ssc cgl practice test-2

7/25/2019 SSC CGL Practice Test-2

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

CLASSMATE ACADEMY

Time Allowed : 2 Hour Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. This Booklet contains 200 questions in all

comprising the following four parts.

Part- A : General Intelligence &

Reasoning (50 Questions)

Part-B : General Knowledge

& General Awareness (50 Questions)

Part-C: Quantitative

Aptitude (50 Questions)Part-D: English

Comprehension (50 Questions)

2. Keep your mobile and electronic gadgets in

silent or switchoff mode. Dont cause

incovinience to others.

3. All questions are compulsory and carry equal

marks

4. The paper carries negative marking 0.25marks

will be deducted for each wrong answer.5. Before you start to answer the questions you

must check up this Booklet and ensure that it

contains all the pages and see that no page is

missing or repeated. If you find any defect in

this Booklet, you must get it replaced

immediately

6. You wil l be supplied the Answer Sheet

separately by the Invigilator. You must

complete and code the details of Name, Roll

Number, Ticket Number and Tes t Form

Numbe r on Side -I of the Answer Sheet

carefully. You must also put your signature and

Left Hand thumb impression on the Answer

Sheet at the prescribed place before you

actually start answering the questions. These

instructions must be fully complied with,failing

which, your, Answer Sheet will not be

evaluated and you will be awarded ZERO

mark.

7. Answers must be shown by complete ly

black-ening the corresponding ovals on Side-II

of the Answer Sheet against the relevant ques-

tion number by Black/Blue Ball-point pen only.

Answers which are not shown by Black/Blue

Ball-point pen Will not be awarded any mark.8. A machine will read the coded information in

the OMR Answer Sheet. In case the

information is incomplete or different from the

information given in the application form, such

candidate will be awarded ZERO mark.

9. The Answer Sheet must be handed over to the

Invigilator before you leave the Examination

Hall.

10. Failure to comply with any of the aboveInstructions will render a candidate liable to such

aciton/penalty as may be deemed fit.

11. The manner in which the different questions are

to be answered has been explained at the back

of this Booklet. Which you should read

carefully before actually answering the

questions.

12. Answer the questions as quickly and as

carefully as you can. Some questions may be

difficult and other easy. Do not spend too much

time on any question

13. No rough work is to be done on the Answer

Sheet. Space for rough work has been provided

below the questions.

TS034CD01 CGL 333LP4Test Form No.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


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SSC-CGL TIER-I2


PART-A: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE &REASONING

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Directions (Q.1-4): In each of the following

questions, select the related letters/word/number

from the given alternatives.

1. 18 : 30 : : 36 : ?

(A) 54 (B) 62 (C) 64 (D) 66

2. Newspaper : Press : : Cloth : ?

(A) Tailor (B) Textile

(C) Fibre (D) Mill

3. acE : bdF : : fhJ: ?

(A) giK (B) ghK

(C) dfH (D) fhL

4. Flower: Petal: : Book:?

(A) Library (B) Page

(C) Contents (D) Author

5. The group of letters should not contain more thantwo vowels.

(A) BDEJOLY (B) JKAPIXU

(C) PRAQEOS (D) ZILERAM

6. If 'NEUROTIC' can be written as 'TICRONEU"

then how can 'PSYCHOTIC' be written?

(A) TICOCHPSY (B) TICCHOPSY

(C) TICCOHPSY (D) TICHCOPSY

Directions (Q.7-8): In each of the following, which

one set of letters when sequentially placed at the

gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

7. cccbb_aa_cc_bbbaa_c

(A) acbc (B) baca

(C) baba (D) acba

8. a_c_abb_a_bc_bc_ab

(A) cbcaaa (B) bcccab

(C) bccaac (D) acbabc


questions, find the odd one from the given

alternatives.9. 3, 2, 8, 9, 13, 22, 18, 32, 23, 42

(A) 8 (B) 9

(C) 13 (D) 22

10. (A) MKGA (B) PNID

(C) RPLF (D) VTPJ

11. (A) OTP (B) ABA

(C) SZX (D) UVB

12. (A) 16-18 (B) 56-63

(C) 96-108 (D) 86-99

13. (A) Archaeology (B) Ecology

(C) Epigraph (D) Palaeontology


questions, a series is given with missing term(s).

Choose the correct alternative from the given ones

that will complete the series.

14. 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343

(A) 25 (B) 87 (C) 120 (D) 125

15. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ?

(A) 36I19 (B) 36J21

(C) 48J21 (D) 48J2316. C, Z, F, X, I, V, L, T, O, ?, ?

(A) O, P (B) P, Q

(C) R, R (D) S, R

17. 6, 18, 3, 21, 7, 56,?

