sbi junior associates mains model paper · what is the term for a bank without any branch network...

SBI Jr. Associates Mains Paper

TEST – I : GENERAL / FINANCIAL AWARENESS

1. The Google Doodle celebrated 30 years of the innovation of World Wide Web, on Mar 12, 2019. Who invented WWW?

(1) Tim Berners-Lee (2) Larry Page (3) Robert Cailliau (4) James Hendler (5) Charles Babbage 2. What is the present Annual Rate of Interest on Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)?

(1) 8.4% (2) 7.8% (3) 7.5% (4) 8.2% (5) 7.3% 3. Which former India hockey captain has been elected in the athletes standing committee of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA)?

(1) Manpreet Singh Pawar (2) Bharat Chetri (3) Dilip Tirkey (4) Sardar Singh (5) Ramandeep Singh 4. The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) recently appointed who among the following as the president for 2019-20?

(1) TV Narendran (2) Uday Kotak (3) Rakesh Bharti Mittal (4) Rajesh Gopinathan (5) Vikram Kirloskar

5. Which of the following is the parent organization of UPI? (1) RBI (2) GOI (3) NPCI (4) PMMY (5) SEBI

6. What is the term for a bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely? (1) Internet only Banks (2) Direct Bank (3) Lending Institution (4) Indirect Bank (5) Online Bank

7. Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan and Padma Shree are given on the eve of (1) Republic Day (2) Independence Day (3) Gandhi Jayanti (4) Pravasi Bhartiya Divas (5) New year

8. The Bureau of Police Research and Development under Union Home Ministry, gave "Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant Award" to Sunil Kumar Gautam for 2018-19 for his book (1) Samvidhan Sutra (2) Samvidhan Saral (3) Samvidhan Path (4) Samvidhan Suvidha (5) Samvidhan Kavya

9. The International Labour Day is observed every year on which date? The theme of Labour Day this year is - Uniting Workers for Social and Economic Advancement. (1) 01 Mar (2) 01 Apr (3) 01 May (4) 01 Jun (5) 01 Jul

10. The recently released book Game Changer is the autobiography of who among the following? (1) Sanath Jayasuriya (2) Shahid Afridi (3) Rohit Sharma (4) Hardik Pandya (5) Sachin Tendulkar

11. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently successfully test fired the Akash-1S missile. Akash is a/an (1) defence missile system (2) anti-submarine missile (3) air-to-air missile (4) surface to surface missile (5) anti-satellite missile system

12. Prime Minister Narendra Modi holds which of the following portfolios in the new govt? (1) Department of Space (2) Department of Atomic Energy (3) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (4) All the above (5) None of these

13. The Charminar is a monument and mosque located in- (1) Hyderabad (2) Bengaluru (3) Mumbai (4) New Delhi (5) Kolkata

14. Which of the following is not a measure adopted by the Government or RBI to control inflation? (1) Monetary policy (2) Fiscal policy (3) Bank Rate (4) Price control (5) Financial inclusion

15. How does a bank establish the identity of a customer? (1) By getting the introduction of an existing customer (2) By following KYC norms (3) By taking AADHAR card copy (4) All of the above (5) None of these

16. Which of the following institutes has emerged as the top Indian institute in the QS World University Ranking 2020? (1) Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay (2) Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee (3) Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur (4) Indian Institute of Technology Mandi (5) Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bangalore

17. Till what amount are deposits of public in NBFCs insured? (1) Rs. 1 lakh (2) Rs. 50,000/- (3) Not insured (4) Rs. 10,000 (5) None of these

18. The purpose of MUDRA is to provide funding to the non-corporate small business sector through various Last Mile Financial Institutions like- (1) Banks (2) NBFCs (3) MFIs (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

19. The total gross Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection in the month of June 2019 stood at (1) Rs. 99,939 cr (2) Rs. 98,114 cr (3) Rs. 98,057 cr (4) Rs. 97,812 cr (5) Rs. 97,209 cr

20. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along with the budget? I. An explanatory memorandum on the budget II. A summary of demands for grants III. An Appropriation Bill IV. A Finance Bill V. The economic survey (1) I, III and V (2) I, II and III (3) II, III and V (4) I, II, III and IV (5) None of these

21. While ruling in the case of Kulbhushan Jadhav, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) said that Pakistan had breached relevant obligations on Consular Relation under the

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(1) Paris Convention (2) Geneva Convention (3) Kyoto Protocol (4) Montreal Protocol (5) Vienna Convention

22. The Kune Falls is located in which state? (1) Maharashtra (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Goa (4) Odisha (5) West Bengal

23. International Women's Day is observed every year on March 08. What is the theme of 2019 International Women's Day? (1) Think Equal and Be Smart (2) Think Equal, Build Smart, Innovate for Change (3) Be Equal, Be Smart, Be Innovative (4) Be Equal, Be Smart, Bring Innovation (5) Think Equal, Be Smart, Be Innovating for Change

24. Which of the following schemes available in the financial markets is not meant for investment purposes? (1) National savings certificates (2) Infrastructure bonds (3) Mutual funds (4) Letter of credit (5) None of these

25. Who has won the 2019 Templeton Prize? (1) King Abdullah II (2) Marcelo Gleiser (3) Alvin Plantinga (4) Jean Vanier (5) Desmond Tutu

26. Jack Dorsey is the present chief executive officer (CEO) of which of the following firms? (1) Facebook (2) Yahoo! (3) Twitter (4) Instagram (5) Whatsapp

27. Which organization has released the draft guidelines to modify the loan system for delivery of bank credit, making the rules stricter to regulate larger borrowers enjoying working capital facility from the banking system? (1) SBI (2) RBI (3) SEBI (4) NABARD (5) Finance Ministry

28. ISRO’s launch vehicle PSLV-C45 placed 28 foreign satellites and an intelligence satellite in their orbits recently. The primary satellite in the rocket was (1) INTELSAT (2) EMISAT (3) VISIONSAT (4) VIEWSAT (5) INDOSAT

29. Mount Agung erupted in which of the following countries recently? (1) Italy (2) Indonesia (3) Malaysia (4) Jamaica (5) Japan

30. The RBI recently divested its entire stake in Nabard and NHB in favour of central govt. The divestment was based on the recommendations of the (1) Narasimham Committee-II (2) Nachiket Mor Committee (3) YV Reddy Committee (4) YH Malegam Committee (5) Vyas Committee

31. Which of the following banks has its headquarters located in Chennai? (1) UCO bank (2) Bank of India (3) Corporation Bank (4) Indian Overseas Bank (5) Syndicate Bank

32. Industries in China have been found releasing ozone-depleting CFC-11 gas. CFCs were banned in 1987 by the (1) Geneva Protocol (2) Montreal Protocol (3) Vienna Convention (4) Kyoto Protocol (5) Basel Convention

33. The winner of the Jnanpith award for the year 2018 is (1) Salman Rushdie (2) Arundhati Roy (3) Anita Desai (4) Vikram Seth (5) Amitav Ghosh

34. Recently, a team of Tribhuvan University and National Geographic Society scientists and researchers have installed world's highest fully automated weather station on top of which mountain? (1) Godwin Austen (2) Mount Everest (3) Kangchenjunga (4) Mount Kilimanjaro (5) None of these

35. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the MUDRA Yojna. I. It has been initially formed as a wholly owned subsidiary of Small Industries Development bank of India (SIDBI) with 100% capital being contributed by it. II. According to this joyna, loan is issued through Mudra credit card with a pre-assigned credit limit and the repayment tenure is as high as 7 years. (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II (5) None of these

36. __________is a loan in India made by non-resident lenders in foreign currency to Indian borrowers. (1) Syndication (2) Commercial Paper (3) Treasury Bill (4) Bridge loan (5) External commercial borrowing

37. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has budgeted to receive dividends worth about what amount from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2019-20? (1) Rs. 1.2 lakh crore (2) Rs. 1.4 lakh crore (3) Rs. 1.6 lakh crore (4) Rs. 1.8 lakh crore (5) Rs. 1.9 lakh crore

38. Who has become the first-ever Indian batsman to score a century in the first session of a Test match? (1) Shikhar Dhawan (2) Murali Vijay (3) Ajinkya Rahane (4) K L Rahul (5) Ravindra Jadeja

39. The parameters that invite Prompt Corrective Action from the central bank are- (1) Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio (2) Net Non-Performing Assets (NPA) (3) Return on Assets (RoA) (4) Leverage ratio (5) All of the Above

40. The availability of cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as (1) cash crunch (2) liquidity (3) credit (4) marketability (5) None of these

41. Which of the following is governed by the provisions of Section 42 (1) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934? (1) Bank rate (2) Reverse Repo Rate (3) SLR (4) CRR (5) MSF

42. The minimum paid-up equity capital for small finance banks shall be---------- (1) Rs. 100 crore (2) Rs. 200 crore (3) Rs. 300 crore (4) Rs. 400 crore (5) Rs. 500 crore

43. Which of the following IT companies has recently signed an MoU with the govt of Andhra Pradesh to build a center of excellence (CoE) for additive manufacturing (AM) powered by HP's 3D printing technology? (1) Google (2) Infosys (3) Wipro (4) Hewlett Packard (5) Mindtree

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44. The largest shareholder of a Public Sector Banks (PSBs) is? (1) RBI (2) Government of India (3) NABARD (4) Finance Ministry (5) None of

these 45. Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) is being to set up to prevent leakages and development of the-

(1) Treasury Market (2) Bond Market (3) Money Market (4) Capital Market (5) Call Money Market 46. The Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the following states?

