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SBI PO Exam Paper –

(Reasoning) "held on 30-11-2014"

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) Study the given information and answer the questions. When

a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line or words and

numbers, its arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration

of input and rearrangement.

(All the numbers are two-digit numbers)

Input 14 36 methodology 21 of research

59 crucial 98 very 62 is

Step I 98 14 38 methodology 21 of research

59 crucial very is 62

Step II 98 very 14 36 methodology 21 of

59 crucial is research 62

Step III 59 98 very 14 methodology 21 of

crucial is research 62 36

Step IV 59 98 very of 14 21 crucial is

methodology research 62 36

Step V 21 59 98 very of crucial is

methodology research 62 36 14

Step VI 21 59 98 very of is crucial

methodology research 62 36 14

Step VI is the of the above arrangement as the intended arrangements is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given, steps find out appropriate steps for the given input.

Input 65 work in 23 to be 13 89 managed 48 97 load 34 healthy 55 style

1. Which element is exactly between „style‟ and „be‟ in second last steps of the given arrangements?

(1) Work

(2) Healthy

(3) 23

(4) Load

(5) Be

2. What is the position of 46 from the right end in the third steps?

(1) Sixth

(2) Seventh


(3) Fifth

(4) Eight

(5) Ninth

3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based on the given input?

(1) 46 65 97 to managed in 23 be 13 load healthy style work 89 55 34

(2) 46 work 65 style 97 in 23 be 13 load healthy 89 managed 55 to 34

(3) 46 65 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 89 55 34

(4) 34 46 55 65 89 97 work syle in 23 be, 13 load healthy managed to

(5) 89 55 34 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 46 65 97

4. In which, step are the elements „be 13 healthy in‟ found in the same order?

(1) Third

(2) Sixth

(3) Fourth

(4) The given order of elements is not found in any stop

(5) Fifth

5. How many steps will be required to complete the given arrangement based on the given input?

(1) Eight

(2) Ten

(3) Seven

(4) Nine

(5) Six

6. Which elements is eight to left of the elements which is twelfth from the end of the third last step?

(1) 97

(2) 23

(3) Work

(4) Style

(5) To Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) The following questions consisting of a question and two

statements I and II given below. You have to decide whether the data given in the

statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and

choose the most appropriate option.

7. All are the five friends F, G, H, I and J, situated in a straight line facing North?


I. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line only two people sit between F and H. J sits to

immediate left of H. G and I are immediate neighbours of each other.

II. J faces North and sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two peoples sit

between J and I. H sits second to the right of I. H sits to immediate left of G.

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Which the data one

alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in

statement II alone are not sufficient, to the answer the question.

(3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficent to answer the

question.

(4) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the

question.

(5) The data in both statements I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.

8. How „never‟ will be written in a code language?

I. In that code language ‘never ever go there’ is written as ‘an ja ni ho’.

II. In that code language ‘go there and come back’ is written as ‘ma ho sa ni da’.

(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data one



statement II alone are not sufficient to the answer the question.

(3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the

question.


question.

(5) The data in both statements I and II together unncessary to answer the question.

9. Is C the mother of B?

I. P is the father of A and B. R has only the one brother P. C is sister in law of R. R is

unmarried F is the mother of R. F has only two childrens.

II. H has only two childrens P and R. P is father of A. B is the only brother of A. R is

unmarried. H is the father-in-law of C.







question.


question.

(5) The data in both statements I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.

10. Five movies P, Q, R, S and T are scheduled to be screened from Monday to Friday of the same week. Which movie will be screened on Friday?

I. Movies P will be screened on Tuesday. Only two movies will be screened between movies

R and S. R will be screened before S.

II. Movie Q will be screened on Wednesday. Only one movie will be screened between

movies Q and R. S will be screened immediate before movie T.






question.


question.

(5) The data in both statement I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.

11. How far is point R from point P?

I. A person starts from point P, walks 15 m to the South takes right turn and walks 4 m. He

then takes left turn and walks 7 m. He takes left turn again, walks for 4 m and reaches point

Q. If the percent takes left turn and walks 7 m, he will reach point R.

II. A person starts from point P, walks 14 m towards the East, takes a left turn and walks 3

m. He than takes a left turn again and walks for 14 m to reach point N. If a takes a right turn

from point N and walks 5 m, he will be 27 m away from point R.






question.


question.

(5) The data in both statements I and II together unnecessary to answer the question. Directions (Q. Nos. 12-17) Study the information carefully and answer the questions.


M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular area of equal distances between each

other, but not necessarily in the same order some of the people are facing the center while

some face outside. (i.e., in a direction opposite to the centre).

Note : Facing the same direction means one faces the centre then the other also faces the

centre and vice-versas. Facing opposite direction means if one person faces centre then the

other faces outside and vice-versa.

S sits second to the right of P. P faces the centre. T sits second the left of S. T is an

immediate neighbour of both O and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. M sits seconds to the

left of R. T sits second to the left of N. M sits second to the left of O. T faces the same

direction as Q. N sits third to the right of M.

12. Who sits exactly between S and T. When counted from the left of S?

(1) M

(2) Q

(3) P

(4) O

(5) N

13. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre?

(1) One

(2) Three

(3) Five

(4) Two

(5) Four

14. Who sits second to the right of N?

(1) R

(2) P

(3) T

(4) S

(5) O

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) R

(2) S

(3) Q


(4) O

(5) M

16. Which of the following is true regarding T as per the given sitting arrangements?

(1) T faces the centre.

(2) Only two people sit between N and T.

(3) Only three people sit between T and P.

(4) S sits second to the left of T.

(5) Only one persons sits between T and R.

17. What is M‟s position with respect to T?

(1) Second to the left

(2) Fifth to the right

(3) Third to the right

(4) Third to the left

(5) Fourth to the right Directions (Q. Nos. 18-23) In these questions two/three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given

statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known

facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the statements

disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements

Some prices are costs.

Some costs are amounts.

All amounts are expenses.

Conclusions

I. At least some amounts are prices.

II. All amounts being prices is a possibility.

(1) Either conclusion I or II is true

(2) Both conclusion I and II are true

(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

(4) Only conclusion II is true

(5) Only conclusion I is true

19. Statements


All invitations are rejections.

Some invitations are celebrations.

No rejection is an attraction.

Conclusions

I. Some celebrations are rejections.

II. All celebrations are rejections.






20. Statements

All grades are scales.

All scales are categories.

Conclusions

I. All grades are categories.

II. All categories are scales.






21. Statements

Some metals are papers.

All papers are alloys.