(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 63 (D) 64

18. 90,180,12,50,100,200,?,3,50,4,25,2,6,30,3

(A) 150 (B) 175

(C) 225 (D) 250

19. If MINJUR is coded as 312547 and TADA as6898, how can MADURAI be coded?

(A) 3498178 (B) 3894871

(C) 3849781 (D) 3894781

20. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is

D's mother. Then, how is A related to D?

(A) Grandmother (B) Grandfather

(C) Daughter (D) Grand daughter

21. A is fatter than B who is thinner than C. D is thinner

than A but fatter than C. Two other men are fatter

than A. Who is the thinnest?

(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) A

22. Ram goes 15 meters North then turns right and walks

20 meters, then again turns right and walks 10

meters, then again turns right and walks 20 meters.

How far is he from his original position?

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20


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questions, from the given alternatives select the word

which cannot be formed using the letters of the given

word.

23. TRANSFORM

(A) TRAIN (B) FORT

(C) ROAM (D) RANSOM

24. ORGANISATION

(A) NATION (B) GRANT

(C)RECOGNISE (D) SATAN

25. QUESTIONNAIRE

(A) QUESTOR (B) QUEUE

(C) QUINATE (D) QUERIES

26. If 'bangle' is called 'cassette', 'cassette' is called

'table', 'table' is called 'game' and 'gane' is called

'cupboard', then which is played in the tape

recorder?(A) Bangle (B) Cassette

(C) Table (D) Cupboard

27. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round

table. A is between E and F, E is opposite D, and C

is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. Who

is opposite to B?

(A) C (B) D

(C) F (D) None of these

28. Which one would be a meaningful order of the

following?(a) Electricity (b) Dam

(c) Lights (d) River

(e) Power House

(A) d, b, a, c , e (B) d, b, e, c, a

(C) d, b, c, a, e (D) d, b, e, a, c

29. If ' ' means ' ', ' ' means ' ', '+' means ' ' and' ' means '+', then what will be the value of thefollowing expression?

16 8 4 3+9=?(A) 10 (B) 19

(C) 20 (D) 9

30. If A>B, B>C and C>D, then which of the following

conclusions is definitely wrong?

(A) A>D (B) A>C

(C) D>A (D) B>D

31. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs

to replace ' ' sign and to balance the given equation.24 34 2 5 12(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (Q.32-36):Select the missing number/

figure from the given responses.

32. Select the missing number from responses.

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 18 (D) 2

33.

(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 24 (D) 32

34.

5 20 6 9

4 8 12 16

9 15 7 9

22 7 8 ?

(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 2

35.

(A) (B) (C) (D)


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SSC-CGL TIER-I4



36.

(A) (B) (C) (D)


questions, statements are given followed by

conclusions. You have to consider the statements.

to be true even if they seem to be at variance from

commonly known facts. You have to decide which of

the given conclusions, if any follow from the given

statements.

37. Statements : All cars are cats.

All fans are cats.

Conclusions: I. All cars are fans.II. Some fans are cars.

(A) only conclusion I follows

(B) only conclusion II follows

(C) either conclusion I or II follows

(D) neither conclusion I nor II follows

38. Statements : No rabbit is lion.

Some horses are lions.

All rabbits are tables.

Conclusions: I. Some tables are lions.

II. Some horses are rabbits.

III. No lion is table.

(A) None follows

(B) Only either I or III follows

(C) Only II and III follow

(D) Only III follows

39. The figure represents three classes of youth in a

village. How many educated youth are poor?

(A) 6 (B) 19 (C) 14 (D) 9

40. Which diagram represents the relationship among

female, mothers and doctors?

(A) (B) (C) (D)41. A word is represented by only one set of numbers

as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of

numbers given in the alternatives are represented

by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given

below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are

numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are

numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices

can be represented first by its row and next by its

column. Identify the set for the word SHOT

Matrix-I Matrix-II

0 1 2 3 4

0 F G H O M

1 O M F G H

2 G H O M F

3 G H O M F

4 M F G H O

5 6 7 8 9

5 S T U V W

6 U V W S T

7 W S T U V

8 T U V W S

9 V W S T U

(A) 55, 03, 22, 77 (B) 89, 32, 12, 97

(C) 68, 11, 12, 97 (D) 89, 43, 03, 98

42. Select from the alternatives, the box that can beformed by folding the sheet shown in figure (X):

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) a, b and d only

(B) a, b and c only

(C) b only(D) b and d only


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questions, which answer figure will complete the

pattern in the question figure?

43.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

44.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

45. The four different positions of a dice are given below:

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Which number is on the face opposite 6?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

46. The water image of N4tQj3 is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

47. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown

below in the question figures. From the given

answer figures, indicate how it will appear whenopened.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

48. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given.