(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Uttarakhand (3) Haryana (4) Bihar (5) Jharkhand 47. What is the difference between 'vote-on account' and 'interim budget'?

I. The provision of a vote-on-account is used by a regular government, while interim budget is provision used by a caretaker government. II. A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in government's budget while an interim budget include both expenditure and receipts Which of the following statement (s) given above are correct? (1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II (5) None of these

48. Dong is the currency of which of the following country? (1) Vietnam (2) Iran (3) Denmark (4) Iraq (5) Saudi Arabia

49. Who is the Present Governor of Gujarat? (1) Om Prakash Kohli (2) Jagdish Mukhi (3) Satya Pal Malik (4) Vajubhai Vala (5) Ganga Prasad

50. The Darrah National Park (DNP) is located in (1) Maharashtra (2) Odisha (3) Kerala (4) Rajasthan (5) Assam

TEST – II : GENERAL ENGLISH Directions (Q. 51-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The U.S. and China are now reckoning with the potential costs of their trade conflict to their domestic economies. Whether last week’s punitive tariffs threat by the U.S. on Chinese imports will explode in a full-blown trade war between the two countries is an open question. The answer may depend in part on the Trump administration’s broader aim to counter the ‘Made in China 2025’ strategy, which aims to transform China’s economy from a manufacturing base to a world leader in scientific innovation.

To that end, the United States Trade Representative (USTR), in August 2017, launched suo motu an investigation into China’s alleged unfair trade practices related to technology transfer, innovation and intellectual property. The Section 301 probe reflected diminishing U.S. support for the World Trade Organization, in the same manner as the U.S. Commerce Department’s launching of an investigation against dumping and subsidies of Chinese aluminium last November. The USTR findings have singled out strategic Chinese innovation enterprises in the robotics, semiconductors, aerospace and information technology sectors as examples of non-reciprocal investment practices, denial of competitive advantage and intellectual property theft. While many of these concerns resonate across Europe and beyond, coordinated action between these countries and a unilateralist U.S. to counter China’s quest for global dominance seems unlikely. If anything, uncertainty over the 25% and 10% global tariffs imposed in March on U.S. steel and aluminium imports respectively, on grounds of national security, has principally affected Washington’s traditional allies and exposed an indiscriminate America First approach.

In a torrent of tit-for-tat tariffs announced last week, China retaliated with increased duties on 128 U.S. (mostly) farm and food products worth $3 billion. This was followed by the U.S.’s 25% increase in duty on over 1,000 industrial and technology items worth $50 billion, resulting from the USTR investigation, triggering a matching retaliation from Beijing targeting soybeans, cars and chemicals.

As the US-China trade relationship deteriorates countries with the biggest economies in the world, such as Japan, are warning that free trade is under threat. “Japan must protect the framework of free trade based on the WTO," Taro Kono, Japan's foreign minister said. American trade representatives also fear Chinese companies, including state owned ones, will now look for other countries to trade with. “We’ve heard from some member companies that any deterioration in US-China relations may open the door for some of their international competitors to capture their market share in the China market," Jacob Parker, US-China Business Council, Vice President of China Operations, said.

Both sides are now reckoning with the potential costs to their domestic economies from the pain they propose to inflict on each other. After all, manufacturing jobs in America’s Rust Belt states would be hit by the latest U.S. tariffs. Similarly, the soybeans levy will likely hurt Chinese consumer demand for cooking oil and animal feed. Given growing opposition, even among Republicans, against the extreme economic nationalists in their party, the political fallout from the contentious tariffs could be huge for U.S. President Donald Trump in the November mid-term Congressional elections. Equally, China’s largely exports-driven economy may not have enough elbow room to withstand further escalation of ongoing trade battles. The U.S.’s 2017 merchandise exports to China were up 12.8% over a year earlier, in stark contrast with a rise from 2.1% in 2000 to 8.4% in 2017, says a 2018 U.S. Congressional Research Service report. It calls for reflection on the meaning of the U.S. trade deficit. 51. What is ‘Made in China 2025’ strategy?

(1) innovation in the robotics, semiconductors, aerospace and information technology sectors. (2) Upto the year 2025 Chinese companies will extend their international markets including state owned ones and will look for other countries

to trade with including Japan. (3) Escalating its export driven economy to withstand trade battles. (4) To transform China’s economy from a manufacturing base to a world leader in scientific innovation. (5) Both (1) and (4).

52. What is the meaning of the phrase ‘suo motu’? (1) to dare to do something. (2) to investigate lawfully. (3) where a government agency acts on its own cognizance(4) from nothing comes nothing. (5) none of these.

53. In context of the passage what could be the advantage for other countries by deterioration in U.S.-China relations?

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(1) Japan’s continued economic development will bring the country increasingly into direct competition with the United States. (2) it may open the door for some of their international competitors to capture their market share in the China market. (3) Manufacturing jobs in other countries would not be hit by the latest U.S tariffs. (4) China and other countries will have enough room to withstand further escalation of ongoing trade battles. (5) None of these.

54. What must be the appropriate title for the passage? (1) China and its illegal strategies. (2) Made in China 2025 (3) Tit-for-tat tariffs (4) U.S. and China’s quest for global dominance (5) None of these.

55. What are the factors that have affected Washington’s traditional allies? (1) strategic Chinese innovation enterprises in the robotics, semiconductors, aerospace and information technology sectors. (2) China retaliated with increased duties on 128 U.S. (mostly) farm and food products worth $3 billion.

(3) Uncertainty over the 25% and 10% global tariffs imposed in March on U.S. steel and aluminium imports respectively, on grounds of national security. (4) Both (1) and (2) (5) Both (2) and (3)

Directions (Q. 56-60): In the following questions, a phrase is given in bold whose meaning can be inferred from one of the highlighted words/phrases of four sentences given below each phrase. Choose the most appropriate meaning of the phrase among the four options that can also be replaced by the given phrase without altering the meaning of the sentence. If none of the sentences conveys the correct meaning, choose (5) i.e., “None of the above” as your answer.

56. UNDER THE WEATHER (1) The lazy worker lied and told his boss he was indisposed because he did not want to go into the office. (2) The officers were still reluctant to unleash their troops in pursuit of a defeated enemy. (3) Despite the surreal experience, Jessi saw something in his face that reminded her of the cousins. (4) He turned off only to find he was trapped in a town square with no easy exit. (5) none of the above

57. LOW HANGING FRUIT (1) For the beauty-care industry, the teen demographic is a new category for them to easily obtain . (2) Many people consider her decision to be a breach of trust. (3) Voters don't like political advertisements in which opponents disparage one another. (4) The next morning, she was very docile, but evidently homesick. (5) none of the above

58. THE DEVIL IS ON THE DETAIL (1) School districts are incredibly chary about hiring people with criminal backgrounds. (2) She shrugged with as much elegance as she could muster, and eyed him with deliberate interest. (3) The little girl was so disconsolate after her puppy ran away that her parents put up posters all over the neighborhood. (4) There are overlooked problems in experimenting with people in behavioral intervention trials (5) none of the above

59. RED HERRING (1) Since the airline lost two of my bags, I have scanty clothing for my vacation.

(2) Christian suppressed his political opponents under the pretense of defending an ecclesiastical system which in his heart he despised. (3) She squinted towards the blazing buildings to see a dark figure half-trotting, half-limping towards them. (4) It was not difficult to discern that Ellen killed her husband for the million-dollar life insurance policy. (5) none of these

60. CUTTING CORNERS (1) Even though my doctor has been brusque with me at times, I still like him because he is generally a nice person. (2) The miserly billionaire complained about paying two dollars for a cheeseburger. (3) Because I have a limited amount of money, I am trying to economize and spend less on food than I usually do. (4) Although Ms. Priya is a beautiful and talented actress, she has a reputation for being churlish and difficult to get along with.

