I - BASIC ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

1. What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid or gas (November, 1995)

a. Atoms b. Electrons c. Protons d. Neutrons

2. Protons are about____ heavier than electrons (November, 1996)

a. 1800 times b. Less than thrice c. Less d. Twice

3. In the periodic table, all elements are arranged in the order according to their (April, 2004)

a. Atomic number b. Valence c. Nucleus d. Characteristics

4. What do you call the subatomic particle that has a mass approximately equal to that of the proton, but it has no electrical charge? (April, 2004)

a. Atom b. Proton c. Electron d. Neutron

5. The nucleus of an atom is made up of_____ (April, 2004)

a. Protons and electrons b. Electrons only c. Electrons and neutrons d. Protons and neutrons

6. Refers to the atom that losses an electron (November, 2003)

a. Positive ion b. Negative ion c. Emf d. Neutron

7. What is the symbol for carbon dioxide? (November, 2005)

a. CO b. C2O c. CO2 d. Co2

8. The definite discrete amount of energy required to move an electron from lower shell to another shell (November, 1999)

a. Negative energy b. Positive energy c. Quantum d. Quanta

9. The force between two magnetic poles in relation to their pole strength is________ (November, 1999)

a. Not related b. Inversely proportional c. Directly proportional d. Independent

10. How are static charges created? (November, 2003)

a. By motion b. By friction c. By immersion d. By conduction

11. Very few metals are now used in their pure state. A mixture of two or more metals or a mixture of metal and another material is called? (November, 2003)

a. Alloy b. Colloid c. Compound d. Amalgam

12. Which of the following statement is true? (November, 2003) a. An increase in the temperature does

not affect the resistance b. An increase in temperature lowers the

resistance c. An increase in temperature increases

the resistance d. An increase in temperature doubles

the resistance 13. It exhibits positive temperature coefficient (April, 2004)

a. Conductor b. Glass c. Semiconductor d. Superconductor

14. Which material has more free electrons? (November, 1999)

a. Mica b. Dielectric c. Insulators d. conductor

15. Which of the following is not a good conductor of electricity (April, 2004)

a. Silver b. Copper c. Aluminum d. Mica

16. An insulator is a substance that

a. Offers a resistance to current flow b. Offers a low resistance to current

flow c. Absorbs electricity d. Forms a condenser

17. The total resistance of two similar wire conductors connected in parallel is _____. (November, 1999) a. Same resistance of 1 wire b. Double the resistance of 1 wire c. One half the resistance of 1 wire d. Resistance of 1 wire multiplied by 4 18. A rheostat is a device that regulates the strength of an electric current by (November, 2003)

a. Increasing the magnetic field in the circuit

b. Varying the voltage in the circuit c. Varying the resistance in the circuit d. Varying the current in the circuit

19. The reciprocal of capacitance is called________(November,1995)

a. Elastance b. Permitivitty c. Permeability d. Conductance

20. Which of the following describes the action of capacitor (April, 1998)

a. Converts AC to DC b. Creates a DC resistance c. Stores electrical energy d. Opposes change in current flow

21. The following are the factors that affect the inductance of a coil (April, 2004)

1. The number of turns in a coil 2. The diameter of a coil 3. The coil length 4. The number of layers of windings in

the coil 5. The type of core material

a. 1,2,3 and 4 only b. 1,2,3 and 5 only c. 1,2,3,4 and 5 d. 1,2,4 and 5 only

22. Inserting a soft iron core into a coil has what effect on the inductance of the coil? (November, 2003)

a. Increase inductance b. Decrease inductance c. Does not affect the inductance d. None of these

23. Which of the following characterizes inductance? (April, 1998)

a. Tends to oppose DC b. Tends to oppose change in

current c. Tends to oppose change in

voltage d. Opposes all frequencies equally

24. What law in electronics where an induced current will be in such a direction

that its own magnetic field will oppose the magnetic field that produces the same?

a. Electromagnetic law b. Norton’s law c. Lenz’s law d. Maxwell’s law

25. What is the unit of magnetic flux in SI system?

a. Weber b. Maxwell c. Tesla d. Gauss

26. Materials with permeabilities slightly less than that of free space are referred to as

a. Diamagnetic b. Ferromagnetic c. Non-magnetic d. Paramagnetic

27. Solve for flux density (in gauss) from a magnetic flux of 5,000 Mx through a perpendicular area of 2 cm x 5 cm.

a. 5,000 G b. 500 G c. 10,000 G d. 50 G

28. What is the law that determines polarity of an induced voltage?

a. Norton’s law b. Thevenin’s law c. Lenz’s law d. Faraday’s law

29. The natural magnet refers to (November,1999)

a. Steel b. Soft iron c. Magnesia d. Lodestone

30. It is the air space between poles of magnet (April, 1998)

a. Air gap b. Vacuum c. Free zone d. Free space

31. Where do you classify hydrogen as a material? (November, 1999)

a. Diamagnetic b. Paramagnetic c. Non-magnetic d. Ferromagnetic

32. What is the law whereby the attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is directly proportional to their strength? (April, 1998)

a. Coulomb’s law b. Newton’s law c. Coulomb’s first law

d. Norton’s law 33. _________ is the property of magnetic materials which retain magnetism after magnetizing force is withdrawn.

a. Reluctivity b. Resistivity c. Retentivity d. Conductivity

34. Permeability is the _________ (April, 2004)

a. Power found in the electromagnet

b. Power found in the magnetic field

c. Ease with which metals maybe magnetized or demagnetized

d. Power found in the transformer 35. Electric energy refers to __________.

a. Joules divided by time b. Volt-Coulomb c. Volt-Ampere d. Watt

36. Electric power refers to________ (November, 1997)

a. Joule b. Volt-ampere c. Watt-second d. Volt-coulomb

37. The current of electric circuits is analogous to __________ parameter of a magnetic circuit.

a. Flux density b. Reluctivity c. Mmf d. Flux

38. Which of the following refers to the point where the intensity of magnetic lines of force is maximum?

a. Magnetic pole b. Weak pole c. North pole d. Great circle

39. Which one is the paramagnetic material? (November, 1997)

a. Copper b. Oxygen c. Carbon d. Bismuth

40. What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?

a. Volts b. Watts c. Coulombs d. Joules

41. When you demagnetize properly by applying an AC field and then gradually

reduced it to zero, it is called______ (November, 1997)

a. Damping b. Decaying c. Degaussing d. Gaussing

42. What is the flux density in gauss (G) having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a perpendicular area of 6 cm squared?

a. 2000 G b. 72000 G c. 72 G d. 200 G

43. What is another term for magnetic lines of force?

a. Flux b. Magnetic pole c. Armature d. Lodestone

44. A magnet that is heated will _____ (November, 2003)

a. Increase in magnetism b. Decrease in magnetism c. Not change in magnetism d. Become demagnetized

45. What is the name of the effect of some of the magnetic field leaking off due to less than 100 percent coupling?

a. Eddy currents b. Electromagnetic effect c. Leakage reactance d. Self inductance

46. The difference between the charges in the conductor is equal to the difference in potential. This voltage caused in the moving magnetic field is called (November,2003)

a. Electromagnetic force b. Induced voltage c. Electromotive force d. Counter-electromotive force

47. The basic unit of measuring electrical power (November, 2003)

a. Watt b. Watt-hour c. Volt d. Ampere

48. Which of the following does not refer to electric energy?

a. Joule b. Watt second c. Volt coulomb d. Volt ampere

49. It is composed of a series of energy levels containing the valence electrons.(November,1999)

a. Conduction band b. Forbidden band c. Side band d. Valence band

50. It has a unit of electronvolt a. Charge b. Energy c. Current d. Potential difference

II – DC CIRCUITS 1. Two heaters A and B are in parallel across a supply voltage V. Heater A produces 500kcal in 20 minutes and B produces 1000 kcal in 10 minutes, the resistance of A is 10 ohms. What is the resistance of B?

a. 4.5 ohms b. 3.5 ohms c. 2.5 ohms d. 0.14 ohms

2. In a series circuit of 2 resistors 2200 and 4500 with an impressed voltage of 10, what is the circuit current in mA? (November, 2005)

a. 1.49 b. 6.76 c. 4.34 d. 1.34

3. The current needed to operate a soldering iron which has a rating of 600 watts at 110 volts is.

a. 5.455 A b. 66,000 A c. 18200 A d. 0.182 A

4. The ammeter reads 230 amperes while the voltmeter is 115 volts. What is the power in KW at the time of reading (April, 2004)

a. 264.5 b. 2645 c. 264500 d. 26.45

5. What type of circuit whose parameters are constant which do not change with voltage or current?

a. lumped b. tuned c. reactive d. Linear

6. What is the total resistance of two equal valued resistors is series?

a. twice as one b. the sum of their reciprocal

c. the difference of both d. the product of both

7. What do you expect when you use two 20 kohms, 1 watt resistor in parallel instead of one 10 kohms, 1 watt?

a. provide more power b. provide lighter current c. provide less power d. provide wider tolerance

8. The voltage applied in DC circuit having a power of 36 watts and a total resistance of 4 ohms.

a. 6 V b. 9 V c. 12 V d. 24 V

9. When resistors are connected in series, what happens?

a. the effective resistance is decreased

b. nothing c. the tolerance is decreased d. the effective resistance is

increased 10. Find the thevenins impedance equivalent across R2 of a linear close circuit having 10-V supply in series with resistors (R1 =10 ohms and R2 = 200 ohms (November, 1997)

a. 666 ohms b. 6.66 ohms c. 66.6 ohms d. 6.66 ohms

11. How much power does electronic equipment consume, assuming a 5.5 A current flowing and a 120-V power source (November, 1997)

a. 60 W b. 66 W c. 660 W d. 125.5 W

12. How many nodes are needed to completely analyze a circuit according to Kirchoffs Current Law (April, 1998)

a. One b. Two c. All nodes in the circuit d. One less than the total number

of nodes in the circuit 13. A common connection between circuit elements or conductors from different branches.

a. Node b. Junction c. Ground d. Mesh

14. It is used to denote a common electrical point of zero potential (April, 2004)

a. Short circuit b. Reference point c. Open circuit d. Ground

15. Loop currents should be assumed to flow in which direction? (April, 1998)

a. Straight b. clockwise c. counterclockwise d. either B or C

16. In mesh analysis, we apply: a. KCL b. KVL c. Source transformation d. Millman’s Theorem

17. Which of the following is not a valid expression of Ohms Law (November, 1999)

a. R =PI b. E =IR c. I = E/R d. R = E/I

18. Using Ohms Law, what happens to the circuit current if the applied voltage increases? (April, 2004)

a. Current doubles b. Current increases c. Current remains constant d. Current decreases

19. According to Ohm’s Law, what happens to the circuit current if the circuit resistance increases? (April, 2005)

a. Current doubles b. Current decreases c. Current increases d. Current remains constant

20. If the resistance of a circuit is doubled and the applied voltage is kept constant, the current will be________ (April, 2005)

a. Be quadrupled b. Remains the same c. Be cut in half d. Be doubled

21. It is an electrical current that flows in one direction only? (April, 2005)

a. Normal current b. Alternating current c. Direct current d. Eddy current

22. In Ohms law, what is E/R? (November, 2005)

a. Amperage b. Voltage c. Resistance d. Power

23 A 33-kohm resistor is connected in series with a parallel combination made up of 56-kohm resistor and a 7.8-kohm resistor. What is the total combined resistance of the three resistors? (November, 1999)

a. 39067 ohms b. 49069 ohms c. 63769 ohms d. 95000 ohms

24. Which of the following cannot be included in a loop of Kirrchhoff’s Voltage law (April, 2004)

a. Current sources b. Voltage sources c. Resistance d. Reactance

25. A series connected circuit consists of 3 loads and consume a total power of 50 Watts. It was reconfigured such that 2 are in parallel and the other load is in series with the combination. What is the expected power to be consumed then?

a. 50 Watts b. 25 Watts c 75 watts

e. 45 watts. III – AC CIRCUITS 1.The description of two sine waves that are in step with each other going through their maximum and minimum points at the same time and in the same direction (November, 1999)

a. Sine waves in phase b. Stepped sine waves c. Phased sine waves d. Sine waves in coordination

2. Term used for the out of phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors (November, 1996)

a. Effective power b. True power c. Reactive power d. Peak envelope power

3. Refers to reactive power. (November, 2001)

a. Wattless ,non productive power b. Power consumed in circuit Q c. Power loss because of capacitor

leakage d. Power consumed in wire resistance in

an inductor 4. Term used for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated with inductors and capacitors.