Figure out the alternative that would appear whenthe transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

49. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(A) 11 (B) 13

(C) 15 (D) 17

50. Find out of the figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) can be

formed from the pieces given in fig.(X)

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


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PART-B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & GENERAL AWARENESS51. With which of the following periods do we associ-

ate the 'microlith' implements?

(A) Palaeolithic (B) Neolithic

(C) Chalcolithic (D) Mesolithic

52. Which one among the following Indus cities was

known for water management?

(A) Lothal (B) Mohenjo-daro(C) Harappa (D) Dholavira

53. Who among the following first divided his empire

into lqtas during the process of civil administration?

(A) Aibak

(B) lltutmish

(C) Razia

(D) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

54. Which monarch called himself as the second

Alexander?

(A) Alauddin Khalji (B) Akbar(C) Samudra Gupta (D) Chandra Gupta II

55. Match the following:

a. Brahmo Samaj 1. Swami Vivekanand

b. Ramakrishna 2. Dayanand Saraswati

Mission

c. Arya Samaj 3. Ram Mohan Roy

d. Satyashodhak 4. K. Sridharalu Naidu

Samaj

5. Jyotiba Phule

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 5 1

(B) 3 1 2 4

(C) 3 1 2 5

(D) 3 2 1 5

56. Federation of Indian Chambers, Commerce and

Industries (FICCI) was established in the year:

(A) 1919 (B) 1927

(C) 1932 (D) 1937

57. Arrange the following in the chronological order and

select the correct answer from the code given

below:

1. The August Offer

2. The Cabinet Mission Plan

3. The Cripps Mission Plan

4. The Wavell Plan

(A) 1, 2, 4 ,3 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1

(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2

58. Who wrote the book 'The Republic'?

(A) Socrates (B) Aristotle

(C) Rousseau (D) Plato

59. Who was the first Indian Governor General of free

India?

(A) Raash Bihari Ghosh

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) C. Rajgopalchari

(D) Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan

60. Match the following:Constitutional Provisions Sources

(a) Federation 1. USA

(b) Parliamentary 2. Britain

(c) Directive Principle 3. Canada

(d) Fundamental RIghts 4. Ireland

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 3 4 2 1(D) 3 2 4 1

61. Right to Private Property was dropped from the list

of Fundamental Rights by the

(A) 42nd Amendment

(B) 44th Amendment

(C) 52nd Amendment

(D) None of the above

62. Match the following:

(a) Part I 1. Fundamental Rights

(b) Part III 2. Panchayati Raj(c) Part IX 3. Citizenship

(d) Part II 4. The Union and its Territory

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 2 3 1

(B) 3 1 2 4

(C) 2 3 1 4

(D) 4 1 2 3

63. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has

acted as President of India?

(A) M. Hidayatullah

(B) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar

(C) P.N. Bhagwati

(D) All of the above

64. How many times Financial Emergency has so far

been declared in India?

(A) Once (B) Twice

(C) Thrice (D) Not for a single time

65. Which one of the following regions of the world is

called ''the bread basket of the world"?

(A) Temperate grassland(B) Tropical Monsoonal region

(C) Savana grassland

(D) Equatorial region


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66. Cyclone is a system of wind blowing:

(A) spirally outwards from a high pressure region

(B) spirally towards low pressure region

(C) in a straight line from high to low pressure

region

(D) from Ball of Bengal towards Bangladesh

annually

67. Match the following:Date Conditions in Northern

Hemisphere

(a) March 21st 1. Winter Solstice

(b) June 21st 2. Autumnal Equinox

(c) September 21st 3. Summer Solstice

(d) December 22nd 4. Vernal Equinox

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 1 3 4 2(C) 2 3 1 4

(D) 4 3 2 1

68. The oldest mountains in India are

(A) Nilgiri hills (B) Aravalis

(C) Vindhyas (D) Satpuras

69. The Himalayan mountain system belongs to which

one of the following?

(A) Fold mountains (B) Volcanic mountains

(C) Block mountains (D) None of these

70. The river basin which is called 'Ruhr of India' is:

(A) Damodar (B) Hooghly

(C) Godavari (D) Swarnarekha

71. Which of the following soils is very hard to

cultivate?

(A) Alluvial (B) Black

(C) Red (D) Sandy

72. The hottest planet is :

(A) Mercury (B) Venus

(C) Jupiter (D) Saturn

73. The word economics has been derived from

"okionomia" which is a:(A) Latin word (B) Greek word

(C) African word (D) Urdu word

74. Absolute Poverty means:

(A) poverty in terms of absolute number of people

(B) poverty in terms of the basic minimum calorie

requirements

(C) poverty in terms of the prevailing price level

(D) poverty in terms of the absolute level of

unemployment

75. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quickmigration is called:

(A) Scarce currency (B) Hot currency

(C) Soft currency (D) Gold currency

76. Which of the following is correct as to the

chronological order of nationalization?

