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7/18/2019 Test 13 Final Questions 1 http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-13-final-questions-1 1/23  http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 1 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 13 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. http://www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015

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Page 1: Test 13 Final Questions 1

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 13

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-ITime Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSINGPAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the TestBooklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOTWrite anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each itemcomprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on theAnswer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response whichyou consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions inthe Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with yourAdmission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination hasconcluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to takeaway with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THEOBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which awrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to thatquestion will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one ofthe given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to thatquestion.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penaltyfor that question.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015

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1.  Leaching of soil is detrimental to soil

productivity. This is because

a)  Water-soluble inorganic nutrients

go down into the soil horizon and

get precipitated as unavailablesalts.

b)  Bacterial and other biological

agents can no longer catabolise soil

c)  Humification of the soil stops

d)  None of the above is an

appropriate answer

2.  Consider the following statements

about breeding of animals.

1.  Biologically unrelated animals

cannot be breeded (bred)

2.  The animals being breeded (bred)

should have common ancestors.

3.  Artificial insemination does not

come under breeding practices.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  None of the above

3.  More than 3 billion people in the

World suffer from „Hidden Hunger‟. It

can be caused due to the deficiencies

of

1.  Micronutrients

2.  Proteins

3.  Vitamins

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 only

d)  All of the above

4.  Which of the following factors may

possibly account for the greater

biological diversity at the tropics?

1.  Tropical latitudes have remained

undisturbed for longer durations

than higher latitudes.

2.  Tropical environments are less

seasonal.

3.  There is more solar energy

available at the tropics.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  3 only

d)  All of the above

5.  In agriculture, the biological method of

controlling pests that relies on natural

predation rather than introduced

chemicals. Which of the following

microbes can be used in the method?

1.  Bacillus thuringiensis  

2.  Trichoderma

3.  Lady Beetle

4.  Dipteran

5.  Cordyceps

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 4 only

b)  1, 3 and 5 only

c) 

2 and 5 onlyd)  All of the above

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6.  Which of the following features of the

Indian Constitution deal with

maintaining the social fabric, moral

values and national consciousness?

1.  Fundamental Rights2.  Fundamental Duties

3.  Directive Principles of State Policy

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

7.  A recent draft order of the Food Safety

and Standards Authority of India‟s

(FSSAI) has proposed to put curbs on

the rampant use of antibiotics as a

growth promoter in food-producing

animals in India, such as chicken. Itwill help in containing

1.  Unregulated entry of antibiotics

into the food-producing industry

2.  Antibiotic resistance

3.  Import of chicken from the US to

the Indian market.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

8.  A Delta 2 rocket carrying Soil Moisture

Active Passive (SMAP) satellite has

been recently launched by NASA.

How will it help humanity?

1.  It may help residents in low-lyingregions brace for floods

2.  It will help farmers to get ready for

drought conditions.

3.  It will study the soil profile of

various regions on earth and relay

the data back to the scientific

community to be then transmitted

to the farmers of respective

countries.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

9.  Which of the following category of

constitutional amendments would

require the ratification of the states in

India?

1.  Citizenship clauses

2.  Changes in the Concurrent List

under Seventh Schedule

3.  Changes in the state boundaries

4.  Changing the number of puisine

 judges in the Supreme Court

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 4 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1, 2 and 3 onlyd)  2 only

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10. Which of the following possibilities

can be found in a Parliamentary

Democracy?

1.  It can be a constitutional monarchy.

2.  President can be the head of thegovernment.

3.  The Prime Minister may belong to

the party without majority in the

legislature.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

11. Consider the following statements

about the position, powers, functions

and responsibilities of the President of

India.1.  He has a right to be informed of all

important matters and

deliberations of the Council of

Ministers.

2.  The President need not accept the

advice of Council of Ministers if the

advice has been given for the first

time.

3.  The only ground for his

impeachment is the violation of the

Constitution.

