industrially H2O2 is prepared by the auto

oxidation of (1) 2–Methylphenol (2) 2–Alkylanthraquinol (3) 3–Chlorophenol (4) Barium sulphate


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59. The volume of oxygen gas liberated at STP is 250 mL from complete decomposition of 10 mL of H2O2 solution. Volume strength of H2O2 solution is

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 30 60. Ortho and para hydrogen differ is (1) Proton spin (2) Electron spin (3) Molecular mass (4) Density

61. + → +acidic medium2 2 2PbS(s) H O (aq) (X) H O

In the above reaction (X) is (1) PbSO4 (2) Pb3O4

(3) PbO2 (4) Pb(OH)2

62. Which of the following oxides is most basic in nature?

(1) BeO (2) MgO (3) K2O (4) Li2O

63. Least soluble salt in water is (1) LiF (2) NaF (3) KF (4) RbF 64. Incorrect statement about a solution of alkali

metal in liquid ammonia is (1) It is blue coloured (2) It is paramagnetic in nature (3) In concentrated solution the blue colour

changes to apple green (4) Metal amide is formed on standing 65. Most stable metal carbonate is (1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3

(3) MgCO3 (4) K2CO3

66. Which oxide of nitrogen is liberated on heating alkaline earth metal nitrates?

(1) NO (2) NO2

(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5

67. Water gas is a mixture of (1) CO and H2 (2) CO2 and H2

(3) CO and N2 (4) N2 + O2

68. Highest hydration enthalpy is found for which of the following ions?

(1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+ 69. Which of the following alkali metals mainly forms

monoxide when it burns in excess of oxygen? (1) Na (2) K (3) Li (4) Rb

70. Correct order of densities of alkali metals is (1) Li < Na < K < Rb (2) Rb < K < Na < Li (3) Li < K < Na < Rb (4) Li < Rb < K < Na 71. Metal(s) which does (do) not impart any colour to

flame is/are (1) Be (2) Sr (3) Ca (4) Both (1) and (3) 72. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with which

element? (1) Magnesium (2) Aluminium (3) Sodium (4) Silicon 73. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to

alumina should be between (1) 1 and 2 (2) 2.5 and 4 (3) 1 and 4 (4) 5 and 7.5 74. Chemical formula of quick lime is (1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(OH)2 (3) CaSO4 (4) CaO 75. Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating (X) to 393

K. (X) is (1) CaSO4.H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O

(3) CaSO4.½H2O (4) CaSO4.5H2O

76. Among the following group of 13 elements, smallest atomic radius is of

(1) Al (2) Ga (3) In (4) Tl 77. Incorrect statement about boric acid is (1) It is a weak monobasic acid (2) It is an Arrhenius acid (3) It is formed by acidifying an aqueous solution

of borax

(4) It forms ( )[ ]4B OH −in water

78. Number of bridge B – H – B bonds in a B2H6 molecule is

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3 79. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric? (1) CO2 (2) Al2O3

(3) Na2O (4) BaO

80. Strongest Lewis acid among the following boron halides is

(1) BF3 (2) BCl3

(3) BBr3 (4) BI3


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81. Straight chain silicone polymers are formed due to hydrolysis, followed by condensation, of

(1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2 (3) CH3SiCl3 (4) SiCl4 82. The basic unit of silicates is

(1) SiO2 (2) 44SiO −

(3) 22SiO − (4) 2

3SiO −

83. Which of the following has structure like benzene?

(1) AlN (2) B3N3H6 (3) BN (4) Al4C3 84. Dry ice is (1) Solid CO2 (2) Solid SO3 (3) Solid CO (4) Solid N2O5 85. CCl4 cannot be hydrolysed because (1) Carbon is less electronegative than chlorine (2) Carbon has no vacant d–orbitals (3) Carbon has extremely smaller size (4) CCl4 is tetrahedral in shape 86. Zeolites are the examples of (1) Orthosilicates (2) Pyrosilicates (3) Sheet silicates (4) Three-dimensional silicates

87. Aluminium reacts with aqueous alkali to form A and B, which are respectively

(1) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 and NaH (2) Na[Al(OH)4] and H2 (3) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 and H2

(4) Na[Al(OH)4] and NaH 88. Correct order of thermal stability of halides of

carbon is (1) CCl4 > CF4 > CBr4 > CI4 (2) CI4 > CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4 (3) CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4 (4) CBr4 > CF4 > CCl4 > CI4 89. Select an incorrect statement among the

following (1) Si, Ge and Sn have nearly equal

electronegativities (2) Entropy of graphite is more than diamond (3) CO is called silent killer as it forms a complex

with haemoglobin (4) SnO and PbO are basic in nature 90. Hydrolysis product(s) of SiF4 is/are (1) Si(OH)4

(2) H2SiF6

(3) SiO2

(4) Both (1) and (2)

BOTANY 91. A elements have been found to be essential

for plant growth and metabolism and out of them B are macronutrients.

Select the correct option to fill the blanks A and B.

(1) A = 17, B = 12 (2) A = 11, B = 5 (3) A = 17, B = 9 (4) A = 11, B = 6 92. Find the odd one w.r.t. micronutrients (1) Iron (2) Manganese (3) Magnesium (4) Zinc 93. Which of the following is mismatched?