(A) RBI, SBI, 14 Banks, 6 Banks

(B) SBI, RBI, 6 Banks, 14 Banks

(C) 14 Banks, SBI, RBI, 6 Banks

(D) RBI, 6 Banks, SBI, 14 Banks

77. Rational decision making requires that:

(A) ones choices be arrived at logically and with out error.

(B) ones choices be consistent with ones goals.

(C) ones choices never vary.

(D) one makes choices that do not involve

trade-offs.

78. Contraction of demand is the result of:

(A) decrease in the number of consumers.

(B) increase in the price of the good concerned.

(C) increase in the prices of other goods.

(D) decrease in the income of purchasers.79. Pure oligopoly is based on the _________

products

(A) differentiated (B) homogeneous

(C) unrelated (D) none of the above

80. What is nano technology?

(A) it is the engineering of functonal systems at the

molecular scale.

(B) it is the engineering of functional systems at the

material scale.

(C) it is the engineering of functional systems at the

macro scale.

(D) None of these

81. Which instrument measures the intensity of

earthquake shocks?

(A) Seismograph (B) Radar

(C) Barometer (D) Thermometer

82. Light emitting diode (LED) converts

(A) light energy into electrical energy

(B) electrical energy into l ight energy

(C) thermal energy into light energy

(D) mechanical energy into electrical energy83. Rutherford's scattering experiment proved the

presence of

(A) atoms in all matter

(B) electrons in atoms

(C) neutrons in atoms

(D) nucleus in atoms

84. The neutron was discovered by ______

(A) Madam Curie (B) Chadwick

(C) Bacquerel (D) Aston

85. Which one among the following is not responsiblefor 'green house effect'?

(A) Water (B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen (D) Chlorofluorocarbons


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86. Cooking oil can be converted in vegetable ghee by

the process:

(A) Oxidation (B) Crystalization

(C) Distillation (D) Hydrogenation

87. The most electronegative element among the

following is:

(A) Fluorine (B) Oxygen

(C) Sodium (D) Sulphur 88. Which one of the following is used in preparing

match sticks?

(A) Chile saltpetre

(B) Indian saltpetre

(C) Red phosphorus

(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Which among the following elements increases the

absorption of water and calcium in plants?

(A) Manganese (B) Boron

(C) Copper (D) Molybdenum90. Which wood will become useless soon after

exposing in the open air?

(A) Soft wood (B) Fibrous wood

(C) Wet wood (D) Hard wood

91. Our bones and teeth are generally made of

(A) Tricalcium phosphate

(B) Fluoropetite

(C) Chloropetite

(D) Hydrolith

92. What is the limit of MG/DL of blood sugar in the

normal person at the time of fast?

(A) 40-60 (B) 120-150

(C) 70-100 (D) 160-200

93. The pollen grains of flowers pollinated by insects

are:

(A) smooth and dry

(B) rough and sticky

(C) rough and dry

(D) large and showy

94. In the case of test tube babies

(A) egg is fertilized in the uterus.(B) embryo completes its development in a test tube.

(C) embryo is placed in uterus after 2 months.

(D) egg is fertilized outside mother's body.

95. Rod shaped bacteria is called

(A) Bacillus (B) Spirillum

(C) Coccus (D) Coma

96. Hay fever is a sign of

(A) malnutrition

(B) allergy

(C) old age(D) over work

97. The (119th Amendment) Bill, 2013 that is related

to the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between

(A) India and Sri Lanka

(B) India and Pakistan

(C) Bangladesh and India

(D) China and India

98. Who among the following has been appointed as

the Central Vigilance Commission(A) Vijay Sharma

(B) KV Chowdary

(C) Sanjay Singh

(D) Vijay Singh

99. Who among the following has been appointed as

UN Womens Good will Ambassador for South

Asia?

(A) Salman Khan

(B) Sachin Tendulkar

(C) Farhan Akhtar(D) Aamir Khan

100. Which state has recently made voting compulsory

in local body elections

Codes:

(A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya Pradesh

(C)Gujarat (D) Uttar Pradesh


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PART-C: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

101. The difference of perimeter and diameter of a circle

is X unit. The diameter of the circle is :

(A)X

1 unit (B)

X

1 unit

(C) X

unit (D) X 1

unit

102. The perimeter of the base of a right circular

cylinder is 'a' unit. It the volume of the cylinder is V

cubic unit, then the height of the cylinder is

(A)

24a V

unit (B)

24 a

V

unit

(C)

2a V

4

unit (D) 2

4 V

a

unit

103. The base of a prism is a right angled isosceles

triangle whose hypotenuse is 'a' cm. If the height of

the prism is 'h' cm, then its volume is

(A)

2a h

4(B)

2a h

6

(C)

2a h

8(D)

2a h

12

104. A sphere and a hemisphere have the same surfacearea. The ratio of their volumes is

(A)3

:14

(B)3 3

:14

(C)3

:18

(D)3 3

:18

105. If 20% of (P+Q)=50% of (P-Q), then find P:Q

(A) 7:8 (B) 7:3

(C) 7:5 (D) 5:7

106. A man purchased 10 horses and 6 cows for

Rs.10,500. He sold the horse at 10% profit and

cows at 15% loss. If his net profit is Rs.300, find

the cost of 1 horse.