4.  He scrutinizes the annual budget

proposal of the government before

placing it to the Parliament.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  1, 2 and 3

c)  2 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

12. Consider a situation where the Prime

Minister wants to impose „President‟s

rule‟ in one State because the State

government has failed to effectively

curb atrocities against the Dalits in that

State. The President does not agree

wholeheartedly on signing the order.

Which of the following courses of

action are available to the President?

1.  Tell the Prime Minister that he will

not sign on the order promulgating

President‟s rule. 

2.  Make a press statement about how

the Prime Minister is wrong.

3.  Discuss the matter with the Prime

Minister and try to dissuade him

from taking this action, but if heinsists, agreeing to sign the said

order.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 only

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  3 only

13. Consider the following statements

about the Mahalwari system.

1.  The charge of collecting the

revenue and paying it to the

Company was given to the village

headman, rather than the

zamindar.

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2.  The revenue demand was to be

revised periodically, not

permanently fixed.

3.  It was not applicable to the

Northern part of the country.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

14. Ancient Indian thinkers had arrived at

an elaborate system of ideas on

motion. It was in a way similar to the

laws of motion. In these Indian

systems which of the following

concepts comes closes to the concept of

inertia?

a)  The notion of Vega in theVaisheshika theory

b)  The notion of abhighat in the

Sankhya theory

c)  The notion of nodan in the Sankhya

theory

d)  The notion of sanskara in

Vaisheshika theory

15. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): A body like a ring or a sphere

rolling without slipping over a horizontal

plane will suffer no friction, in principle.

Reason (R): At every instant, there is just one

point of contact between the body and the

plane and this point has no motion relative tothe plane.

In the context of the statements above, which

of these is true?

a)  A and R both are true, and R is the

correct explanation for A.b)  A and R both are true, and R is the

NOT the correct explanation for A.

c)  A is correct, R is incorrect.

d)  A and R both are incorrect.

16. In the Indian Judiciary, which of the

following factors may work as

constraints over the High Court judgesin giving their rulings?

1.  Precedents set by Supreme Court

2.  Constitution of India

3.  Instructions of the Executive to the

courts

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

17. Consider the following statements.

1.  The Subordinate courts in India

deal with both civil and criminalcases.

2.  The High courts can not issue writs

for restoring fundamental rights.

3.  Lok Adalats do not have the

 jurisdiction to deal with criminal

cases.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

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a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

18. Which of the following factors do NOT

 justify a strong central government in

the Indian federal structure?

1.  Balanced regional development

2.  Territorial integrity of India

3.  Growing financial needs of states

4.  Increasing volume and funds

allotted to Social sector schemes

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 3 only

b)  1, 3 and 4 only

c)  3 and 4 only

d)  1, 2 and 4 only

19. Consider the following about the

advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme

Court (SC) under Article 143 of the

constitution.

1.  Being a constitutional organ, the SC

is bound to give advice when it isreferred.

2.  The SC being the highest court of

 Justice, legal advice tendered by

the court is legally binding on the

President.

Which of the above is/are true?

a) 

1 onlyb)  2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d)  None

20. Lingayats do not practice funerary

rites such as cremation prescribed in

the Dharmashastras because

a)  as per them such practices show

the domination of brahanism

b)  they believe on death a devotee

will be united with Shiva and not

return to this world

c)  such practices were seen to be

impure by them which dilutes the

sacredness of human body

d)  None of the above

21. Consider the following statements

about the Virashiava tradition inKarnataka in the 12th century

1.  They questioned the theory of

rebirth.

2.  They encouraged certain practices

disapproved in the

Dharmashastras such as widow

remarriage.

3.  Wandering monks were revered in

their traditions.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

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22. Consider the following statements

about Film Certification Appellate

Tribunal (FCAT).

1.  It is a statutory body.

2.  It comes under the aegis ofMinistry of Information and

Broadcasting.