No alloy is a wood.

Conclusions

I. All woods being metals is a possibility

II. All metals being woods is a possibility.






22. Statements


Some metals are papers.

All papers are alloys.

No alloy is a wood.

Conclusions

I. No paper is a wood.

II. At least some meals are alloys.






23. Statements

Some prices are costs.

Some costs are amounts.

All amounts are expenses.

Conclusions

I. No expense is a cost.

II. At least some expenses are prices.






24. This question consist of a statements followed by two course of actions numbered I and II given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvements, follow-up or further action in the regard to the problems, policy etc. You have to assumed everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of actions logically follows from the given statements.

Statements

There have been structural shifts from agriculture to industry in country Z. While industries

contribute to 67% of the country’s GDP. It is leading to a study and undesirable declined in

the participation of labour force in agriculture.

I. The government should curtail number of industries borrowing up in the country in order to

promote the agricultures.

II. Incentives for working in agriculture should be made competitive with that of other sectors.






(5) Only conclusion I is true Directions (Q. Nos. 25-27) Study the following information carefully and answer the

questions.

Each of the six people U, V, W, X, Y and Z stayed for a different number of day in India. X

stayed for less number of days then only V, Y stayed for more number of days then only two

people. U and did not stay less than Y. W did not stay for the minimum number of days. The

one who stayed for the second lowest number of days stayed for eight days. U stayed for 17

days in India.

25. Which of the following is possibly the number of days for which it stayed in India?

(1) 5

(2) 32

(3) 23

(4) 20

(5) 17

26. Which of the following is true with respect to Z as per the given information?

(1) The possible number of days for which Z stayed in India is 14 days

(2) Z stayed for the minimum number of days

(3) None of the given options is true

(4) Only two peoples stayed for more number of days than Z

(5) Z definitely stayed for more number of days than Y

27. Which of the following may be the possible number of days for which Y stayed in India?

(1) 11

(2) 8

(3) 19

(4) 5

(5) 25 Directions (Q. Nos. 28-32) Study the information carefully and answer the given

questions.

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that

there is an equal distance between adjacent persons in row- I J, K, L, M and N are seated


and all of them are facing North and in row-II P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all facing

South (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also likes different flowers

namely Gazania, Plumeria, Tulip, Orchids, Lily, Rose, Daffodil, Daisy Peony and Dahila (but

not necessarily in the same order).

N sits exactly in the centre of the row and faces the one who likes orchids. Only one person

sits between N and the one who likes Lily. S faces one of the immediate neighbour of the

one who likes Lily. Only one person sits between P and the one who likes Orchids. P is not

an immediate neighbour of S. P faces one of the immediate neighbour of L. M is neither an

immediate neighbours of L nor faces S. Q is not an immeidate neighbour of A and faces the

one who likes Plumeria. M does not face R. M faces one of the immediate neighbour of the

one who likes rose. Only one person sits between the one who likes Rose and the one who

likes Gazania. The one who likes Peony and the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only

two people sit between the one who likes Daisy and the One who likes Daffodil. J does not

like Daffodil. The one who likes Dahlia sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Peony.

28. Who amongst the following is a immediate neighbour of the one who likes Peony?

(1) Who likes Rose

(2) Who likes Lily

(3) Who likes Gazania

(4) K

(5) T

29. Which of the following is definitely true as per the given arrangements?

(1) Lily

(2) Gazania

(3) Rose

(4) Orchids

(5) Daffodil

30. Which of the following flowers does S like?

(1) L face R

(2) Q is an immediate neighbour of P

(3) The one who likes Daisy is an immediate neighbour of P

(4) Q likes Daffodil

(5) The one who likes Dahlia faces N

31. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at the extreme end of the two rows?


(1) P, J

(2) Q, L

(3) R, K

(4) S, K

(5) S, L

32. Who amongst the following likes Tulip?

(1) N

(2) P

(3) S

(4) Q

(5) J

33. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows :

As per a recent survey 85% of the world force today is either actively looking for a job or open to talking to recruiters and relevant opportunities, the ones who are satisfied with their job.

Which of the following may be a reason for the above mentioned results of the survey?

(1) As there is the wide array of opportunity today and head hunters are always seeking for

professionals, people are not willing to let go of an opportunity to do something new and

challenging.

(2) As per a recent survey more than 40% people today are dissatisfied with their jobs as

there is the wide gap between what they study in the class room as compared to the actual

work they do

(3) Some people in the country take education loan for completing higher education and are

expected to repay the loans themselves after they start working

(4) As employees today are of different age group and back grounds it becomes difficult for

the HR department to organise employment engagement activities to improve the job

satisfaction of employees

(5) Only a few people study for high specialised coursed in the country and they are always

in demand as there is high scale gap in many organisations

Directions (Q. Nos. 34-35) The following questions consist of a statements followed

by two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the

given statements numbered I and II weakens or strengthens the statement and mark

the appropriate answer.

34. Statement


The world should move towards using bio-fuels in the future as these are more environment

friendly as compared to regular fossil-fuels.

I. While bio-fuels cleaner to burn, the processed to produce the fuel, including the necessary

machinery leads to very high carbon emission.

II. As two-fuels are manufactured from materials such as crop waste, manure and other by

products, these, unlike fossil-fuels, are easily renewable.

(1) Statement I weakens the information while statements II is a natural statement.

(2) Both statement I and II weakens the information.

(3) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the statement.

(4) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengths the statement.

(5) Both statements I and II strengthens the information.

35. Statement

Always remain in an air conditioned environment for better health and well-being.

I. Filters in the air-conditioners lower exposure to allergy creating pollen and other outdoor

allergies.

II. Spending two much times in an air-conditioned environment result in gradual intolerance

of body towards natural temperatures.

(1) Statement I weakens the information while statements II is a natural statement.

(2) Both statement I and II weakens the information.

(3) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the statement.

(4) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengths the statement.

(5) Both statements I and II strengthens the information.

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-14) The following questions have a statement followed by two

conclusions (I and II). Assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion is

definitely true.

36. Statement

B £ A = N > K ³ S

Conclusions

I. A > S II. B £ K






37. Statement


B £ A = N > K ³ S

Conclusions

I. B £ N II. S < N






38. Statement

K ³ < = M ³ N = O £ P

Conclusions

I. L > O

II. L = O






39. Statement

K ³ L = M ³ N = O £ P

Conclusions

I. K < P II. M ³ O






40. Statement

X < Y £ Z = W

K ³ J > Z

Conclusions

I. Z < K II. Y £ W







41. Statement

X < Y £ Z = W

K ³ J > Z

Conclusions

I. X ³ J II. K > Y






Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44) Study the following information and answer the given

questions. A and Y are brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M

is the father in law of S. Q is the son of X.

42. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q?

(1) Uncle

(2) Nephew

(3) Cannot be determined

(4) Brother-in-law

(5) Son-in-law

43. How is Y related to M?

(1) Nephews

(2) Father

(3) Brother-in-law

(4) Grandson

(5) Brother

44. How is K related to Q?

(1) Cannot be determined

(2) Niece

(3) Daughter (4) Nephew

(5) Son in law


45. Read the given information carefully and answer the question.

Five fisherman from country X were sentenced to imprisonment by the High Court of country Y on charges of smuggling narcotics from country X to country Y. Which of the following supports the legal action taken by country Y?

A. Country X had given details of a new fisherman that had no record of involvement in drug

related activities.

B. The navel authorities of both the country X and Y have found traces of narcotics in the

fish boxes that were shipped from country X to country Y by these fisherman.

C. All the fish boxes that are shipped between countries undergo a strict process of

checking.

D. It was found that two of the five fisherman who were sentenced to death penalty were

earlier imprisoned for the same reason a few years back.

(1) B and C

(2) B and E

(3) Only D

(4) None of these

(5) Only B

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Read the given information and answer the given

questions.

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground

floor is numbered H, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the top most floor is numbered

8.

C lives on floor number 3. Only one person lives between C and F. Only one person lives

between C and G. E lives immediately above B

H lives immediately above F. H lives on any of the floors below D.

Only one person lives between D and A. D lives above A.

46. Who lives on the floor immediately below D?

(1) Other than those given as options

(2) H

(3) A

(4) D

(5) C

47. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?


(1) Only one person lives between E and G

(2) A lives on an even numbered floor

(3) A lives immediately below C

(4) F lives on floor number 5

(5) A lives immediately above H

48. How many people live between the floors on which D and C, live?

(1) One

(2) More than three

(3) Three (4) Two

(5) No more

49. Who amongst the following lives between B and G?

(1) No one

(2) C

(3) E

(4) H

(5) D

50. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5?

(1) A

(2) G

(3) F

(4) D

(5) H

(English)

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) In the following questions, the sentences have two blank,

each blank indicates that something has been confined. Choose the word that best

fits in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

51. .............. Dinosaurs live to be the ancestors of modern birds, the discovery of soft tissue in Dinosaurs fossils containing proteins found only in birds is very ...........

(1) Though, unfortunate

(2) Recently, common

(3) Since, exciting

(4) Perhaps, remarkable

(5) Moreover, welcome


52. The van Allen belts which are ............ between 13000 to 60000 km above the Earth‟s surface were discovered in 1958 and contain electrons which play ............ with electronic systems on satellites.

(1) Somewhere, damages

(2) located, havoc

(3) Position, mayhem

(4) Situated, part

(5) Vicinity, confusion

53. Rice farmers use ........... methods of farming and old equipment making the cost of price ......... twice as much as it is in other countries.

(1) Obsolete, economical

(2) Modern, expensive

(3) Future, virtuality

(4) Antiquated, almost

(5) Sustainable, approximate

54. Some experts believe that the best .......... to reduce the number of accidents caused by drivers using their mobile phones to create an “app/ ......... communications when the vehicle in is motion and unblocking them when the vehicle reaches its destination”.

(1) Tactic, block

(2) Strategy, disabiling

(3) Part, facilitating

(4) Decision, expediting

(5) Method, further

55. Services provided by money transfer companies are ............... for people who don‟t use bank account or who are working for from home and are helpful to ........... trade and dispersion wealth.

(1) Fundamental, compute

(2) Prerequisite, invigorating

(3) Vitally, strengthen

(4) Essentally, boester

(5) inherent, foster Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a

proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given

questions.


A. She follows the foot steps of other renowned female politicians like Chile’s Michelle

Bachelet and Germany’s Angela Merkel.

B. Women are also rein to the fore front in other parts of the government.

C. And this leadership can be seen in the growing number of women who are becoming

political leaders and the most recent being Dilma Rouseff who looks over as Brazil’s first

women President.

D. It is defined as the ability to influence or lead through persuasion or attraction by co-

opting people rather than coercing them.

E. The leadership of women in politics business and society is becoming evident across the

globe.

F. These trends represent the growing needs for ‘soft power’ in today’s world.

56. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) F

(5) E

57. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) C

(2) B

(3) F

(4) D

(5) E

58. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) D

(3) B

(4) A

(5) F

59. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) D

(3) B


(4) F

(5) C

60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) C

(3) B

(4) F

(5) E Directions (Q. Nos. 61-70) Read the following passage carefully and answer the

questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while

answering some of the questions.

Infrastructure projects take a long time to built but then deliver cash flows over an extended

period, precision funds have liabilities that’s stretch our several decades. Why not get the

letter to finance the former? A new report from the Organisation for Economic Cooperation

and Development (OECD) estimates that global pension funds have just point 9% of their

portfolios in pure infrastructure in part i.e., due to the OECD’s decision to define

infrastructure assets as untrusted debt and equity.

But pension funds has significant exposure to tested shares and bonds of power companies

and the due from the point of view public policy however, the OECD’s definition is the correct

one. The utility shares owned by pension funds are those of power companies that were

privatised in the 1980s and 1990s and the infrastructure they operate is a result of

government spending in previous decade. Governments would rather not see more

infrastructure get built, thought at the moment public financial are very tight. They would

rather not bear the whole burden. The difficult bit about infrastructure projects apart from the

original decision to commission them is the cost of construction i.e., where governments

would like pension funds and the rest of the private sectors to open their wallets.

Risk is clearly one important factor. Pension funds want reliable cash flows that can be used

to pay retres, not the uncertains that are associated with projects. As the OECD points out

there is a lack of objective high quality data on infrastructure investments. These make this

difficults for funds to calculate how infrasture would fit in to there portfolio. Another problems

is that pension funds may lack the expertise to get involved in such large projects, they have

to invest via and infrastructure funds and pay a management fee for the previlege. The

biggest infrastructure investors so far have been the joined Australian and Canadian pension

funds which can benefits from economics of scale. Britain is trying to achieve the same

effect by setting up pension investment platform which will pool infrastructure investment.