a. effective power b. reactive power c. peak envelope power d. true power

5. The product of current and voltage in an AC circuit refers to the

a. Real power b. Useful power c. Apparent power d. Dc power

6. The distance covered or traveled by a waveform during the time interval of one complete cycle (April, 2005)

a. Frequency b. Wavelength c. Time slot d. Wave time

7. The power dissipated across the resistance in an AC circuit (November, 1999)

a. real power b. reactive power c. apparent power d. true power

8. It is the number of complete cycles of alternating voltage or current completed each second (November, 2003)

a. Period b. Frequency c. Amplitude d. Phase

9. How many degrees are there in one complete cycle? (November, 2000)

a. 720° b. 360° c. 180° d. 90°

10. The impedance in the study of electronics is represented by resistance and ________ (April, 1998)

a. Reactance b. Inductance and capacitance c. Inductance d. Capacitance

11. It is the current that is eliminated by a synchro capacitor? (April, 2004)

a. Magnetizing stator b. Loss c. Stator d. Rotor

12. It is a rotating sector that represents either current or voltage in an AC circuit (November, 2003)

a. Resistance b. Phasor c. Solar diagram d. Velocity

13. The relation of the voltage across an inductor to its current is described as

a. leading the current by 90 degrees b. lagging the current by 90 degrees c. leading the current by 180 degrees d. in phase with the current

14. Find the phase angle between the voltage across ant the current through the circuit when XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms and XL is 50 ohms. (April, 2005)

a. 76 degrees with voltage leading the current

b. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

c. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

d. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

15. Calculate the period of an alternating current having an equation of I =20sin120πt

a. 4.167 ms b. 8.33 ms c. 16.67 ms d. 33.33 ms

16. What do you mean by root-mean-square (rms) value? (November, 1996)

a. It is the average value b. It is the effective value c. It is the value that causes the same

heating effect as the dc voltage d. b or c

17. The maximum instantaneous value of a varying current, voltage or power equal to 1.414 times the effective value of a sine wave. (November, 2000)

a. RMS value b. Peak value c. EFFECTIVE VALUE d. Peak to Peak value

18. If an AC signal has a peak voltage of 55 V, what is the average value? (April, 2000)

a. 34.98 V b. 61.05 V c. 86.34 V d. 38.89 V

19. If an AC signal has an average voltage of 18 V, what is the rms voltage? (April, 2000)

a. 12.726 V b. 19.980 V c. 25.380 V d. 16.213 V

20. A 220-volt, 60Hz is driving a series RL circuit. Determine the current if R = 100 ohms and 20 mH inductance

a. 2.2A(lagging) b. 2.0 A(lagging) c. 2.2 A(leading) d. 2.0 A(leading)

21. Ignoring any inductive effects, what is the impedance of RC series capacitor made up of a 56 Kilo ohm resistor and a 0.33 µF capacitor at a signal frequency of 4650 Hz (November, 1999)

a. 66730 ohms b. 57019 ohms c. 45270 ohms d. 10730 ohms

22. What is the time constant of a 500mH coil and a 3300 ohm resistor in series? (April, 2000)

a. 0.00015 sec b. 6.6 sec c. 0.0015 sec d. 0.000015 sec

23. Ignoring the effects of capacitance, what is the impedance of a 100mH coil(with an internal resistanceof 45 ohms) in parallel with 4700 ohms resistor at a frequency of 500Hz (April, 2001)

a. 237 ohms b. 5013 ohms c. 310 ohms d. 314 ohms

24. What is the relationship between frequency and the value of Xc? (November, 2001)

a. Frequency has no effect b. XC varies inversely with frequency c. XC varies indirectly with frequency d. XC varies directly with frequency

25. Ignoring the effects of DC resistance, what is the total reactance of a 250mH coil in series with a 4.7 µF capacitor at a signal frequency of 450 Hz (April, 2000)

a. 97 ohms b. 752 ohms c. 84 ohms d. 706 ohms

26. In RL circuit, the time constant is the time required for the induced current to reach what percentage of its value?

a. 63% b. 37% c. 100% d. 48%

27. The reactance of a 25 mH coil at 5000 Hz is which of the following?

a. 785 ohms b. 785000 ohms c. 13 ohms d. 0.0013 ohm

28. Assuming an ideal capacitor with no leakage, what is the capacitive reactance of 10 microfarad capacitance at DC? (April, 2000)

a. Infinite capacitive reactance b. 0 ohm c. 16000 ohms d. 1 000 000 000 ohms

29. There are no transients in pure resistive circuits because they

a. Offer high resistance b. Obey Ohm’s Law c. Are linear circuits d. Have no stored energy

30. The transient current in a loss free LC circuit when excited from a DC source is

a. Under-damped b Critically-damped c. Over-damped d. Un-damped

IV – RESONANCE AND FILTERS 1. What is the ability of a filter circuit to reduce the amplitude of unwanted signals below the level of desired output frequency?

a. Attenuation b. Discrimination c. Elimination d. Filtration

2. The center frequency of a bandpass filter is always equal to the_____

a. Bandwidth b. Geometric average of the cutoff

frequencies c. Bandwidth divided by Q d. 3-dB frequency

3. The Q of a narrowband filter is always______

a. Small b. Equal to bandwidth divided by fc c. Less than 1 d. Greater than 1

4. The higher the value of the Q the______ a. More selective the circuit b. Less selective the circuit c. More sensitive the circuit d. Less sensitive the circuit

5. A bandStop filter is sometimes called_________

a. Snubber b. Phase shifter c. Notch filter d. Time-delay circuit

6. The biquadratic filter _____ a. Has low component sensitivity

b. Uses three or more op-amps c. Also called a Tow Thomas filter d. All of the above

7. The all-pass filter is sometimes called a _____

a. Tow Tomas filter b. Delay equalizer c. KHN filter d. State-variable filter

8. If a DC signal is applied to a passive high pass filter, the DC signal will be?

a. Attenuated b. Amplified c. Passed d. Disappear

Answer a. Attenuated 9. Pole in filters refers to _______

a. Feedback circuit b. Single RC filter c. Active filter d. Op-amp

Answer b. Single RC filter 10. An LC circuit resonates at 2000 kHz and has Q of 100. Find the lower and upper cut-off frequencies.

a. 1950 kHz, 2050 kHz b. 1900 kHz, 2100 kHz c. 1990 kHz, 2010 kHz d. 1990 kHz, 2005 kHz

Answer c. 1990 KHz, 2010 KHz Solution Bandwidth=

KHz20100

KHz2000

Q

fc

KHz2010KHz1990KHz20KHz2000f offcut

11. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads are in series?

a. 15.9 MHz b. 50.3 MHz c. 15.9 MHz d. 50.3 kHz

Answer b. 50.3 MHz Solution

Hz50329)p10)(1(2

1fr

12. If you need an LC circuit to resonate at 2500 Hz and used a 150mH coil, what should the capacitance value be?

a. 0.15µF b. 27µF c. 0.015µF d. 0.027µF

Answer d. 0.027 µF Solution

6

22r

r

10x027.0))2500(2(m150

1

)f2(L

1C

thenLC2

1f

13. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L is 30 μH and C is 40 μF that are in parallel?

a. 2.6 MHz b. 3.6 MHz c. 4.6 MHz d. 5.6 MHz

Answer c. 4.6 MHz Solution

MHz5944.4)40)(30(2

1fr

14. A __________ network is a two-port circuit made up of a repeated L, T, pi or H networks.

a. Lattice b. Ladder c. Hybrid d. Hierarchy

Answer b. Ladder 15. Find the half power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit, which has a resonant frequency of 3.65 MHz and a Q of 218

a. 606 kHz b. 47.4 kHz c. 58.7 kHz d. 16.5kHz

Answer d. 16.5 KHz Solution

B = Hz16743218

10x65.3 6

16. Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression?

a. L-network b. Pi-L network c. Pi-network d. Inverse L-network

Answer b. Pi-L network 17. A filter that has a flat time delay in passband is____

a. Chevyshev filer b. Butterworth filter c. Bessel filter d. Elliptic filter

Answer c. Bessel filter 18. A filter having a single continuous transmission band with neither the upper nor

the lower cutoff frequencies being zero or infinite is called_________.

a. Band pass filter b. longitudinal suppression filter c. high pass filter d. band rejection filter

Answer a. Band pass filter 19. Term for the phenomena which occur in an electrical circuit when the inductive reactance balanced with the capacitive reactance

a. Resonance b. Reactive equilibrium c. Q d. Reactive quiescence

Answer a. Resonance 20. What is the term for the number of times per second that tank circuit energy is stored in an inductor or capacitor? (April, 2001)

a. Resonant frequency b. Non-resonant frequency c. Circuit frequency d. Broadcast frequency

Answer a. Resonant frequency 21. Characteristics of current in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance. (April, 1998)

a. It is dc b. It is maximum c. It is minimum d. It is zero

Answer b. It is maximum 22. In series resonant LC circuit, what is the impedance at resonant frequency? (April, 2000)

a. Zero b. Maximum impedance value c. Determine solely by the DC resistance d. Infinity

Answer c. Determine solely by the DC resistance 23. When is the line current minimum in a parallel LC circuit? (April, 2001)

a. At the broadcast frequency b. At the circuit frequency c. At the highest frequency d. At the resonant frequency

Answer d. At the resonant frequency 24. ._______is a parallel LC circuit (April, 1998)

a. Parallel resisting circuit b. Hartley circuit c. Static circuit d. Tank circuit

Answer d. Tank circuit 25. When the magnetic field of the inductor completely collapse, where is the energy of the tank stored? (November, 2000)

a. In the circuit b. Capacitor c. Expanding the inductor d. Dissipated as heat

Answer b. Capacitor V – ENERGY CONVERSION 1. A 4-pole DC generator with duplex lap winding has 48 slots and four elements per slot. The flux per pole is 2.5 x 106 Maxwells and it runs at 1500 rpm. What is the output voltage?

a. 60 b. 360 c. 225 d. 120

Answer a. 60 Solution EG=

V6010x)4)(2(60

)4)(48)(1500)(10x5.2(410x

a60

NZP 86

8

2. Find the frequency in kilocycles per second in the armature of a 10 pole, 1200 rpm generator?

a. 100 b. 1000 c. 10 d. 0.1

Answer d. 0.1 Solution f=

KHz1.01000/Hz100120

)1200(10

120

rpmP

3. What is the voltage regulation when the full load voltage is the same as no-load voltage assuming a perfect voltage source?(Nov. 1999)

a. 100% b. 10% c. 1% d. 0%

Answer d. 0% 4. In dc motors, the emf developed which opposes to the supplied voltage.

a. Residual emf b. Coercive emf c. Induced emf d. Counter emf

Answer d. Counter emf 5. What will happen to a dc series motor when its load is removed?

a. the motor will stop

b. the motor speed remains the same c. the torque remains the same d. the motor will over speed

Answer d. the motor will over speed

6. The armature of a DC generator is laminated to ____________.

a. Reduce the bulk b. Provide passage for cooling air c. Reduce eddy current losses d. Insulate the core

Answer c. Reduce eddy current losses

7. Which of the following helps in reducing the effect of armature reaction in DC generators?

1.Interpoles 2.Compensating windings

a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 or 2

Answer b. 2 only 8. The loss in DC generator that varies with the load is ___________.

a. Copper loss b. Eddy current loss c. Hysteresis loss d. Windage loss

Answer a. Copper loss

9. Magnetic field in a DC generator is produced by __________.

1. Electromagnets 2. Permanent magnets 3. Iron core 4. Steel laminations

a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer a. 1 only 10. In DC generator, the cause of rapid brush wears maybe _____________.