(1) Macronutrients – Concentration more than 10 m mole kg–1 of dry matter

(2) Micronutrient – Concentration less than 10 m mole kg–1 of dry matter

(3) Macronutrients – Toxic even in slight excess

(4) Micronutrients – Generally required in the functioning of enzymes

94. Functioning of DNA synthesizing enzyme is inhibited in the absence of

(1) Mg2+ (2) Zn2+

(3) Mn2+ (4) Fe2+

95. Nitrogen is the component of all of the following, except

(1) Amino acids (2) Proteins

(3) Nucleic acids (4) Sucrose

96. Major components of middle lamella are

(1) Mg and Fe (2) Ca and Zn

(3) Ca and Mg (4) Zn and Fe


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97. All of the following are functions of magnesium, except

(1) It forms the ring structure of chlorophyll (2) It activates the enzymes involved in

respiration (3) It is involved in the synthesis of RNA (4) It activates the alcohol dehydrogenase 98. Read the following statements and choose the

option which is true for them. A. Sulphur is absorbed in the form of sulphate

ions. B. Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of

the cells. (1) Only A is correct (2) Only B is correct (3) Both A and B are correct (4) Both A and B are incorrect

99. Conversion of 3 2NO N− → is done by

(1) Pseudomonas (2) Nitrobacter (3) Nitrococcus (4) Rhizobium 100. ETS, during photosynthesis and respiration,

cannot function properly when ___ are absent. (1) Fe and Cu (2) Ca and B (3) B and Zn (4) Na and Ca 101. Ammonia formation from free N2 cannot be done

without the help of (1) K and Mn (2) Mo and Fe (3) Ca and Mg (4) B and Mn 102. Azotobacter is (1) Filamentous and autotrophic bacteria (2) Free living bacteria (3) Symbiotic bacteria (4) Filamentous and heterotrophic bacteria 103. For the reduction of N2, microbes require (1) NADH and NH3

(2) H+ and O2 (3) H+, e– and ATP (4) NADPH and O2 104. During transamination, amino group donor in

plants is A and amino group acceptor is B

Here, A and B respectively are

(1) NH3 and 4NH+ ions

(2) Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid

(3) Aspartic acid and 4NH+ ions

(4) Glutamic acid and 4NH+ ions

105. Most important amides in plants are (1) Aspartic acid and glutamic acids (2) Asparagine and glutamine (3) Ureides (4) Both (1) and (3) 106. Steps of conversion of N2 into NH3 during N2

fixation is shown below : 2 2 2 3N N H A 2NH→ → →

Here ‘A’ is

(1) 4NH+ (2) Hydrazine

(3) Amide (4) –NH2

107. In plants, minerals are (1) Absorbed as ions usually by active process (2) Absorbed by leaves (3) Always absorbed passively (4) Not required 108. Find the incorrect match. Symptoms Deficient element (1) Chlorosis – N, K, Mg (2) Necrosis – Ca, Mg, Cu (3) Inhibition of cell – N, K, S and Mo

division (4) Late flowering – Na and Si 109. Leg-haemoglobin provides the favourable

condition for the activity of (1) Nitrogenase (2) RuBisCO (3) Nitrate reductase (4) Nitrite reductase 110. Both Cu and Fe is required for the function of (1) Nitrite reductase (2) Nitrogenase (3) Leg haemoglobin (4) Transaminase 111. Nitrosomonas convert

(1) 3 2NH NO−→ (2) 2 3NO NO− −→

(3) 2 3N NH→ (4) 3 2NH N→

112. For the formation of four molecules of NH3 during nitrogen fixation, there will be requirement of

(1) 16 ADP (2) 32 ATP (3) 8 GTP (4) 24 NADH 113. Tryptophan amino acid synthesis in plants

requires (1) Zn (2) Mn (3) Cl (4) Na


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114. T.W. Engelmann demonstrated (1) That in presence of sunlight plant could

release O2

(2) O2 is required for photosynthesis

(3) The first action spectrum of photosynthesis (4) That H2O is required to produce O2

115. Find the odd one w.r.t. Moll’s half leaf experiment.

(1) It demonstrates the role of O2 for respiration

(2) A part of leaf was enclosed in a test tube containing KOH soaked cotton

(3) Exposed part of leaf tested positive for starch (4) Covered part of leaf tested negative for

starch

116. Light2 2 2 22H A CO 2A CH O H O+ → + +

In this equation H2A is

(1) Oxidisable compound (2) Reducible compound (3) Electron acceptor (4) Always H2O