3.  Any applicant can file an appeal

before the tribunal for a certificate

in respect of a film who is

aggrieved by an order of the

Central Board of Film Certification

(CBFC).

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

23. Block mountains are created when

a)  There is intense volcanic activity in

nearby regions consistently for

longer durations

b)  Large areas are broken and

displaced vertically

c)  Tectonic plates converge and

displace each other marginally

d)  Downward erosion of high plateau

regions

24. If the periods and timings of summer

and winter seasons change for the

earth, it may lead to which of the

following changes in the long-run?

1.  Climate Change

2. 

Biodiversity3.  Geomorphological features

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b) 

2 and 3 onlyc)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

25. Consider the following statements

about the interior of earth.

1.  The continental mass of the crust is

made up of silica and magnesium.

2.  Crust is thicker at the ocean floors.

3.  The innermost core of the earth ismade only of molten iron.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  None of the above

26. The growth of natural vegetation

depends on which of the following

factors apart from temperature and

moisture?

1.  Slope

2.  Thickness of Soil

3.  Presence of weeds and othervegetation around

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

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27. Consider the following statements.

1.  They are commonly found along

the eastern margin of continents in

the mid-latitudinal coastal regions.

2.  They comprise both hard and softwood trees.

3.  These regions experience a lot of

seasonal changes.

Which of the above match the description of

Temperate Evergreen forests?

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

28. The higher concentration of dust

particles is found in subtropical and

temperate regions than equatorial and

polar regions due to

a)  Dry winds in comparison toequatorial and Polar Regions.

b)  Moist winds in comparison to

equatorial and polar regions

c)  More seasonal rainfall in

comparison to equatorial and polar

regions.

d)  More even temperature ranges in

comparison to equatorial and polar

regions

29. Consider the following.

1.  The river is famous for its badland

topography called ravines.

2.  It flows through Rajasthan finally

 joining Yamuna.

3.  It rises in the Malwa plateau.

The river with the above description is

a)  Chambal

b)  Gandak

c)  Luni

d)  Ramganga

30. Arrange the following space

expeditions of India in correct

chronological order.

1.  Aryabhatta

2.  Rohini

3.  INSAT

4.  GSAT

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1234

b)  2143

c)  2134

d)  1243

31. Which of the following can be termed

as major causes of biodiversity loss?

1.  Habitat fragmentation

2.  Co-extinction

3.  Alien species invasion

4.  Global warming

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  3 and 4 only

c)  1, 2 and 4 only

d)  All of the above

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32. Catalytic converted is used in

automobiles for reducing emission of

poisonous gases. It converts

a)  Unburnt hydrocarbons into carbon

dioxide and waterb)  Unburnt hydrocarbons into vapour

and nitrogen dioxide

c)  Poisonous sulphur in the fuel into

sulphur dioxide

d)  Poisonous lead in the fuel into lead

oxide and water

33. Consider the following statements

about Ziyarat.

1.  It is Pilgrimage to the tomb of sufi

saints.

2.  This practice is an occasion for

seeking the sufi‟s spiritual grace

(barakat).

3.  The practice was restricted to a

certain class of Muslims.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

34. Consider the following statements

about the ideas of Kabir.

1.  He described the ultimate reality as

the formless one.

2.  His idea of God being shunya 

(emptiness) relates to that of yogic

traditions.

3.  His poems often attack Hindupolytheism and idol worship.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b) 

2 and 3c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

35. Which of the following factors led to

the decline of the Vijayanagar Empire?

1.  Strain in the imperial structure

following the death of Krishnadeva

Raya‟s 2.  Rebelliousness in military chiefs

3.  Invasion of the Mughals

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c) 

1 and 3d)  All of the above

36. Optical fibres used for communication

purposes are based on the principle of

a)  Total internal reflection

b)  Rectilinear propagation of light

c)  Diffraction of light

d)  Dispersion of light

37. Consider the following statements

about bio-magnification.