1. Severe sparking 2. Rough commutation surface 3. Imperfect contact 4. slots disorientation

a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 4 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer a. 1, 2 and 3 only 11. Which of the following components of a DC generator plays vital role for providing direct current of a DC generator?

a. Dummy coils b. Commutator c. Eye bolt d. Equalizer ring

Answer b. Commutator

12. Find the voltage regulation of a generator when full load voltage is 110V and the no load voltage is 120V.

a. 1% b. 9.09% c. 90.9% d. 10%

Answer b. 9.09% Solution VR =

%09.9100x110

110120100x

V

VV

FL

FLNL

13. Where does voltage generated in a dc generator depend?

1.Field resistance 2. speed 3. flux 4. Field current 5. Armature resistance

a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 3 and 5 only

Answer b. 2 and 3 only

14. Generators are often preferred to be run in parallel because of ________.

1.Great reliability 2.Meeting greater load demands 3.Higher efficiency

a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only

Answer a. 1,2 and 3 15. DC generator preferred for charging automobile batteries is _______.

a. Shunt generator b. Long shunt compound gen. c. Series generator d. Any of these

Answer a. Shunt generator 16. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is ________.

a. To reduce eddy current losses b. To enhance flux density c. To amplify voltage d. To provide mechanical balance for the

rotor

Answer d. To provide mechanical balance for the rotor 17. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads?

a. Self excited generator b. Separately excited generator c. Level compounded generator d. All of the above

Answer c. Level compounded generator 18. A DC generator works on the principle of

a. Lenz’s Law b. Ohm’s Law c. Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic induction d. None of the above

Answer c. Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic induction 19. With a DC generator, which of the following regulation is preferred?

a. 100% regulation b. infinite regulation c. 50% regulation d. 1% regulation

Answer d. 1% regulation 20. The purpose of an amperite regulator

a. Power regulation b. Loss regulation c. Current regulation d. Voltage regulation

Answer c. Current regulation 21. The only purpose of a DC generator that has been modified to function as an amplidyne is to

a. Serve as a booster b. Serve as a regulator c. Serve as a meter d. Serve as power amplifier

Answer d. Serve as power amplifier 22. A simple method of increasing the voltage of a DC generator is ______ a. Increase the length of the armature b. Decrease the length of the armature c. Increase the speed of rotation d. Decrease the speed of rotation Answer c. Increase the speed of rotation 23. A four-pole lap wound armature has 120 slots and four conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 50mWb and it generates 240 volts. Find the speed.

a. 1200 rpm

b. 800 rpm c. 600 rpm d. 300 rpm

Answer c. 600 rpm Solution

EG = a60

NZP

N =

rpm600)4)(120)(m50(4

)240)(4(60

ZP

aE60 G

24. The power stated on the nameplate of any motor is always the _______.

a. Gross power b. Output power at the shaft c. Power drawn in kva d. Power drawn in KW

Answer b. Output power at the shaft 25. A DC motor is used to ________

a. Generate power b. Change mechanical energy to electrical

energy c. Change electrical energy to mechanical

energy d. Increase energy put into it

Answer c. Change electrical energy to mechanical energy 26. A dc motor is still used in industrial applications because it _______

a. Is cheap b. Is simple in construction c. Provides fine speed control d. None of the above

Answer c. Provides fine speed control 27. Carbon brushes are preferable to copper brushes because _______

1. They have longer life 2. They reduce armature reaction 3. They have lower resistance 4. They reduce sparking

a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 1 and 4 only

Answer d. 1 and 4 only 28. The field poles and armature of a DC machine are laminated to _____

a. Reduce the weight of the machine b. Decrease the speed c. Reduce eddy current d. Reduce armature reaction

Answer d. Reduce armature reaction

29. Steam turbo alternators are much smaller in size than water turbine alternators for a given output. This is so because _____________.

1. Steam turbo alternators are built with smaller capacities 2. Steam turbo alternators run at high speed 1. Steam turbo alternators have long

rotors a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d. 1, 2 and 3 30. When the speed of a DC motor increases, its armature current _______

a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains constant d. None of the above

Answer b. Decreases 31. The amount of the back emf of a shunt motor will increase when ______

a. The load is increased b. The field is weak c. The field is strengthened d. None of the above

Answer c. The field is strengthened 32. The speed of a dc motor is _______

a. Directly proportional to the flux per pole b. Inversely proportional to the flux per pole c. Inversely proportional to the applied voltage d. None of the above

Answer b. Inversely proportional to the flux per pole 33. The torque develop by a DC motor is directly proportional to ____

a. Flux per pole x armature current b. Armature resistance x applied voltage c. Armature resistance x armature current d. None of the above

Answer a. Flux per pole x armature current 34. The speed of a _______motor is practically constant.

a. Cumulatively compounded b. Series c. Differentially compounded d. Shunt

Answer d. Shunt

35.________ motor is a variable speed motor. a. Series motor b. Shunt motor c. Cumulatively compounded d. Differentially compounded

Answer a. Series motor 37. The working principle of a transformer is ___________.

a. Self induction b. Static induction c. Mutual induction d. Dynamic induction

Answer c. Mutual induction 38. A type of transformer that is used to protect technicians from deadly electrical shock is called a/an_________.

a. Absorber transformer b. Step down transformer c. Step up transformer d. Isolation transformer

Answer d. Isolation transformer 39. What is the typical use of an

autotransformer? a. Toy transformer b. Control transformer c. Variable transformer d. Isolating transformer

Answer c. Variable transformer 40. Synchronous motor is capable of being

operated at __________. a. Lagging pf only b. Unity pf only c. Leading pf only d. All of these

Answer d. All of these VI – BASIC ELECTRONICS 1. A vacuum tube has electrodes confined inside an evacuated________.

a. Glass envelope only b. Metal envelope only c. Either glass or metal envelope d. Plastic envelope

Answer c. Either glass or metal envelope

2. Calculate the velocity needed by an electron to be emitted from the surface of a tungsten material whose work function is 4.52 eV

a. 1.3 Mm/s b. 2.3 Mm/s c. 3.3 Mm/s d. 4.3 Mm/s

Answer a. 1.3 Mm/s Solution

Wf = 2

1mv2

therefore v = m

Wf2

v = 31

19

10x11.9

)10x6.1)(52.4(2

v = 1.26 Mm/s 3. In which of the following applications vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter are used to.

a. Public addressing system b. Radio receivers c. Radio transmitters d. electroplating

Answer b. Radio receivers 4. The emission of electrons in a vacuum tube diode is achieved by

a. electrostatic field b. magnetic field c. heating d. electron bombardment

Answer c. heating 5. When an electron moves through a potential difference of 10 Volts, the energy acquired by it will be

a 10 ergs b. 10 joules c. 10 watts d. 10eV

Answer d. 10eV 6. Secondary emission of electrons occurs when the metal surface is

a. Cooled to very low temperature b. heated c. Subjected to electric as well as magnetic field d. Bombardment with high energy electrons

Answer d. Bombardment with high energy electrons

7. Which of the following electron emission process is widely used in vacuum tubes?

a. Photo electric emission b. High field emission c. Thermionic emission d. Secondary emission

Answer c. Thermionic Emission 8. Generally metals with low work function have

a. Low melting point b. Non-crystalline structure c. High hardness

d. Low specific gravity Answer a. Low melting point

9. Which of the following emitter material has the lowest work function?

a. oxide coated b. thoriated tungsten c. pure tungsten d. copper

Answer a. oxide coated 10. The work function of the oxide coated emitter material is _________.

a. 1 eV b. 2.63 eV c. 3.98 eV d. 4.52 eV

Answer a. 1 eV 11. Which of the following material usually needs less than 1000 V as plate voltage?

a. Oxide coated b. Thoriated tungsten c. Pure tungsten d. All of the above

Answer a. Oxide coated

12. In case of indirectly heated tubes, the heater filament is usually made of

a. manganin b. tungsten c. invar d. Gold

Answer b. tungsten 13. In case of indirectly heated cathode, the

cathode is in the shape of___. a. Wire filament b. cylinder c. Metal strip d. Circular

Answer b. cylinder

14. The surface of the anode is usually blacked and roughened to

a. Dissipate heat produced at the anode b. Arrest escaping electrons c. Retard fast electrons emitted by cathode d. Eliminate outside interference

Answer a. Dissipate heat produced at the anode 15. A control grid is provided in the pentode tube to

a. Collect electrons from the space charge b. Control the number of electrons moving

from cathode to plate

c. Restrict the secondary emission from the plate

d. Accelerate the electron emission from the plate

Answer b. Control the number of electrons moving from cathode to plate 16. The grid of the triode is normally maintained at_______.

a. Negative potential with respect to cathode b. Positive potential with respect to cathode c. Zero potential d. Same potential as that of the anode

Answer a. Negative potential with respect to the cathode 17. What will likely to happen when cathode of a vacuum tube is heated and the anode is not connected to any external circuit?

a. Electrons escape through glass tube b. Glass tube gets charge c. Electrons form a space charge d. Protons are emitted from anode

Answer c. Electrons form a space charge 18. A triode can also be used as an amplifier because_______. a. It has 3 elements like a transistor b. Plate is a high values and less positive

c. Control grid voltage is made less negative d. Any small change in grid is capable of causing a larger change in plate voltage

Answer d. any small change in grid is capable of causing a larger change in plate voltage 19. In a cathode ray tube, which electrode has the highest positive voltage?

a. cathode b. anode c. heater d. Control grid

Answer b. anode 20. What is the unit of amplification factor?

a. siemens b. ohms c. amperes d. Unitless

Answer d. Unitless 21. The value of parasitic capacitance of the triode increases as_______.

a. Current increases b. Current decreases c. Signal frequency increases d. Signal frequency decreases

Answer c. Signal frequency increases

22. The control grid of the triode is usually given negative potential with respect to the cathode so as to_______.

a. Reduce the grid current to zero b. Reduce the space charge c. Increase the space charge d. Restrict the space charge to a safe value

Answer a. Reduce the grid current to zero 23. In a tetrode tube, secondary emissions means the emission of

a. High velocity electrons from the cathode b. Electrons from the plate due to bombardment of the fast moving electrons emitted from the cathode c. Electrons from the filament due to heat energy d. Electrons from the filament due to light energy

Answer b. electrons from the plate due to bombardment of the fast moving electrons emitted from the cathode 24. The phenomenon of secondary emission is common in_________.

a. diodes b. triodes c. tetrodes d. Pentodes

Answer c. tetrodes 25. In a pentode, the suppressor grid is provided between

a. Plate and screen grid b. Cathode heater c. Screen grid and plate d. Control grid and cathode

Answer a. Plate and screen grid 26. In a pentode, the suppressor grid is used to_______.

a. Limit anode voltage b. Limit anode current c. Dissipate heat d. Suppress secondary emission

Answer d. Suppress secondary emission 27. Which of the following vacuum tube cannot be used as an amplifier?

a. diode b. triode c. tetrode d. Pentode

Answer a. diode

28. Which of the following does not have three electrons?

a. Boron b. Aluminum c. Gallium d. Phosphorus

Answer d. Phosphorus 29. What is the forbidden energy gap of germanium?

a. 0.12 eV b. 1.12 eV c. 0.72 eV d. 7.2 eV

Answer c. 0.72 eV 30. The forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band will be least in case of

a. metals b. semiconductors c. Insulators d. All of the above

Answer a. metals 31. What is a semiconductor in its purest form?

a. Intrinsic semiconductor b. Extrinsic semiconductor c. P-type material d. N-type material

Answer a. Intrinsic semiconductor 32. At absolute zero temperature, a semiconductor behaves like

a. An insulator b. A superconductor c. A conductor d. A variable resistor

Answer a. An insulator 33. When the atoms are held together by the sharing of valence electrons

a. Each atoms becomes free to move b. Neutrons start shifting c. They form a covalent bond d. Some of the electrons are lost

Answer c. they form a covalent bond 34. What happen when an electron breaks a covalent bond and move away?

a. A hole is created b. A proton is also lost c. Atom becomes an ion d. Rest of the electrons moves at faster rate

Answer a. A hole is created

35. It is the process of deliberately adding impurity to a semiconductor material is called

a. Impurification b. Pollution c. Deionization d. Doping

Answer d. Doping 36. What is a doped semiconductor?

a. Impure semiconductor b. Dipole semiconductor c. Bipolar semiconductor d. Extrinsic semiconductor

Answer d. Extrinsic semiconductor 37. What are the two mechanisms by which holes and electrons move through a silicon crystal?

a. Covalent bond and recombination b. Forward and reverse bias c. Free and charge particles d. Diffusion and drift

Answer d. Diffusion and drift 38. Pure silicon crystal atoms contain how many

valence electrons as a result of covalent bonding?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16

Answer c. 8 39. What is considered as the key to electrical

conductivity? a. the number of electrons in the

valence orbit b. the number of neutrons in the

nucleus c. the number of protons and

electrons in the atom d. the number of neutrons in the

nucleus

Answer a. the number of electrons in the valence orbit 40. Lifetime is the amount of time between the creation and disappearance of a/an_______. a. free electron b. proton c. ion d. neutron Answer a. free electron

41. Silicon that has been doped with a trivalent impurity is called a. p-type semiconductor b. n-type semiconductor

c. intrinsic semiconductor d. extrinsic semiconductor Answer a. p-type semiconductor 42. In an N-type semiconductor, holes are called_______. a. minority carriers b. majority carriers c. protons d. charge carriers Answer a. minority carriers 43. A silicon crystal is _______if every atom in the crystal is a silicon atom. a. extrinsic semiconductor b. intrinsic semiconductor c. p-type material d. n-type material Answer b. intrinsic semiconductor 44. Before doping, the semiconductor material is a. dehydrated b. heated c. hardened d. purified Answer d. purified 45. Which of the following is acceptor impurity element? a. antimony b. gallium c. arsenic d. phosphorus Answer b. gallium 46. An electrically neutral semiconductor has a. no free charges b. no majority carriers c. no minority carriers d. equal number of positive and negative charges Answer d. equal number of positive and negative charges 47. In an N-type semiconductor, the concentration of the minority carriers mainly depends on a. the number of acceptor atoms b. the number of doping atoms c. extent of the atom d. temperature of the material Answer d. temperature of the material 48. The resistivity of semiconductor a. increase as the temperature increases b. decreases as the temperature increases

c. remains constant even wren the temperature varies d. remains constant even when the temperature is constant Answer b. decreases as the temperature increases 49. Semiconductors have _________. a. zero temperature coefficient b. positive temperature coefficient c. negative temperature coefficient d. all of the above Answer c. negative temperature coefficient 50. What is the crystal structure of silicon? a. simple cubic b. body central cubic c. face centered cubic d. diamond Answer d. diamond VII – DIODES AND APPLICATIONS 1. The vacuum tube diode was developed by J. Fleming and is also known as ________.