117. Mg is located in (1) Phytol part of chlorophyll (2) Porphyrin head of chlorophyll (3) Xanthophylls (4) Carotenes 118. ‘Shield pigments’ during photosynthesis (1) Absorb the light to produce ATP (2) Protect the plant from excessive heat and

also function as primary pigments (3) Prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll

pigments (4) Produce ATP and NADPH directly by

absorbing light 119. Find the odd one w.r.t accessory pigments. (1) Chlorophyll b (2) Xanthophyll (3) Carotene (4) Chlorophyll a 120. Reaction center of PS-I (1) Has chlorophyll c and absorb the light at 780

nm (2) Has chlorophyll a and absorb the light at 680

nm (3) Has chlorophyll a and absorb the light at 700

nm (4) Does not contain chlorophyll a in it

121. Water splitting complex (1) Is associated with PS-II (2) Is associated with PS-I (3) Contains Mg and Fe (4) Produces CO2 during photosynthesis 122. PS-I, during non-cyclic photophosphorylation

accepts the electrons immediately from (1) NADPH (2) NADH (3) Plastocyanin (4) Ferredoxin 123. Cyclic photophosphorylation usually occurs when (1) Light intensity is very high (2) O2 concentration is very poor (3) CO2 availability is poor (4) CO2 concentration is very high 124. To make one molecule of sucrose ___ turns of

Calvin cycle are required (1) Three (2) Six (3) Twelve (4) Nine 125. Calvin cycle is present in (1) C3 plants only (2) C4 plants only (3) CAM plants only (4) C3, C4 and CAM plants 126. First CO2 acceptor molecule during Hatch and

Slack pathway is (1) PEP (2) Pyruvic acid (3) Ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate (4) RuBisCO 127. For the fixation of 6CO2 molecules in C3 plants,

there is requirement of (1) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH (2) 2 ATP and 4 NADPH (3) 3 ATP and 6 NADPH (4) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH 128. RuBisCO enzyme is present in all, except (1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants (2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants (3) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants (4) In CAM plants 129. Photorespiration reaction occurs in (1) All C4 plants (2) Chloroplast and nucleus of some C3 plants (3) Majority of C4 plants and CAM plants (4) C3 plants


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130. Find the correctly matched pair.

(1) During photosynthesis, first stable product is 3C compound

– C4 plants

(2) Primary CO2 acceptor is 3C compound

– C3 plants

(3) Efficient process of CO2 fixation

– C3 plants

(4) Can tolerate saline conditions due to abundant organic acids in them

– C4 plants

131. Double carboxylation usually occurs in (1) Some C3 plants and all C4 plants

(2) Some C4 plants and all C3 plants

(3) Sugarcane and Amaranthus (4) Maize and tomato 132. Plants which show Kranz anatomy have all the

following characteristics, except (1) Adaptation to dry tropical regions (2) Production of glycolate in chloroplast

(3) Higher yield and greater productivity (4) More efficient in CO2 utilization

133. Read the given statements and choose the option which is true for them.

Statement-A : NADP reductase located on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane.

Statement B : Most of the photosynthesis by plants takes place in blue and red regions of light spectrum.

(1) Both A and B are correct (2) Only A is correct (3) Only B is correct (4) Both A and B are incorrect 134. Photorespiration leads to the ___ loss of fixed

CO2.

(1) 25 percent (2) 50 percent (3) 1 percent (4) 90 percent 135. OAA is first product of (1) Calvin cycle (2) Hatch-Slack pathway (3) Photorespiration (4) C3 cycle in CAM plants

ZOOLOGY 136. Which of the following represent non-nucleated

formed elements of blood? (1) Eosinophils (2) Basophils (3) Lymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes 137. A network of threads forming coagulum at the site

of injury primarily consists of (1) Fibrin (2) Fibrinogen (3) Thrombin (4) Prothrombin 138. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t lymphatic

system (1) The fluid is drained into major arteries

through lymph vessels (2) It consists of capillaries, vessels, nodes and

ducts (3) The walls of larger lymphatic vessels are

similar to veins (4) Lymphoid organs comprise of thymus,

tonsils, spleen and bone marrow

139. A neonate with blood group A positive suffered erythroblastosis fetalis. Choose the option that represents the possible blood group of his parents. Mother Father (1) A positive O negative (2) O negative A positive

(3) A positive A positive (4) O negative A negative

140. The opening in thick fibrous tissue septum separating chambers on left side of the heart in humans, is guarded by

(1) Two flaps (2) Half-moon shaped flaps (3) Three flaps (4) No flaps 141. Double circulation differs from incomplete double

circulation as in latter (1) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood (2) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood (3) Heart pumps out mixed blood (4) Heart pumps out mixed blood from different

chambers


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142. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. sino-atrial node

(1) It is present in upper right corner of right atrium

(2) It produces impulses spontaneously (3) It stimulates the contraction of only

ventricular myocardium (4) It is innervated by both sympathetic and

parasympathetic nerves 143. Which of the following events does not occur

during ventricular systole? (1) Closure of AV valves (2) Opening of semilunar valves (3) Relaxation of atria (4) Second heart sound 144. Read the following statements. Statement A : The cardiac output of an athlete

will be higher than that of an ordinary man. Statement B : The endurance trained state in a

sportsperson is associated with greater stroke volume because of augmented preload.