1.  It refers to an increase in

concentration of the toxicant at

successive trophic levels.

2.  It can happen only in aquatic

bodies.

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3.  Only those toxic substances that

cannot be metabolised or excreted

by the organism cause bio-

magnification.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

38. The relation between the Biological

Oxygen Demand (BOD) and pollution

level of water is

a)  More the BOD , more polluted the

water will be of biologically

degradable material

b)  More the BOD, less polluted the

water will be of biologically

degradable materialc)  More the BOD, more polluted the

water will be of both biologically

non-degradable material

d)  More the BOD, less polluted the

water will be of biologically non-

degradable material

39. The Poona pact between Ambedkar

and Gandhi gave the scheduled castes

reserved seats in

1.  Provincial legislative councils

2.  Central Legislative Councils

3.  Local body councils

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

40. Before cooperating in the British war

effort during Second World War, the

Congress put some basic condition(s)

against the British. These were

1.  After the war, a constituent

assembly should be convened to

determine the political structure of

a free India.

2.  Immediately some form of

responsible government should be

established at the Centre.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b)  2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d)  None

41. According to Buddhist philosophy

1.  The world is soulless.

2.  In the earliest forms of Buddhism,

whether or not god existed was

irrelevant.

3.  Buddha advocates penance to get

salvation.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

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42. Algal bloom can affect water bodies in

which of the following ways?

1.  By depleting the oxygen

availability

2.  Fish morbidity3.  Reducing the amount of sunlight

available to the water body

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

43. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): Gravity is always attractive,

while electromagnetic force can be attractive

or repulsive.

Reason (R): Matter is mostly electrically

neutral (net charge is zero). Thus, electricforce is largely zero and gravitational force

dominates terrestrial phenomena.

In the context of the statements above, which

of these is true?

a)  A and R both are true, and R is

the correct explanation for A.

b)  A and R both are true, and R is

the NOT the correct explanation

for A.

c)  A is correct, R is incorrect.

d)  A and R both are incorrect.

44. Consider the following.

1.  These are made on the steep slopes

so that flat surfaces are available to

grow crops.2.  They can reduce surface run-off.

3.  They can minimize soil erosion.

The technique of soil conservation with the

above features is

a)  Contour ploughing

b)  Terrace farming

c)  Shelter belts

d)  Contour barriers

45. Consider the following matches of the

minerals with the regions they are

largely mined in North America.

1.  Iron – Canadian Shield

2.  Coal – Appalachian regions

3.  Copper – Western Cordilleras

Which of the above matches is/are correct?

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

46. The crop of Jute requires

1.  Light rainfall

2.  Alluvial Soil

3.  High Temperature

4.  Bright Sunshine at time of harvest

Which of the above match the description of

Temperate Evergreen forests?

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  2, 3 and 4

d)  1, 3 and 4

47. Consider the following statements

about the 1857 revolt.

1.  It did not spread to South India.

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2.  It was a reaction to the British

reforms in the religious and social

sphere of Indians.

3.  The revolt did not receive any royal

patronage.4.  The Government of India Act 1858

was passed as a reaction by the

British government to the revolt.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  3 and 4 only

c)  1, 2 and 4 only

d)  All of the above

48. Consider the following statements

about Jainism.

1.   Jainism believes that the entire

world is animate.

2.  According to Jaina teachings, the

cycle of birth and rebirth is shapedthrough karma.

3.  Monastic existence is a necessary

condition of salvation.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

49. The action of the endogenic forces are

not uniform and thus the tectonically

controlled original crustal surface is

uneven. This can be attributed to

factors like

1. 

Variation in crustal thickness2.  Variation in geothermal gradients

3.  Volcanism in lithosphere

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

50. Which of the following can be the

adverse consequences of El-Nino?

1.  The distortion of equatorial

atmospheric circulation.

