test 13 final questions 1
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IAS PRE-2015TRANSCRIPT
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 13
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-ITime Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSINGPAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the TestBooklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOTWrite anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each itemcomprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on theAnswer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response whichyou consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions inthe Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with yourAdmission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination hasconcluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to takeaway with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THEOBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which awrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to thatquestion will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one ofthe given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to thatquestion.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penaltyfor that question.
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015
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1. Leaching of soil is detrimental to soil
productivity. This is because
a) Water-soluble inorganic nutrients
go down into the soil horizon and
get precipitated as unavailablesalts.
b) Bacterial and other biological
agents can no longer catabolise soil
c) Humification of the soil stops
d) None of the above is an
appropriate answer
2. Consider the following statements
about breeding of animals.
1. Biologically unrelated animals
cannot be breeded (bred)
2. The animals being breeded (bred)
should have common ancestors.
3. Artificial insemination does not
come under breeding practices.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None of the above
3. More than 3 billion people in the
World suffer from „Hidden Hunger‟. It
can be caused due to the deficiencies
of
1. Micronutrients
2. Proteins
3. Vitamins
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
4. Which of the following factors may
possibly account for the greater
biological diversity at the tropics?
1. Tropical latitudes have remained
undisturbed for longer durations
than higher latitudes.
2. Tropical environments are less
seasonal.
3. There is more solar energy
available at the tropics.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
5. In agriculture, the biological method of
controlling pests that relies on natural
predation rather than introduced
chemicals. Which of the following
microbes can be used in the method?
1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Trichoderma
3. Lady Beetle
4. Dipteran
5. Cordyceps
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 5 only
c)
2 and 5 onlyd) All of the above
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6. Which of the following features of the
Indian Constitution deal with
maintaining the social fabric, moral
values and national consciousness?
1. Fundamental Rights2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
7. A recent draft order of the Food Safety
and Standards Authority of India‟s
(FSSAI) has proposed to put curbs on
the rampant use of antibiotics as a
growth promoter in food-producing
animals in India, such as chicken. Itwill help in containing
1. Unregulated entry of antibiotics
into the food-producing industry
2. Antibiotic resistance
3. Import of chicken from the US to
the Indian market.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
8. A Delta 2 rocket carrying Soil Moisture
Active Passive (SMAP) satellite has
been recently launched by NASA.
How will it help humanity?
1. It may help residents in low-lyingregions brace for floods
2. It will help farmers to get ready for
drought conditions.
3. It will study the soil profile of
various regions on earth and relay
the data back to the scientific
community to be then transmitted
to the farmers of respective
countries.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
9. Which of the following category of
constitutional amendments would
require the ratification of the states in
India?
1. Citizenship clauses
2. Changes in the Concurrent List
under Seventh Schedule
3. Changes in the state boundaries
4. Changing the number of puisine
judges in the Supreme Court
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 onlyd) 2 only
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10. Which of the following possibilities
can be found in a Parliamentary
Democracy?
1. It can be a constitutional monarchy.
2. President can be the head of thegovernment.
3. The Prime Minister may belong to
the party without majority in the
legislature.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
11. Consider the following statements
about the position, powers, functions
and responsibilities of the President of
India.1. He has a right to be informed of all
important matters and
deliberations of the Council of
Ministers.
2. The President need not accept the
advice of Council of Ministers if the
advice has been given for the first
time.
3. The only ground for his
impeachment is the violation of the
Constitution.
4. He scrutinizes the annual budget
proposal of the government before
placing it to the Parliament.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
12. Consider a situation where the Prime
Minister wants to impose „President‟s
rule‟ in one State because the State
government has failed to effectively
curb atrocities against the Dalits in that
State. The President does not agree
wholeheartedly on signing the order.
Which of the following courses of
action are available to the President?
1. Tell the Prime Minister that he will
not sign on the order promulgating
President‟s rule.
2. Make a press statement about how
the Prime Minister is wrong.