However, the scheme is slow to get going and not be sufficient fund brattish highest profile

projects, a proposed high speed rail line additional problems include the lack of political

certainty. Capital spending is often the first item to be cut when governments run into budget

difficulties and tough decision and put of to suit electoral cycles. One possible solution is for

governments to borrow separate sum to finance infrastructure spending with the stated

intension of the selling assets to the likes of pension funds over a number of years such are

debt would be recorded separately in the National Accounts. An ultimative option could be a

National Investment Bank among the lines of European investment bank. It would borrow

from the market and used its capital to guarantee the equity portion of the infrastructure

project. They would allow pension funds to buy the more secure debt elements of project

findings the needs is clear among the G-7 countries. Only Italy is recorded as having worlds

infrastructure. There is no shortage of protection funding-Britains pension assets are equal

to 112% of GDP. Clearly to can be put together. The Olympics showed that Britain can built

projects on time when the country puts its mind to it.

61. Which of the following is the role of pensions investment platform?

(1) To create guidelines regarding infrastructure investment in retain.

(2) To provide services only to small pension funds to invest in infrastructure.

(3) To monitor prestigious infrastructure projects and public private partnership

(4) To provide guidance to authorities in Europe regarding infrastructure development.

(5) To garner funding for infrastructure projects.

62. What is the author‟s view of OECD report on infrastructure?

(1) He feels that the report unnecessarily focusses on the negative aspects of investing in

government projects.

(2) He is an agreement with the data and contentions cited in the report.

(3) He is in favour of the OECD’s view of governments keeping investment in infrastructure

on hold.

(4) He opposes the OECD’s restrictions on diverting funds to infrastructure development.

(5) He recommends that investments levels prescribed by the report beared opted by Britain

Accordingly

63. According to the passage, why is there a need for Britain to invest in infrastructure?

(1) Britain’s desire to surpass Italy in infrastructure development

(2) Surplus pension funds need to be gainfully diverted to avoid misuse

(3) Infrastructure is deficient and in need of an overhaul


(4) Britain’s prestige as host of the Olympics is at stake

(5) Not clearly mentioned in the passage

64. Which of the following factor(s) impact(s) investment decisions of the pension funds?

A. Political uncertainty and financial risk.

B. Requisite expertise in infrastructure projects.

C. Returns on investment.

(1) Only B

(2) A and B

(3) Only A

(4) All of these

(5) B and C

65. Which of the following is the main objective of the author in writing the passage?

(1) To examine the misappropriation of Britain’s pension funds

(2) To estimate how unprofitable it is for the country if pension funds are used to create

infrastructure

(3) To urge the government to reduce risky exposure of pension funds and bonds an invest

in safe options

(4) To analyse the claims made by the OECD report and point out inconsistencies

(5) To suggest that pension funds can and should more in infrastructure

66. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word Extended given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) Absolute

(2) Fleeting

(3) Equitable

(4) Steady

(5) Regular

67. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word Commission given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) Agency

(2) Committee

(3) Contract

(4) Payment

(5) Expense


68. Which of the following can be inferred in the content of the passage?

(1) Britain is making efforts to reform its infrastructure sector

(2) Britain’s GDP is abysmal and prestigious infrastructure projects should be kept on hold till

the pension and infrastructure projects are reformed

(3) Investments banks are risky as they are governed by political powers

(4) Britain’s national accounts data lacks crucial parameters

(5) All the given statements can be inferred in the context of the passage

69. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “They would rather not bear the whole burden”?

(1) Government would prefer to privatise utilities like power etc

(2) Government are vary about the public takeout of pension funds going bust

(3) Governments short on capital, are cautious about society financing infrastructure as it is

costly

(4) The private-sector is unwilling to continue their monetary support of loss making public

facilities


70. According to the passage, which of the following can be said about infrastructure investment?

A. It provides tremendous opportunities to investors as there is a huge need for

infrastructure.

B. Creative solutions are required to generate the necessary investment.

C. It is crucial for governments to invest in infrastructure to win elections.

(1) None

(2) A and B

(3) Only A

(4) Only B

(5) A and C Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) Which of the phrase given against the sentence should

replace the word/ phrase given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct?

If the sentence is given as it is given and no correction is required, mark „No

correction required‟ as the answer.

71. Getting tax refunds is a problematic not only for the common man but also sensor officials.

(1) are problems (2) is a problem

(3) are a problem (4) is problem

(5) no correction required


72. The World Bank represents a particularly difficult case of organisation cultural changes.

(1) Represent (2) Representing

(3) Representation

(4) Have representing

(5) No correction required

73. Big companies are hiking stipends for summer internships by 40%, sending out a strong signal. That they expects the economy to new up.

(1) Them expecting

(2) They expect

(3) These expectation

(4) Expect these


74. Declining crude prices have raise hopes of interest of rate cuts.

(1) Have rise

(2) Have rising

(3) Have raised

(4) Has risen


75. India continues to be on the top of the global consumer confidence under this year as well.

(1) Continue to being

(2) Continuing to be

(3) Continuing too be

(4) Continue to be

(5) No correction required Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical mistakes/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.

Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark „No error‟ as

your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

76. After the cash-strapped corporation/expressed its inability to provide funds/for various devlop- mental works, the office bearers of the civic body started/lobbying at special financial and from State government.

(1) After the cash-strapped corporation

(2) Expressed its inability to provide funds


(3) For various development works, the office bearers of the civic body started

(4) Lobbying for special financial and from State government

(5) No error

77. Three things are/essential for a start up to succeed,/a product that is in demand,/a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.

(1) Three things are

(2) Essential for a start up to succeed

(3) A product that is in demand

(4) A good team as well as a minimum expenditure

(5) No error

78. We all have at/some point in our lives/wondered if we are actually/being too nice to someone.

(1) We all have at

(2) Some point in our lives

(3) Wondered if we are actually

(4) Being too nice to someone

(5) No error

79. Anticipating a foggy winter,/the railway authorities has/decided to/cancel thirty trains.

(1) Anticipating a foggy winter

(2) The railway authorities have

(3) Decided to

(4) Cancel thirty trains

(5) No error

80. New businesses today/are increasing by focusing on/introducing various perks and motivation programmes/to help retain employees.

(1) New businesses today

(2) Are increasing focusing on

(3) Introducing various perks and motivation programmes

(4) To help retain employees

(5) No error Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given

questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering

some of the questions.