Choose the correct option. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Statement B explains statement A (4) Both statements are incorrect 145. While studying an ECG, the heart rate can be

determined by usually counting the (1) P-waves (2) QRS complexes (3) T waves (4) PR intervals 146. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. blood

vessels of liver. (1) Hepatic artery brings oxygenated blood into

the liver (2) Hepatic portal vein brings nutrient rich

deoxygenated blood into the liver (3) Hepatic vein carries urea rich blood out of the

liver (4) Hepatic portal vein and hepatic vein both

carry deoxygenated blood out of the liver 147. The walls of blood vessels in human body are

internally lined by (1) More white fibres and less yellow fibres (2) More yellow fibres and less muscles fibres (3) White fibres, muscle fibres and endothelium (4) Endothelium

148. The part of brain responsible for maintenance of cardiac function through autonomic nervous system is

(1) Midbrain (2) Cerebrum (3) Pons (4) Medulla oblongata 149. ‘Complete stoppage of heart beat’ is referred to

as (1) Angina pectoris (2) Heart failure (3) Heart attack (4) Cardiac arrest 150. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. healthy adult

human (1) Lymph = Blood − (RBCs + large proteins) (2) Leucocytes = 6000 − 8000/mm3 (3) Serum = Plasma + Clotting factors (4) Erythrocytes = 5 − 5.5 million/mm3 151. In the given figure, the structure labelled ‘X’ is

internally lined by

(1) Simple squamous epithelium (2) Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium (3) Simple cuboidal ciliated epithelium (4) Pseudostratified epithelium 152. In human kidney, the cortex extends between the

medullary pyramids as columns called (1) Renal pelvis (2) Columns of Bertini (3) Minor calyx (4) Major calyx 153. Choose the odd one w.r.t diuretics (1) ADH (2) Alcohol (3) ANF (4) Caffeine 154. Choose the correct match w.r.t. organism and its

chief excretory product. i. Bony fishes (a) Ammonia ii. Terrestrial insects (b) Urea iii. Marine fishes (c) Uric acid (d) Guanine (1) i(b), ii(a), iii(d) (2) i(a), ii(c), iii(b) (3) i(a), ii(c), iii(d) (4) i(a), ii(b), iii(c)


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155. Which of the following is not a component of the filtration membrane of nephron?

(1) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels (2) Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule (3) Basement membrane between these layers (4) Mesothelium of glomerular blood vessels 156. Osmoregulatory structures in Planaria are (1) Protonephridia (2) Mesonephridia (3) Metanephridia (4) Nephrons 157. The juxta glomerular apparatus is formed by the

modification of (1) DCT only (2) DCT and efferent arteriole (3) DCT and afferent arteriole (4) DCT, afferent and efferent arteriole 158. Sympathetic stimulation of arteries of kidney

leads to their I and II in GFR. Choose the option that fills I and II correctly.

I II

(1) Dilation Increase

(2) Constriction Decrease

(3) Constriction Increase

(4) Dilation Decrease

159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. regulation of kidney function.

(1) Angiotensin II signals PCT to reabsorb more NaCl and water

(2) Aldosterone induces distal parts of the tubule to reabsorb more Na+ and water

(3) Renin converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II (4) RAAS is a multihormonal system that can

regulate blood volume and blood pressure. 160. Release of ADH can be stimulated by all of the

following except (1) Loss of fluid from the body (2) Increased ionic concentration in body (3) Reduction in blood pressure (4) Increased blood volume 161. Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed by the

presence of ___ in urine. Choose the option that fills the blank correctly

(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Urea (4) Creatinine

162. Mammals have the ability to produce concentrated urine. This happens primarily because of all the following except

(1) Counter current mechanism (2) Proximity between Henle’s loop and vasa

recta (3) Long loops of Henle in cortical nephrons (4) Long loops of Henle in juxtamedullary

nephrons 163. Renal corpuscle lacks (1) Glomerulus (2) Bowman's capsule (3) Podocytes (4) Simple cuboidal epithelium 164. Choose the correct match w.r.t. structure and its

respective excretory product a. Liver (i) Carbon dioxide b. Sweat glands (ii) Bile pigments c. Sebaceous glands (iii) Hydrocarbons d. Lungs (iv) NaCl (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) 165. Insoluble masses of crystallised salts formed

within the kidney are referred to as (1) Glomerulonephritis (2) Renal calculi (3) Cholelithiasis (4) Ketonuria 166. Choose the odd one w.r.t paired bones of skull (1) Parietal (2) Ethmoid (3) Zygomatic (4) Maxilla 167. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t ribs of an

adult human. (1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all ribs are

connected dorsally to the sternum (2) True ribs are attached with vertebrae by two

heads (3) The three pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are

attached to vertebrosternal ribs (4) Floating ribs protect the kidneys 168. Joint which allows free movement of human

thumb is (1) Ball and socket joint (2) Saddle joint (3) Gliding joint (4) Pivot joint


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169. According to sliding filament theory, (1) Dark and light myofilaments move from their

original position and slide towards each other (2) Dark myofilaments shorten and slide towards

light myofilaments (3) Neither dark nor light myofilaments shorten

during muscle contraction (4) Light myofilaments participate in it by

extending their heads to form cross bridges 170. A condition of sustained muscle contraction

occurring due to hypocalcemia is called (1) Tonus (2) Tetanus (3) Tetany (4) Treppe 171. Biceps contain muscle fibres that are (1) Striated, branched and syncytial (2) Striated, unbranched and mononucleated (3) Fusiform, branched and syncytial (4) Cylindrical, unbranched and striated 172. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. F-actin. (1) It is filamentous and helically wound (2) It is a polymerised protein (3) It is made up of contractile LMM and HMM (4) It is a contractile protein 173. Cartilaginous joints bones can be seen

at/between (1) Skull bones (2) Pubic symphysis (3) Carpals (4) Atlas and axis 174. An age related skeletal disorder which is

characterised by loss of minerals from the bone is (1) Gout (2) Osteoporosis (3) Osteoarthritis (4) Rheumatoid arthritis