(A) Rs.450 (B) Rs.500

(C) Rs.900 (D) Rs.750

107. A cubical block of 6cm9cm12cm is cut up intoan exact number of equal cubes. The least possible

number of cubes will be

(A) 6 (B) 9

(C) 24 (D) 30

108. If the area of a square with side 'a' is equal to the

area of a triangle with base 'a', then the altitude of

the triangle is

(A)a

2(B) a

(C) 2a (D) 4a

109. A merchant professes to sell goods at the loss of

5% but uses weight of 900 grams in place of one

kilogram. What is his profit percent?

(A) 5% (B)5

5 %9

(C) 6% (D) 10%

110. The list price of an article is Rs.2100 and it is sold

at a discount of 10%. During off-season a

shopkeeper allows a further discount of 5%.

During off season its selling price will be

(A) Rs.1785 (B) Rs.1795.50

(C) Rs.1800 (D) Rs.1805.50

111. If x2-4x+3=0, then the value of

2

2

x 3

3 x is

(A)5

2(B)

10

3

(C) 5 (D)5

3

112. If 6 3 3 3x y x y , then x9+y9is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) x3+y3 (D) x2y3+x3+y2

113. Ifx

1y z

, then

2 2 2z x y

xy yz zx is equal to

(A) 0 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 3


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114. If1 1

xa b

and a, b>0, then the value of

2 2

ax 1 bx 1 is

(A) (a+b)x-2 (B) (a+b)x

(C) (a-b)x (D) (b-a)x

115. If x+y+z=3, x3+y3+z3=0 and xyz=-3 then xy+yz+zx

is equal to

(A) 2 (B) 0

(C) 1 (D) -1

116. If 9cos 40sin 41 , then cot is equal to

(A)40

9(B)

9

40

(C)

40

41 (D)

9

41

117. If r tan 1 and3

rcos2

, then the value of

4 2r is

(A) 2 1 (B) 2 1

(C) 3 1 (D) 3 1

118. If 2 2cos 1 1 sin , then the value of

3 3sin cos is

(A) 1 (B) -1

(C) 0 (D) None of these

119. A vertical stick 12m long casts a shadow 8m long

on the ground. At the same time, a tower 'A' casts a

shadow 32m which exactly touches the foot of

another tower 'B' . If the difference between the

heights of two towers is 12m, then the height of

tower 'B' can be

(A) 36m (B) 48 m

(C) 50 m (D) 56 m

120.1 1 1 1

.....8 24 48 80

up to n terms is equal

to

(A)1

4n(B)

n

2 n 1

(C)n

n 1(D)

n

4 n 1

121. What is the smallest number which leaves remain-

der 3 when divided by any of the numbers 5, 6 or 8

but leaves no remainder when it is divided by 9?

(A) 123 (B) 603

(C) 723 (D) 243

122. Find the sum of

1 21 1

n 1 n 1

3 n1 ......... 1

n 1 n 1

(A) n (B)1

n2

(C) (n+1) (D) 1

n 12

123. ABC is an isosceles triangle and AB AC 2a unit, BC a unit. Draw AD BC , and find the

length of AD .

(A) 15 a unit (B)15

a2

unit

(C) 17a unit (D)17

a2

unit

124. Suppose ABC be a right -angled triangle where0

A 90 and AD BC . If 2ABC 40cm ,2ACD 10cm and AC 9cm , then the length

of BC is

(A) 12 cm (B) 18 cm

(C) 4 cm (D) 6 cm


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125. In a regular polygon, the exterior and interior angles

are in the ration 1:4. The number of sides of the

polygon is

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 16

126. If ABCD be a cyclic quadrilateral in which

0A 4x , 0B 7x ,

0C 5y , 0D y ,

then x:y is(A) 3:4 (B) 4:3

(C) 5:4 (D) 4:5

127. Two parallel chords are drawn in a circle of diam-

eter 30cm. The length of one chord is 24 cm and

the distance between the two chords is 21 cm. The

length of the other chord is

(A) 10 cm (B) 18 cm

(C) 12 cm (D) 16 cm

128. Two circles touch each other externally at P. AB isa direct common tangent to the two circles, A and

B are point of contact and 0PAB 35 . Then

ABP is

(A) 350 (B) 550

(C) 650 (D) 750

129. O is the circumcentre of ABC , given0

BAC 85 and 0BCA 55 , find OAC(A) 400 (B) 500

(C) 600 (D) 800

130. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three is

15 and that of the last three is 16. If the last number

is 19, the first is

(A) 19 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 18

131. The bowling average of a cricketer was 12.4. He

improves his bowling average by 0.2 points when

he takes 5 wickets for 26 runs in his last match.