In our day and age, technology is omnipresent and integral part of our lives. However,

although, the main purpose of technology is to make our lives easier, the reactions on

opinions and technology are very diverse. This year, various sessions at the Women’s

Forum covered the influence of new technologies in our daily life. It is worthwhile analysing

two contrasting perspectives in depth, to understand how broad this debate is. On the one

hand, technology and digital media can be a great help to reach out to other people and

spread your message to a very large platform. The session ‘How to be a digital influencer’

was analysing exactly this question, and introduced various platforms and strategies on how

too use the digital world to your advantage. Social media removes all distances :

Geographic, social and hierarchical. You cna reach, at any time, and communication in real

time. Thus, a permanent link for communication has been created. Today; everyone has the

ability to transmit knowledge and thus credibility of the creator of knowledge is more

important than even before. Technology has taken the universal communication method of

storytelling and transformed it, in a way that now more stories can reach more people

through social media platforms than ever before. People should find their digital media voice,

tell sharable stories and drive engagement. Also, it is very important to be authentic and truly

about the message you are trying to convey through the digital media. Another session, the

very same day, analysed how exactly the opposite is true and how new technologies actually

cause stress and suffering, because of a concept referred to as ‘infobesity’, we have

changed the way we consume and generate information. People are trying to live ten lives at

once and a lot of stress and anxiety occurs from that. Thus, we are suffering from digital

bulimia, meaning that we take in a lot of information at once, without really processing if for

ourselves, and in turn create a lot of new information. We are at the same time creators and

victims of information overload. Thus, it is obvious that technological advancement has failed

at its mission of making everybody’s life easier, as many people are reacting negatively to it.

81. According to the passage, which of the following is not true about the characteristics of „infobestiy‟?

(1) The pace of our lives has increased significantly due to technology

(2) With the help of technology, people try to domultiple things at the same time, leading to

stress

(3) Technology makes our lives sedentary and leads to health problems

(4) Due to technology, each individual is bombarded with excess information

(5) All the options are true according to the passage

82. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word given as bold as used in the passage?


(1) Similar

(2) Separate

(3) Interwoven

(4) Simultaneous

(5) Together

83. Which of the following can be said about the invention of the car?

A. More than being a boon, this invention has become an inconvenience to us.

B. It has invoked in us the desire to travel to places that we would not have otherwise gone

to

C. It has enabled us to have more time for ourselves

(1) A and C

(2) B and C

(3) A and B

(4) All of these

(5) Only B

84. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(1) The paradox of technological advance

(2) The different types of technology available

(3) Technology propagation-the road to nowhere

(4) Technology and gainful insight

(5) Technological progress across the continents

85. According to the author, which of the following can be said about reaching to people through the medium of technology?

A. Today’s digital age has made it essential for an individual to send a message that is

genuine in nature.

B. The ability to impact many people through a message is solely dependent on the number

of times the same message goes out, regardless of its authenticity.

C. Technology has made it easier to reach out to masses of people at the same time.

(1) Only C

(2) All of these

(3) A and C

(4) A and B

(5) Only B

86. Which of the following is true according to the passage?


A. It is in our own interest that we keep check on the amount of digital information that we

generate.

B. The promise on which technology was designed was that it should make our lives simpler.

C. It is best that we learn to survive without any technological intervention in our lives.

(1) A and B

(2) All of these

(3) B and C

(4) Only A

(5) Only B

87. According to the passage, which of the following is author‟s opinion/statement about technology?

(1) Beware! Technology can only bring doom if allowed to proliferate.

(2) Take responsibility for how you let technology impact your life.

(3) Go head and invest in the latest technology, it is worth it.

(4) What the future of technology holds for us is unknown, wait and watch

(5) Other than those given as options.

88. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage? Engagement

(1) Appointment

(2) Involvement

(3) Meeting

(4) Rendezvous

(5) Date

89. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?Credibility

(1) Calculated

(2) Deliberated

(3) Believed

(4) Created

(5) Patterned 90. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage? Spread

(1) Collect

(2) Take

(3) Restrict


(4) Join

(5) Multiply

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has

been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank

appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Changing an organisation’s culture is one of the most difficult leadership challenges. That’s

because an organisation’s culture (91) interlocking set of goals, roles, processes, values

communications parctices, attitudes and assumptions. These elements (92) together as a

mutually reinforcing system and combine to prevent any (93) to change it. That is why

single-fix challenges, such as the introduction of teams. Of lean, or agile, or scrum or

knowledge management or some new process, may (94) to make progress for a while, but

(95) the interlocking elements of the organisational culture (96) over and the change is

inexorably drawn (97) into the existing organisational culture. Changing a culture is large

scale undertaking and eventually all of the organisational focus for changing minds will need

to be put in play. However, the (98) in which they are deployed has a Critical (99) on the

(100) of success.

91.

(1) Less

(2) Embraces

(3) Comprises

(4) Makes

(5) Composes

92.

(1) Amalgamate

(2) Conjoin

(3) Fill

(4) Stand (5) Attach

93.

(1) Attempt

(2) Energy

(3) Ways

(4) Power

(5) Tries

94.


(1) Look

(2) Appear

(3) Perform

(4) Suspect

(5) Seek

95.

(1) Especially

(2) Presently

(3) Likely

(4) Eventually

(5) Lately

96.

(1) Bounce

(2) Throw

(3) Seize

(4) Jump

(5) Take

97.

(1) Forth

(2) Ahead

(3) Gain

(4) Set

(5) Back

98

(1) Order

(2) Succession

(3) Idea

(4) Step

(5) Label

99.

(1) Affect

(2) Impact

(3) Control


(4) Jolt

(5) Shake

100.

(1) Change

(2) Odd

(3) Risk

(4) Likelihood

(5) Option

(Data Analysis and Intelligence)

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-106) In these questions a number of series is given. After the

series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to complete the

series starting with the given numbers following the sequence of original series and

answer the questions that follows the series. 101. 48 24 36 90 315 1417.5 20 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (d)?

(1) 131.25

(2) 133.75

(3) 136

(4) 140

(5) 142.25 102. 2 11 52 183 430 555 4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(1) 92

(2) 98

(3) 82

(4) 88

(5) 96 103. 7 9 21 69 273 1371 6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (b)?

(1) 19

(2) 22

(3) 18


(4) 20

(5) 17

104. 9 8 12 27 92 435 7 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (c)?

(1) 19

(2) 12

(3) 13

(4) 15

(5) 16 105. 8 9 21 68 279 1404 5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (d)?

(1) 184

(2) 207

(3) 212

(4) 196

(5) 228 106. 4 7 19 73 381 2161 8 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

What will come in place of (c)?

(1) 106

(2) 169

(3) 156

(4) 184

(5) 174 Directions (Q. Nos. 107-112) Study the following table to answer this questions.


107. Total number of female employees (manager and officers) in procurement department is by what percent more than their male counter part?