175. Shoulder joint involves articulation between scapula and

(1) Femur (2) Clavicle (3) Humerus (4) Sternum 176. Total number of metacarpals present in a single

human limb is (1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 30 177. Read the following statements. (a) Hyoid is an unpaired bone of appendicular

skeleton. (b) Temporal bones are joined with parietal

bones by sutures. (c) The second cervical vertebra is called atlas. (d) Patella is an example of sesamoid bone. Choose the option with correct statements. (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d) 178. Coxal bone of pelvic girdle comprises (a) Ilium (b) Ischium (c) Ileum (d) Pubis (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) 179. Red muscle fibres contain all the following

except (1) Myoglobin (2) Mitochondria (3) Many nuclei (4) Gap junctions 180. The connective tissue covering of a muscle is

called (1) Epimysium (2) Perimysium (3) Endomysium (4) Sarcolemma

(1)

31/03/2020 CODE-A

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MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 4

Answer Key 1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (2) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1) 36. (3)

37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (1) 64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (3) 71. (1) 72. (2)

73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (1) 85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (3) 92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (4) 96. (3) 97. (4) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (1) 101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (2) 106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (4)

109. (1) 110. (1) 111. (1) 112. (2) 113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (1) 116. (1) 117. (2) 118. (3) 119. (4) 120. (3) 121. (1) 122. (3) 123. (3) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (1) 127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (2) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (2) 136. (4) 137. (1) 138. (1) 139. (2) 140. (1) 141. (3) 142. (3) 143. (4) 144. (3)

145. (2) 146 (4) 147. (4) 148. (4) 149. (4) 150. (3) 151. (2) 152. (2) 153. (1) 154. (2) 155. (4) 156. (1) 157. (3) 158. (2) 159. (3) 160. (4) 161. (1) 162. (3) 163. (4) 164. (4) 165. (2) 166. (2) 167. (1) 168. (2) 169. (3) 170. (3) 171. (4) 172. (3) 173. (2) 174. (2) 175. (3) 176. (1) 177. (4) 178. (4) 179. (4) 180. (1)

Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

(2)

31/03/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Test - 4

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

1. Answer (4)

PV

V

β =∆

V tV∆ = α∆

Pt

β =α∆

Pt∆ =αβ

2. Answer (3)

StressStrain

E =

Modulus of elasticity (E) is material’s property. It will remain same.

3. Answer (1)

212

YA xl

4. Answer (3) For elastomers stress-strain curve is not linear

within elastic limit.

5. Answer (3)

FllYA

∆ =

80 3 4 :130 2

A

B

ll

∆ ×= =

∆ ×

6. Answer (2)

2F llYA×

∆ =

2

l A g llY A

× × ρ ×∆ =

×

864 1600 10

2 4 10l × ×

∆ =× ×

= 64 × 2 × 10–5

= 128 × 10–5 = 1.28 × 10–3 = 1.28 mm 7. Answer (3)

PV

V

β =∆

V PV∆

=β

1140 10gh −= ρ × ×

= 103 × 10 × 2000 × 40 × 10–11 = 8 × 10–3 8. Answer (1)

FlYlA

=∆

1 2

2( ) ( )

mgl mgll l A l l A

=− −

2 1( ) 2 ( )l l l l l l− = −

2 12 2l l l l− = −

1 22l l l= −

Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

(3)

9. Answer (3) K = Yr0 = 20 × 1010 × 4 × 10–10 = 80 N/m = 80 × 10–10 N/Å = 8 × 10–9 N/Å 10. Answer (4) Yield point (stress) remains same. 11. Answer (2)

F ghA

= ρ

34

100 10 10500 10

h− = ××

15

h=

h = 0.2 m 12. Answer (3) With increase in temperature, viscosity of liquids

decreases and that of gas increases. 13. Answer (3)

( )22

9TgrV = ρ − ση

3 2

2 31

2 10(2 10 )6.5 10 (8.9 10 )9 9.9 10

−−

−

× ×× = × − σ

× ×

3 31.66 10 kg/ mσ = ×

14. Answer (2) Where area of cross-section is small, speed is

high and pressure is low. 15. Answer (2) 4P gh P= ρ +

3ghP ρ

=

123

P gh P + ρ =

1 3P P⇒ =

16. Answer (1) For drop of radius r

2T pr

=

2

53

2 8 10 4 10 m4 10

r−

−× ×⇒ = ⇒ ×

×

17. Answer (3) Force required to separate the plate

2=

SAFt

3 1

42 70 10 10 140 N

1 10

− −

−

× × ×= =

×

18. Answer (3)

2 (30 )R h h= −

19. Answer (4) Velocity profile of a viscous fluid is a parabola. 20. Answer (1) Since volume remains the same when a liquid

drop of radius R breaks up into N3 droplets, each of radius r,

3 3 34 4 or3 3

RR N r rN

π π = =

Change in internal energy,

2 2 2[4 (4 )]U T A T R N r∆ = × ∆ = π − π

As , UU mc T Tmc∆

∆ = ∆ ∆ =

or 2 2 2

34 ( ) 3( 1)