(5) none of these

Directions (Q. 61-65): Select the phrase/connector (STARTERS) from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

61. (1) The government has done well in areas such as infrastructure and energy. (2) Government’s performance has been lack luster in health, agriculture and education. (i) Although the government has done…. (ii) Despite the government’s performance to… (iii) But the government has done…

(1) only (i) (2) only (ii) (3) only (iii) (4) both (i) and (ii) (5) All (i), (ii) and (iii) 62. (1) Modi embarked on active diplomatic efforts to boost India’s diplomatic ties. (2) India’s relations with key neighbours, such as China and Pakistan, have deteriorated in spite of the efforts to improve the ties. (i) Despite Modi’s active diplomatic efforts… (ii) Modi’s diplomatic efforts are however… (iii) Notwithstanding, Modi’s active diplomatic efforts

(1) both (i) and (iii) (2) only (ii) (3) only (iii) (4) only (i) (5) All (i), (ii) and (iii) 63. (1) India is experiencing a cyclical upswing in economic growth, impacted last year.

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(2) The temporary disruptions of last year like demonetisation and the goods and services tax (GST) has helped the country in its economic growth.

(i) India’s economic growth with… (ii) India is experiencing… (iii) The temporary disruptions… (1) only (ii) (2) both (ii) and (iii) (3) only (iii) (4) only (i) (5) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

64. (1) It was felt that holding back students to repeat a grade would undermine universal elementary education. (2) This led to the no-detention policy in the Right to Education Act. (i) With holding back… (ii) Although holding back… (iii) Considering the fact that holding...

(1) only (ii) (2) both (ii) and (iii) (3) only (iii) (4) only (i) (5) All (i), (ii) and (iii) 65. (1) Prime Minister Narendra Modi believe that more than 1,400 archaic laws that were an obstacle to doing business have been

abolished. (2) The new liberal laws have failed to invite more foreign investors in the third-largest Asia’s economy. (i) Despite Prime Minister Narendra Modi…

(ii) While inviting foreign investors… (iii) Since the new liberal laws…

(1) only (ii) (2) both (ii) and (iii) (3) only (iii) (4) only (i) (5) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Directions (Q. 66-70): There are sets of statements in question given below which when connected using the correct sentence structure forms a single complete sentence without altering the meaning of the sentences given in the question. There are four options given below the question, choose the sentence that forms the correct formation of a single sentence which is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. If none follows, choose (5) as your answer.

66. in the last two years the relationship between crude oil and natural gas went for a toss; reason being increasing levels of domestic re-gasification capacities; to increase the support for imports of the supercooled LNG.

(1) During the last two years the relationship between crude oil and natural gas went for a toss because of the increasing levels of domestic re-gasification capacities to supporting the increase of the imports of supercooled LNG.

(2) Over the last two years, the relationship between crude oil and natural gas went for a toss due to the increasing levels of domestic re-gasification capacities which have been lending support to increase imports of the supercooled LNG.

(3) since the last two years, the relationship between crude oil and natural gas is in the toss, due to the increased level of domestic re-gasification capacities for supporting the increased imported supercooled LNG.

(4) The increasing level of domestic re-gasification capacities to support the increase of the imports of supercooled LNG is an effect of a toss in the relationship between crude oil and natural gas in the last two years. (5) none of these

67. to sell a chronic loss-making airline like Air India; even under the best of circumstances is going to be a hard sell; the government made it harder to sell; it included all manners of caveats while not addressing the investor pain points.

(1) Selling a chronic loss-making airline like Air India was, under the best of circumstances, going to be a hard sell, but the government went and made it harder by putting in all manners of caveats while not addressing the investor pain points.

(2) Even under the best circumstances it is difficult to sell a chronic loss-making airline like Air-India as the government made it harder to sell whereas including all manner of caveats without addressing the investor pain points.

(3) The government made the chronic loss-making airline like Air India more hard to sell even under the best circumstances by putting in all manners of caveats to not address the investor pain points.

(4) To sell a chronic loss-making airline like Air India is hard, even under the best circumstances since the government made it harder by including all manners of caveats while not addressing the investor pain points. (5) none of these

68. Nepal and India signed just three new agreements; a partnership in agriculture has been signed; they plan for their connectivity through inland waterways; to expand linkages to connect Indian railway lines to Kathmandu; this will break the tradition of signing a long list of documents.

(1) Nepal and India has just signed three new agreements mentioning partnership in agriculture, plans for connectivity through inland waterways along with, expanding linkages to connect Indian railway lines to Kathmandu, breaks the tradition of signing a long list of documents.

(2) In order to break the tradition of signing a long list of documents, Nepal and India signed just three new agreements about a partnership in agriculture, plan for connectivity through inland waterways while expanding linkages to connect Indian railway lines to Kathmandu.

(3) Nepal and India just signed three new agreements to break the tradition of signing a long list of documents by signing a partnership in agriculture, formulating plans for connectivity through inland waterways as well as, by expanding expand linkages to connect Indian railway lines to Kathmandu.

(4) Nepal and India signed just three new agreements, a partnership in agriculture, as well as plans for connectivity through inland waterways and expanding linkages to connect Indian railway lines to Kathmandu, breaking the tradition of signing a long list of documents. (5) none of these

69. zero pricing of power for agriculture; it led to enhanced land productivity; at the expense of over-mining ground water; it will be a serious threat to our survival in the not too distant future.

(1) zero pricing of power for agriculture may led to enhanced productivity since it costs the over-mining ground water which will be a serious threat to our survival in the not too distant future.

(2) zero pricing of power for agriculture leads to enhancing the land productivity with the expense of mining ground water and seriously threatening our survival in the not too distant future.

(3) Zero pricing of power for agriculture has indeed led to enhanced land productivity, but at the expense of over-mining ground water and seriously threatening our survival in the not too distant future.

(4) The enhancing land productivity will lead the expense of mining ground water which will become a serious threat to our survival in the not too distant future by of zero pricing for agriculture. (5) none of these

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70. there may be an acquisition of the Russian defence system; the capability to have military interoperability with the US would be complicated; it could jeopardise proposed sales of American armed drones; the MQ-9 Reaper or Predator-B are those drones.

(1) The capability to have military interoperability with the US would become complicated with the acquisition of the Russian defence system, which could jeopardise proposed sales of American armed drones such as the MQ-9 Reaper or Predator-B are those drones.

(2) The acquisition of the Russian defence system would complicate the capability to have military interoperability with the US and could even jeopardise proposed sales of American armed drones like the MQ-9 Reaper or Predator-B.

(3) The acquisition of Russian defence system could complicate the capability to have military interoperability with the US by jeopardising proposed sales of American armed drones such as the MQ-9 Reaper or Predator-B are those drones.

(4) The sale of American armed drones such as the MQ-9 Reaper or Predator-B would be jeopardize due to the acquisition of Russian defence system that would complicate the capability to have military interoperability with the US. (5) none of these

Directions (Q. 71-80): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Paragraph 1: We celebrated Mother’s Day a few weeks ago— a day which makes us reflect on everything our mothers have done for us. Whether by staying at home and sacrificing their careers for us or by making sure that they packed our lunch boxes by getting up at 5am since they were out at work too. Most of us have reached where we are by dint of the effort our mothers (working or otherwise) put into our upbringing. It was thus rather disconcerting to have read an article titled Women in the workforce — no role for public policy, published on 7 May in this paper, which does litS51 tle to encourage the already abysmal population of women at work by invidiously suggesting that working moms are failures insofar as child rearing goes compared to their stay-at-home sisters. I certainly champion free speech and believe that the ability to listen to opposing points of view is necessary for any kind of intelligent discourse, so here’s where I’d like to step in to make a counter argument. Paragraph 2: In his article, V. Anantha Nageswaran talks about the need for public policy to stay out of the discussions on encouraging women to be a larger part of the workforce. He presents his facts in a way that make you think that he is handing out freedom of choice, while the tone is skewed towards convincing women to fulfil their traditional, socially enforced role — that of being a nurturer, leaving the hunting to their more capable partners. He argues that when the International Monetary Fund says that increasing the labour force participation rate for women will increase India’s economic growth rate they are confusing correlation and association with causation. Nageswaran stands guilty of making the same mistake when he uses the World Happiness Report to insinuate that an educated stay-at-home mother with emotional and intellectual stability, is likely to bring up emotionally healthy humans and thus likely to contribute more to economic growth than she would by spending time at work. He further adds that there is a significant opportunity cost to having women in the work place. Paragraph 3: This is in stark contrast to the facts as they stand. A recent McKinsey Global Institute report on “The power of parity: Advancing women’s equality in Asia Pacific”, projected India achieving an 18% increase over business-as-usual GDP just by advancing women’s equality. McKinsey further found that if the gender gap is closed in their “full potential” scenario, up to $28 trillion extra could be added to global GDP growth by 2025. So clearly, there is an economic and empirically verified case for having more women in the workplace. Paragraph 4: While the writer caveats his argument by saying that women must make that conscious choice themselves and public policy has no role in that, his tone endorses the benefits of women staying out of the workforce. He forgets that today there are enough examples of working women bringing up intellectually and emotionally balanced children. A woman who is fulfilling her inherent potential and achieving her personal goals is more likely to be emotionally secure herself than possibly a woman who is forced to stay at home precisely for the arguments made above. Paragraph 5: Women today should not have to feel like they are failing in their maternal and wifely duties just because they have chosen to put their personal ambitions on par with the needs of their families. Women do not raise their hands enough because society has led them to question their capabilities and priorities at every step of the way. To balance out these pressures every woman needs the support of public policy. That is precisely why these discourses and decisions to “interfere” are so important to build a fair and equitable society. In the constant struggle to ensure that women get their rightful place under the sun, these articles do nothing but push the onus of guilt even more strongly on women themselves. This calls to mind a Hindu prayer which asks to, “Give wisdom to the strong and courage to the weak”. Public policy and many of us are helping by trying to instil courage in our women, but who will teach wisdom to the strong? 71. Why the author seems anxious and curious in the first paragraph of the passage?