(1)9%

(2)79/7 %

(3)45/4%

(4)104/11%

(5)100/11%

108. What is the difference between total number of male officers in Advertising and Public Relations Departments and the total number of female managers in these two departments?

(1) 240

(2) 180

(3) 150

(4) 200

(5) 220

109. What is the respective ratio between total number of female managers from Operations and Finance departments and the total numbers of male officers from these two departments?

(1) 4 : 5

(2) 3 : 5


(3) 1 : 2

(4) 3 : 4

(5) 2 : 3

110. Total number of male officers in Advertising and Sale departement is what percent of the total number of officers in the two departments?

(1) 52

(2) 54

(3) 56

(4) 58

(5) 54

111. Total number of female managers in Finance department is what percent of the total number of male employees in sales department?

(1) 72.5

(2) 76.25

(3) 40

(4) 82.75

(5) 88.5

112. What is the ratio between of total number of managers in Public Relation, Finance and Sales, and Operation departments and the total number of officers in Finance Advertising, Sales and Procurement departments, respectively?

(1) 7 : 8

(2) 11 : 13

(3) 6 : 7

(4) 13 : 15

(5) 13 : 16 Directions (Q. Nos. 113-117) These questions consist of a question and two

statements I and Ii given below it. You have to decide whether the data providing in

the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

choose the appropriate option.

113. What is the speed of the train? (in km/h)

I. The car takes 2 h more than the train to cover a distance of 264 km.

II. The train moves 22 km/h faster than the car.

(1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement Ii alone are sufficient to answer the

question

(2) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the


question

(3) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

(4) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in

statement II are not sufficient to answer the question

(5) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in

statement I are not sufficient to answer the question

114. How many students are there in the class?

I. The average weights of the class is 52 kg.

II. If two students weighing 44 kg and 52 kg leave the class and are replaced by two

students weighing 64 kg and 56 kg. The average weight of the class increases by 1.2 kg.

(1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the

question


question






115. In how many days can 14 men complete a piece of wouk?

I 18 women can complete that work in 24 days.

II. 28 children can complete that work in 56 days.


question


question






116. What was the percentage of discount given on the marked price of the table?

I. 15% profit was earned by selling the table for Rs. 14490. If there were not discount,

percent profit would have been 20%.


II. Cost price of table is Rs. 12600.


question

(2) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question






117. What is area of the circle? (in sq cm)

I. The diameter of the circle is 90 cm less than its circumference

II. The radius of the circle is equal to the length of a rectangle whose perimeter in 77 cm.


question


question



statement II are not sufficient to anwer the question


statement I are not sufficient to answer the question Directions (Q. Nos. 118-121) Study the information and answer the given questions.

A bag contains four blue shirts five red shirts and six yellow shirts.s

118. Three shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that exactly one of them is blue?

(1) 36/91

(2) 40/91

(3) 44/91

(4) 48/91

(5) 31/91

119. One shirt is drawn randomly. What is the probability that it is either red or yellow?

(1) 4/15

(2) 7/15

(3) 11/15


(4) 8/15

(5) 13/15

120. Two shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that both of them are blue?

(1) 3/35

(2) 1/35

(3) 2/35

(4) 5/35

(5) 6/35 121. If three shirts are drawn random 14, what is the probability that all the three shirts are of different colour.

(1)24/91

(2)36/91

(3)12/91

(4)42/91

(5)None of these Directions (Q. Nos. 122-126) Study the following information carefully to answer the

questions. As a part of renovation of an office flooring, painting and carpenting of a

hall is to be undertaken. The hall has length 16 m, breadth 12 m and height 5 m. Cost

of flooring is Rs. 2250/m2, cost of painting is Rs. 750/m2 and cost of carpenting is Rs.

850/m2.

122. What will the total cost of flooring the hall and painting the ceiling?

(1) Rs. 560000

(2) Rs. 576000

(3) Rs. 524000

(4) Rs. 580000

(5) Rs. 564000

123. What will be the cost of painting the four walls of the hall if it has a door of 1.6 m × 2.5 m and a window of 0.8 m × 1.5 m?

(1) Rs. 190900

(2) Rs. 208000

(3) Rs. 196800

(4) Rs. 198600

(5) Rs. 206100

124. What will be the cost of flooring the hall if the contractor offered 12% discount on the total cost?


(1) Rs. 380160

(2) Rs. 336440

(3) Rs. 328240

(4) Rs. 342320

(5) Rs. 360350

125. While painting the hall it was noticed that one wall on length side having no door or window required plastering which will cost Rs. 320/m2. What will be the cost of plastering and painting that particular wall?

(1) Rs. 85600

(2) Rs. 84400

(3) Rs. 82800

(4) Rs. 86400

(5) Rs. 85200

126. What will be the difference between the cost of painting the wall on length side and the wall on breath side neither of the walls has a door or a window?

(1) Rs. 14000

(2) Rs. 15000

(3) Rs. 15600

(4) Rs. 16000

(5) Rs. 14500 Directions (Q. Nos. 127-132) Study the following pie-charts and the information given

below them carefully and answer the questions given.


127. The total number of which level employees in both the organsiation together is maximum?

(1) A

(2) F

(3) C

(4) E

(5) D

128. The difference in the number of employees in the two organisation of which level is the maximum?

(1) A

(2) D

(3) E

(4) F

(5) C

129. The number of C level employees in organisation I is approximately equal to the number of which level employees in organisation II?

(1) B

(2) D

(3) F

(4) C

(5) A

130. Number of B level employees in organisation I is less than that in organisation II by what percent approximately?

(1) 60

(2) 55

(3) 59

(4) 40

(5) 45

131. What is the total number of F level employees in organisation level I and E level employees in orgainsation II together?

(1) 7916

(2) 2652

(3) 7116

(4) 8126

(5) 4464


132. The number of A level employees in organisation II is approximately what percentage of the number of D level employees in organisation I?

(1) 30

(2) 62

(3) 57

(4) 48

(5) 43 Directions (Q. Nos. 133-138) Study the table and answer the given questions :

(Consider each of the given companies equally distributed book among the districutors

working with it)

133. What was the average number of books published by companies A, C and D together?

(1) 5700

(2) 5900

(3) 5500

(4) 5300

(5) 6100

134. Number of books distributed by company B is what percent of the number of books distributed by company E?


135. Among the total number of books distributed by company D the respective ratio of academic and non-academic books was 5: 4. What was the number of non-academic books distributed by company D?

(1) 1200 (2) 1800

(3) 1400

(4) 1500

(5) 1600

136. Number of books received by each distributor working with company F was what percent more than the number of books received by each distributor working with company E?