(4 / 3)T R N r N TT

PCRR cπ − −

∆ = =π ρ

21. Answer (2)

1 2( ) RTp n nV

= +

5(10 ) 2 10 0.04

2 4 8.3 293m m− × ×

⇒ + =×

2 10 3.294

m m+ −⇒ =

⇒ m = 3.16 g (10 – m) = 6.84 g 22. Answer (1) PV = nRT ⇒ P∆V = nR∆T

V TV T∆ ∆

⇒ =

1VV T T∆

⇒ =∆

23. Answer (2) ∆VnC T

3 205 13

R= × ×

−

9 202

R= × ×

9 2520 750 J2 3

= × × =


(4)

24. Answer (3) PV = nRT Third graph is incorrect as PV would not remain

constant if T changes. 25. Answer (3)

r .m.s.3RTVM

=

1

3

9

3

RTV MV RT

M

=

11

1 33

V V VV

= ⇒ =

26. Answer (1) 0 0 0 02 4W P V P V= × =

03 22VnC T n Rx T∆ = ×

= 3 nRT0

05 62PnC T n R T∆ = ×

= 15 nRT0 0 0 018 18+ = =Q nRT PV

supplied

100wQ

η = ×

0 0

0 0

4 100 22.2%18

P VP V

= × =

27. Answer (2) W nR T= ∆

nR TQ ∆=

γ

7 15

WQ = −

52

=WQ

28. Answer (4) Initially gas is being compressed and later it

expands. 29. Answer (2)

1 3(1 ) 14 4

− η = − =

30. Answer (2)

Amount of sweat evaporated

3

315 10 80 kg 1500 80 g

580580 10 100× × ×

= =× ×

31. Answer (2)

2/3V KT=

1/323

−=KdV T dT

PV = nRT

nRTPV

=

dW = PdV

1/323

nRTdW KT dTV

−=

1/32/3

23

nRTdW KT dTKT

−=

23

dW nRdT=∫ ∫

2 8040 26.63 3

W R R R= × = =

32. Answer (2)

= ∆Q mS T

1 1

2 2

Q mQ m

=

3

3

413

4 8(2 )3

r

r

ρ π=

ρ π

33. Answer (2)

mLf + mS (100 – 60) = 200 × 1 × (60 – 20)

m(540 + 40) = 200 × 40

200 40580

×=m = 13.8 g

34. Answer (2)

At high altitudes pressure is low due to which the boiling point reduces.

35. Answer (1)

PV = nRT = m RTM

P⇒ ∝ ρ


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36. Answer (3)

2 2

3ml I lI

I l∆ ∆

= ⇒ =

2I TI

∆⇒ = α∆

2I I T⇒ ∆ = α∆ 37. Answer (4)

1 2T TQl

KA

−=

For same temperature difference, heat current through second rod will be 2Q. So total heat current, Q′ = Q + 2Q = 3Q.

38. Answer (4) constantmTλ =

39. Answer (1)

0100 0

t xl

−=

−

100xtl

=

40. Answer (4) Rate of cooling ∝ (T – T0) 41. Answer (1) In radiation, the heat travels with speed of light. 42. Answer (1)

2 1 1 2

2− + = −

s

Q Q Q Qk Q

t

60 50 50 6010 2 sK Q− + = −

1 (55 )sK Q= − … (i)

50 42 50 42and10 2 sK Q− + = −

( )4 465 sK Q= − … (ii)

(55 )54 (46 )

s

s

QQ

−=

−

5 × 46 – 5Qs = 55 × 4 – 4Qs Qs = 46 × 5 – 55 × 4 Qs = 10 Qs = 10°C 43. Answer (2) 4Q AT= σ

4 41 1 2 2AT A T=

4 2

1 22

2 1

4 (9 )4 ( )

T A rT A r

π= =

π

4

1

2

811

TT

=

1

23 :1T

T=

44. Answer (4) P VC C R− =

1P

V V

C RC C

− =

75

P

V

CC

=

2 75

ff+

=

5 10 7f f+ = f = 5 45. Answer (1) constantTλ =

2 143

T T⇒ =

4Power T∝

CHEMISTRY

46. Answer (2)

In H – C ≡ N, oxidation state of N is –3.

47. Answer (4)

2HNO3 + 3H2S → 2NO + 3S + 4H2O

48. Answer (2) Oxidation state of oxygen may vary from

–2 to +2. 49. Answer (4) Elements with intermediate oxidation state may

get oxidized or reduced.


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50. Answer (1)

ocellE 0.76 0.8 1.56 V= + =

51. Answer (2)

23 2 44Zn NO 7H O 4Zn NH 10OH− + + −+ + → + +

52. Answer (3) 7 25e Mn Mn− + ++ → 53. Answer (1)

NH4NO3 is composed of 4NH+ and 3NO− , N have –3 and +5 oxidation states respectively.