2.  Irregularities in the evaporation of

sea water.

3.  Reduction in the amount of

planktons which further reduces

the number of fish in the sea.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

51. Genetic Engineering Appraisal

Committee (GEAC) under the

Environment Ministry had permitted

field trials of GM food in India.

Despite that states can either allow or

ban GM crop trials in their states. This

is because

a)  Genetic research and development

comes under List – II (State List) of

seventh schedule of the

Constitution.

b)  The GEAC order had inserted a

mandatory condition of separate

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permission from states for GM crop

trials.

c)  No agricultural scheme or policy

can be launched in India without

the consent of the states.d)  None of the above

52. Which of the following articles

(provisions) of the Indian Constitution

provides a safeguard against the

excesses of the legislature and the

executive?

1.  Article 13

2.  Article 19

3.  Article 21

4.  Article 32

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 4 only

b)  2 and 4 only

c)  1, 2 and 3 onlyd)  All of the above

53. Consider the following statements.

1.  The Judiciary cannot initiate the

process of constitutional

amendment but can effectively

change the Constitution by

interpreting it differently.

2.  Elected representatives alone have

the power to amend the

Constitution.

Which of the above is true?

a)  1 only

b)  2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) 

None of the above

54. Consider the following statements

about the proportional representation

system of election.

1.  The entire country may be a single

constituency in this system.2.  Candidate who wins the election

gets majority of votes.

3.  A party may get more seats than

votes in the legislature.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

55. Consider the following tasks.

1.  Finalisation of the list of people

below poverty line (BPL) in the

village

2.  Constructing check-dams andtanks

3.  Scrutinizing the accounts of the

funds allotted under major social

sector schemes

Which of the above can be done by the

authorization of Gram Sabha?

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

56. India has agreed to provide fund of Rs

1500 crore to Nepal‟s Pancheshwar

multi-purpose project on Mahakali

river. The major benefits to India from

this project will be

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1.  The containment of Kheri floods in

Uttar Pradesh

2.  Procuring additional electricity

produced by the project

3.  Irrigation of the Terai regions inIndia

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

57. Union government has launched

a Heritage City Development and

Augmentation Yojana

(HRIDAY) scheme to preserve and

rejuvenate the rich cultural heritage of

the country. Which of the following

cities are covered in the initial phase of

the scheme?1.  Amritsar

2.  Puri

3.  Warangal

4.  Badami

5.  Mathura

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1, 4 and 5 only

b)  2 and 5 only

c)  1, 2 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

58. Indian National Congress leaders did

not attend the first round table

conference because

a) 

It was called to discuss a vague„dominion status‟ for India 

b)  No offer of discussing about a

future constitution was made

c)  Congress was not invited to the

conference

d)  The British government had invitedDalit and Muslim leaders to the

conference which were against the

Congress‟ definition of „swaraj‟ 

59. The Salt march and the Civil

Disobedience movement raised which

of the following issues about salt in

India?

1.  Government monopoly of salt

production

2.  High tax on salt

3.  Government restrictions on

obtaining salt only from sea water

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

60. Consider the following statements

about the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA)

recently handed over to the Indian Air

Force.

1.  It is the first indigenously built

LCA.

2.  It has a tailless design.

3.  It has been manufactured by a joint

venture between public and private

defence research organizations.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

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b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

61. Consider the following statementswith reference to the status of J&K in

the Indian federal structure.

1.  The Central legislation in the Union

list and Concurrent list applies to

 J&K only after the consent of the

state government.

2.  The Directive Principles of State

Policy do not apply to the state.

3.  Amendments to the Indian

Constitution (under Art. 368) can

only apply in concurrence with the

government of J&K.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 onlyc)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

62. Under the 123 agreement signed

recently between India and USA

1.  India has waived nuclear liability

for Companies from the US.

2.  US has waived the requirement of

tracking nuclear material provided

by it to India.