137. What was the respective ratio between total number of books distributed by company A and the total number of books distributed by company C?

(1) 53 : 88

(2) 171 : 176

(3) 53 : 92

(4) 49 : 82

(5) 57 : 92

138. What was the difference between number of books received by each distributor working with company B and number of books received by each distributor working with company F?

(1) 252

(2) 260

(3) 264

(4) 268

(5) 256 Directions (Q. Nos. 139-144) Study the following graph carefully and answer the

questions given :

139. What is the percentage increase in the income of company Y from 2008 to 2010?

(1) 103/2

(2) 80/3

(3) 100/3

(4) 119/3

(5) 105/4


140. The total income of all the three companies together was minimum in which of the following years?

(1) 2011

(2) 2008

(3) 2009

(4) 2012

(5) 2007

141. In which year was the percentage increase in income of company Z from the previous year the maximum?

(1) 2010

(2) 2008

(3) 2012

(4) 2011

(5) 2009

142. What is the approximate average income of all the three companies together in 2011?

(1) Rs. 210 crore

(2) Rs. 240 crore

(3) Rs. 300 crore

(4) Rs. 260 crore

(5) Rs. 250 crore

143. What is the ratio between the total income of all three companies in 2007 and 2008, respectively?

(1) 5 : 7

(2) 4 : 7

(3) 3 : 4

(4) 4 : 5

(5) 3 : 5

144. The income of company Z in 2010 is what percentage of income of company y in 2011?


Directions (Q. Nos. 145-150) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.

Note (i) Profit = Income – Expenditure

(ii) Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) = 100

(iii) Loss = Expenditure – Income

(iv) Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) = 100

145. What is the total profit earned by the businessman in 2005 and 2008?

(1) 50 thousand

(2) 52 thousand

(3) 55 thousand

(4) 58 thousand

(5) 60 thousand

146. What is average profit earned by the businessman in 2005, 2007 and 2009 together? (in Rs. thousand)


(1) 240

(2) 260

(3) 320

(4) 280

(5) 360

147. What is the respective ratio between total profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2009 together and total loss incurred by him in 2006 and 2008 together?

(1) 13 : 11

(2) 11 : 7

(3) 11 : 9

(4) 15 : 13

(5) 13 : 9

148. Profit earned by the businessman in 2009 is what percent more than the profit earned by him in 2004?

(1) 162/3

(2) 221/3

(3) 122/3

(4) 142/3

(5) 181/3

149. Expenditure of the businessman increased by what percent from 2005 to 2008?

(1) 92.5

(2) 85

(3) 95

(4) 87.5

(5) 82

150. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2006 and 2008 together?

(1) 286/13

(2) 3610/13

(3) 321/13

(4) 384/13

(5) 348/13


SBI PO Exam Paper - (General Awareness, Marketing And Computer Knowledge)

151. Rules for exchanging data between compuers are called

(1) Programmers (2) Hyperlinks

(3) Hyper actions

(4) Procedure

(5) Protocols

152. As per RBI guidelines, banks are no longer allowed to penalise its customer for

(1) None-maintainers of minimum balance in cooperative accounts

(2) Non-maintained of minimum balance in current account

(3) Non-maintained of minimum balance in savings account

(4) Bouncing of cheques issued for non-availability of terms

(5) Premature withdrawal of term deposits

153. How many gigabytes are there in a prototype?

(1) 500000 (2) 100000

(3) 1000 (4) 100

(5) 001

154. Subject to compliance of security features the CBS complaint Urban Cooperative Banks can offer the following types of internet banking facility to their customers

(1) Non-fund based view only facility

(2) Payment of direct/indirect taxes

(3) Online-fund transfer from one account to another

(4) Online e-commerce facility

(5) Remittance of funds through NEFT/RTGS

155. Anoushka Shankar is a famous Indian

(1) Famous music director

(2) Guitarist


(4) Classical singer

(5) Sitarist

156. When a customer likes a product and talks about it, this becomes an example of


(1) Distalking

(2) Marketing

(3) Favouring

(4) Soliciting

(5) Word of mouth advertising

157. Which of the following is the autobiography of renowned politician K. Natwar Singh?

(1) Not just an accountant

(2) One life is not enough

(3) My life with Rajiv and Sonia

(4) The substance and the Shadow


158. Basically, the CTS-2010 standards issued by the Reserve Bank of India are

(1) Cheque forms specifications

(2) Systems specifications

(3) Procedures specifications

(4) Technology specifications

(5) Equipment specification

159. Which of the following instrument is in the hands of the RBI controls liquidity in the banking systems by regulating the money supply in the hands of tanks that they can pump in economy?

(1) Cash revenue ratio

(2) Credit deposit ratio

(3) Other than given as options

(4) Capital adequate ratio

(5) CASA ratio

160. Which of the following banks is a public sector banks?

(1) ICICI Bank (2) IDBI Bank

(3) HDFC Bank (4) J & K Bank

(5) PNB Bank


161. The RBI has come out with a new concept of bank licensing termed as the

‘Differentiated Bank License’. A differentiated Bank License will allow a bank to

(1) Open branches in only identified geographical areas

(2) Deal with only an identified class of customers

(3) Offer products only in select

(4) Offer services to specified institutions/customers

(5) Operate on principles of universal banking

162. The mission the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority is to protect the interests of the policy holders and to

(1) Ensure orderly growth of insurance industry

(2) Promote the development of financial infrastructure

(3) Specify listing and transfer of securities

(4) Regulate business of mutual funds

(5) Regulate the money and credit market

163. Which of the following schemes aims at tackling malnutrition and health problems of children below the age of 6 years and their memebers?

(1) Kasturba Gandhi Shishu Sangopan Yojana

(2) Kishore Vaigyanic Yojana

(3) Janani Suraksha Yojana


(5) Integrated Child Development Services

164. Which of the following country(ies) have the word „Dinar‟ in its/official currency?

1. Algeria 2. Iraq

3. Kuwait

(1) 3 and 2

(2) 1 and 2

(3) Only 1

(4) 2 and 3

(5) All of these

165. Shares of a close ended fund is setting at 20% premium over NAV and its NAV is Rs. 10.00 market price of the

(1) Rs. 10.00



(3) Rs. 11.00

(4) Rs. 12.00 (5) Rs. 8.00

166. Which button inExcel 2007 will automatically add the contents of a group of cells?

(1) Calculate

(2) Auto add

(3) Auto sum

(4) Formula

(5) Redo

167. In which of the following cases services marketing is resorted to?

(1) production houses

(2) only MNCs

(3) Banks and Insurance companies

(4) Public sector undertakings

(5) Industrial units

168. The SBI has recently launched a new facility called „M-passbook‟ for its retail banking users on its „State Bank Anywhere‟ mobile application. The facility enables users to

(1) Perform e-commerce transactions through their smartphone

(2) Bend requisition for cheque books through their smartphone

(3) Perform internet banking transactions through their smartphone

(4) Indicates view their transaction history on their smartphone

(5) remit funds under RTGS/NEFT through their smartphone

169. .............. indicates the buying process of customers.