54. Answer (3) Permanent hardness is due to the presence of

sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium.

55. Answer (4)

boil3 2 3 2 2Ca(HCO ) CaCO H O CO→ + +

56. Answer (3) Zeolite is used in ion exchange method. 57. Answer (1) Dielectric constant of H2O is 78.39 C2/N.m2 and

that of D2O is 78.06 C2/N.m2. 58. Answer (2) 59. Answer (3) 1 mL H2O2 liberates 25 mL at STP; volume

strength = 25. 60. Answer (1) 61. Answer (1) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 +4H2O 62. Answer (3) Generally, group I metal oxides are more basic

than group II metal oxides in their respective period.

63. Answer (1) 64. Answer (3) Above 3M concentration blue colour changes to

bronze. 65. Answer (4)

2 3K CO No Decomposition∆→

66. Answer (2)

3 2 2 22M(NO ) 2MO 4NO O∆→ + +

67. Answer (1) ( )2CO H mixture+ is called water gas.

68. Answer (1) Hydration enthalpy decreases with increase in

size of cations (with same charge). 69. Answer (3)

70. Answer (3) Down the group density increases except K

which has lower density than Na, due to its large size.

71. Answer (1) Be, Mg do not impart colour to flame. 72. Answer (2)

Be → Al shows diagonal relationship. 73. Answer (2) 74. Answer (4) CaO is quick lime 75. Answer (2) 76. Answer (2) Atomic radii; Ga < Al < In < Tl 77. Answer (2) 78. Answer (1) 79. Answer (2) CO2 is acidic, Na2O and BaO are basic, Al2O3 is

amphoteric 80. Answer (4) Order of Lewis acid nature BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3, < BI3 81. Answer (2)

82. Answer (2) 83. Answer (2) B3N3H6 has benzene like structure. 84. Answer (1) Solid CO2 is called dry ice. 85. Answer (2) 86. Answer (4) Zeolites are 3D silicates 87. Answer (2) 2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na[Al(OH)4] + 3H2

88. Answer (3) 89. Answer (4) SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature 90. Answer (4)

3SiF4 + 4H2O → Si(OH)4 +2H2SiF6


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BOTANY91. Answer (3) 92. Answer (3) Magnesium is a macronutrient 93. Answer (3) Macronutrients are not toxic in slight excess,

while micronutrients are toxic in slight excess. 94. Answer (1) Mg2+ is the activator of DNA synthesising

enzymes. 95. Answer (4) 96. Answer (3) Ca and Mg forms the calcium and magnesium

pectate respectively. 97. Answer (4) Alcohol dehydrogenase is activated by Zn2+. 98. Answer (3) 99. Answer (1) Pseudomonas is a denitrifying bacteria. 100. Answer (1) Fe and Cu can be reversibly oxidised and

reduced during electron transport chain. 101. Answer (2) Mo and Fe are the part of nitrogenase enzyme. 102. Answer (2) Azotobacter is an unicellular free living bacteria

found in soil. 103. Answer (3)

Nitrogenase

2

3 2

N 16ATP 8H 8e2NH H 16ADP 16Pi

+ −+ + + →+ + +

104. Answer (2) Enzyme involved in this reaction is

aminotransferase. 105. Answer (2) Asparagine and glutamine derived from aspartic

acid and glutamic acid respectively. 106. Answer (2) Hydrazine = N2H4

107. Answer (1) 108. Answer (4) Late flowering – N, S and Mo 109. Answer (1) Leg-haemoglobin is an O2 scavenger.

110. Answer (1) Nitrogenase enzyme is activated by Mo and Fe. 111. Answer (1) Nitrosomonas is nitrifying bacterium converts

3 2NH NO−→

112. Answer (2) Per N2 molecule reduction requires 16 ATP

molecules. 113. Answer (1) 114. Answer (3) 115. Answer (1) 116. Answer (1) Oxidisable compound are like H2O or H2S. In

eubacteria it may be H2O or H2S. 117. Answer (2) 118. Answer (3) Shield pigments are carotenoids which do not

produce ATP and NADPH directly from light. 119. Answer (4) Chlorophyll a is a primary pigment. 120. Answer (3) 121. Answer (1) H2O splitting complex is associated with PS-II

and provides electrons to it. 122. Answer (3) Plastocyanin transfer the electron from Cyt b6 f

complex to PS-I. 123. Answer (3) Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when light

intensity is low and CO2 availability is poor. 124. Answer (3) Sucrose molecule is composed of 2 glucose and

each glucose requires six Calvin cycles for its formation.

125. Answer (4) 126. Answer (1) PEPCase enzyme in C4 plants fix the CO2 with

PEP in mesophyll cells. 127. Answer (4) During Calvin cycle 18 ATP and 12 NADPH are

required to form one 6C carbon sugar (Glucose).


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128. Answer (2)

In mesophyll cells of C4 plants PEPCase enzyme

is present.

129. Answer (4)

130. Answer (4)

C4 plants can tolerate saline conditions due to

abundant organic acids in them.