3. Discuss the matter with the Prime
Minister and try to dissuade him
from taking this action, but if heinsists, agreeing to sign the said
order.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
13. Consider the following statements
about the Mahalwari system.
1. The charge of collecting the
revenue and paying it to the
Company was given to the village
headman, rather than the
zamindar.
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2. The revenue demand was to be
revised periodically, not
permanently fixed.
3. It was not applicable to the
Northern part of the country.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
14. Ancient Indian thinkers had arrived at
an elaborate system of ideas on
motion. It was in a way similar to the
laws of motion. In these Indian
systems which of the following
concepts comes closes to the concept of
inertia?
a) The notion of Vega in theVaisheshika theory
b) The notion of abhighat in the
Sankhya theory
c) The notion of nodan in the Sankhya
theory
d) The notion of sanskara in
Vaisheshika theory
15. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): A body like a ring or a sphere
rolling without slipping over a horizontal
plane will suffer no friction, in principle.
Reason (R): At every instant, there is just one
point of contact between the body and the
plane and this point has no motion relative tothe plane.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A.b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.
16. In the Indian Judiciary, which of the
following factors may work as
constraints over the High Court judgesin giving their rulings?
1. Precedents set by Supreme Court
2. Constitution of India
3. Instructions of the Executive to the
courts
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
17. Consider the following statements.
1. The Subordinate courts in India
deal with both civil and criminalcases.
2. The High courts can not issue writs
for restoring fundamental rights.
3. Lok Adalats do not have the
jurisdiction to deal with criminal
cases.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
18. Which of the following factors do NOT
justify a strong central government in
the Indian federal structure?
1. Balanced regional development
2. Territorial integrity of India
3. Growing financial needs of states
4. Increasing volume and funds
allotted to Social sector schemes
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
19. Consider the following about the
advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court (SC) under Article 143 of the
constitution.
1. Being a constitutional organ, the SC
is bound to give advice when it isreferred.
2. The SC being the highest court of
Justice, legal advice tendered by
the court is legally binding on the
President.
Which of the above is/are true?
a)
1 onlyb) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
20. Lingayats do not practice funerary
rites such as cremation prescribed in
the Dharmashastras because
a) as per them such practices show
the domination of brahanism
b) they believe on death a devotee
will be united with Shiva and not
return to this world
c) such practices were seen to be
impure by them which dilutes the
sacredness of human body
d) None of the above
21. Consider the following statements
about the Virashiava tradition inKarnataka in the 12th century
1. They questioned the theory of
rebirth.
2. They encouraged certain practices
disapproved in the
Dharmashastras such as widow
remarriage.
3. Wandering monks were revered in
their traditions.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
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22. Consider the following statements
about Film Certification Appellate
Tribunal (FCAT).
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It comes under the aegis ofMinistry of Information and
Broadcasting.
3. Any applicant can file an appeal
before the tribunal for a certificate
in respect of a film who is
aggrieved by an order of the
Central Board of Film Certification
(CBFC).
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
23. Block mountains are created when
a) There is intense volcanic activity in
nearby regions consistently for
longer durations
b) Large areas are broken and
displaced vertically
c) Tectonic plates converge and
displace each other marginally
d) Downward erosion of high plateau
regions
24. If the periods and timings of summer
and winter seasons change for the
earth, it may lead to which of the
following changes in the long-run?
1. Climate Change
2.
Biodiversity3. Geomorphological features
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
25. Consider the following statements
about the interior of earth.
1. The continental mass of the crust is
made up of silica and magnesium.
2. Crust is thicker at the ocean floors.
3. The innermost core of the earth ismade only of molten iron.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
26. The growth of natural vegetation
depends on which of the following
factors apart from temperature and
moisture?
1. Slope
2. Thickness of Soil
3. Presence of weeds and othervegetation around
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
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27. Consider the following statements.
1. They are commonly found along
the eastern margin of continents in
the mid-latitudinal coastal regions.