(1) Evaluation of alternatives

(2) Separating needs and wants

(3) Purchase decision

(4) Information search

(5) Need recognition

170. The process of writing computer instructing in a programming language is known as

(1) Instructioning

(2) Coding

(3) Algorithming


(4) File

(5) Processing

171. The supply chain that stretches from raw materials to ............ represents a value delivery system.

(1) Final products for final buyers

(2) Warehouses for storage

(3) Production stage

(4) Suppliers

(5) Factory entrance point

172. Market Segmentation means

(1) Making selling arrangement

(2) Grouping sales team

(3) Grouping the customers as per their needs

(4) Grouping bank office staff

(5) Grouping the counter staff

173. An investor who wants to dematerialise his shares needs to open a demat account with

(1) The securities and Exchange Board of India

(2) The concerned company

(3) Any registered share broker

(4) A recognised stock exchange

(5) A depository participant

174. Which of the following is not parts of buying decision process of customer?

(1) Seeking discount

(2) Problem recognition

(3) Purchase design

(4) Information search

(5) Evaluation of alternatives

175. Which of the following sets of financial instruments is not derivatives?

(1) Floors and collars

(2) Future and forwards

(3) Swaps and options


(4) Caps and credit default swaps

(5) Equities and bonds

176. Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of countries names match of correct?

1. Constantnopie : Istambul

2. Mesopotamia : Parestine

3. Rhodesia : Zimbabwe

(1) Only 1 (2) 1 and 3

(3) All of these (4) Both 1 and 2

(5) 2 and 3

177. Which of the following is described as being too impersonal of one way communication?

(1) Sales promotion by door-to-door campaign

(2) Personal selling

(3) Direct marketing

(4) Public relations

(5) Advertising

178. A marketing network consists of the company and its

(1) Distributors only

(2) Employees only

(3) Supporting stock holders

(4) Shareholders only

(5) Suppliers only

179. Aggressive marketing is the result of

(1) Increased job solution

(2) Outsourcing

(3) Increased marketing staff

(4) Increased competition

(5) Increased production

180. The minimum wage ceiling for becoming a subscriber for social security schemes run by Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has now been raised to


(1) Rs. 1000 (2) Rs. 7500

(3) Rs. 15000 (4) Rs. 10000

(5) Rs. 1200

181. A(n) ............. analysis and executes each line of source code in succession, without looking at the entire programme.

(1) Compiler

(2) Device driver

(3) Utility

(4) operating system

(5) Interpreter

182. Value Added Service means

(1) Old products

(2) Extra service in addition

(3) Highly valuable products

(4) Low value products

(5) Substituted products

183. Which of the following is not a part of four P‟s of marketing mix?

(1) Place (2) Price

(3) Promotion (4) Product

(5) Person

184. The decisions such as which country to enter in, how to enter and how to introduce the products are required in

(1) Local markets (2) Global markets

(3) Social markets

(4) Government markets

(5) Service markets

185. ................ indicates working more closely with customers to add value to the operative.

(1) Gaobasing

(2) Merging

(3) Customer partnering

(4) Re-engineering

(5) Outsourcing


186. Which of the following is a village development project under which each member of Parliament will take the responsibility of development physical and institutional is the infrastructure is the identified village?

(1) Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

(2) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

(3) Provision of urban

(4) National Social Assistance Programme

(5) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana

187. A device designed to read information encoded into a small plastic card is

(1) Card puncher

(2) ID puncher

(3) Tape puncher

(4) Badge reader

(5) Magnetic tape

188. The Central government has recently merger of National Spot Exchange Limited (NSEL) with which of the following?

(1) Bombay Stock Exchange

(2) Financial Technologies of India Limited (FTIL)


(4) National Stock Exchange

(5) Tech Mahindra

189. Which of the following type of credit/debit cards are not required to be swiped at the Point of Sale (PoS) terminates instead, they have to be dipped into .............. the device and the cardholder is required to key in a unique PIN to complete the transaction.

(1) Magnetic Stripe Base Debit Cards

(2) Magnetic Stripe Base Credit Cards

(3) Chip Based Credit/Debit Cards

(4) Cell Based Credit/Debit Cards

(5) Sim Based Credit/Debit Cards

190. The unique mobile money transfer and payment service „M-Pesa‟ is the trademark of

(1) HDFC Bank

(2) IDEA Cellular

(3) Vodafone


(4) ICICI Bank

(5) IDBI Bank

191. The United Nations arm UNHRC acronym stands for United Nations

(1) Human Rights Council

(2) Human Rights Commission

(3) Human Resources Commission


(5) Human Religious Committee

192. Quantitative Easing as a term which is generally used to refer to a policy, which is adaptive?

(1) Cause money from the markets

(2) Put a ceiling on the loanable funds of banks

(3) Increase money supply in the economy

(4) Absorb excess supply in the economy

(5) Sell assets to the financial sector

193. United Nations Organisations (UNO) was set upon which of the following dates?

(1) October 30, 1944

(2) October 31, 1945

(3) October 20, 1944

(4) October 24, 1945


194. Product and Brand Management is sometimes characterised as

(1) Regional systems

(2) Segmental organisation

(3) Geographical systems

(4) Layered organisation

(5) Hub and spoke system

195. The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputer are combined and manufactured in a single silicon chip. What it is called?

(1) ALU

(2) Touchpad

(3) Control Unit


(4) Men chip

(5) Microprocessor

196. Jeffrey Fournie, an American was freed unexpectedly recently by the government of

(1) North Korea


(3) Syria

(4) South Korea

(5) Taiwan

197. National Chemical Laboratory is located at

(1) New Delhi

(2) Chandigarh

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Pune


198. Which of the following is used to write webpages?

(1) HTML

(2) Telnet

(3) HTTP

(4) URL

(5) FTP

199. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?

(1) Office XP (2) Office 2003

(3) Office 2004

(4) Office Vista

(5) Office 2003

200. URL stands for

(1) Uniform Retail Location

(2) Universal Resource List

(3) Uniform Research Locator

(4) Universal Research List

(5) Uniform Resource Locator

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