Which of the above is correct?

a)  1 only

b)  2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d)  None of the above

63. The economic justification of subsidies

in agriculture is, at present, a hotly

debated question. Which of the

following arguments would justify

agricultural subsidies?1.  Farming in India continues to a

risky business.

2.  Most farmers are very poor and

they will not be able to afford the

required inputs without

subsidies.

3.  Eliminating subsidies will increase

the inequality between rich and

poor farmers and violate the goal

of equity.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

64. Tweaking the Minimum Support

Prices (MSP) for water-intensive crops

in India will affect which of the

following?

1.  Food inflation levels

2.  Groundwater levels

3.  Crop diversification

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

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65. In the policy of liberalisation 1991,

deregulation of the Industrial sector

meant that

1.  Controls on price fixation would be

relaxed.2.  Some of the goods reserved for

small scale industries could be

produced by bigger corporations

too.

3.  Industrial licensing was made

more relaxed and flexible.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

66. Consider the following statements

about the „Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao‟

campaign.1.  It will be implemented all over the

country.

2.  It will target improving the

efficiency of delivery of welfare

services meant for women.

3.  The state governments will not

have any role to play in the

campaign.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  2 only

67. Which of the following factors may

possibly have been responsible for

growing agrarian distress in the

country for cotton farmers?

1.  Opening up of domestic marketsdue to globalization

2.  High production costs yet low and

unstable yields

3.  Decline in public investment in

agriculture in the last two decades

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

68. The woman-oriented organization

„Kudumbshree‟ is

a)  Large informal bank

b)  A self-help group to promoteincome generation activities

amongst women

c)  A local informal agency started by

NABARD in Kerala

d)  A pressure group of woman

activists for the cause of financial

inclusion of women

69. Which of the following can be the

benefits of organic farming to the

farmers and consumers?

1.  Good returns on locally produced

organic inputs

2.  Land conservation

3.  Income generation through exports

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

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a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

70. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): When it comes to regular 

salaried employment, men are found to be

engaged in greater proportion than women. It

may be explained by the fact that

Reason (R): Since regular salaried jobs require

skills and a higher level of literacy, women

might not have been engaged to a great

extent.

In the context of the statements above, which

of these is true?

a)  A and R both are true, and R is the

correct explanation for A.

b)  A and R both are true, and R is the

NOT the correct explanation for A.c)  A is correct, R is incorrect.

d)  A and R both are incorrect

71. Which of the following are NOT the

major issues facing the electricity

sector in India presently?

1.  State Electricity boards are facing

huge financial losses.

2.  India‟s installed capacity is not

sufficient to generate electricity to

feed an annual economic growth

of around 8-9 per cent.

3.  Thermal power plants are facing

large shortages of coal supply.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 only

b)  2 and 3

c)  2 only

d)  All are major issues

72. Currency notes and coins cannot berefused by any citizen of the country

for settlement of any kind of

transaction. This is because currency

notes and coins are

a)  Legal tenders

b)  They have an intrinsic value

c)  The government makes it

compulsory by law to accept

payment by cash mode.

d)  It has purchasing power equivalent

to the amount printed on it

73. If the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is

made zero, how will it affect the

banking system and public finances?

1.  Government may find it difficult to

raise money from the market.2.  Banks will have more money to

lend.

3.  Banks may be able to reduce

interest rates on their loans to

customers.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

74. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): If all the account-holders of all

commercial banks in the country want their

deposits back at the same time, the banks will

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not have enough means to satisfy the need of

every accountholder and there will be bank

failures.

Reason (R): The total amount of deposits heldby all commercial banks in the country is

much larger than the total size of their

reserves..

In the context of the statements above, which

of these is true?

a)  A and R both are true, and R is the

correct explanation for A.

b)  A and R both are true, and R is theNOT the correct explanation for A.

c)  A is correct, R is incorrect.

d)  A and R both are incorrect.

75. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): A high bank rate reduces the

potential for credit creation in the economy.

Reason (R): A high bank rate encourages

banks to keep smaller (or greater) proportion

of their deposits as reserves, since borrowing

from RBI is now costlier than before.

In the context of the statements above, which

of these is true?

a)  A and R both are true, and R is the

correct explanation for A.

b)  A and R both are true, and R is the

NOT the correct explanation for A.

c)  A is correct, R is incorrect.

d)  A and R both are incorrect.

76. In which of these regions, the

thickness of the weathering mantle

would be the greatest?

a)  Taiga zone

b)  Semi-desert regionsc)  Tropical forest zone

d)  Grasslands

77. Kilkari, a IVRS based application is

being piloted by Government of India

under which

a)  Information on maternal and child

health care is being disseminated to

the needy.

b)  Information is sent by Primary

health care centres to the

panchayats about maternal health

care

c)  A mother can register her

grievances against the institutional

delivery facilities under public

health care centres.d)  None of the above

78. In the state government, the Governor

exercises more discretion that the

President can exercise in the case of

Central government. This is because

a)  Indian federalism provides for a

strong central government, and

comparatively weaker states.b)  The constitutional provisions limit

the overall discretion of the

President, which is not so clearly

defined for the Governor.

c)  The Governor derives greater

authority from the orders of the

Central government with respect to

the states whereas no such system

exists for the President.

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d)  The state politics is much more

vulnerable to Governor‟s discretion

that the central politics is to

President‟s discretion. 

79. Which of the following regions in

India comes under the “Very High

damage risk zone” for tropical

cyclones?

1.  Eastern J&K

2.  Western Kerala

3.  Western coasts of Gujarat

4.  Northern Uttar Pradesh

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  All of the above

b)  1 and 3 only

c)  2 and 4 only

d)  3 only

80. In winter months, the weatherconditions over India are generally

influenced by

1.  Distribution of pressure in Central

Asia

2.  Rainfall in Mediterranean region

3.  Tibetan highlands acting as a

barrier to jet streams

Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

81. Which of the following are non-debt

creating capital receipts of the

Government of India?

1.  Disinvestment in PSUs

2.  Interest payments received onloans previously forwarded by

Government of India

3.  Borrowing from RBI

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  1 only

82. Primary deficit in annual budget

(public finances) in India is the

a)  Difference between fiscal deficit

and net interest liabilities

b)  Difference between revenue deficit

and net interest liabilitiesc)  Difference between fiscal deficit

and budgetary deficit

d)  Difference between revenue deficit

and budgetary deficit

83. Which of the following actors

participate in the Foreign Exchange

market?

1.  Monetary authorities

2.  Commercial banks

3.  Sovereign governments

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c) 

1 and 3d)  All of the above

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84. Consider the following statements

about the Harappan civilization.

1.  They practiced agriculture.

2.  Most Harappan sites are located in

semi-arid lands.3.  There is evidence of use of water

storage structures.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

85. Consider the following statements.

1.  Both Mahavira and the Gautam

Buddha questioned the authority of

the Vedas.

2.  None of the Buddha‟s speeches

were written down during his

lifetime.3.  The basic philosophy of the Jainas

was already in existence in north

India before the birth of

Mahavira.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

86. Which of the following regions in the

World is NOT a bio-diversity hotspot?

1.  Sri Lanka

2.  Indo-Burma Region

3. 

Eastern European region4.  New Zealand

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 3 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  4 onlyd)  3 only

87. There are many factors, other than

income and assets, which are

associated with poverty. These can be

1.  Accessibility to basic education

2.  Health care

3.  Drinking water

4.  Sanitation

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1, 3 and 4 only

d)  All of the above

88. The High Level Committee (HLC) forRestructuring of Food Corporation of

India (FCI) chaired by Shanta

Kumar has submitted its report to the

Prime Minister. The major

recommendations include

1.  Outsourcing stocking operations of

FCI to private sector

2.  FCI should hand over all

procurement operations of wheat,paddy and rice to Andhra Pradesh,

Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Madhya

Pradesh, Odisha and Punjab .