(1) As the author found the content of the article irrelevant to the theme of the subject. (2) As the author recognized the article on ‘Women in the workforce’ as bewildering. (3) As finding the other side of the coin is what the author believes in. (4) both (2) and (3) (5) All are correct.

72. Which of the following arguments suggested by the author of the article against the participation of women in nation building in paragraph 2?

(I)Women can better help in nurturing an emotionally healthy human than spending their time at work. (II)Participation of women at the work place may cause the loss of opportunity cost. (III)Contribution of men towards the economic growth is totally incomparable to women. (1) Only (I) (2) Both (I) and (II) (3) Both (II) and (III) (4) Only (III)

(5) All (I), (II) and (III) 73. What conclusion did the author arrive at?

(1) Women must be treated equal to men. (2) Women should be allowed to work as they contribute GDP growth of the nation. (3) Women should not be allowed to work for better upbringing of the children. (4) Women should be given the right to make choices on their own. (5) None of the above.

74. The author’s tone in context to the passage is (1) descriptive (2) argumentative (3) sarcastic (4) analytical (5) cynical

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75. The author has used the phrase “Give wisdom to the strong and courage to the weak” in the passage. what does ‘strong’ refers to in context to the passage? (1) Women (2) The public policy (3) Government (4) Society (5) The Articles

76. Which of the following alternatives among the five provides the most similar meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage?

Abysmal (I) atrocious (II) deplorable (III) woeful (IV) dreadful

(1) Only (I) (2) Only (II) and (III) (3) Only (III) and (IV) (4) Only (I), (II) and (IV) (5) All are correct


Caveats (I) nefarious (II) admonition (III) caution (IV) detritus



Onus (I) liability (II) encumbrance (III) plausible (IV) obligation


79. Which of the following alternatives among the five provides the most opposite meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage?

Insinuate (I) splendid (II) contrite (III) withhold (IV) conceal


80. Which of the following alternatives among the five provides the most opposite meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage?

Disconcert (I) unravel (II) rigorous (III) unperturbed (IV) encourage


Directions (Q. 81-85): Answer the following questions after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph and identify the sentence that doesn’t fit into the context of the paragraph.

(A) In the spirit of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, the Goan government promised to make the State garbage-free by 2020. (B) In Candolim beach, for example, plastic and glass bottles are ubiquitous. This shows that tourists and beachgoers lack basic civic

sense. (C) However, Behaviour change communication on tourist-focussed waste management is non-existent in Goa. (D) With a population of 18.2 lakhs and an economy geared for tourists, is Goa prepared to reach this milestone? Quite possibly not. (E) The apparent dichotomy between their desire to enjoy a beach and their garbage-related attitude can be explained in terms of

people equating the beach to revelry and not to nature’s beauty. (F) Nevertheless, it is uncertain whether concern for nature would prevent littering. Perversely, tourists coming to imbibe the

much-marketed carefree spirit of Goa have no qualms in pretending that waste disposal has nothing to do with collective enjoyment of this public good.

81. Considering statement (A) “In the spirit of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, the Goan government promised to make the State garbage-free by 2020.” as the first sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which among the following fails to become the part of a coherent paragraph? (1) C (2) F (3) E (4) B (5) D

82. Considering statement (A) “In the spirit of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, the Goan government promised to make the State garbage-free by 2020.” as the first sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which one among the following can consecutively follow the last statement after the rearrangement (excluding the incoherent one)? (1) There are no police or other such representatives on beaches who are empowered to enforce the law and hand out fines. (2) The effort to clean India, particularly the tourist sites, is revealing stark realities about waste management in the country.

(3) It also provides manpower and equipment for clearing garbage from the beaches, which are frequented by tourists in large numbers. (4) Their ability to add to the litter and enjoy a dirty beach is something unique to this part of the world.

(5) A cleanliness drive went full-throttle in the beach state 16 months ago and the authorities have collected close to 20 lakh kilograms of garbage.

83. Among the following pairs which one of them is formed with two consecutive statements after the rearrangement? (1) A – E (2) E – F (3) B – C (4) A – F (5) D – C

84. Which one among the following sentences can interlink the second and the third sentence of the rearranged paragraph? (1) It is known for its beautiful beaches which are now covered with lakhs of tonnes of garbage and both people as well as the authorities, have

let it happen over the years.

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(2) Goa with its 101km of coastline that attracts tourists for its sun and sand has a dubious distinction of throwing up 41kg of beach litter per head. (3) The only solace that the state could find was that its beaches did not have any electronic waste

(4) Plastic and other non-biodegradable synthetic materials are the common groups of debris responsible for degradation of marine habitats. (5) none of these

85. Considering statement (A) “In the spirit of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, the Goan government promised to make the State garbage-free by 2020.” as the first sentence of the rearranged paragraph, identify the correct sequence of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph (excluding the incoherent one). (1) ACBFE (2) ADEFB (3) ADBEF (4) ABDFE (5) ACBED

Directions (Q. 86-90): In the questions given below few sentences are given which are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them by the word given above the statements in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning. Choose your answer accordingly from the options provided to form a correct, coherent sentence.

86. UNLESS (A) The new President of the Court of Appeal has warned waiting times of at least 22 months for appeal hearings will get worse. (B) The former COA president Mr. Justice Sean Ryan had retired last March and Mr. Justice Paul Gilligan earlier this month. (C) The judges due to retire would have more time to actually hear cases rather than have to be freed to write up judgments. (D) The new judges need to be appointed urgently to reduce the delays and cancellations for appeal hearings

(1) Only A-D (2) Only A-C (3) Only A-B (4) Both A-B and C-D (5) None of these

87. ALTHOUGH (A) There has been an increase in the number of birds and animals seen at the sanctuary. (B) According to a recently conducted forest census, small and native birds are under threat. (C) The release of kites in the sanctuary is the reason why small birds feel threatened. (D) This has led to a decrease in the number of small birds which are moving away because of the threat from raptors.

(1) Only A-D (2) Only A-C (3) Only A-B (4) Both A-B and C-D (5) None of these

88. NOTWITHSTANDING (A) Finance Committee will be evaluating other potential reductions. (B) As a result of the levy failure, we have been working to find ways to further reduce and control our expenses. (C) There has been a planned reduction in the cost of production and maintenance. (D) The need for additional funds remains for the development of a new product.

(1) Only C-D (2) Only A-C (3) Only A-B (4) Both A-B and C-D (5) None of these

89. BECAUSE (A) There is a huge heap of garbage on Mumbai-Goa Expressway which is feeding site for kites. (B) There has been a rise in the number of eagles, hawks and vultures in the area. (C) Every year, nature lovers and forest officials conduct the census on Buddha Purnima. (D) Birds like eagles, hawks and vultures thrives on the garbage lying around the area.

(1) Only A-D (2) Only B-D (3) Only A-B (4) Both A-B and B-D (5) None of these

90. WHEREAS (A) The data also provides insight into areas where there is stress. (B) In 2017-18, growth rate of exports lagged that of imports by a significant margin. (C) Agriculture, which provides a livelihood for close to half the work force, has grown at a slower pace in every single quarter of 2017-18. (D) The spike in crude prices needs to be offset by prudent fiscal management at all levels of government.