2. They comprise both hard and softwood trees.
3. These regions experience a lot of
seasonal changes.
Which of the above match the description of
Temperate Evergreen forests?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
28. The higher concentration of dust
particles is found in subtropical and
temperate regions than equatorial and
polar regions due to
a) Dry winds in comparison toequatorial and Polar Regions.
b) Moist winds in comparison to
equatorial and polar regions
c) More seasonal rainfall in
comparison to equatorial and polar
regions.
d) More even temperature ranges in
comparison to equatorial and polar
regions
29. Consider the following.
1. The river is famous for its badland
topography called ravines.
2. It flows through Rajasthan finally
joining Yamuna.
3. It rises in the Malwa plateau.
The river with the above description is
a) Chambal
b) Gandak
c) Luni
d) Ramganga
30. Arrange the following space
expeditions of India in correct
chronological order.
1. Aryabhatta
2. Rohini
3. INSAT
4. GSAT
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1234
b) 2143
c) 2134
d) 1243
31. Which of the following can be termed
as major causes of biodiversity loss?
1. Habitat fragmentation
2. Co-extinction
3. Alien species invasion
4. Global warming
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
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32. Catalytic converted is used in
automobiles for reducing emission of
poisonous gases. It converts
a) Unburnt hydrocarbons into carbon
dioxide and waterb) Unburnt hydrocarbons into vapour
and nitrogen dioxide
c) Poisonous sulphur in the fuel into
sulphur dioxide
d) Poisonous lead in the fuel into lead
oxide and water
33. Consider the following statements
about Ziyarat.
1. It is Pilgrimage to the tomb of sufi
saints.
2. This practice is an occasion for
seeking the sufi‟s spiritual grace
(barakat).
3. The practice was restricted to a
certain class of Muslims.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
34. Consider the following statements
about the ideas of Kabir.
1. He described the ultimate reality as
the formless one.
2. His idea of God being shunya
(emptiness) relates to that of yogic
traditions.
3. His poems often attack Hindupolytheism and idol worship.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b)
2 and 3c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
35. Which of the following factors led to
the decline of the Vijayanagar Empire?
1. Strain in the imperial structure
following the death of Krishnadeva
Raya‟s 2. Rebelliousness in military chiefs
3. Invasion of the Mughals
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c)
1 and 3d) All of the above
36. Optical fibres used for communication
purposes are based on the principle of
a) Total internal reflection
b) Rectilinear propagation of light
c) Diffraction of light
d) Dispersion of light
37. Consider the following statements
about bio-magnification.
1. It refers to an increase in
concentration of the toxicant at
successive trophic levels.
2. It can happen only in aquatic
bodies.
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3. Only those toxic substances that
cannot be metabolised or excreted
by the organism cause bio-
magnification.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
38. The relation between the Biological
Oxygen Demand (BOD) and pollution
level of water is
a) More the BOD , more polluted the
water will be of biologically
degradable material
b) More the BOD, less polluted the
water will be of biologically
degradable materialc) More the BOD, more polluted the
water will be of both biologically
non-degradable material
d) More the BOD, less polluted the
water will be of biologically non-
degradable material
39. The Poona pact between Ambedkar
and Gandhi gave the scheduled castes
reserved seats in
1. Provincial legislative councils
2. Central Legislative Councils
3. Local body councils
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
40. Before cooperating in the British war
effort during Second World War, the
Congress put some basic condition(s)
against the British. These were
1. After the war, a constituent
assembly should be convened to
determine the political structure of
a free India.
2. Immediately some form of
responsible government should be
established at the Centre.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
41. According to Buddhist philosophy
1. The world is soulless.
2. In the earliest forms of Buddhism,
whether or not god existed was
irrelevant.
3. Buddha advocates penance to get
salvation.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
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42. Algal bloom can affect water bodies in
which of the following ways?