The number of wickets taken by him before the last

match was(A) 125 (B) 150

(C) 175 (D) 200

132. If A:B=3:4, B:C=5:7 and C:D=8:9 then A:D is equal

to

(A) 3:7 (B) 7:3

(C) 21:10 (D) 10:21

133. A fruit seller sold big, medium and small sized applesfor Rs.15, Rs.10 and Rs.5 respectively. The total

number of apples sold were in the ratio 3:2:5. Findthe average cost of an apple.

(A) Rs.8 (B) Rs.10

(C) Rs.9 (D) Rs.7

134. My grandfather was 8 times older than me 16 years

ago. He will be 3 times of my age 8 years fromnow. Eight years ago, the ratio of my age to that ofmy grandfather was

(A) 3:8 (B) 2:5

(C) 1:2 (D) 1:5

135. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in

the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of mixture are drainedoff and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B

becomes 7:9. How many litres of liquid A wascontained by the can initially?

(A) 10 litres (B) 20 litres(C) 21 litres (D) 25 litres

136. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and60 days respectively. In how many days can A dothe work if he is assisted by B and C on every thirdday?

(A) 10 days (B) 12 days

(C) 15 days (D) 20 days

137. If 72 men can build a wall of 280 m length in 21days, how many men could take 18 days to build a

similar type of wall of length 100 m?(A) 30 (B) 10 (C) 18 (D) 28

138. A water tank can be filled by a tap in 30 minutesand another tap can fill it in 60 minutes. If both thetaps are kept open for 5 minutes and then the firsttap is closed, how long will it take for the tank to befilled?

(A) 20 minutes (B) 25 minutes

(C) 30 minutes (D) 45 minutes

139. A tank is fitted with two taps. The first tap can fill

the tank completely in 45 minutes and the secondtap can empty the full tank in one hour. If both thetaps are opened alternately for one minute, then inhow many hours the empty tank will be filled

completely?

(A) 2 hours 55 minutes (B) 3 hours 40 minutes

(C) 4 hours 48 minutes (D) 5 hours 53 minutes


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SSC-CGL TIER-I12



140. One third of a certain journey is covered at the rate

of 25 km/ hour, one-fourth at the rate of 30 km/

hour and the rest at 50 km/ hour. The average speed

for the whole journey is

(A) 35 km/hour (B)1

333

km/hour

(C) 30 km/hour (D)1

3712

km/hour

141. A boy is late by 9 minutes if he walks to school at a

speed of 4 km/hour. If he walks at the rate of 5km/

hour, he arrives 9 minutes early. The distance to his

school is

(A) 9 km (B) 5 km

(C) 4 km (D) 6 km

142. Points 'A' and 'B' are 70 km apart on a highway. A

car starts from 'A' and another from 'B' at the sametime. If they travel in the same direction, they meet

in 7 hours, but if they travel towards each other,

they meet in one hour. Find the speed of the two

cars (in km/hr).

(A) 20,30 (B) 40,30

(C) 30,50 (D) 20,40

143. A sum of Rs.800 amounts to Rs.920 in 3 years at

the simple interest rate. If the rate is increased by

3% p.a. what will be the sum amount to in the same

period?

(A) Rs.992 (B) Rs.962

(C) Rs.942 (D) Rs.982

144. The difference between compound interest

(compounded annually) and simple interest on a

certain sum of money at 10% per annum for 2 years

is Rs.40. The sum is:

(A) Rs.4000 (B) Rs.3600

(C) Rs.4200 (D) Rs.3200

145. A sum of money invested at compound interestamounts in 3 years to Rs.2,400 and in 4 years to

Rs.2,520. The interest rate per annum is:

(A) 5% (B) 6%

(C) 10% (D) 12%

Directions(146-150):A survey provides the data of

sales of top mobile brands, in the years 2011 and

2012. Now observe the graph and answer the

following questions.

20.15

15.3517.25

4.256.15

32.25

22.8521.25

7.75

12.25

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

Apple Samsung Motorola Xiaomi Micromax

2011 2012

146. The sales of Apple brand in 2012 was by what

percent more than the sales of Samsung in

2012?(round to nearest integer).

(A) 43% (B) 41%

(C) 38% (D) 32%

147. During the period 2011-2012, the minimum rate of

increase in sales is in the case of ?