a. Fleming diode b. Fleming valve c. audion d. dione

Answer b. Fleming valve 2. In case a PN junction is forward biased a. Holes and electrons seized to move b. Electrons and holes moves away the junction c. Electrons and holes move toward the junction d. depletion region decreases

Answer d. depletion region decreases 3. The bulk resistance of a diode is_____ a. the resistance of N-material only b. the resistance of P material only c. the resistance of the junction only d. the resistance of the P and the N material

Answer d. the resistance of the P and the N material 4. The depletion layer of the PN junction diode has a. only free mobile electrons b. only free mobile holes c. both free mobile holes and mobile electrons d.neither free mobile electrons nor holes

Answer d. neither free mobile electrons nor holes 5. A zener diode is invariably used with

a. forward biased

b. reverse biased c. Zero bias d. no bias

Answer b. reversed biased 6. The light emitting diode produces light when

a. Unbiased b. forward bias c. reverse bias d. zero bias

Answer b. forward bias 7. The PN junction offers a. a high resistance in forward as well as reverse direction b. Low resistance in forward as well as in reverse c. conducts in forward direction only d. conducts in the reverse direction only Answer c. conducts in forward direction only 8. The DC resistance of a diode is ________than its AC resistance. a. same as b. more than c. less than d. all of the above Answer c. less than 9. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ________that of equivalent vacuum diode. a. lower than b. more than c. the same as d. all of the above Answer a. lower than 10. Crystal diode is a _____device. a. non-linear b. linear c. amplifying d. oscillating Answer a. non-linear 11. A zener diode has______. a. one PN junction b. two PN junction c. three PN junction d. 1.5 PN junction Answer a. one PN junction 12 The doping level in a zener diode is ______that of a crystal diode. a. more than b. less than c. the same as d. none of these

Answer a. more than 13. The most widely used rectifier circuit is ______. a. half wave b. center tap c. bridge type d. book type Answer c. bridge type 14. If PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, the diode ________. a. stops conduction b. is destroyed c. conducts heavily in the forward direction d. is not destroyed Answer b. is destroyed 15. The _______filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation a. choke input b. capacitor input c. resistant input d. transformer input Answer a. choke input 16. A 60 Hz sine voltage is applied to the input of a half wave rectifier, what is the output frequency? a. 60 Hz b. 120 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 180 Hz Answer a. 60 Hz 17. If the load resistance of a capacitor –filtered - full wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage a. increases b. decreases c, is not affected d. has different frequency Answer a. increases 18. Load regulation is determined by a. changes in load current and input voltage b. changes in load current and output voltage c. changes in load resistance and input voltage d. changes in zener current and load current Answer b. changes in load current and output voltage 19. If you are checking a 60 Hz full-wave bridge rectifier and observe that the output has a 60 Hz ripple, a. the circuit is working properly b. the transformer secondary is shorted

c. there is an open diode d. the filter capacitor is leaky Answer c. there is an open diode 20. The cathode of a zener diode in a voltage regulator is normally a. more positive than the anode b. more negative than the anode c. at +0.7 V d. grounded Answer a. more positive than the anode 21. A no load condition means that a. the load has infinite resistance b. the load has zero resistance c. the output terminals are pen d. answers a and c Answer d. answers a and c 22. The internal resistance of a photodiode a. increases with light intensity when reversed bias b. decreases with light intensity when reversed bias c. increases with light intensity when forward bias d. decreases with light intensity when forward bias Answer b. decreases with light intensity when reversed bias 23. A diode that has a negative resistance is the ________. a. Schottky diode b. Tunnel diode c. Laser diode d. hot-carrier diode Answer b. Tunnel diode 24. The small value of direct current that flows when a semiconductor device has a reverse bias (November, 1999) a. surge current b. bias current c. reverse current d. current limit Answer c. reverse current 25. How does a junction diode rated? (November, 1996) a. maximum reverse current and PIV b. maximum forward current and PIV c. maximum forward current and capacitance d. maximum reverse current and capacitance Answer b. maximum forward current and PIV

26. Where do you measure the positive direct current output voltage from a half wave rectifier circuit? (November, 2003) a. anode terminal b. any terminal c. cathode terminal d. ground terminal Answer c. cathode terminal 27. The main disadvantage of a conventional full-wave rectifier is that the peak voltage is_____that of a half wave rectifier. (November, 2003) a. triple b. half c. double d. quadruple Answer b. half 28. What is the condition of the diode in a series –limiter when the output is developed? (November, 2003) a. conducting b. cut-off c. shorted d. shunted Answer a. conducting 29. As a rule of thumb, what is an acceptable ratio of back-to-forward resistance for a diode? (November, 2003) a. 2 to 1 b. less than 10 to 1 c greater than 10 to 1 d. 5 to 1 Answer c. greater than 10 to 1 30. What do you call the tiny crystal of semiconductor material that glows when an electric current passes through it? (November, 2003) a. LED b. laser beam c. photon d. liquid crystal Answer d. liquid crystal 31. The percentage change in output voltage for a given change in load current is called________ (November, 2003) a. load regulation b. line regulation c. output regulation d. voltage regulation Answer a. load regulation 32. How many diodes does a bridge circuits require? (April, 2004) a. two diodes

b. three diodes c. five diodes d. four diodes Answer d. four diodes 33. What type of circuit would a zener diode is most likely used in? (April, 2004) a. voltage regulator b. amplifier c. oscillator d. rectifier Answer a. voltage regulator 34. What is the correct operating voltage for a typical LED? (April, 2004) a. +3 to +6 V b. -6 to +5 V c. +12 to +18 V d. 0 to +120 V Answer a. +3 to +6 V 35. The ratio of a varactor’s capacitance at specified minimum voltage to the capacitance at a specified maximum voltage. a. tuning ratio b. percentage ratio c. capacity ratio d. efficiency ratio Answer a. tuning ratio VIII – TRANSISTORS AND AMPLIFIERS 1. A PNP transistor is made of a. silicon b. germanium c. carbon d. either silicon or germanium Answer d. either silicon or germanium 2. The transistor is usually encapsulated in a. graphite powder b. enamel paint c. epoxy raisin d. black plastic Answer c. epoxy raisin 3. Power transistors are invariably provided with a. solder connections b. heat sink c. metallic casing d. screw bolt Answer b. heat sink 4. The transistor specification number 2N refers to a a. diode

b. junction transistor c. FET with one gate d. SCR Answer b. junction transistor 5. Which if the following is necessary for a transistor action? a. the base region must be very wide b. the base region must be very narrow c.the base region must be made from insulating materials d. the collector region must be heavily doped Answer b. the base region must be very narrow 6. As compared to a CB amplifier a CE amplifier has a. low current amplification b. higher current amplification c.lower input resistance d. higher input resistance Answer b. higher current amplification 7. It is the most stable type of circuit biasing a. self-bias b. signal bias c. voltage-divider bias d. fixed bias Answer c. voltage-divider bias 8. The quiescent state of a transistor implies a. zero bias b. no output c. no distortion d. no input signal Answer d. no input signal 9. Each of the 2 cascaded stages has a voltage gain of 30. What is the overall gain? a.3 b. 9 c. 30 d. 900 Answer d. 900 Solution Gtotal = (30)(30) = 900 10. Which class of amplifiers operates with the least distortion? a.Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D Answer a. Class A 11. Which of the following circuit is the fastest switching device? a. JFET

b. BJT c. MOSFET d. Triode Answer c. MOSFET 12. Which of the following device is a unipolar? a. FET b. BJT c. Zener diode d. LED Answer a. FET 13. The cascaded amplifier which is often used in the IC is a. inductively coupled b. capacitively coupled c. direct coupled d. transformer coupled Answer c. direct coupled 14. Highest operating frequency can be expected in case of a. bipolar transistor b. JFET c. MOSFET d. IGFET Answer a. bipolar transistor 15. Which of the following is expected to have the highest input impedance? a. MOSFET b. JFET amplifier c. CE bipolar transistor d. CC bipolar transistor Answer a. MOSFET 16. The ______is quite popular in digital circuits especially in CMOS which require very low power consumption. a. JFET b. BJT c. D-type MOSFET d. E-type MOSFET Answer d. E-type MOSFET 17. What is the amplification factor in FET transistor amplifiers? a. Zi b. gm c. ID d. IG Answer b. gm

18. The E-MOSFET is quite popular in what type of applications. a. digital circuitry

b. high frequency c.buffering d. a, b and c Answer d. a, b and c 19. A JFET just operates with specifically a. the drain connected to ground b. gate to source PN junction forward biased c. gate connected to the source d. gate to source PN junction reverse biased Answer d. gate to source PN junction reverse biased 20. The main difference of a MOSFET from a JFET is that a. JFET has PN junction b. of the power rating c. MOSFETS has two gates d. MOSFETs do not have physical channel Answer a. JFET has PN junction 21. A small signal amplifier a. uses only a small portion of its loadline b. always has an output signal in the mV range c. goes into saturation once on each input cycle d. is always a common emitter amplifier Answer a. uses only a small portion of its loadline 22. The parameter hfe corresponds to a. βDC

b. βAC

c. r’e

d. r’c Answer b. βAC 23. If the DC emitter current in a certain transistor amplifier is 3 mA, the approximate value of r’e is a. 3KΩ b. 3Ω c. 8.33 Ω d. 0.33 KΩ Answer c. 8.33 Ω Solution

r’e = 66.8mA3

mV26

24. The input resistance of a common base amplifier is a. very low b. very high c. the same as CE d. the same as CC

Answer a. very low 25. Each stage of a four stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 15. The overall voltage gain is a. 60 b.15 c. 50625 d. 3078 Answer c. 50625 Solution Vover-all = (15)(15)(15)(15) = 50 625 26. The maximum efficiency of a transformer coupled Class A amplifier is__. a. 25 b. 50 c. 78.5 d. 100 Answer b. 50 27. In a MOSFET, the process of creating a channel by the addition of charge carrier is called. a. inducement b. improvement c. balancing d. enhancement Answer d. enhancement 28. What is the current gain of a common base circuit called? a. gamma b. delta c. bravo d. alpha Answer d. alpha 29. The name of the very first transistor a. diode b. junction transistor c. point contact transistor d. triode Answer c. point contact transistor 30. Region in a transistor that is heavily doped. a. collector b. emitter c. base d. gate Answer b. emitter 31. In a common –base amplifier the voltage gain is_____.(April, 2003) a. medium b. low c. zero d. high

Answer d. high 32. In a common collector amplifier, the input resistance is___.(Nov,2003) a. high b. zero c. medium d. low Answer a. high 33. A depletion MOSFET (D-MOSFET) can operate with which of the following gate-source voltage? (November, 2003) 1. zero 2. positive 3. negative a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Answer b. 3 only

34. What problem is caused by a loosely coupled transformer in an RF amplifier? (April, 2004) a. a too narrow bandpass b. over coupling c. optimum coupling d. a too-wide bandpass Answer a. a too narrow bandpass 35. Normally, how are high power tubes tested? (April, 2004) a. visually b. individually c. in their circuit d. use portable testers Answer c. in their circuit VIII – FEEDBACK AMPLIFIERS AND OSCILLATORS 1. Who developed negative feedback? a. Harold Black b. Herald Black c. Ronald Black d. Blackdyak Answer a. Harold Black 2. A portion of the output is taken and is connected in the input. a. feedback systems b. amplifers c. clampers d. clippers Answer a. feedback systems

3. This type of feedback increases the gain of the system a. positive feedback b. negative feedback c. degenerative feedback d. zero feedback Answer a. positive feedback 4. A circuit capable of providing a repetitive output wave from an externally generated input signal a. amplifier b. oscillator c. feedback d. regulator Answer b. oscillator 5. What do you call the phenomenon that a mechanical stress produces a potential difference across the opposite faces of crystals? a. photoelectric effect b. piezoelectric effect c. mechatronics effect d hall effect Answer b. piezoelectric effect 6. What type of crystal exhibit the highest piezoelectric activity? a. tourmaline b. Rochelle salt c. diamond d. quartz crystal Answer b. Rochelle salt 7. Blocking oscillator are used as a. abrupt pulse generator b. high impedance switches c. low impedance switches d. signal generator Answer b. high impedance switches 8. A phase shift oscillator consist of number of a. RC circuits b. RL circuits c. LC circuits d. FET circuits Answer a. RC circuits 9. To sustain oscillations, circuits must exhibit a. hall effect b. fly effect c. flywheel effect d. shake effect Answer c. flywheel effect 10. A monostable multivibrator can be used to generate a. sweep

b. pulse c. sinusoids d. DC Answer a. sweep 11. The main feature of crystal oscillator is a. economy b. reliability c. stability d. high frequency Answer c. stability 12. In a certain oscillator, Av = 50, the attenuation of the feedback circuit must be______. a. 1 b. 0.01 c. 10 d. 0.02 Answer d. 0.02 Solution