1. By depleting the oxygen
availability
2. Fish morbidity3. Reducing the amount of sunlight
available to the water body
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
43. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Gravity is always attractive,
while electromagnetic force can be attractive
or repulsive.
Reason (R): Matter is mostly electrically
neutral (net charge is zero). Thus, electricforce is largely zero and gravitational force
dominates terrestrial phenomena.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is
the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is
the NOT the correct explanation
for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.
44. Consider the following.
1. These are made on the steep slopes
so that flat surfaces are available to
grow crops.2. They can reduce surface run-off.
3. They can minimize soil erosion.
The technique of soil conservation with the
above features is
a) Contour ploughing
b) Terrace farming
c) Shelter belts
d) Contour barriers
45. Consider the following matches of the
minerals with the regions they are
largely mined in North America.
1. Iron – Canadian Shield
2. Coal – Appalachian regions
3. Copper – Western Cordilleras
Which of the above matches is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
46. The crop of Jute requires
1. Light rainfall
2. Alluvial Soil
3. High Temperature
4. Bright Sunshine at time of harvest
Which of the above match the description of
Temperate Evergreen forests?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
47. Consider the following statements
about the 1857 revolt.
1. It did not spread to South India.
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2. It was a reaction to the British
reforms in the religious and social
sphere of Indians.
3. The revolt did not receive any royal
patronage.4. The Government of India Act 1858
was passed as a reaction by the
British government to the revolt.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
48. Consider the following statements
about Jainism.
1. Jainism believes that the entire
world is animate.
2. According to Jaina teachings, the
cycle of birth and rebirth is shapedthrough karma.
3. Monastic existence is a necessary
condition of salvation.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
49. The action of the endogenic forces are
not uniform and thus the tectonically
controlled original crustal surface is
uneven. This can be attributed to
factors like
1.
Variation in crustal thickness2. Variation in geothermal gradients
3. Volcanism in lithosphere
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
50. Which of the following can be the
adverse consequences of El-Nino?
1. The distortion of equatorial
atmospheric circulation.
2. Irregularities in the evaporation of
sea water.
3. Reduction in the amount of
planktons which further reduces
the number of fish in the sea.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
51. Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee (GEAC) under the
Environment Ministry had permitted
field trials of GM food in India.
Despite that states can either allow or
ban GM crop trials in their states. This
is because
a) Genetic research and development
comes under List – II (State List) of
seventh schedule of the
Constitution.
b) The GEAC order had inserted a
mandatory condition of separate
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permission from states for GM crop
trials.
c) No agricultural scheme or policy
can be launched in India without
the consent of the states.d) None of the above
52. Which of the following articles
(provisions) of the Indian Constitution
provides a safeguard against the
excesses of the legislature and the
executive?
1. Article 13
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 32
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 onlyd) All of the above
53. Consider the following statements.
1. The Judiciary cannot initiate the
process of constitutional
amendment but can effectively
change the Constitution by
interpreting it differently.
2. Elected representatives alone have
the power to amend the
Constitution.
Which of the above is true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d)
None of the above
54. Consider the following statements
about the proportional representation
system of election.
1. The entire country may be a single
constituency in this system.2. Candidate who wins the election
gets majority of votes.
3. A party may get more seats than
votes in the legislature.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
55. Consider the following tasks.
1. Finalisation of the list of people
below poverty line (BPL) in the
village
2. Constructing check-dams andtanks
3. Scrutinizing the accounts of the
funds allotted under major social
sector schemes
Which of the above can be done by the
authorization of Gram Sabha?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
56. India has agreed to provide fund of Rs
1500 crore to Nepal‟s Pancheshwar
multi-purpose project on Mahakali
river. The major benefits to India from
this project will be
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1. The containment of Kheri floods in
Uttar Pradesh
2. Procuring additional electricity
produced by the project
3. Irrigation of the Terai regions inIndia
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
57. Union government has launched
a Heritage City Development and
Augmentation Yojana
(HRIDAY) scheme to preserve and
rejuvenate the rich cultural heritage of
the country. Which of the following
cities are covered in the initial phase of
the scheme?1. Amritsar
2. Puri
3. Warangal
4. Badami
5. Mathura
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1, 4 and 5 only
b) 2 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
58. Indian National Congress leaders did
not attend the first round table
conference because
a)
It was called to discuss a vague„dominion status‟ for India
b) No offer of discussing about a
future constitution was made
c) Congress was not invited to the
conference
d) The British government had invitedDalit and Muslim leaders to the
conference which were against the
Congress‟ definition of „swaraj‟
59. The Salt march and the Civil
Disobedience movement raised which
of the following issues about salt in
India?