(A) Samsung (B) Motorola

(C) Xiaomi (D) Micromax

148. What is the approximate ratio of the sales of

Samsung in 2012 to the sales of Motorola in 2011:

(A) 10:13 (B) 13:10

(C) 14:17 (D) 17:14

149. The sales of Micromax in 2011 was by what

percent more than the sales of Xiaomi in 2011?

(round of to nearest inter)

(A) 31% (B) 34%

(C) 45% (D) 37%

150. The highest rise of sales is in:

(A) Apple (B) Samsung

(C) Motorola (D) Micromax

Sales(inLakh

s)


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13


PART-D: ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions(Q.151-160): In the following questions,

some of the sentences have errors and some are

correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error.

The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence

is free from errors, your answer is (D), i.e. No error.

151. Whether he will be (A)/able to come or may not

(B)/depends on the train service (C)/No error (D)

152. He has (A)/contributed one hundred rupees for (B)/

the building fund for this school (C)/No error (D)

153. This servant always (A)/complies to the wishes (B)/

of his master (C)/No error (D)

154. There is no doubt (A)/that Ramesh(B)/is best

student of our class (C)/No error (D)

155. The rich (A)/can afford (B)/to take fruits daily (C)/

No error (D)

156. I met the Earl (A)/but could not meet (B)/the Earless

(C)/at the coronation ceremony of the youngKing(D)

157. Don't go out (A)/now, we are (B)/about having

supper after five minutes (C)/No error (D)

158. He passed (A)/the exam(B)/inspite of his bad

teachers (C)/No error (D)

159. Ram and Ramesh are (A)/fast friends, (B)/the farmer

is a merchant and the latter is an officer (C)/No

error (D)

160. I ought have (A)/phoned Meena (B)/this morning

but I forgot(C)/No error (D)Directions(Q.161-165): In the following

questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold.

Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A),

(B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose

the correct alternative. In case no improvement is

needed your answer is (D).

161. You called on me when I was not at home,don't

you?

(A) did you?

(B) didn't you?

(C) didn't I?

(D) No improvement

162. Rice is to the Japanese whilepotatoes are to many

Europeans.

(A) which (B) that

(C) what (D) No improvement

163. The increasing sale of luxuries is an indexof the

country's prosperity.

(A) appendix (B) pointer

(C) mark (D) No improvement

164. I adapteda new method to solve the problem.(A) I have been adopted (B) I adopted

(C) I was adapted (D) No improvement

165. The manager's role is to define and resolve

problems.

(A) identify and resolved

(B) defined and resolved

(C) spot and resolved

(D) No improvement

Directions(Q.166-168):Out of the four alternatives,

choose the one which best expresses the meaning of

the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

166. Reprieve

(A) Retaliation (B) Pardon

(C) Convict (D) Alluring

167. Salacious

(A) Disinterested (B) Lustful

(C) Frigid (D) Eulogy

168. Ubiquity

(A) Omnipresence (B) Honest(C) Loathing (D) Respect

Directions(Q.169-171): Choose the word opposite in

meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer

Sheet.

169. Acerbity

(A) Sweat (B) Gentleness

(C) Tasty (D) Account

170. Jejune

(A) Plentiful (B) Scanty

(C) Mourn (D) Venom

171. Laconic(A) Curt (B) Terse

(C) Wordy (D) Robust


groups of four words are given. In each group one

word is mispelt/correctly spelt. Find the mispelt/

correctly spelt.

172. (A) Scream (B) Padigree

(C) Zeal (D) Abyss

173. (A) Brunette (B) Protege

(C) Recolect (D) Delirious

174. (A) Derrogatory (B) Derogatory

(C) Derogetory (D) Derogotory

175. (A) Solicidude (B) Solicidute

(C) Solicitude (D) Solicedude

Directions(Q.176-180): Sentences are given with

blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s).

Four alternatives are suggested for each question.

Choose the correct alternative out of the four and

indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle

in the Answer Sheet.

176. He returned the lost bag to its rightful owner andwas handsomely rewarded for his______.

(A) Foresight (B) Wisdom

(C) Honesty (D) Intelligence


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SSC-CGL TIER-I14


177. Even after a long discussion, the Committee could

not reach a ______decision.

(A) Common (B) Joint

(C) Cordial (D) Unanimous

178. When he spoke over the phone, his voice was

so_____that I could hardly hear it.

(A) Faint (B) Dull

(C) Dim (D) Slow179. He requested all his office________to attend his

son's wedding.

(A) Companions (B) Comrades

(C) Collaborators (D) Colleagues

180. The nation decided to erect a fine _____in honour

of the martyrs.