(1) Only A-D (2) Only B-D (3) Only A-B (4) Both A-B and C-D (5) None of these

TEST – III : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Directions (Q. 91 – 95) : In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

(1) if x>y (2) if x≥y (3) if x<y (4) if x ≤y (5) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

91. I. 36 - 13x + 1 = 0 II. 24 - 14y + 1 = 0

92. I. 36 + 33x – 20 =0 II. 12 + 46y + 40 = 0

93. I. 2 + 7x – 60 = 0 II. 3 - 32y + 80 = 0

94. I. 14 + 11x + 2 = 0 II. 42 - 11y - 3 = 0

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95. I. 5 - 46x + 96 = 0 II. 10 - 57y + 80 = 0

96. If ratio of investment A, B and C are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 8 and the time of investment of A, B and C are 100/3%, 80% and 25% respectively of their value of investment, and profit of A is 4800 then what will be the profit of C. (1) 25,600 (2) 15,600 (3) 24,800 (4) 22,500 (5) 26,700

97. If the volume and curved surface area of a cylinder and respectively, what is the total surface area of the cylinder (in

m2)? (1) 429 (2) 419 (3) 435 (4) 421 (5) 417

98. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables Mr. Bhadra to buy a extra 5 kg of it for Rs. 320. The original rate of sugar is (1) Rs. 12 per kg (2) Rs. 15 per kg (3) Rs. 16 per kg (4) Rs. 20 per kg (5) Rs. 18 per kg

99. A and B can do a piece of work in 25 days and 30 days respectively. They start the work together but after some days. A leaves the job. B alone does the remaining work in 8 days. Find after how many days does A leave the job? (1) 12 days (2) 8 days (3) 10 days (4) 16 days (5) 14 days

100. A car driver leaves Bangalore at 8.30 A.M. and expects to reach at place 300 km from Bangalore at 12.30 P.M. At 10.30 he finds that he has covered only 40% of the distance. By how much he has to increase the speed of the car in order to keep up his schedule ? (1) 45 km/hr (2) 40 km/hr (3) 35 km/hr (4) 30 km/hr (5) 28 km/hr

Directions (Q. 101 – 105) : Study the following pie chart and table carefully and answer the questions based on them.

Percentage of people in New Delhi working in Night Shifts from various industrial fields Note: Total people working in night shift in Banking are 5635 in number.

101. Find the ratio of number of male to female working in night shift from the Manufacturing and Banking industry respectively.

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 17 : 7 (4) 1 : 2 (5) 5 : 2 102. Females working in night shift in Sales industry are what percent of males working in night shifts in Gaming industry?

(1) (2) (3) 35% (4) 41% (5)

103. Find the total number of male from call centers, females from Gaming and males from Banking industry together who work in night shifts ? (1) 11614 (2) 11814 (3) 11714 (4) 11914 (5) 11818

104. 50% females working in night shifts in IT industry left the job and joined the Manufacturing industry in same shift. Find the difference in the new number of females in the two industries. (1) 966 (2) 483 (3) 865 (4) 1932 (5) 432

105. Males working in Banking industry are by what percent more or less than that in IT? (1) 21% (2) 25% (3) 18% (4) 12.5% (5) 23%

Directions (Q. 106 – 110) : Table given below shows five different mobile phones sold in Amazon sale, percentage of total 32 GB mobile phone sold, percentage of total 64 GB sold mobile which returned out of total sold 64 GB mobile phone, also total returned mobile phone out of total sold mobile Phones. Read data carefully and answer the questions:

106. If total returned mobile phone of ‘A’ is 560 and total 64 GB returned mobile phone of ‘D’ is 325% more than total 64 GB returned

mobile phone of ‘A’. Find total 32 GB returned mobile phone of ‘A’ is what percent of total 32 GB returned mobile phone of ‘D’?

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(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

107. Ratio between total returned mobile Phone of ‘B’ to total returned ‘D’ is 8 : 7. If total number of 32 GB sold mobile of ‘B’ is 1950 more than total number of total 32 GB sold mobile of ‘D’ and total 64 GB returned mobile of ‘D’ is 600 less than that of ‘B’. Find difference between total 64GB returned mobile phone of ‘D’ and total sold 32 GB mobile phone sold of ‘D’? (1) 1800 (2) 1600 (3) 1400 (4) 1200 (5) 1000

108. Total number of phone ‘A’ & ‘E’ sold is 8800. If total phone ‘E’ sold is 20% more than total phone ‘A’ sold and out of total sold ‘E’ phones 15% phone returned. Find ratio between total returned 32 GB mobile phone of ‘E’ to total returned 64 GB mobile phone of ‘A’? (1) 8 : 5 (2) 102 : 65 (3) 108 : 65 (4) 100 : 67 (5) 110 : 67

109. Total number of phone ‘A’, ‘C’ and ‘E’ sold is 14400 and ratio of total sold mobile phones of ‘A’, ‘C’ and ‘E’ is 5 : 7 : 6 respectively. If out of total sold mobile phone of ‘B’ and ‘E’, 18% and 15% phone returned respectively, then find the total number of returned mobiles phones in this sale? (1) 6684 (2) 6384 (3) 6680 (4) 6844 (5) 6840

110. If total number of returned phone of ‘D’ is 1365 more than total returned phone of ‘A’ then find total number of mobile phones that are not returned of both brands? (1) 10265 (2) 10255 (3) 10250 (4) 10260 (5) 10200

Directions (Q. 111 – 115) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series ?

111. 10, 15, 45, 270, 3240, ? (1) 72250 (2) 77760 (3) 75260 (4) 85280 (5) 762560

112. 12, 26, 81, 328, 1645, ? (1) 9981 (2) 8281 (3) 7321 (4) 9876 (5) 9978

113. 1024, 512, ? , 16, 1, 0.03125 (1) 64 (2) 128 (3) 256 (4) 216 (5) 324

114. 374, 355, 317, 260 , 184, ? (1) 95 (2) 92 (3) 90 (4) 85 (5) 89

115. 30, 45, 90, 225, 675, ? (1) 1685 (2) 1791.5 (3) 2250 (4) 2362.5 (5) 2476.75

116. A boat covers total distance of 360km downstream in three equal parts with the speed of boat be 4x km/hr, 5x km/hr and 7x km/hr respectively. If speed of stream is x km/hr and boat takes total 29.5 hours, then find boat will cover total given distance upstream in three equal parts with three givens speeds? (1) 36 hours (2) 40 hours (3) 45 hours (4) 48 hours (5) 54 hours

117. Fourteen applications apply for a job out of which there are 9 men and 5 women. If only three applications selected for the job then find the probability that at least one of the selected application is of a woman? (1) 60/91 (2) 10/13 (3) 80/91 (4) 40/91 (5) 50/91

118. P, Q and R entered into a partnership with their initial capital in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 8 respectively. After third month P withdrew 1/3 rd of his initial capital and Q withdraw half of his initial capital. After six months more ‘P’ increased his capital by 100%, ‘Q’ increased by 300% and R increased by 25%. If at the end of an year, difference between profit share of Q and R was Rs. 7000, then find profit share of P? (1) 5500 Rs. (2) 5000 Rs. (3) 6500 Rs. (4) 5200 Rs. (5) 4500 Rs.

119. In a city 60 percent are male and remaining are females. Out of total males, 20% of male are government employees. Out of remaining males, ratio between private employees to unemployed male is 5 :7. Out of total females, 40% of female are in government jobs and out of remaining females 40% of female work for private firms and remaining are unemployed. Find the total number of male and female, who are government employees, if difference between male and female who are unemployed is 3400? (1) 6000 (2) 5000 (3) 7000 (4) 4000 (5) 3000

120. A mixture contains wine and water in the ratio of 3 : 2 and another mixture contains them in the ratio of 4 : 5. How many litres of the latter must be mixed with 3 litres of the former so that the resultant mixture may contain equal quantities of wine and water ?

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Directions (Q. 121 – 125) : Data regarding number of students in different streams in a school is as follows:

Total number of students in school X is 1500. Out of total boys 25% are in Commerce which is 40 more than number of girls in same stream. Number of girls in Non-medical stream is 30% of total number of girls in school. Number of girls in Medical stream is 15% of total number of boys in school. Total number of students in Arts stream is 26% of the total number of students in school. Ratio between total number of students in Commerce to total number of students in Arts is 12 : 13. Number of boys in Medical stream is 150% more than number of girls in same stream. 121. Find the ratio between total number of students in Medical stream to total number of students in Commerce stream?