1. Government monopoly of salt
production
2. High tax on salt
3. Government restrictions on
obtaining salt only from sea water
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
60. Consider the following statements
about the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA)
recently handed over to the Indian Air
Force.
1. It is the first indigenously built
LCA.
2. It has a tailless design.
3. It has been manufactured by a joint
venture between public and private
defence research organizations.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
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b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
61. Consider the following statementswith reference to the status of J&K in
the Indian federal structure.
1. The Central legislation in the Union
list and Concurrent list applies to
J&K only after the consent of the
state government.
2. The Directive Principles of State
Policy do not apply to the state.
3. Amendments to the Indian
Constitution (under Art. 368) can
only apply in concurrence with the
government of J&K.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
62. Under the 123 agreement signed
recently between India and USA
1. India has waived nuclear liability
for Companies from the US.
2. US has waived the requirement of
tracking nuclear material provided
by it to India.
Which of the above is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
63. The economic justification of subsidies
in agriculture is, at present, a hotly
debated question. Which of the
following arguments would justify
agricultural subsidies?1. Farming in India continues to a
risky business.
2. Most farmers are very poor and
they will not be able to afford the
required inputs without
subsidies.
3. Eliminating subsidies will increase
the inequality between rich and
poor farmers and violate the goal
of equity.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
64. Tweaking the Minimum Support
Prices (MSP) for water-intensive crops
in India will affect which of the
following?
1. Food inflation levels
2. Groundwater levels
3. Crop diversification
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
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65. In the policy of liberalisation 1991,
deregulation of the Industrial sector
meant that
1. Controls on price fixation would be
relaxed.2. Some of the goods reserved for
small scale industries could be
produced by bigger corporations
too.
3. Industrial licensing was made
more relaxed and flexible.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
66. Consider the following statements
about the „Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao‟
campaign.1. It will be implemented all over the
country.
2. It will target improving the
efficiency of delivery of welfare
services meant for women.
3. The state governments will not
have any role to play in the
campaign.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
67. Which of the following factors may
possibly have been responsible for
growing agrarian distress in the
country for cotton farmers?
1. Opening up of domestic marketsdue to globalization
2. High production costs yet low and
unstable yields
3. Decline in public investment in
agriculture in the last two decades
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
68. The woman-oriented organization
„Kudumbshree‟ is
a) Large informal bank
b) A self-help group to promoteincome generation activities
amongst women
c) A local informal agency started by
NABARD in Kerala
d) A pressure group of woman
activists for the cause of financial
inclusion of women
69. Which of the following can be the
benefits of organic farming to the
farmers and consumers?
1. Good returns on locally produced
organic inputs
2. Land conservation
3. Income generation through exports
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
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a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
70. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): When it comes to regular
salaried employment, men are found to be
engaged in greater proportion than women. It
may be explained by the fact that
Reason (R): Since regular salaried jobs require
skills and a higher level of literacy, women
might not have been engaged to a great
extent.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A.c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect
71. Which of the following are NOT the
major issues facing the electricity
sector in India presently?
1. State Electricity boards are facing
huge financial losses.
2. India‟s installed capacity is not
sufficient to generate electricity to
feed an annual economic growth
of around 8-9 per cent.