β = 02.050

1

13. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because a. it has more gain b. it requires no DC supply c. it requires no input signal d. it always has the same output Answer c. it requires no input signal 14. Wien Bridge oscillators are based on a. positive feedback b. the piezoelectric effect c. negative feedback d. high gain Answer a. positive feedback 15. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be a. 1 b. less than 1 c. greater than 1 d. equal to β Answer c. greater than 1 16. The loop gain in a phase shift oscillator must be_______degrees. a. 45 b. 90 c. 180 d. 360 Answer c. 180 17. An oscillator using a capacitive voltage divider to provide feedback.

a. Hartley b. Colpitts c. Armstrong d. Phase shift Answer b. Colpitts 18. The oscillator with the best frequency stability and accuracy a. Hartley b. Colpitts c. Clapp d. Crystal-controlled Answer d. Crystal-controlled 19. An oscillator circuit is mainly a. DC to AC converter b. DC to DC converter c. AC to DC converter d. AC to AC converter Answer a. DC to AC converter 20. If the gain of an amplifier without feedback is 10 and with negative feedback is 8, then the feedback fraction is a. 0.025 b. 0.9 c. 0.8 d. 0.225 Answer a. 0.025 Solution

A’ = A1

A

8 = ))(10(1

10

= 0.025

21. The gain with negative feedback is approximately ______when the feedback fraction is 0.01. a. 10 b. 100 c. 500 d. 1000 Answer b. 100 Solution A = 1/0.01 = 100 22. What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing current-shunt feedback? a. increased b. remains the same c. decreased d. equals infinity Answer c. decreased 23. An oscillator always needs an amplifier with a. Positive feedback

b. Negative feedback c. Degenerative feedback d. all of the above Answer a. Positive feedback 24. An RC phase shift oscillator uses______amplifier. a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class AB Answer a. Class A 25. A Wien Bridge oscillator is sometimes called a a. Trap b. Band pass filter c. Phase shifter d. Wheatstone bridge Answer a. trap 26. _______damping is the progressive decay with time in the amplitude of the free oscillation in a circuit. a. decrement b. pulse decay time c. damping d. transient Answer c. damping 27. Link coupling is also called a. capacitive coupling b. transformer coupling c. resistive coupling d. power coupling Answer b. transformer coupling 28. The kind of oscillator found in an electronic wristwatch is the a. Armstrong b. Clapp c. Colpitts d. Quartz crystal Answer d. Quartz crystal 29. Which of the following minerals provides the highest piezoelectric effect? a. Tourmaline b. Rochelle Salt c. Quartz d. Diamond Answer b. Rochelle Salt 30. A crystal is like _______before it is mounted in its holder. a. high pass filter b. series resonant circuit

c. anti-resonant circuit d. low pass filter Answer b. series resonant circuit 31. A microwave oscillator is a. Hartley oscillator b. Colpitts oscillator c. Relaxation oscillator d. Klystron oscillator Answer d. Klystron oscillator 32. Type of oscillator whose frequency is dependent on the charge and discharge of the RC networks. a. Hartley oscillator b. Colpitts oscillator c. Relaxation oscillator d. Klystron oscillator Answer c. Relaxation oscillator 33. Which of the following is not an essential part of an oscillator? a. source of energy that supply the losses in tank circuit b. a resistor IC combination circuit c. resonant circuit consists of inductance and capacitance d. regenerative feedback circuit Answer b. a resistor IC combination circuit 34. Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating current or voltage a. damper b. generator c. oscillator d. mixer Answer c. oscillator 35. Crystals have a very a. low Q b. high Q c. small inductance d. large resistance Answer b. high Q X – MICROELECTRONICS 1. It is a layer of photosensitive material that is first coated in a wafer during photolithographic process. a. mask b. photoresist c. photomaterial d. silicon dioxide Answer b. photoresist

2. It is a combination of film and monolithic IC techniques that is being applied to variety of multichip integrated circuits. a. mixture b. hybrid c. combined d. fusion Answer b. hybrid 3. Thick film employs silk screen techniques in the formation of passive components, what is then the process involve for thin film circuits for the same purpose? a. cathode sputtering technique b. anode sputtering technique c. isolation diffusion d. metallization Answer a. cathode sputtering technique 4. In IC production, it is the introduction of controlled small quantities of a material into the crystal structure for modification of its electrical characteristics a. Etching b. Doping c. Epitaxial growth d. Diffusion Answer d. Diffusion 5. What is the process that is being defined when the metal is bombarded by high velocity inert gas atoms causing some atoms of the metal to be dislodge a. evaporation b. bombardment c. sputtering d. diffusion Answer c. sputtering 6. An integrated circuit op-amps has___________. a. two inputs and two outputs b. two inputs and one output c. one input and two outputs d. multiple inputs and one output Answer b. two inputs and one output 7. In the differential mode, a. opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs b. the gain is 1 c. the outputs are differential amplitudes d. only one supply voltage is used Answer a. opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs 8. The output of a particular op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is______.

a. 96 V/ μs b. 0.67 V/ μs c. 1.5 V/ μs d. 96 V- μs Answer b. 0.67 V/ μs Solution

Slew Rate = sμ/V67.0=12

8

9. The purpose of offset nulling on operational amplifier is to_______. a. reduce the gain b. equalize the input signal c. zero the output error voltage d. both b and c Answer c. zero the output error voltage 10. A voltage follower________. a. has a gain of 1 b. has no feedback resistor c. is non-inverting d. all of these Answer d. all of these 11. The midrange open loop gain of an op-amp a. extends from the low critical to the upper critical frequency b. extends from 0 Hz to the upper critical frequency c. rolls off at 20 dB/decade beginning at 0 Hz d. answers b and c Answer b. extends from 0 Hz to the upper critical frequency 12. The frequency at which the open loop gain is equal to 1 is called a. upper critical frequency b. cut-off frequency c. notch frequency d. the unity gain frequency Answer d. the unity gain frequency 13. Phase shift in an op-amp is caused by: a. the internal RC circuits b. the external RC circuits c. the gain roll off d. the negative feedback Answer a. the internal RC circuits 14. Each RC circuit in op-amp a. causes the gain to roll off at -6 dB/octave b. causes the gain to roll off at -20 dB/decade c. reduces the midrange gain by 3 dB d. both a and b

Answer d. both a and b 15. When a negative feedback is applied to an op amp, what will happen to the gain-bandwidth product? a. increases b. decreases c. stays the same d. fluctuate Answer c. stays the same 16. If a certain op-map has a mid-range open loop gain of 200 000 and a unity gain frequency of 5 MHz, what is the gain-bandwidth product? a. 200 000 Hz b. 100 000 000 Hz c. 5 000 000 Hz d. 25 Hz Answer c. 5 000 000 Hz Explanation: Gain-bandwidth product = Unity gain frequency 17. In a zero-level detector, the output changes state when the input a. is positive b. crosses zero c. is negative d. has a zero rate of change Answer b. crosses zero 18. The zero level detector is one application of a a. comparator b. summing amplifier c. differentiator d. diode Answer a. comparator 19. Noise on the input of a comparator can cause the output to a. hang up in one state b. go to zero c. change back and forth erratically between two states d. produced the amplified noise signal Answer c. change back and forth erratically between two states 20. A comparator with hysteresis a. has one trgigger point b. has two trigger points c. has a variable trigger point d. is like a magnetic circuit Answer b. has two trigger points 21. In a comparator, what is the purpose of output bounding? a. makes it faster

b. keeps the output positive c. limits the output levels d. stabilizes the output Answer c. limits the output levels 22. If the voltage gain for each input of a summing amplifier with a 4.7 KΩ feedback resistor is unity, the input resistors must have the value of______. a. 4.7 KΩ b. 4.7 KΩ divided by the number of inputs c. 4.7 KΩ times the number of inputs d. dependent on the number of inputs Answer a. 4.7 KΩ 23. An averaging amplifier has five inputs. The ratio of Rf/Ri must be a. 5 b. 0.2 c. 1 d. 0 Answer b. 0.2 Solution

Rf/Ri = 2.0=5

1

24. In a scaling adder, the input resistors are: a. all the same value b. all of different values c. each proportional to the weight of its input d. related by a factor of two Answer c. each proportional to the weight of its input 25. In an integrator, the feedback element is a a. resistor b. capacitor c. zener diode d. voltage divider Answer b. capacitor 26. For a step input, the output of the integrator is: a. a pulse b. a triangular waveform c. a spike d. a ramp Answer d. a ramp 27. The rate of change of an integrator’s output voltage in response to a step input is set by: a. RC time constant b. amplitude of the step input c. the current through the capacitor d. all of these Answer d. all of these

28. In a differentiator, what is the feedback element is a a. resistor b. inductor c. capacitor d. diode Answer a. resistor 29. The output of a differentiator is proportional to a. the RC time constant b. amplitude of the input c. the rate at which the input is changing d. both a and b Answer d. both a and b 30. When you apply a triangular waveform to the input of a differentiator, the output is a. a dc level b. inverted triangular waveform c. square waveform d. first harmonic of the triangular waveform Answer d. first harmonic of the triangular waveform 31. In order to make a basic instrumentation amplifier which is usually used in high noise environment, it takes a. one op-amp with certain feedback arrangements b. two op-amps and seven resistor c. three op-amps and seven resistor d. three op-amps and seven capacitors Answer c. three op-amps and seven resistor 32. Typically, an instrumentation amplifier has an external resistor used for: a. establishing the input impedance b. setting the voltage gain c. setting the current gain d. interfacing with an instrument Answer b. setting the voltage gain 33. Operational Transconductance Amplifier (OTA) is basically a a. voltage to current amplifier b. current to voltage amplifier c. current to current amplifier d. voltage to voltage amplifier Answer a. voltage to current amplifier 34. The operation of a logarithmic amplifier is based on a. nonlinear operation of op-amp b. logarithmic characteristics of pn junction

c. reverse breakdown characteristics of a pn junction d. logarithmic charge and discharge of RC circuit Answer b. logarithmic characteristics of pn junction 35. In op-amps functional block diagram, what follows the differential amplifier? a. cascode amplifier b. complementary amplifier c. level shifter d. high gain amplifier Answer d. high gain amplifier 36. How does the input of the op-amp made high? a. by using super beta transistor at the input differential stage b. by using FETs at the input differential stage c. by connecting a very high resistance in series with the input differential stage d. both a and b Answer d. both a and b 37. What type of amplifier is commonly connected at the output stage of the op-amps? a. differential amplifier b. cascade am0plifier c. complementary amplifier d. darlington stage amplifier Answer c. complementary amplifier 38. Why do most operational amplifier uses common collector configuration at the output stage? a. to have a higher output power b. to have a better frequency response c. to have a low harmonic distortion d. to have a very low output resistance Answer d. to have a very low output resistance 39. An operational amplifier has a common-mode voltage gain of 20 and a differential-mode voltage gain of 20 000, calculate the common mode rejection ratio (CMRR). a. 20 b. 1 000 c. 10 000 d. 20 000 Answer b. 1 000 Solution

CMRR= 1000=20

20000=

Ac

Ad

40. The approximate value of the bias current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is a. equal to the feedback resistor b. equal to the input resistor c. equal to the series combination of the input and feedback resistors d. equal to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors Answer d. equal to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors 41. In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by a. battery b. signal generator c. Thevenin’s voltage source d. Norton’s current source Answer a. battery 42. In most Ac amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small capacitance, what is its purpose? a. to prevent oscillation b. to improve stability c. to minimize high frequency noise d. to compensate for high frequency loss Answer c. to minimize high frequency noise 43. 8-PIN pin and SMT are among the most popular op-amp packages. Which among the following corresponds to TO-99? a. metal can b. SMT c. 8-pin DIP d. quadpack Answer a. metal can 44. What is the package designation of Dual-In-Line package? a. TO-99 b. TO-91 c. TO-116 d. TO-220 Answer c. TO-116 45. Which of the following is the unity gain frequency of a 741 op-amp? a. 10 Hz b. 20 KHz c. 1 MHz d. 15 MHz Answer c. 1 MHz 46. Current cannot flow to the ground through a. mechanical ground b. an ac ground c. a virtual ground d. an ordinary ground

Answer c. a virtual ground 47. The temperature range of operational amplifiers for military use is: a. -80°C - 150°C b. -45°C - 200°C c. 0°C - 70°C d. -55°C - 125°C Answer d. -55°C - 125°C 48. An astable multivibrtaor has a. 1 stable state b. 2 stable state c. two quasi stable state d. no stable state Answer c. two quasi stable state 49. In bistable multivibrator, speed up or commutating capacitors are used to______. a. to obtain time delay b. to obtain constant output swing c. to make multivibrator state more stable d. to improve resolution time Answer d. to improve resolution time 50. ______is used for counting of binary information. a. clamper circuit b. Schmitt trigger c. bistable vibrator d. monostable vibrator Answer c. bistable vibrator 51. _______can be used to delay a circuit a. clamper circuit b. Schmitt trigger c. bistable vibrator d. monostable vibrator Answer d. monostable vibrator 52. The maximum frequency of the output waveform of a bistable multivibrator ; a. is constant for all multivibrator b. depends upon the maximum frequency of the trigger signal c. is infinity d. is limited by the resolution time of the multivibrator Answer d. is limited by the resolution time of the multivibrator 53. The frequency of the monostable vibrator is_______the frequency of the triggering pulses. a. equal to b. one half c. twice d. thrice