3.  Defer implementation of National

Food Security Act (NFSA) in states

that have not done end to end

computerization.

Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.

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a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

89. Consider the following statements

about the Hydroponics technique.

Which of these is NOT true?

1.  Nutrients enter through the roots

of plants in this technique.

2.  The technique cannot be used for

commercial production of

vegetables, fruits etc.

3.  The nutrient solution used is

unaerated.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  3 only

d)  All of the above

90. Consider the following statements

about Plant Growth Regulators

(PGRs).

1.  They play an important role in the

flowering and seed formation also

with plant growth.

2.  They can help the plant in healing

with wounds.

3.  Auxin and Cytokinin are widely

used PGRs.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c) 

1 and 3 onlyd)  All of the above

91. Innate Immunity against non-specific

diseases in human beings can consist

of which of the following?

1.  Tears in eyes

2.  Acid in the Stomach3.  Saliva in the mouth

4.  Facial hairs

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 4 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1, 2 and 3 only

d)  1 and 3 only

92. Francois Bernier was a traveller to

India in the 17th Century who wrote

detailed accounts of India‟s social

customs and religious practices. As per

Bernier

1.  India‟s trading system was out-

dated.

2. 

In comparison to Europe, situationin India was bleak.

3.  Europeans were qualified enough

to rule India.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  2 only

93. Consider the following statements

about Alvars and Nayanars.

1.  They used Tamil for promoting

their messages and singing hymns

in praise of God.

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2.  They did not believe in caste based

discrimination then prevailing in

the Hindu society.

3.  They later merged with the

Vaishnavites and Shaivites.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  2 only

94. The Health Ministry has introduced

web-based name based tracking

system called Mother & Child

Tracking System (MCTS) across all the

States and UTs. Consider the following

statements about it.

1.  Immunization details of the child

are tracked.

2.  The system captures personaldetails of both the mother and child

up to five years of age.

3.  The system ensures that the child

also gets proper adolescent care.

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

95. The Home Rule league of Tilak aimed

at

a)  a reform of the British

administration

b) 

Overthrowing the Britishadministration

c)  Organizing freedom struggle in

only the western regions of the

country

d)  Getting political power and

entering the councils to break theBritish political structure from

within

96. Which of the following points of

differences between the moderates and

extremists led to the Surat split?

1.  Moderates were not in favour of

extending the boycott movement

beyond Bengal.

2.  Moderates were totally opposed to

the boycott of councils, extremists

were not.

3.  Different meanings of „swaraj‟ 

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b) 

2 and 3c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

97. In 1917, Gandhi organised a

satyagraha to support the peasants of

the Kheda district of Gujarat as they

were affected by

1.  Crop failure

2.  Plague epidemic3.  Inability to pay revenue to the

British government

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

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98. The British had enacted the Rowlatt

Act and implemented it nationwide in

1919. Gandhiji decided to launch a

nationwide satyagraha against the actbecause the Act provided for

1.  Ban on political activities

2.  Unreasonable detention of political

prisoners without trial

3.  Allowed the government to ban all

the local language newspapers and

radio

Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

99. The belief of Dalit leaders during the

Freedom movement that “Politicalempowerment would resolve the

problems of their social disabilities”

resulted in which of the following

demands?

1.  Separate electorates

2.  Reserved seats in education

institutions

3.  Organising dalits in major national

associations by dalit leaders

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

100.  As per Mahanaya Buddhism,

Bodhisattvas were those whoa)  Worked out their salvation with

their own efforts

b)  Accumulated merit through their

efforts but did not attain salvation

c)  Accumulated merit through their

efforts but did not attain salvation

to help others

d)  None of the above