3. Thermal power plants are facing
large shortages of coal supply.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
d) All are major issues
72. Currency notes and coins cannot berefused by any citizen of the country
for settlement of any kind of
transaction. This is because currency
notes and coins are
a) Legal tenders
b) They have an intrinsic value
c) The government makes it
compulsory by law to accept
payment by cash mode.
d) It has purchasing power equivalent
to the amount printed on it
73. If the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is
made zero, how will it affect the
banking system and public finances?
1. Government may find it difficult to
raise money from the market.2. Banks will have more money to
lend.
3. Banks may be able to reduce
interest rates on their loans to
customers.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
74. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): If all the account-holders of all
commercial banks in the country want their
deposits back at the same time, the banks will
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not have enough means to satisfy the need of
every accountholder and there will be bank
failures.
Reason (R): The total amount of deposits heldby all commercial banks in the country is
much larger than the total size of their
reserves..
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is theNOT the correct explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.
75. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): A high bank rate reduces the
potential for credit creation in the economy.
Reason (R): A high bank rate encourages
banks to keep smaller (or greater) proportion
of their deposits as reserves, since borrowing
from RBI is now costlier than before.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.
76. In which of these regions, the
thickness of the weathering mantle
would be the greatest?
a) Taiga zone
b) Semi-desert regionsc) Tropical forest zone
d) Grasslands
77. Kilkari, a IVRS based application is
being piloted by Government of India
under which
a) Information on maternal and child
health care is being disseminated to
the needy.
b) Information is sent by Primary
health care centres to the
panchayats about maternal health
care
c) A mother can register her
grievances against the institutional
delivery facilities under public
health care centres.d) None of the above
78. In the state government, the Governor
exercises more discretion that the
President can exercise in the case of
Central government. This is because
a) Indian federalism provides for a
strong central government, and
comparatively weaker states.b) The constitutional provisions limit
the overall discretion of the
President, which is not so clearly
defined for the Governor.
c) The Governor derives greater
authority from the orders of the
Central government with respect to
the states whereas no such system
exists for the President.
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d) The state politics is much more
vulnerable to Governor‟s discretion
that the central politics is to
President‟s discretion.
79. Which of the following regions in
India comes under the “Very High
damage risk zone” for tropical
cyclones?
1. Eastern J&K
2. Western Kerala
3. Western coasts of Gujarat
4. Northern Uttar Pradesh
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 only
80. In winter months, the weatherconditions over India are generally
influenced by
1. Distribution of pressure in Central
Asia
2. Rainfall in Mediterranean region
3. Tibetan highlands acting as a
barrier to jet streams
Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
81. Which of the following are non-debt
creating capital receipts of the
Government of India?
1. Disinvestment in PSUs
2. Interest payments received onloans previously forwarded by
Government of India
3. Borrowing from RBI
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 only
82. Primary deficit in annual budget
(public finances) in India is the
a) Difference between fiscal deficit
and net interest liabilities
b) Difference between revenue deficit
and net interest liabilitiesc) Difference between fiscal deficit
and budgetary deficit
d) Difference between revenue deficit
and budgetary deficit
83. Which of the following actors
participate in the Foreign Exchange
market?
1. Monetary authorities
2. Commercial banks
3. Sovereign governments
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c)
1 and 3d) All of the above
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84. Consider the following statements
about the Harappan civilization.
1. They practiced agriculture.
2. Most Harappan sites are located in
semi-arid lands.3. There is evidence of use of water
storage structures.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
85. Consider the following statements.
1. Both Mahavira and the Gautam
Buddha questioned the authority of
the Vedas.
2. None of the Buddha‟s speeches
were written down during his
lifetime.3. The basic philosophy of the Jainas
was already in existence in north
India before the birth of
Mahavira.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
86. Which of the following regions in the
World is NOT a bio-diversity hotspot?
1. Sri Lanka
2. Indo-Burma Region
3.