(1) 5 : 6 (2) 7 : 6 (3) 7 : 8 (4) 6 : 7 (5) 7 : 5 122. Total number of girls in Medical and Non-Medical stream together is what percent more/less than total number of boys in

Non-Medical and Arts stream together? (1) 30% (2) 20% (3) 10% (4) 15% (5) 5%

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123. In school Y, number of boys in Arts stream is 45% of total number of boys in school ‘Y’. If total number of boys in school ‘Y’ is 35% more than total number of boys in school X, then find number of boys in Arts stream in school ‘Y’ is what percent of the number of boys in Medical stream in school ‘X’? (1) 162% (2) 158% (3) 152% (4) 148% (5) 142%

124. Average number of boys in Medical, Non-Medical and Arts stream together is how much more/less than average number of girls in same streams together? (1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 0 (4) 10 (5) 20

125. In which stream total number of students is second highest? (1) Medical (2) Non-Medical (3) Commerce (4) Arts (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 126 – 130) : The following questions are accompanied by two statements (i) and (ii). You have to determine which statement(s) is/are necessary/sufficient to answer the question.

(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii) (3) Only (i) or Only (ii). (4) Both (i) and (ii) together required. (5) Both (i) and (ii) are not sufficient

126. In a group of boys and girls, 20% boys and 30% girls like the game chess. Find the total number of boys in the group. (i) Number of boys like chess is equal to the number of girls like chess. (ii) 70 girls present in the group do not like chess. 127. Find the probability of getting one rotten egg. (i) Probability of getting 2 rotten egg from the total of 10 egg is 2/15. (ii) Number of rotten egg is 2 less than the number of fresh egg. 128. Find the rate of interest. (i) A sum invested on S.I. for 5 year becomes Rs5160. (ii) A sum become 4 times after 2 year on C.I 129. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle having center O. Find the length of AB (i) length of BC and CR is given

(ii) Radius of circle and length of OA is given.

130. Find the profit on selling an article? (i) It is found that profit calculated on selling price is 20%. (ii) Article is marked 50% above cost price and a discount of 20% is given on it. If 5% less discount is given, then he could have earn Rs.75.6

more.

Directions (Q. 131 – 135) : What approximate value should come at the place of question (?) mark:

131. (1) 45 (2) 55 (3) 75 (4) 65 (5) 72

132. (1) 3500 (2) 4200 (3) 3570 (4) 3640 (5) 3710

133. (1) 36 (2) 18 (3) 24 (4) 48 (5) 56

134. (1) 3800 (2) 4000 (3) 3400 (4) 3600 (5) 4500

135. (1) 56 (2) 48 (3) 72 (4) 64 (5) 78

136. A trader buys goods at 20% discount on marked price. If he wants to make a profit of 25% after allowing a discount of 20%, by what percent should his marked price be greater than the original marked price ? (1) 15% (2) 65% (3) 25% (4) 20% (5) 30%

137. A car travels from P to Q at a constant speed. If its speed were increased by 10 km/h, it would have been taken one hour lesser to cover the distance. It would have taken further 45 minutes lesser if the speed was further increased by 10 km/h. The distance between the two cities is (1) 540 km (2) 420 km (3) 600 km (4) 620 km (5) 500 km

138. A man gave 50% of his savings of Rs.84,100 to his wife and divided the remaining sum among his two sons A and B of 15 and 13 years of age respectively. He divided it in such a way that each of his sons, when they attain the age of 18 years, would receive the same amount at 5% compound interest per annum. The share of B was (1) Rs. 20,000 (2) Rs. 20,050 (3) Rs. 22,000 (4) Rs. 22,050 (5) Rs. 22750

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139. A, B and C can do a job in 6 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. After 1/8 of the work is completed, C leaves the job. Rest of the work is done by A and B together in :-

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

140. A bucket contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the proportion 6 : 5. If 33 litres of the mixture is replaced by 33 litres of liquid B, then the ratio of the two liquids becomes 3 : 4. How much of the liquid A was there in the bucket? (1) 84 litres (2) 48 litres (3) 70 litres (4) 64 litres (5) 60 litres

TEST – IV : REASONING ABILITY & COMPUTER APTITUDE Directions (Q. 141 – 142): Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I & II given below is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

P © Q means P is not smaller than Q P % Q means P is not greater than Q P # Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q Give Answer : (1) If only conclusion I is true (2) If only conclusion II is true (3) If either I or II is true (4) If neither I or II is true (5) If both I and II is true

141. Statements: F % T, T @ J, J # W. Conclusions: I. T @ W II. J # F 142. Statements : R # D, D © K, K $ M, M % J. Conclusions: I. M # R II. K $ J 143. The argument about whether demonetisation was good or bad for the economy refuses to die down even a year after the event.

While one can endlessly debate, with very little data, on whether the ban on high-value currency notes dealt a body blow to terrorism, corruption and counterfeiting, one area in which its impact can be quantified with data is tax compliance. In FY18, net collections increased by 17.1%.

Which of the following can be postulated from the given statement? I. Counterfeiting of notes was one of the major concern for Government of India. II. Many economists has termed it wrong as it has impact badly on the weaker section of the society. III. There has been revamp in the percentage increase of direct tax with respect to indirect tax.

(1) Only III (2) Both I and III (3) Both II and III (4) Only II (5) None of these 144. “Dowry” which is illegal in India but it is entertained very pleasantly by the family members and grooms itself. They take it as their

birth right. There is a mindset in society that women have to take care of kitchen, babies and home and men have to see their office only. But the bitter truth is that a woman gives many sacrifice in comparison to men in persuasion of society. Which of the following is not in line according to above statement?

I. There should be awareness program about dowry which should be regulated in the society on timely basis. II. There should be law of death penalty for rape cases which is a must do step in India. III. It is also believed that women should follow the customs that are made by the society for better civilization.

(1) Only III (2) Both I and III (3) Both II and III (4) Only II (5) None of these 145. Many employees of a company whose basic salary is 20k starts playing IPL game on Dreams11 in office premises. Five employees

have won 5k each as a prize money in a single day and its craze is increasing among other office employees. But it is just like betting and starting phase of compulsion.

Which of the following can be the fallout of this activity? I. There may be adverse impact on working in office premises. II. Income from Dream11 will boost net earning up to 25k, which will be supplement for office employees. III. Craving to earn money in short time may give them wrong direction, and its impact may be reflected to their earning.

(1) Only III (2) Both I and III (3) Both II and III (4) Only II (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 146 – 150): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 30 use 56 rat 27 animal 23 tiger 20 mouse 15 acute. Step I: 20 30 use 56 rat animal 23 tiger mouse 15 acute 27. Step II: mouse 20 30 56 rat animal 23 tiger 15 acute 27 use. Step III: 30 mouse 20 56 rat animal tiger 15 acute 27 use 23. Step IV: rat 30 mouse 20 56 animal tiger 15 27 use 23 acute. Step V: 56 rat 30 mouse 20 animal tiger 27 use 23 acute 15. Step VI: tiger 56 rat 30 mouse 20 27 use 23 acute 15 animal. Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given

input. Input: best 40 37 ice hot 50 25 under ape trend 33 18 38 sun 21 open.

146. In which step are the elements ‘best 18 50 ape trend 21’ found in the same order? (1) Fifth (2) Seventh (3) Fourth (4) Sixth (5) There is no such step

147. How many steps will be required to complete the above input?

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(1) Eight (2) Six (3) Five (4) Seven (5) None of these 148. How many words or numbers are there between ‘under’ and ‘38’ as they appear in the sixth step of the output?

(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (5) Seven 149. In the seventh step of the rearrangement, ‘best’ is related to ‘38’and ‘open’ is related to ‘33’ in a certain way. Which of the following

would ‘hot’ be related to, following the same pattern? (1) sun (2) ice (3) trend (4) 40 (5) 37

150. Which of the following represents the position of ‘37’ in the last but one step? (1) Ninth from the left end (2) Tenth from the left end (3) Seventh from the right end (4) Sixth from the right end (5) Both (2) and (3)

Directions (Q. 151 – 155): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.

Twelve students i.e. M, B, F, R, P, C, O, D, N, A, E and Q. They all joins dancing classes on the different days of the week starting from Monday and ending on Saturday but not necessarily in the same order. The timing of the dance classes is 10:00 am and 4:00 pm on each day. Only one student attend the class at a time and only two students attend the dancing class on each day.

There are three students who attend their classes between R and Q. D attend his class immediately before C. O attend his dance class one of the day after Wednesday. A attends dancing class one of the day after B, but not the day immediate after. E attend the dancing class immediately after A. There are four students who attend the dancing class between M and A. E does not attend the dancing class in the evening. Student R and F attend the dance classes on the same day. B does not attend the class in the morning. P attend the dancing class on the last day of the week but not with M. N and O attend the dance class on the same time but on the different days of the week. There are three student who attend their class between C and E. N does not attend his dance class on Monday. F attends his dance class immediately after B. 151. Who among the following attend the class on Saturday morning?