(A) Museum (B) Monument

(C) Momentum (D) Monastery


four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase.Choose the alternative which best expresses the

meaning of the Idiom/Phrase

181. Play ducks and drakes with

(A) To save money

(B) To be on the run

(C) To fight

(D) To squander money

182. A cat's paw

(A) To be used as a tool

(B) To cooperate

(C) Become reconciled

(D) To understand

183. Be at one's beck and call

(A) Under one's absolute control

(B) To get into trouble

(C) To improve

(D) To lay aside

184. To cut the Gordian knot

(A) To do an easy thing

(B) To solve a difficulty

(C) Readymade(D) To have no effect

185. Throw up the sponge

(A) To defy the enemy

(B) To remove restrictions

(C) Abandon the struggle

(D) To be deeply moved by

Directions(Q.186-190): Out of the four alternatives,

choose the one which can be substituted for the given

words/sentence

186. One who entertains his guests well(A) Inhospitable (B) Incognito

(C) Parasitic (D) Hospitable

187. A person of a material outlook and indifferent to

culture

(A) Philistine (B) Barbarous

(C) Nomad (D) Anarchist

188. A person who practises celibacy

(A) Celibate (B) Mature

(C) Married (D) Widower

189. An admirer of fine arts(A) Dilettante (B) Flamboyant

(C) Fatalist (D) Evasive

190. One who is affected by excessive enthusiasm

especially in religious matters

(A) Patriot (B) Chivalrous

(C) Extrovert (D) Fanatic


you have brief passages with questions following

each passage. Read the passages carefully and

choose the best answer to each question out of thefour alternatives.

Passage I

(Q.No. 191-195)

A man may usually be known by the books he reads,

as well as by the company he keeps; for there is a

companionship of books as well as of men; and one should

always live in the best company. Whether it be of books

or of men. A good book may be among the best of friends.

It is the same today that it always was and it will never

change. It is the most patient and cheerful of companions.

It does not turn its back upon us in times of adversity or

distress. It always receives us with the same kindness;

amusing and interesting us in youth, comforting and

consoling us in age.

191. According to the writer, "a man may usually be

known by the books he reads", because

(A) His reading habit shows that he is a scholar

(B) The books he reads affect his thinking and

character

(C) Books provide him a lot of knowledge

(D) His selection of books generally reveals his temperament and character

192. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) Good books as well as good men always

provide the finest company

(B) A good book never betrays us

(C) We have sometimes to be patient with a book

as it may bore us

(D) A good book serves as a permanent friend


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15


193. The statement "A good book may be among the

best of friends", in the middle of the passage, means

that

(A) There cannot be a better friend than a good

book

(B) Books may be good friends, but not better than

good men

(C) A good book can be included amongst the best friends of mankind

(D) Our best friends read the same good books

194. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the

word "adversity" occurring in the passage?

(A) Happiness (B) Prosperity

(C) Progress (D) Misfortune

195. Which one of the following would be the most

suitable title for the passage?

(A) Books show the reader's character

(B) Books as man's abiding friends(C) Books are useful in our youth

(D) The importance of books in old age

Passage II

(Q.No. 196-200)

Throughout recorded history, India was celebrated

for her fine textiles, her muslins and brocades of silver and

gold. As a matter of fact, there is evidence that her textile

industry goes back at least five thousand years, for Indian

muslins were found wrapped around mummies in Egyptian

pyramids dating back to 3000 B.C. The ancient Indian

iron and steel industry was equally famous. The well known

Damascus steel for swords and armour used in the

Crusades came from India. Thus in countless industries

and crafts, the Indian craftsman, worker, builder and artist

created and prospered, and their products found favour

both at home and abroad. And then political disintegration

and foreign conquest closed the long golden chapter of

India's advancement and creative achievement.

196. That India had a flourishing textile industry in the

past, is proved by the fact, that(A) India produced muslins and brocades of silver

and gold

(B) The country though was already famous for its

fine textiles

(C) The industry claims to be five thousand years

old.

(D) Indian muslins were used for covering Egyptian

mummies in 3000 B.C.

197. According to the writer, the ancient Indian iron and

steel industry was famous, because

(A) India supplied swords and armour to Damascus

(B) India provided steel with which swords and

armour were made for the Crusaders

(C) Indian steel was famous among those fighting

the Crusades

(D) Products of iron and steel were shipped to Damascus from India.

198. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(A) There is a long history of excellence that the

Indian craftsmen had achieved in various crafts

(B) Creations of Indian craftsmen brought to them

prosperity

(C) Even after foreign conquest these crafts ensured

India's industrial progress

(D) Indian crafts died out due to political division of

the country.199. Which of the following is Opposite in meaning to

the word "advancement" occuring in the passage?

(A) Deterioration (B) Backwardness

(C) Poverty (D) Failure

200. Which one of the following would be the most

suitable title for the passage?

(A) The rise and fall of Indian crafts

(B) India's textile industry

(C) Indian iron and steel industry in the past

(D) Indian exports in the ancient times.


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