131. Answer (3) Sugarcane and Amaranthus are C4 plants

showing double carboxylation. 132. Answer (2) Glycolate is produced during photorespiration,

this process is not shown by C4 plants. 133. Answer (1) 134. Answer (1) 135. Answer (2) OAA is a 4-C compound produced in C4 plants.

ZOOLOGY136. Answer (4) Thrombocytes or platelets are colourless,

rounded or oval, non nucleated fragments of cells.

137. Answer (1) Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen of plasma

into insoluble fibrin. The clot or coagulum mainly consists of fibrin.

138. Answer (1) The principle lymphatic vessels i.e. thoracic duct

and right lymphatic duct drain the lymph into left and right subclavian veins respectively.

139. Answer (2) Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when a child with

D antigen is born to a mother who lacks D antigen.

140. Answer (1) The AV valve between the left atrium and left

ventricle has 2 flaps or cusps and is called bicuspid or mitral valve.

141. Answer (3) Incomplete double circulation is present in

amphibians and reptiles where both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed up in the single ventricle and the heart pumps out mixed blood.

142. Answer (3) The SA node is called the pacemaker of the heart

and spontaneously produces impulse for the contraction of atrial myocardium, depolarises AVN and sends impulses through bundle fibres to ventricular myocardium.

143. Answer (4) Second heart sound is produced by closure of

semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.

144. Answer (3) In well trained athletes, stroke volume can also

increase significantly allowing these individuals to achieve cardiac outputs during strenuous exercise upto six-seven times greater than their resting values.

145. Answer (2) QRS wave complex represents depolarisation of

ventricles which initiates ventricular contraction. Thus, by counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, the heart beat rate can be determined.

146 Answer (4) Hepatic portal vein carries blood to the liver from

digestive tract whereas hepatic vein carries blood out of liver.

147. Answer (4) Smallest blood vessels are capillaries and are

lined by simple squamous epithelium called endothelium.

148. Answer (4) A special neural centre present in medulla

oblongata moderates cardiac functions through ANS.

149. Answer (4) Heart failure occurs when heart is not able to

pump enough blood to met the needs of the body.

150. Answer (3) Serum lacks clotting factors. 151. Answer (2) PCT is internally lined by simple cuboidal brush

bordered epithelium which increases surface area for reabsorption.

152. Answer (2) The renal pelvis where major calyces open is

placed inner to hilum.


(9)

153. Answer (1) ADH is antidiuretic hormone. 154. Answer (2) Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete

nitrogenous wastes as uric acid. 155. Answer (4) The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called

podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner so as to leave minute spaces called filtration slits.

156. Answer (1) Protonephridia or flame cells are excretory and

osmoregulatory structures in platyhelminthes. 157. Answer (3) JGA is formed by cellular modifications in DCT

and afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.

158. Answer (2) Constriction of renal arteries causes decrease in

renal blood flow as well as GFR. 159. Answer (3) Renin converts Angiotensinogen to

Angiotensin I 160. Answer (4) Increase in blood volume triggers the release of

ANF. 161. Answer (1) Glucosuria and ketonuria are indicative of

diabetes mellitus. 162. Answer (3) Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of

Henle which cortical nephrons have short loops of Henle.

163. Answer (4) Glomerular capillaries, parietal and visceral layers

of Bowman’s capsule contain simple squamous epithelium that allows filtration.

164. Answer (4) Our lungs remove approximately 200 ml/min of

CO2.

165. Answer (2) Glomerulonephritis is the inflammation of

glomeruli. Cholelithiasis is the presence of calculi in gall bladder. Ketonuria is the presence of ketone bodies in urine.

166. Answer (2) Ethmoid is an unpaired bone. 167. Answer (1) All ribs are connected dorsally to vertebrae. 168. Answer (2) Saddle joint is a type of synovial joint between

carpal and metacarpal of thumb in humans. 169. Answer (3) According to sliding filament theory, actin and

myosin filaments do not shorten but slide past each other.

170. Answer (3) Tonus is the normal tone of a resting muscle.

Treppe is increase in tension of muscle with each successive stimulus which is delivered shortly after the completion of relaxation phase of the preceding twitch.

171. Answer (4) Biceps contain skeletal muscle fibres. 172. Answer (3) LMM and HMM are components of myosin. 173. Answer (2) The joint between atlas and axis is pivot joint. 174. Answer (2) Osteoporosis can occur due to hormonal

imbalance. Decreased bone mass is seen. 175. Answer (3) Glenoid cavity is a shallow articular surface

present in scapula. It articulates with the head of humerus to form shoulder joint.

176. Answer (1) Each human limb contains 5 metacarpals which

articulate with phalanges. 177. Answer (4) Hyoid is a bone of axial skeleton. Second cervical

vertebra is called axis. 178. Answer (4) Ileum is a part of small intestine. 179. Answer (4) Presence of gap junctions is a characteristic

feature of single unit smooth muscle fibres and cardiac muscle fibres.

180. Answer (1) Inside epimysium, a muscle has many muscle

fibres arranged in bundles called fasciculi which are covered by perimysium.

test - 4 · 2020-04-01 · test series for neet-2020 test-4 (code-a) (3) 14. figure shown below (a)...

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