Answer a. equal to 54. What is the pin number designation of the output of a 555 timer? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Answer a. 3 55. Pin number 5 of the 555 timer is the _______. a. supply voltage b. control voltage c. threshold d.. ground Answer b. control voltage XI – INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS 1. An electronic switch that has the highest single device current capacity and can withstand overloads better a. thyratrons b. ignitrons c. SCR d. triac Answer c. SCR 2. It is the fusion or growing of the materials being together. a. coalition b. coincidence c. coalescense d. mixing Answer c. coalescense 3. Identify which of the following is a three layer device. a. SCS b. Diac c. Triac d. PUT Answer b. diac 4. What device can be modeled by a diode and two resistors? a. BJT b. DIAC c. SCR d. UJT Answer d. UJT 5. A junction that is formed by adding controlled amounts of an impurity to the melt during crystal growth is termed as a. fused junction b. unijunction

c. alloy junction d. doped junction Answer d. doped junction 6. A Triac is a _________. a. 2 terminal switch b. 2 terminal bilateral switch c. 3 terminal unilateral switch d. 3 terminal bidirectional switch Answer d. 3 terminal bidirectional switch 7. Arc welding requires a voltage around_________. a. 60-100 V b. 150-200 V c. 400-440 V d. 1000 – 5000 V Answer a. 60 – 100V 8. During Arc Welding, the current is in the range of ________-. a.1 – 5 A b. 5 – 50 A c. 50 – 400 A d. 500 – 4000 A Answer c. 50 – 400A 9. The body structure of the car is welded by: a. gas welding b. spot welding c. induction welding d. arc welding Answer b. spot welding 10. A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is ________. a. diac b. triac c. SCR d. PUT Answer c. SCR 11. Which of the following describes a triac? a. conducts when not triggered b. conducts when not triggered in both directions c. conducts when triggered in one direction d. conducts when triggered in both direction Answer d. conducts when triggered in both directions 12. A thyristor is basically ________. a. PNPN device b. a combination of diac and triac c. a set of SCRs d. a set of SCR, diac and triac

Answer a. PNPN device 13. What is the PNPN device with two gates? a. diac b. triac c. SUS d. SCS Answer d. SCS 14. Which device incorporates a terminal for synchronizing purposes? a. diac b. triac c. SUS d. SCR Answer c. SUS 15. An SCR is a ________. a. unijunction device b. device with three junctions c. device with four junctions d. device with two junctions Answer b. device with three junctions 16. A thyristor can be turned off a. by reducing the anode current below the holding current value b. by reversing the anode voltage c. either a or b d. both a and b Answer. d. both a and b 17. Minimum duration of pulse triggering system for thyristors is _______. a. at least 10 microseconds b. at least 30 milliseconds c. at least 10 milliseconds d. at least 1 second Answer a. 10 microseconds 18. A device that cannot be triggered by voltage of either polarity is _____. a. diac b. triac c. SCS d. all of the above Answer c. SCS 19. Technically, what is dicing means? a. process of joining two diacs b. circuit of reducing noise c. device for reducing magnetic and radio interference d. process of breaking the silicon slice into chips Answer d. process of breaking the silicon slice into chips

20. The term used to describe the process whereby two transistors with positive feedback are used to simulate the action of the thyristor. a. Arcing b. Latching c. Damping d. Switching Answer b. Latching 21. It is the minimum anode current to hold a thyristor at conduction a. trigger b. maintaining current c. holding current d. threshold voltage Answer c. holding current 22. Electron tube containing mercury functioning as a rectifier a. Thyratron b. Ignitron c. Thyrector d. SCR Answer b. Ignitron 23. How do you stop the conduction during which the SCR is also conducting? a. remove voltage gate b. increase cathode voltage c. interrupt anode current d. reduce gate current Answer c. interrupt anode current 24. A series RC connected in parallel with an SCR to eliminate false triggering is the_______. a. crowbar b. snubber c. varistor d. eliminator Answer b. snubber 25. Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC? a. gate, anode1 and anode2 b. gate, source and sink c. base, emitter and collector d. emitter, base1 and base2 Answer a. gate, anode1 and anode2 26. For inspection of welding defects in thick metals, which of the following ray is used to photograph thick metals objects? a. gamma rays b. cosmic rays c. infrared rays d. ultraviolet rays Answer a. gamma rays

27. The minimum emitter to base voltage to trigger the UJT is the ________. a. forward breakover voltage b. Trigger c. Breakdown voltage d. Peak voltage Answer d. Peak voltage 28. The ratio of the emitter to base1 resistance to the interbase resistance of a UJT is called_______. a. aspect ratio b. Current Gain c. Voltage Gain d. Intrinsic Standoff ratio Answer d. Intrinsic Standoff Ratio 29. For a UJT, it is the region between the peak and valley points as seen in its characteristics curve. a. Active region b. Negative resistance region c. Trigger region d. Saturation region Answer b. Negative resistance region 30. This device is two zener diodes connected back to back in series and is used to support voltage surges and transients. a. thyristor b. varactor c. thyrector d. phanatron Answer c. thyrector 31. Refers to the number of degrees o an AC cycle during which the SCR is turned ON. a. conduction angle b. firing delay angle c. induction angle d. ON angle Answer a. conduction angle 32. It is the name given to the variety of rotary, electromechanical, position sensing devices?

a. synchro b. gyro c. servo d. motor

Answer a. synchro 33. It is a system in which a precise movement of a large load is controlled by a relatively weak control signal.

a. synchro b. servo c. gyro

d. motor Answer b. servo 34. What is the primary purpose of a synchro system?

a. precise and rapid transmission of data between stations

b. accurate measurement of distances c. to introduced stability to the system d. gives additional mobility

Answer a. precise and rapid transmission of data between stations 35. This is a very important method used in synchro receivers to prevent the rotor from spinning or oscillating,

a. jumping b. precession c. corresponding d. damping

Answer d. damping 36. When will a synchro generate more heat than it is design to handle?

a. when underload b. when overshoot c. when overload d. when exposed to fire

Answer c. when overload 37. When can a maximum voltage is induced in the stator coil of a synchro?

a. when the stator coil rotates b. when the rotor coil is aligned with the

stator coil c. when both coils rotates d. when the rotor coil is magnetized by the

stator coil

Answer b. when the rotor coil is aligned with the stator coil

38. It is the name given to the electrical output of the control transformer

a. error signal b. correct signal c. differential signal d. error free signal

Answer a. error signal 39. In a servo system, there are series of overshoots which are known as :

a. eating b. climbing c. hunting d. resting

Answer c. hunting

40. This principle stabilizes a system to minimize the problem of overshoot.

a. clamping b. fanning c. damping d. lagging

Answer c. damping 41. It is the property of gyro causing it to tilt in a direction perpendicular to the direction of any outside force.

a. Recession b. Tecession c. Precession d. Post session

Answer c. Precession 42. It is the tendency of a spinning wheel to remain in fixed position in space.

a. mobility b. rigidity c. accuracy d. alternativity

Answer b. rigidity 43. A universally mounted gyro has how many gimbals?

a. one b. two c. three d. four

Answer b. two 44. In what direction will a gyro precess in response to an outside force?

a. perpendicular to the force b. perpendicular to the spin axis c. parallel to the force d. parallel to the spin axis

Answer a. perpendicular to the force 45. How many degrees of freedom does a rate gyro usually have?

a. one b. two c. three d. four

Answer a. one 46. What gyro characteristics provide the basis for the operation of rate gyro?

a. decision b. precession c. weight d. spin

Answer b. precession

47. Of the following term, which accurately describes a synchro?

a. position sensing b. electromechanical c. rotary d. all of the above

Answer d. all of the above 48. Control systems are used in what particular application.

a. light load b. heavy load c. medium load d. all of the above

Answer b. heavy load 49. What is defined as a device that gives an indication usually in the form of a voltage that is proportional to the acceleration to which it is subjected? (April, 2004)

a. inertia meter b. accelerometer c. Speedometer d. voltmeter

Answer b. accelerometer 50. Who discovered the principle of gyros?

a. Leon Focult b. Tiger Focult c. Leonard Focult d. John Davis Focult

Answer a. Leon Focult XII - ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION 1. Errors in analog meter reading due to your physical position with respect to the meter scale a. parallax error b. angular error c. linear error d. deviation Answer a. parallax error 2. Instrument having recognized permanent or stable value that is used as a reference. a. standard instrument b. reference instrument c. fixed instrument d. ideal instrument Answer a. standard instrument 3. The smallest change in measured variable to which an instrument will respond. a. quantized value b. resolution c. minimum d. step size

Answer b. resolution 4. What is the most common type of meter movement? a. Fixed coil b. Iron Vane c. D’ Arsonval d. Electrodynamometer Answer c. D’ Arsonval 5. What ammeter is mostly used in measuring high frequency currents? a. electrostatic b. moving-coil c. dynamometer d. thermocouple Answer d. thermocouple 6. It is a device tat mechanically measure the output power of a motor a. Megger b.Concentric-vane instrument c. radial-vane instrument d. dynamometer Answer d. dynamometer 7. Error in voltmeter reading is due to a. loading b. battery aging c. conversion d. insertion Answer a. loading 8. It is a meter that requires its own power source. a. voltmeter b. ammmeter c. wattmeter d. ohmmeter Answer d. ohmmeter 9. Error in ohmmeter reading is due to: a. insertion b. loading c. battery aging d. meter friction Answer c. battery aging 10. The zero adjust control in an analog type ohmmeter is used to a. compensate for the differing internal battery voltage b. make sure the pointer is moving correctly c. align the infinity resistance position d. align the zero-voltage position

Answer a. compensate for the differing internal battery voltage 11. With no added gadget, D’Arsonval meter can be used to measure a. AC b. AC and DC c. DC d. dynamic resistance Answer c. DC 12. Type of power line frequency meters composed of vibrating ion reeds placed in alternating magnetic field a. induction type b. electrodynamic type c. resonant type d. vibrating reed type Answer d. vibrating reed type 13. Electrodynamometer can be used to measure a. AC b. DC c. AC and DC d. dynamic resistance Answer c. AC and DC 14. An iron vane is used to measure a. AC b. AC and DC c. DC d. dynamic resistance Answer c. AC and DC 15. It is the reciprocal of the full scale current of a meter. a. transconductance b selectivity c. sensitivity d. dynamic resistance Answer c. sensitivity 16. What is the device that is used to measure current without opening the circuit? a. multi-meter b. megger tester c. ammeter d. clamp probe Answer d. clamp probe 17. A bridge used to locate accidental ground on communication and power lines. a. Owen’s bridge b. Murray loop c. Schering bridge d. Kelvin bridge

Answer b. Murray loop 18. An AC bridge that measures capacitance and dissipation factor a. Owen’s bridge b. Schering bridge c. Heaviside bridge d. Kelvin bridge Answer b. Schering bridge 19. Instrumentation amplifier employs how many op-amps? a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3 Answer d. 3 20. It consists of a diode and an op-amp and has the ability to clip low level signals. a. window comparator b. precision diode c. level detector d. instrumentation amplifier Answer b. precision diode 21. An electronic measuring device that provides instantaneous visual indication of voltage excursions. a. power line meter b. voltmeter c. oscilloscope d. power meter Answer c. oscilloscope 22. A_____ is a device that can test all pins of an IC at the same time. a. logic probe b. pulser c. current tracer d. logic clip Answer d. logic clip 23. How does an ohmmeter behaves if its positive lead is connected to the cathode of a diode while negative to anode? a. has decreasing resistance b. has unstable resistance c. has very low resistance d. has infinite resistance Answer d. has infinite resistance 24. What is the purpose of the rheostat in ohmmeter? a. balancing resistance b. counter resistance of measured circuit c. compensate aging battery of the meter d. coil resistance

Answer c. compensate aging battery of the meter 25. In indicating instruments, what would happen to the controlling torque if the deflection becomes greater? a. increases b. decreases c. remains unchanged d. drops to zero Answer a. increases 26. In a moving coil ammeter, a _______ is connected in series with the coil to compensate for temperature variations a. limiting resistor b. shunt resistor c. multiplier d. swamping resistor Answer d. swamping resistor 27. It is a property of spectrum analyzer whereby it simultaneously displays the amplitude of all the signals in the frequency range a. functional b. frequency dependence c. real time d. on time Answer c. real time 28. What is the distortion that is caused by non-linear operation of amplifier? a. harmonic distortion b. frequency distortion c. time distortion d. no distortion Answer a. harmonic distortion 29. This device extend the range of a potentiometer very easily and conveniently a. volt can b. volt box c. volt container d. volt drawer Answer b. volt box 30. It is the null detector of Wheatstone bridge that indicates balance. a. goniometer b. oscilloscope c. galvanometer d. electrodynamometer Answer c. galvanometer