(1) A (2) M (3) P (4) N (5) C 152. How many students attend the class between F and A?

(1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) Four (5) No one 153. Who among the following attend the dance class immediately after Q?

(1) N (2) D (3) C (4) O (5) None of these 154. How many students attend their classes after C?

(1) More than four (2) Four (3) One (4) Two (5) None of these 155. Who among the following attend his/her dance class on Tuesday (10:00 am)?

(1) R (2) F (3) A (4) M (5) D

Directions (Q. 156 – 160): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Eight friends i.e. Z, F, J, T, X, R, P and A are sitting around a circular table and facing to the centre. They are doing the preparation of different exams i.e. CGL, Assistant, PO, Clerk, IES, CHSL, IIT, and IAS but not in same order. They have exams on different dates of same month in same year.

IAS exam is going to be held on 26th. P does not do the preparation of IAS and sits 2nd right of the one who is doing the preparation of IES. The one, who is immediate neighbor of P whose exam is on 2nd, is doing the preparation of Clerk. The one who is doing the preparation of CGL which is going to be held on 9th, sits 2nd right of the one who is doing the preparation of Clerk. F sits immediate left of J and J sits 2nd right of R who is doing the preparation of IIT which is going to be held on 18th. The one whose exam is on 18th sits opposite to P. The one who is doing the preparation of Assistant sits 2nd right of F. A and Z does not do the preparation of Assistant. X’s exam is on 9th. Z does not do the preparation of PO, IAS and Clerk. Z’s exam is on 12th. T ‘s exam is on 17th. A’s exam is on 20th and J’s exam is going to be held on the date just after the date on which A’s exam is going to be held. 156. Who among the following is doing the preparation of PO?

(1) A (2) T (3) R (4) J (5) P 157. Which exam is going to be held on 12th?

(1) Clerk (2) PO (3) IAS (4) CHSL (5) CGL 158. Who sits 2nd right of the one whose exam is going to be held on 17th?

(1) A (2) T (3) R (4) X (5) J 159. Who sits opposite of J?

(1) Z (2) T (3) X (4) P (5) A 160. How many friends sit between P and F, when counted left of P?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 161 – 165): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:

(1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. (5) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

161. Six persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T and U who all lives in a multistorey building such that ground floor is numbered 1 and above it 2nd and so on till the top floor which is the 6th floor. Who lives just above U?

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I. More than two person lives below R. Two person lives between S and R. U is not the immediate neighbour of R(i.e. not immediate above or immediate below). T lives below U.

II. Q lives one of the floor below on which P lives. S does not live on the ground floor. Two person lives between U and T. 162. Among the class of 45 students what is the rank of Atul from the left? I. Anshika is 3rd to the left of Monika, who is 17th from the left. Atul is sitting exactly between Monika and Rahul. II. Monika is five places to the right of Anshika, who is 19th from the right. Rahul is seven places to the left of Monika and is five places to the

right of Atul. 163. A person prepares different food item in his bakery shop on the different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday for his

personal work(only one food item is prepared in a day). Which of the following item is prepared on Thursday? I. He prepares muffin on third day of the week. Two items were prepared between the day on which Biscuit and Pastry are prepared. Cake is

prepared after Biscuit but not immediately after. II. Cookies is prepared one of the day after Wednesday. Pastry is prepared after Cake. Two items are prepared between Cake and Rusk. 164. Some people are sitting in a row facing North. Find out how many people sit in the row? I. C sits third to the right of A. Neither A nor C sits at the extreme end of the row. II. E who sits second to the right of C sits immediate left of D. Not more than eight persons sits in the row. 165. In which year was Shiva born ? I. Shiva at present is 19-year younger to his mother. II. Shiva's brother, who was born in 1964, is 35 years younger to his mother.

Directions (Q. 166 – 170): In each question given below a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given/suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing and decide the answer.

166. Statement: Discount offers provided by organised retail chains are increasingly eating into the small retailers' pie, thus creating a problem for manufacturers in spite of the hype around the retail boom.

Courses of action: I. An effort should be made to dissuade customers from purchasing the products on discounts. II. All such manufacturers should stop supplying products to organised retail chain. III. Efforts should be made by the manufacturers for commercial dialogues with the retail chain.

(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III (3) Only I and III (4) All I, II and III (5) None of these 167. Statement: According to a report, 35-40 per cent of water supplied in city XYZ is lost due to transmission and distribution losses,

pilferage and lack of accountability. Courses of action: I. Efforts should be made to reduce such losses through proper check and balance system. II. Efforts should be made to procure sophisticated equipment for better leak detection and also a comprehensive programme be launched to

repair and replace old and worn-out pipe lines. III. Disciplinary action should be taken against all those persons who are found guilty in pilferaging of water.

(1) Only I and II (2) Only II (3) Only I and III (4) All I, II and III (5) None of these 168. Statement: Sugar mills have said that they will not be able to pay the minimum price fixed by the government for sugarcane for the

next season. Courses of action: I. The government should appoint a committee to look into the matter. II. A notice should be sent to all sugar mills owners to abide by the decision made by the government. III. Disciplinary action should be taken against all those sugar mill owners who are ready to violate the government's decision.

(1) Only I (2) Only II and III (3) Only I and III (4) All I, II and III (5) None of these 169. It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in the engineering colleges in the country remain vacant at the

end of the admission session. Which of the following may be the probable cause of the above effect? (1) There has been a considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to economic slowdown in the recent years

(2) Students have always preferred to complete graduation in three years time instead of four years for engineering (3) The Government has recently decided to provide post qualification professional training to all engineering graduates at its own cost

(4) There has always been a very poor success rate among the engineering students (5) None of the above

170. The condition of the roads in the city has deteriorated considerably during the first two months of monsoon and most of the roads have developed big pot holes.

Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause? (1) The municipal corporation had repaired all the roads in the city before onset of monsoon with good quality material (2) A large number of people have developed spine related injuries after regularly commuting long distances by road within the city (3) The municipal corporation has been careful in choosing the contractors for repairing roads in the past (4) People always complain about potholed roads during the monsoon months (5) None of the above

171. A is father of X; B is mother of Y. The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following statements is definitely not true? (1) B is the mother of Z (2) X is the sister of Z (3) Y is the son of A (4) B has one daughter (5) B is the wife of A

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172. Pointing to a woman, Meenu says to Ankit, “she is my mother who has only two child’s and her only son is your maternal uncle.” In this relation Meenu is Female. How is the narrator related to Ankit’s father? (1) Brother (2) Wife (3) Sister (4) Mother (5) Father

173. Mohan starts walking in the west direction and walks for 8 km, then he takes a right turn and walks for 5 km again he takes a right turn and walks for 2.5 km and at last he takes a right turn walks for 5 km, then in which direction and at what distance is Mohan from his initial position? (1) 5 km west (2) 5.5 km East (3) 5 Km East (4) None of these (5) 5.5 km west

174. If 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 8756432 and 1 is added to each even digit in number then which of the following digit is repeated in the number so obtained ? (1) 9 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 7 (5) None of these

175. How many pairs of letters are there in the word “PARAMOUNT” which have as many letters as according to English alphabetical series? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four

Directions (Q. 176 – 180): Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

Six employees of an organization i.e. B, C, F, E, G, and D are living in Eight storey building in which two floors are vacant which is at even numbered floor. They are going to attend their friends’ wedding ceremony in different cities. These cities are Kanpur, Manali, Kullu, Pune, Delhi and Lucknow but not necessary in same order. Top floor is not vacant. The one who is going to attend the wedding in Kanpur, lives on odd numbered floor which is just above the one of the Vacant floor. E lives below to C but not just below. There are two employees live between the one who is going to attend wedding in Kanpur and the one who is going to attend the wedding in Kullu. B lives just above D who is at odd numbered floor. The one who is going to attend the wedding in Lucknow lives on 4th floor. C lives immediate below the one who is going to attend the wedding in Lucknow. The one who is going to attend the wedding in Kanpur lives below the one who is going to attend the wedding Kullu. G lives on 5th floor which is just below one of the Vacant floor. G is not going Manali and Pune. The one who is going to attend the wedding in Pune lives below the one who is going to attend the wedding in Manali. 176. Who among the following is going to attend the wedding in Pune?

(1) E (2) G (3) C (4) F (5) D 177. Who among the following lives on 4th floor?

