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Reasoning The ScripturesReasoning The ScripturesReasoning The ScripturesReasoning The Scriptures

THE LORD'S SECOND COMINGTHE LORD'S SECOND COMINGTHE LORD'S SECOND COMINGTHE LORD'S SECOND COMING

THE LORD'S SECOND COMITHE LORD'S SECOND COMITHE LORD'S SECOND COMITHE LORD'S SECOND COMING VIEWEDNG VIEWEDNG VIEWEDNG VIEWED

FROMFROMFROMFROM SCRIPTURE AND REASONSCRIPTURE AND REASONSCRIPTURE AND REASONSCRIPTURE AND REASON

By M.S.Mariadas and Y.R.Dinakaran

Bible Students, M.B.S.A

Do the Greek words "parousia," "epiphania," and "apokalupsis" represent three different timestages of the Lord's second presence OR are they all speaking of one event while using the proper

Greek words that are dictated by Greek grammatical requirements as used in their sentence

structure by which the thought is given?

The scriptures clearly teach that when the Lord returns he will first deal with his"church", the "little

flock".

The words of the Apostle Paul

1 Thes.3:12-13 "And the Lord make you to increase and abound in love one toward another, and

toward all men, even as we do towards you; to the end he may establish your hearts unblameable

in holiness before God, even our Father, at the coming (PAROUSIA) of our Lord Jesus Christ

with all his saints."

1 Thes.5:23 "And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly, and I pray God your whole spirit and

soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming (PAROUSIA) of our Lord Jesus Christ."

1 Tim.6:14 "That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing

(EPIPHANIA) of our Lord Jesus Christ."

2 Tim.4:8 "Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the

righteous judge, shall give me at that day; and not to me only, but to all them that love his

appearing (EPIPHANIA)."

Tit.2:11-13 "For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared (EPIPHANIO) to all

men, teaching us that denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously,

and godly in this present world; looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing

(EPIPHANIA) of our great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ."

1 Cor.1:5-7 "That in everything ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge; evenas the testimony of Christ was confirmed to you; so that ye come behind in no gift, waiting for the

coming (APOKALUPSIS) of our Lord Jesus Christ."

Col.3:4 "When Christ, who is our life, shall appear (PHANIO), then shall ye also appear

(PHANIO) with him in glory."


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Reasoning The Scriptures

THE LORD'S SECOND COMINGTHE LORD'S SECOND COMINGTHE LORD'S SECOND COMINGTHE LORD'S SECOND COMING2

Comment: It would seem unreasonable that the Apostle Paul would use words that are said to

represent different stages of time of the Lord's second presence when he was instructing and

admonishing different members of the church to watch for the Lord to return at which time they

are to be taken up together with him. The "parousia" is said by some to be the first stage in time

(which occurred in 1874 - now more than 128 years in the past) and it is to be followed next by the

"epiphania," and later by the "apokalupsis" stage. If this was so and the Lord was to return at the"first stage" - parousia and raises first the members of his church "who are dead in Christ" (1

Thes.4:16), THEN:

Why would the Apostle Paul tell Timothy to keep the commandment spotless until the

"epiphania," the second stage, of our Lord Jesus Christ's second presence, if those who "are dead

in Christ" are raised to be with the Lord when he returns at the "parousia," the first stage ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell the Corinthians to be enriched in knowledge and

utterance so that they will be furnished as they wait for the "apokalupsis," the third phase of Jesus'

second presence, when he tells Timothy to do so until the "epiphania," the second stage of his

second presence ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell the Thessalonians to keep their hearts blameless unto the

"parousia," the first stage of Jesus second presence, when he tells Timothy to keep the

commandment spotless until the "epiphania," the second stage of his second presence ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell the Colossians that when the Lord appears (phaino) then

they will appear (phanio - the second stage of Jesus' second presence) with him in glory, if they are

to be raised and glorified at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell Titus that we should live soberly, righteously, and Godly

in this present world while looking for the "epiphania," the second stage of the Lord's second

presence, if they are to be raised and glorified at the "parousia," the first stage of his secondpresence?

Explanation: These scriptures would contradict one another if they are interpreted to refer to

three different stages of time, but they do agree with each other from the viewpoint of being

interchangeable when looked at as being ONE EVENT that would occur at the same time. It

would seem reasonable then that different Greek words were used to satisfy the sentence structure

of the grammatical requirements by and in which the thought was presented and to express

different shades of meaning in respect to the ONE EVENT.

THE WORDS OF JESUS on the "Days of NoahTHE WORDS OF JESUS on the "Days of NoahTHE WORDS OF JESUS on the "Days of NoahTHE WORDS OF JESUS on the "Days of Noah

Mt.24:36-38 "But as the days of Noah were, so shall also the coming (parousia) of the Son of Man

be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving

in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark, and knew not until the flood came, and

took them all away; so shall the coming (parousia) of the Son of Man be."


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Lu.17:26-30 "And as it was in the days of Noah, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of Man.

They did eat, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah

entered the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all. Likewise also as it was in the days of

Lot, they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they builded; but the same day

that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven and destroyed them

all. Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of Man is revealed (apokalupto)."

Question: If the Lord returns at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence, as some

claim, why would Luke use the word, "apokalupto," the third stage of his second presence, when

they are relating the same event as shown in the same contexts ?

Answer: These scriptures would contradict one another if they are interpreted to refer to three

different stages of time, but they do agree with each other from the viewpoint of being

interchangeable when looked at as being ONE EVENT that would occur at the same time. It

would seem reasonable then that different Greek words were used to satisfy the sentence structure

of the grammatical requirements by and in which the thought was presented and to express

different shades of meaning in respect to the ONE EVENT. These texts refer to the time when

Jesus will bring judgment upon the world. It will be sudden and totally unexpected (not prolonged

128 years or more).

THE WORDS OF THE APOSTLE PETERTHE WORDS OF THE APOSTLE PETERTHE WORDS OF THE APOSTLE PETERTHE WORDS OF THE APOSTLE PETER

1 Pet.1:13 "Wherefore gird up the loin of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the grace

that is brought unto you at the revelation (apokalupsis) of Jesus Christ."

1 Pet.1:7 "That the trials of your faith being much more precious than of gold that perisheth,

though it be tried by fire, might be found unto praise and honor and glory at the appearing

(apokalupsis) of Jesus Christ."

Comment: The "parousia" is said by some to be the first stage in time (which occurred in 1874 -

now more than 128years in the past) and it is to be followed next by the "epiphania," and later by

the "apokalupsis" stage. If this was so and the Lord was to return at the "first stage" - parousia of his

second presence and raises first the members of his church "who are dead in Christ" (1 Thes.4:16),

THEN:

Why would the Apostle Peter say to the church that they should "hope to the end" which

would have its fruition at the "apokalupsis," the third stage of the Lord's second presence, if they are

to be raised and glorified when he returns at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence?

Why would the Apostle Peter desire that the church's trial of faith be such as would find

them worthy at the "apokalupsis," the third stage of the Lord's second presence, if they are to be

raised and glorified when he returns at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence ?

Explanation: These scriptures would contradict other scriptures if they are interpreted to refer to

the third stage of time, but they do all agree from the viewpoint of being interchangeable when

looked at as being ONE EVENT that would occur at the same time. It would seem reasonable


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then that different Greek words were used to satisfy the sentence structure of the grammatical

requirements by and in which the thought was presented and to express different shades of

meaning in respect to the ONE EVENT.

second coming of our lord p-1

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