31. It is a precision instrument that operates on the null principle with primary application of measuring unknown voltages. a. potentiometer b. rheostat c. bridges d. VOM Answer a. potentiometer 32. It is a precision voltage divider network, sometimes called a resistance ladder used in conjunction with a potentiometer. a. ladder circuits b. hybrid circuits c. volt box d. black box Answer c. volt box 33. What do you call the condition of a bridge that indicates zero current flowing through the detector? a. unbalance b. balance c. ideal d. perfect Answer b. balance 34. A term used to indicate that no current is flowing through a galvanometer, hence the pointer is resting at center scale zero meaning the bridge is balanced a. No indication b. Zero indication c. Blank indication d. Null indication Answer d. Null indication 35. This is a device that is made out of similar metals wherein contact potential is developed across the junction of two metals. a. thermocouple b. photocell c. zero set d. thermometer Answer a. thermocouple 36. It is the circuit in oscillator that provides amplification of the signal to be applied to the vertical deflection plate a. Horizontal amplifier b. Vertical amplifier c. Phosphor d. Delayed sweep Answer a. Horizontal amplifier 37. This are patterns are form when applying periodic signals to the deflection plates of an oscilloscope

a. Vissaous figure b. Jams figure c. Lissajous figure d. Assailus figure Answer c. Lissajous figure 38. It is the time required for an electron beam to return to its original position a CRT screen after being deflected to the right by the sawtooth waveform a. trace time b. retrace time c. fly time d. sweep return time Answer b. retrace time 39. These are damped oscillations that occur in improperly adjusted or poorly designed circuits a. singing b. ringing c. twinkling d. dancing Answer b. ringing 40. These are undesired change in waveform which can be a change in frequency, phase, transient or intermodulation a. drift b. deviation c. distortion d. difference Answer b. deviation XIII – MEDICAL AND BIO-ELECTRONICS 1. It is the plainly visible, colored ring that surrounds the pupil. a. iris b. retina c. cornea d. lens Answer a. iris 2. Who first proposed in 1985 that no two irises are alike? They researched and documented the potential of using the iris for identifying people and were awarded patent in 1987. a. Dr Leonard Flom and Dr. Aran Safir b. D. John Daugman c. Dr. Andrew Cope d. Dr. Lars Rasmussen Answer a. Dr Leonard Flom and Dr. Aran Safir 3. The official international organization in Biometrics a. ISO/IEC JTC1 SC 37 b. IBIA

c. INCITS M1 d. ANSI Answer a. ISO/IEC JTC1 SC 37 4. When was Wilhelm Roentgen discovered X-ray? a. 1895 b. 1896 c. 1897 d. 1898 Answer a. 1895 5. This is a low-noise, biological isolation amplifier suitable to connection to measuring electrodes attached anywhere on the human body a. bios amplifier b. physio amplifier c. op-amp d. bioamplifier Answer d. bioamplifier 6. This device detects electrical signals from the brain using the 8-16 pair of electrodes attached to the scalp. a. EEG b. ECG c. EMG d. ENG Answer a. EEG 7. What is the natural pacemaker of the body? a. ventricular node b. sinus node c. atrium d. aorta Answer b. sinus node 8. This device uses a high frequency sound waves to “echo” off the body to examined kidneys, liver etc a. Ultrasound b. SONAR c. X-ray d. CT-scan Answer a. Ultrasound 9. This medical equipment obtain multiple cross sectional images of the organ concerned a. Ultrasound b. SONAR c. X-ray d. CT-scan Answer d. CT-scan 10. It is a non-invasive test that records the electrical activity of the heart

a. Electrocardiogram b. Electromyogram c. Electroencephalogram d. mammography Answer a. Electrocardiogram 11. Assess the health of the muscles and the nerves controlling the muscles a. Electrocardiogram b. Electromyogram c. Electroencephalogram d. mammography Answer b. Electromyogram XIV – ROBOTICS 1. A robot that has the approximate appearance of a human being

a. Android b. Cyborg c. Nemic d. Inhumanoid

Answer a. Android 2. A short term meaning a human being with artificial limbs or organs

a. Android b. Cyborg c. Nemic d. Inhumanoid

Answer b. Cyborg

3. The operational basis for a machine, computer or mechanism to perform some function normally associated with human intelligence

a. Intelligence b. Artificial Intelligence c. Knowledge d. Heuristics

Answer b. Artificial Intelligence 4. A robot that performs tasks in the home

a. Household robot b. Robomaid c. Domestic robot d. Buddy Robot

Answer c. Domestic robot

5. A program written by Joseph Weizenbaun to meet Turing’s definition of artificial intelligence.

a. MACBETH b. ELIZA c. AMJ d. PARALLAX

Answer b. ELIZA

6. The desirable characteristics for handling the robots are

a. Good pay load capacity b. Large work space/robot size ratio c. Simple point to point control d. All of the above

Answer d. All of the above 7. SCARA robots are specifically designed for ______operations.

a. handling b. welding c. assembly d. machining

Answer c. assembly 8. Robot classification is usually based on

a. Its manipulators anatomy b. Its controller design c. Its suitability for production tasks d. All of the above

Answer d. All of the above 9. Which of the following country maintains the highest ratio of robot worker to human worker?

a. USA b. UK c. Japan d. Germany

Answer c. Japan 10. A modern industrial robot is _______.

a. multi-functional b. servo-controlled c. programmable d. all of the above

Answer d. all of the above 11. DC motors and stepper motors are mainly used in robots instead of AC motors because they can

a. Be electronically controlled b. Be operated by electric pulses c. Withstand large overloads d. Run at varying speed

Answer c. Withstand large overloads 12. Any solid object has a maximum _______degrees of freedom.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Answer d. 6 13. Programming of a continuous path robot is normally carried out by a method called ________through.

a. lead b. drive c. walk d. run

Answer c. walk

14. The essential feature of a non-servo controlled robot is that

a. it requires programmable logic controller b. each of its axis can move only between hardware stops c. it is small d. it is used for heavy loads

Answer b. each of its axis can move only between hardware stops 15. The word “robot” was coined by

a. Kondratieff b. Karel Capek c. Cyril Walter Kenward d. Jaime Licuanan

Answer b. Karel Capek 16. ________robot is primaril;y used for machining processes

a. Cincinatti T3 b. DEA PRAGMA c. ADEPT One d. Jolly 80

Answer a. Cincinatti T3 17. Serves as the muscle of the system, produces the motion with power supplied electrically, pneumatically or hydraulically. a. Communicator b. Control Computer c. Actuator d. Manipulator Answer c. Actuator 18. The arm assembly of the robot.

a. End effector b. Manipulator c. Actuator d. Controller

Answer b. Manipulator 19. ________is a device connected to the wrist’s flange of the manipulator’s arm. It is used in many different situations in the production area.

a. End effector b. Manipulator c. Controller d. Actuator

Answer a. End effector

20. Refers to the movement of the base of the robot

a. Actuation b. Walk c. Travel d. Precession

Answer c. Travel 21. What is the other name for the axes found on the manipulator?

a. appendage b. cycle time c. degrees of freedom d. actuator

Answer c. degrees of freedom 22. Describes the wrist’s angular movement from the left side to the right side.

a. Pitch b. Roll c. Rotation d. Yaw

Answer d. Yaw 23. _______is a computer language developed in the 1950s at MIT. It is designed to manipulate lists of symbols and is well suited for working with words and phrases

a. RAIL b. BASIC c. LISP d. WAVE

Answer c. LISP 24. A high level programming language which was developed at the robotics research center at Stanford University. It is useful for robotics research because it can provide coordination between two arms of the robot.

a. MCL b. AL c. RPL d. Assembly language

Answer b. AL 25. It is a high level computer language developed by Robotronic Corporation to make commanding a personal robot easier

a. Androtext b. ARMBASIC c. AML d. HELP

Answer a. Androtext 26. It is considered as the robot’s brain. a. chain knucle b. sensor c. end effector d. controller

Answer d. controller 27. This is used to program and teach positional information for the manipulator. a. operator’s panel b. computer control c. manual data input panel d. teach pendant Answer d. teach pendant 28. It is a robot software that produces only two position motion a. pick and stop programs b. point to point programs c. continuous path programs d. positive stop programs Answer d. positive stop programs 29. A user program that has the ability to move a robot axis to any position within its range. a. pick and place b. point to point c. positive stop d. continuous path Answer b. point to point 30. What are the basic categories of industrial robot? a. fast and slow b. mechanical and electrical c. autobots and deceptions d. pick and place manipulator and intelligent robot Answer d. pick and place manipulator and intelligent robot 31. It is a robot which is capable of decision making and has memory. a. pick and place robot b. expert robot c. continuous robot d. intelligent robot Answer d. intelligent robot 32. It is a robot structure wherein the body can pivot vertically and horizontally and the arm moves radially. a. polar structure b. pivotal c. cylindrical structure d. roborat Answer a. polar structure 33. It is a robot structure wherein the body can rotate horizontally and the arm can move vertically and horizontally. a. polar structure

b. pivotal c. cylindrical structure d. roborat Answer c. cylindrical structure 34. The total weight that a robot arm can carry. a. burden capacity b. payload c. gripper d. power Answer b. payload 35. Which is not the usual power source that steers the arm of the robot? a. thermionic b. hydraulic c. pneumatic d. electric Answer a. thermionic 36. The ______are two of the most common mechanical configurations of industrial robots. a. spherical and pneumatic b. articulated arm and cylindrical c. spherical and hydraulic d. jointed-arm and electric Answer b. articulated arm and cylindrical 37. A system in which the precise movement of a large load is controlled by a relatively weak signal. a. hydraulic b. electro c. synchro d. servo Answer d. servo 38. A limited robot sequence is__________. a. pick and place b. point to point c. continuous path d. robota Answer a. pick and place 39. The first patent for an industrial robot was developed in 1954 by_______. a. Asimov b. Maniko c. Devol d. Hitachi Answer c. Devol 40. The operational space of a robot is________. a. coordinate system b. dead zone c. degrees of freedom

d. work envelope Answer c. degrees of freedom 41. The individual sections of the robot arm between the joints are_______. a. arms b. branches c. links d. axes Answer c. links 42. The control system for sport welding is__________. a. point to point b. pick and place c. continuous path d. point to multi-point Answer a. point to point 43. _______is a type of actuator of industrial robots that has great force capability and great holding strength when stopped. a. pneumatic b. steam c. electric d. hydraulic Answer d. hydraulic 44. __________, a professor at MIT publishes cybernetics, a book which describes the concept of communications and control in electronic, mechanical and biological systems a. Willard Polard b. Seward Babitt c. John Mauchly d. Norber Wiener Answer d. Norber Wiener 45. Stanford Research Institute (SRI) built and tested a mobile robot with vision capability is called ________. a. Unimate b. Universal automation c. Cybernetics d. Shakey Answer d. Shakey 46. Riochard Hohn for Cincinnati Milacron Corporation develops the first commercially available minicomputer-controlled industrial robot. The robot is called the ______.The Tomorrow Tool. a. T3 b. Universal Automation c. Versatran d. Shakey Answer a. T3

47. Joseph Engelberger starts Transition Robotics, later named _______, to develop service robots. a. Helpmates b. Playmates c. Classmates d. Servicemates Answer a. Helpmates 48. The ability of a robot to produce meaningful speech output a. Speech synthesis b. Speech detection c. Speech refinement d. Speech recognition Answer a. Speech synthesis 49. The length of time in years required for a robot to pay for itself through the savings it provides. a. Propagation Period b. Delay period c. Payload period d. Payback Period Answer d. Payback Period 50. Condensed human intelligence on some subject area. A human is led through the system by answering a series of questions asked by the system. a. Robot choreography b. Expert system c. Roboteer d. Knowledge system Answer b. Expert system XV – DIGITAL ELECTRONICS 1. Convert 8.5016 - _____8 a. 10.24 b. 8.24 c. 8.5 d. 1.24 Answer a. 10.24 2. What is the 7’s complement of 10357? a. 67427 b. 56317

c. 56327

d. 67437

Answer c. 56327

Solution 7’s KPL = 6666-1035 +1 = 5632 3. Binary 111111 is equivalent to: a. 64

b. 63 c. 128 d. 127 Answer b. 63 4. In a digital system, the number level is: a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 Answer a. 2 5. In a progression of 0, 1, 10, 11….what comes next after 11? a. 12 b. 120 c. 110 d. 100 Answer d. 100 Note: The succeeding term is binary 1 + previous term of the progression 6. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which _____. a. works on binary algebra b. makes logical decision c. alternates between 1 and 0 d. allow the flow of current in a single direction Answer b. makes logical decision 7. If A =0, B =0, then A’B’ is a. 1 b. 0 c. 10 d. either 1 or 0 Answer a. 1 8. In Boolean algebra, A +A+A+A+…+A is the same as a. 5A b. nA c. A d. infinite Answer c. A 9. A + B =Y is the Boolean function for a. AND gate b. NAND gate c. NOR gate d. OR gate Answer d. OR gate 10. Which of the following is an inverter? a. common base amplifier b. common emitter amplifier c. common collector amplifier d. common gate amplifier