Eastern European region4. New Zealand
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 4 onlyd) 3 only
87. There are many factors, other than
income and assets, which are
associated with poverty. These can be
1. Accessibility to basic education
2. Health care
3. Drinking water
4. Sanitation
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
88. The High Level Committee (HLC) forRestructuring of Food Corporation of
India (FCI) chaired by Shanta
Kumar has submitted its report to the
Prime Minister. The major
recommendations include
1. Outsourcing stocking operations of
FCI to private sector
2. FCI should hand over all
procurement operations of wheat,paddy and rice to Andhra Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Madhya
Pradesh, Odisha and Punjab .
3. Defer implementation of National
Food Security Act (NFSA) in states
that have not done end to end
computerization.
Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.
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a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
89. Consider the following statements
about the Hydroponics technique.
Which of these is NOT true?
1. Nutrients enter through the roots
of plants in this technique.
2. The technique cannot be used for
commercial production of
vegetables, fruits etc.
3. The nutrient solution used is
unaerated.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
90. Consider the following statements
about Plant Growth Regulators
(PGRs).
1. They play an important role in the
flowering and seed formation also
with plant growth.
2. They can help the plant in healing
with wounds.
3. Auxin and Cytokinin are widely
used PGRs.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 onlyd) All of the above
91. Innate Immunity against non-specific
diseases in human beings can consist
of which of the following?
1. Tears in eyes
2. Acid in the Stomach3. Saliva in the mouth
4. Facial hairs
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
92. Francois Bernier was a traveller to
India in the 17th Century who wrote
detailed accounts of India‟s social
customs and religious practices. As per
Bernier
1. India‟s trading system was out-
dated.
2.
In comparison to Europe, situationin India was bleak.
3. Europeans were qualified enough
to rule India.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
93. Consider the following statements
about Alvars and Nayanars.
1. They used Tamil for promoting
their messages and singing hymns
in praise of God.
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2. They did not believe in caste based
discrimination then prevailing in
the Hindu society.
3. They later merged with the
Vaishnavites and Shaivites.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
94. The Health Ministry has introduced
web-based name based tracking
system called Mother & Child
Tracking System (MCTS) across all the
States and UTs. Consider the following
statements about it.
1. Immunization details of the child
are tracked.
2. The system captures personaldetails of both the mother and child
up to five years of age.
3. The system ensures that the child
also gets proper adolescent care.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
95. The Home Rule league of Tilak aimed
at
a) a reform of the British
administration
b)
Overthrowing the Britishadministration
c) Organizing freedom struggle in
only the western regions of the
country
d) Getting political power and
entering the councils to break theBritish political structure from
within
96. Which of the following points of
differences between the moderates and
extremists led to the Surat split?
1. Moderates were not in favour of
extending the boycott movement
beyond Bengal.
2. Moderates were totally opposed to
the boycott of councils, extremists
were not.
3. Different meanings of „swaraj‟
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b)
2 and 3c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
97. In 1917, Gandhi organised a
satyagraha to support the peasants of
the Kheda district of Gujarat as they
were affected by
1. Crop failure
2. Plague epidemic3. Inability to pay revenue to the
British government
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
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98. The British had enacted the Rowlatt
Act and implemented it nationwide in
1919. Gandhiji decided to launch a
nationwide satyagraha against the actbecause the Act provided for
1. Ban on political activities
2. Unreasonable detention of political
prisoners without trial
3. Allowed the government to ban all
the local language newspapers and
radio
Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
99. The belief of Dalit leaders during the
Freedom movement that “Politicalempowerment would resolve the
problems of their social disabilities”
resulted in which of the following
demands?
1. Separate electorates
2. Reserved seats in education
institutions
3. Organising dalits in major national
associations by dalit leaders
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
100. As per Mahanaya Buddhism,
Bodhisattvas were those whoa) Worked out their salvation with
their own efforts
b) Accumulated merit through their
efforts but did not attain salvation
c) Accumulated merit through their
efforts but did not attain salvation
to help others
d) None of the above