Answer c. common collector amplifier 11. Which gate corresponds to the action of parallel switches? a. OR gate b. NOR gate c. NAND gate d. Not gate Answer a. OR gate 12. The number of full adders in a 4-bit parallel adder will be a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer b. 3 13. A half adder includes a. a NAND gate with OR gate b. a NAND gate with XOR gate c. only AND gate d. neither OR nor XOR nor AND gate Answer b. a NAND gate with XOR gate 14. A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because a. it is used by everybody b. any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone c. all the minimization techniques are

applicable for optimum NAND gate realization

d. many digital computers use NAND gates Answer b. any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone 15. The expression AB + AB’ + AC’ + A’C’ will be a. 0 b. A c. ABC d. 1 Answer d. 1 16. The bubble or small circle on the output of a NAND gate and NOR gate represents; a. addition b. subtraction c. product d. complementation Answer d. complementation 17. Current drawn when the number 8 is on the LED display is________. a. 140 nA b. 140μA c. 560 mA

d. 5.6 A Answer a. 140 nA 18. Current displayed for a four-digit liquid crystal display that reads the number 8888 is of the order of a. 560 nA b. 560 μA c. 560 mA d. 2.6 A Answer c. 560 mA 19. The fan out of a 7400 NAND gate is a. 2 TTL b. 5 TTL c. 8 TTL d. 10 TTL Answer a. 2 TTL 20. What term is used to refer to the positional value of a digit? a. weight b. radix c. decimal d. multiplier Answer a. weight 21. The maximum propagation value in case of a 7400 NAND gates is a. 1 second b. 20 millisecond c. less than 20 nanosecond d. less than 20 picosecond Answer c. less than 20 nanosecond 22. The refreshing rate of dynamic RAMs is in the range of a. 2 microseconds b. 2 milliseconds c. 50 milliseconds d. 500 milliseconds Answer b. 2 milliseconds 23. TTL circuit configuration resembles what type of gate? a. OR gate b. NOR gate c. AND gate d. NAND gate Answer d. NAND gate 24. Emitter Coupled Logic (ECL) has a very fast switching speed as compared to the rest of logic families, what is then its typical switching time? a. 5 sec b. 5 millisec c. 5 microsec

d. 5 nanosec Answer d. 5 nanosec 25. Logic circuits can be sequential or combinational, what is the output of a sequential circuit? a. present input states b. past input states c. future input states d. past and the present input states Answer d. past and the present input states 26. For a TTL gate, the recommended and standard fan out is _____. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 Answer b.10 27. Phanastron is a ________. a. speed circuit b. toggle circuit c. data circuit d. delay circuit Answer d. delay circuit 28. To represent number 44 in binary, what is the number of bits required? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 Answer c. 6 29. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, this is termed as______. a. logic levels b. noise margin c. power consumption d. propagation delay Answer b. noise margin 30. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus loading factor is likely to be: a. resistive b. current c. capacitive d. inductive Answer c. capacitive 31. Data selector is also called________. a. encoder b. decoder c. multiplexer d. demultiplexer

Answer c. multiplexer 32. Refers to the ability of a logic circuit to withstand noise superimposed on its input signal a. low noise immunity b. high noise immunity c. noise immunity d. noise figure Answer c. noise immunity 33. CMOS, NMOS and PMOS belong to MOS family, what is (are) their significance? a. they have lower power dissipation than bipolar devices b. they are slower than bipolar devices c. they are most sensitive to electrostatic d. all of the above Answer d. all of the above 34. Another name for Universal Logic Module (ULM) a. Multiplexer b. decoder c. Demultiplexer d. shift register Answer a. Multiplexer 35. It is an undesirable condition which may exist in a system when 2 or more inputs change simultaneously. a. race condition b. contest c. drive condition d. noise immunity Answer a. race condition 36. What is the memory element used in clocked sequential logic circuit? a. gates b. Flip-flop c. Static Ram d. Read Only Memory Answer b. Flip-flop 37. What is the function of flip-flop as logic element? a. stores binary data b. generates clock signal c. relay data d. makes decision Answer a. stores binary data 38. ______is not a type of flip flop a. RS b. Latch c. D d. register

Answer d. register 39. ______is a device that stay on once triggered and store one or two conditions as a digital circuit. a. gate b. latch c. integrator d. differentiator Answer b. latch 40. A flipflop whose output is the same as its input. This is sometimes used as a delay element. a. RS flipflop b. D flipflop c. T flipflop d. JK flipflop Answer b. D flipflop 41. Memory whose contents are lost when electrical power is removed. a. non volatile b. volatile c. dynamic d. static Answer b. volatile 42. Sequential access digital memory uses what storage circuit? a. parallel register b. shift register c. dynamic RAM d. EEPROM Answer b. shift register 43. The_______is ultraviolet light erasable and electrically programmable a. ROM b. RAM c. PROM d. EPROM Answer d. EPROM 44. In register index addressing mode the effective address is given by: a. index register value b. sum of the index register value and operand c. the operand d. difference of the index register value and the operand Answer b. sum of the index register value and operand 45. The Integration Injection Logic has higher density of integration than TTL because it

a. does not require transistors with high current gain b. uses compact bipolar transistor c. does nor require isolation diffusion d. uses dynamic logic instead of static logic Answer b. uses compact bipolar transistor 46. Dynamic RAM uses capacitor as its data storage element, while static RAM uses_____. a. inductor b. register c. flip flop d. magnet Answer c. flip flop 47. An electronic counter in which bistable units are cascaded to form a loop a. ring counter b. twisted ring counter c. bistable counter d. UP/DOWN counter Answer a. ring counter 48. This type of memory sandwiches a thin film with magnetic material between two permanent bias magnets a. bubble memory b. soap memory c. magnetic memory d. RAM Answer a. bubble memory 49. A memory circuit has 9 address inputs has how many storage locations? a. 255 b. 256 c. 512 d. 511 Answer c. 512 Solution # of address = 2n = 29= 512 50. The density of data stored on magnetic tape is expressed as a. units per inch b. tracks per inch c. packs per inch d. bytes per inch Answer d. bytes per inch XVI – COMPUTERS 1. Step by step instructions that runs the computer are________. a. hardware

b. CPU c. documents d. programs Answer d. programs 2. Desktop and personal computers are other names of: a. microcomputers b. minicomputers c. mainframes d. peripheral equipment Answer a. minicomputers 3. The raw material hat is to be processed by the computer is called_____. a. program b. software c. data d. information Answer c. data 4. A bar code reader is an example of a. processing device b. input device c. output device d. storage device Answer b. input device 5. The unit that transforms data into information is the: a. CPU b. disk drive c. bar code reader d. wand reader Answer a. CPU 6. A system whereby computers and data storage are placed in dispersed locations is known as: a. centralized processing b. distributed data processing c. summarizing d. packaged software Answer b. distributed data processing 7. Another name for available for purchase software is a. secondary software b. packaged software c. system software d. peripheral software Answer b. packaged software 8. Which of the following is an acronym for a computer department? a. MIS b. CPU c. PDA

d. LAN Answer a. MIS 9. People ho prepared data for processing are: a. programmers b. printers c. librarians d. data entry operators Answer d. data entry operators 10. Another name for memory is: a. secondary storage b. primary storage c. disk storage d. tape storage Answer b. primary storage 11. Which is not a computer classification? a. maxicomputer b. microcomputer c. minicomputer d. mainframe Answer a. maxicomputer 12. When all access and processing is done in one location, a computer system is said to be: a. networked b. centralized c. distributed d. linked Answer b. centralized 13. An input device that translates motion of a ball rolled on a flat surface to the screen is the: a. wand reader b. bar code reader c. keyboard d. mouse Answer d. mouse 14. The most powerful computers are the_________. a. superinis b. supermainframes c. supermicros d. supercomputers Answer d. supercomputers 15. Laser beam technology is used for_______. a. terminals b. optical disk c. keyboards d. magnetic tape Answer b. optical disk

16. This is a small amount of very fast memory deigned for the specific purpose of speeding up the internal transfer of data and software instructions. a. bakes b. cache c. flash d. stane Answer b. cache 17. The complex set of electrical circuitry that executes program instructions is called the: a. register b. accumulator c. central processing unit d. bus line Answer c. central processing unit 18. A bus line consist of_______. a. registers b. parallel data paths c. accumulators d. arithmetic operators Answer b. parallel data paths 19. The primary storage units are also known as: a. storage registers b. mass storage c. accumulators d. memory Answer d. memory 20. Data and instructions are put into primary storage by: a. memory b. secondary storage c. the control unit d. the ALU Answer c. the control unit 21. Registers that collect the results of computations are________. a. general purpose b. storage registers c. main storage d. accumulators Answer d. accumulators 22. During E-time, the ALU_______. a. examines the instruction b. executes the instruction c. enters the instructions d. elicits the instructions Answer b. executes the instruction

23. When the control unit directs the ALU to perform an operation on the data, the machine cycle is involved I its_______. a. first step b. second step c. third step d. fourth step Answer c. third step 24. Computer operations are synchronized by: a. the CPU clock b. the binary system c. the octal system d. E-time Answer a. the CPU clock 25. What is a logic chip? a. PROM b. microprocessor c. memory d. ROM Answer b. microprocessor 26. Data is represented o a computer by means of a two-state on/off system called_______. a. a word b. a byte c. the binary system d. RAM Answer c. the binary system 27. Memory capacity may be expressed in_______. a. microseconds b. bits c. kilobytes d. cycles Answer c. kilobytes 28. A type of computer that is faster because it has fewer instructions: a. symbolic b. ASCII-8 c. RISC d. ROM burner Answer c. RISC 29. An emerging technology that provides non-volatile memory chips is: a. flash memory b. CMOS c. PROM d. CISC Answer a. flash memory 30. The data coding scheme that is American Standard is: a. ASCII

b. SIMM c. KB d. gigabyte Answer a. ASCII 31. An organic chip is called a ______. a. storage chip b. microchip c. biochip d. silicon chip Answer c. biochip 32. Entering data into the system as a by product of the activity that generates the data is called: a. source data automation b. discrete word system c. CAD/CAM d. MICR entry Answer a. source data automation 33. The rate of screen refreshment is called________. a. pixel speed b. bit-map speed c. raster rate d. scan rate Answer d. scan rate 34. Imaging uses what device to input data? a. scanner b. bar code reader c. icon d. tablet Answer a. scanner 35. A printer that forms characters from a series of dots is called_______. a. dot matrix b. MICR c. scanner d. plotter Answer a. dot matrix 36. The density of data stored on magnetic tape is expressed as: a. units per inch b. tracks per inch c. packs per inch d. bytes per inch Answer d. bytes per inch 37. Assigning more sectors to outer disk tracks is called: a. zone recording b. data transfer c. randomizing

d. sectoring Answer a. zone recording 38. The ability to return a changed disk record to its original location is called: a. magneto optical b. multimedia c. rotational delay d. updating in place Answer d. updating in place 39. Processing transactions in groups is called: a. data transfer b. transaction processing c. head switching d. batch processing Answer d. batch processing 40. Hashing to get an address is the process of applying formula to a_______. a. key b. file c. record d. character Answer a. key 41. The time required for the access arm get into position over a particular track is_______. a. rotational delay b. seek time c. data transfer d. head switching Answer b. seek time 42. The speed with which a disk can find data being sought is called: a. access time b. direct time c. data transfer time d. cylinder time Answer a. access time 43. A way of physically organizing data on a disk pack to minimize seek time uses________. a. sequential file b. the cylinder method c. removable hard disk cartridge d. Winchester technology Answer b. the cylinder method 44. Centralized processing but with the access from terminals is known as a. teleprocessing system b. telecommuting c. ring network d. dial up system Answer a. teleprocessing system

45. The presence of both data and its related instructions in an object is_____. a. C++ b. orientation c. encapsulation d. inheritance Answer c. encapsulation 46. During the development of a program, drawing a flow chart is a means to: a. plan the solution b. define the problem c. code the program d. define the problem Answer a. plan the solution 47. The process of detecting, locating and correcting logic errors is called a. desk checking b. debugging c. translating d. documenting Answer b. debugging 48. The ability of an object to interpret a message using its own method is called______. a. polymorphism b. inheritance c. encapsulation d. messaging Answer a. polymorphism 49. The lowest level of programming language is the________. a. non procedural language b. BASIC c. assembly language d. machine language Answer d. machine language 50. The language Smalltalk is_________. a. procedural oriented b. problem oriented] c. document oriented d. object oriented Answer d. object oriented