(1) E (2) C (3) G (4) F (5) B 178. Who among the following lives just above the 1st vacant floor from bottom?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) G (5) F 179. On which floor, the one who is going the attend the wedding in Manali, lives?

(1) 7th (2) 8th (3) 3rd (4) 4th (5) 5th 180. Who among the following lives on Ground floor?

(1) D (2) B (3) F (4) E (5) G

Directions (Q. 181 – 185): These questions are based on the following information.

In a certain code: ‘severe cash crunch again’ is coded as ‘M*Z S@X V#H S#X’. ‘Finance Ministry has emphasis’ is coded as ‘B$N H&S H$V V©U’. ‘Reserve Bank India has claimed’ is coded as ‘Z*R V©I H&S W©X P@Y’.

181. What will be the code for ‘Emphasis’?

(1) V©U (2) H&S (3) B$N (4) H$V (5) None of these

182. What will be the code for ‘Bankers’?

(1) Y©H (2) Y&B (3) H©Y (4) B$Y (5) M35 C12

183. Which of the following will be the code for ‘Renews’?

(1) H#I (2) H&I (3) I#H (4) I$O (5) None of these

184. Which of the following can be coded as ‘L*A’?

(1) Jaxes (2) Zumbo (3) Judge (4) April (5) None of these

185. What could be the code for ‘Court has judges’?

(1) G*X H$S Q#H (2) G*X H$S H#Q (3) G@X H$S H#Q (4) G*X H$S H@Q (5) G*X H&S H#Q

Directions (Q. 186 – 190): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.

There are eight friends i.e. Atul, Rajat, Monika, Swati, Raman, Shruti, Rahul and Anshika, are sitting around a square table in such a

way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sits in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four

corners faces the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. They all have different monthly income.

Raman’s salary is 30k less than Atul’s monthly income. Rahul sits 2nd to the right of Raman. Monika sits third to the right of Shruti,

whose monthly income is twice the monthly income of Swati. Rajat’s monthly income is 4k more than the twice of monthly income of Anshika.

One of the friend whose monthly income is 48k does not face outside. Anshika sits third to the right of Raman. Raman’s monthly income is 3k

more than the monthly salary of Swati. Monika’s monthly income is 39k. Only one person sits between Monika and Raman. Monika’s monthly

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income is 2k less than the monthly income of Rahul, who sits third to the right of Rajat. Atul face outside. Rahul’s monthly income is 5k more

than the monthly income of Anshika. Atul’s monthly income is 18k more than Monika’s monthly income.

186. What is the monthly income of Swati?

(1) 24k (2) 48k (3) 57k (4) 25k (5) None of these

187. Who among the following faces inside?

(1) Atul (2) The one whose monthly income is 27k

(3) Monika (4) The one whose monthly income is 76k

(5) The one whose monthly income is 41k

188. Who among the following sits third to the right of Swati?

(1) The one whose monthly income is 39k (2) The one whose monthly income is 76k

(3) The one whose monthly income is 41k (4) The one whose monthly income is 48k (5) None of these

189. If Anshika is related to the one whose monthly income is 48k and in the same way Atul is related to Monika, then in the same way

how Rajat is related?



(5) The one whose monthly income is 48k

190. How many persons sits between Swati and Atul when counted in anti-clock direction with respect to Swati?

(1) Three (2) Two (3) Four (4) Five (5) No one

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ANSWER KEY

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HINTS & SOLUTIONS 51. (5) Refer to the first paragraph where it is mentioned that

Trump administration’s broader aim is to counter the ‘Made in China 2025’ strategy, which aims to transform China’s economy from a manufacturing base to a world leader in scientific innovation. Also in the second paragraph we are talking about strategic Chinese innovation enterprises in the robotics, semiconductors, aerospace and information technology sectors. Hence option (5) is the answer.

52. (3) It is mentioned that the United States Trade Representative (USTR), in August, 2017, launched ‘suo motu’ an investigation into China’s alleged unfair trade practices related to technology transfer, innovation and intellectual property. This clearly means that the USTR acted by its own motion that is by its own cognizance to look into the matters of China’s alleged unfair trade practices.

53. (2) Refer to the fourth paragraph it is illustrated that as the US-China trade relationship deteriorates countries with the biggest economies in the world, such as Japan, are warning that free trade is under threat. American trade representatives also fear Chinese companies, including state owned ones, will now look for other countries to trade with. They've heard from some member companies that any deterioration in US-China relations may open the door for some of their international competitors to capture their market share in the China market.

54. (3) Option (3) stands out as the best title for the passage. This is so since the whole passage is talking about the tariffs imposed by China and U.S. and how they are retaliating to each other which is causing a deterioration in their relations and a impact on their domestic economies. This is also making the international competitors to capture their market share in the China market.

55. (3) Refer to the second paragraph which gives statistical data that if anything, uncertainty over the 25% and 10% global tariffs imposed in March on U.S. steel and aluminium imports respectively, on grounds of national security, has principally affected Washington’s traditional allies and exposed an indiscriminate America First approach. Hence option (3) is the most suitable choice.

56. (1) The idiom ‘ under the weather’ means slightly unwell or in low spirits. Moreover, ‘ indisposed’ which is an adjective means ‘ slightly unwell’. Therefore, the most suitable word that depicts the meaning of the given idiom without altering the context of the sentence is ‘indisposed’. Hence, option (1) becomes the most viable answer choice.

Unleash means to cause (a strong or violent force) to be released or become unrestrained.

surreal means having the qualities of surrealism; bizarre. Turned off means leave one road in order to join another. 57.(1) The idiom ‘low hanging fruit’ means the most easily

achieved of a set of tasks, measures, goals, etc. Moreover, ‘ obtain ’ which is a verb means ‘ get, acquire, or secure (something)’. Therefore, the most suitable phrase that depicts the meaning of the given idiom without altering the context of the sentence is ‘easily obtain’. Hence, option (1) becomes the most viable answer choice.

Breach means an act of breaking or failing to observe a law, agreement, or code of conduct.

Disparage means to regard or represent as being of little worth. Docile means ready to accept control or instruction; submissive. 58. (4) The “ devil is in the detail" is an idiom that refers to a

catch or mysterious element hidden in the details, meaning that something might seem simple at a first look but will take more time and effort to complete than expected . Therefore, the most suitable phrase that depicts the meaning of the given idiom without altering the context of the sentence is ‘overlooked problems’ . Hence, option (d ) becomes the most viable answer choice.

Chary means cautiously or suspiciously reluctant to do something. Deliberate means done consciously and intentionally. Disconsolate means very unhappy and unable to be comforted. 59.(2) A red herring is something that misleads or distracts from

a relevant or important issue. It may be either a logical fallacy or a literary device that leads readers or audiences towards a false conclusion. Moreover, ‘ pretense’ which is a noun which means ‘ an attempt to make something that is not the case appear true’. Therefore, the most suitable phrase that depicts the meaning of the given idiom without altering the context of the sentence is ‘pretense’. Hence, option (2) becomes the most viable answer choice.

Scanty means small or insufficient in quantity or amount. Squinted means to look at someone or something with one or both

eyes partly closed in an attempt to see more clearly or as a reaction to strong light.

Discern means distinguish (someone or something) with difficulty by sight or with the other senses.

60. (3) The “cutting corners " is an idiom that refers to do something perfunctorily so as to save time or money . ‘perfunctorily’’ means to done quickly and without showing that you care or have much interest: Therefore, the most suitable phrase that depicts the meaning of the given idiom without altering the context of the sentence is ‘economize’. Hence, option (3) becomes the most viable answer choice.

Brusque means abrupt or offhand in speech or manner. Miserly means of or characteristic of a miser. Churlish means rude in a mean-spirited and surly way. 61. (1) Only starter (i) can be used to frame a meaningful

sentence respectively without altering the exact meaning of the given sentences. However, it is not possible to construct a contextual sentence using the second and the third starters as it would alter the intended meaning. Hence option (1) is the correct choice.

(i) Although the government has done well in areas such as infrastructure and energy, its performance has been lack luster in health, agriculture and education.

62. (1) Both the starters (i) and (iii) can be used to frame a meaningful sentence respectively without altering the exact meaning of the given sentences. However, it is not possible to construct a contextual sentence using the third starter as it would alter the intended meaning. Hence option (1) is the correct choice.

(i) Despite Modi’s active diplomatic efforts to boost India’s diplomatic ties, India’s relations with key neighbours, such as China and Pakistan, have deteriorated.

(iii) Notwithstanding, Modi’s active diplomatic efforts to boost India’s diplomatic ties, its relations have deteriorated with key neighbours, such as China and Pakistan.

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63. (2) Both the starters (ii) and (iii) can be used to frame a meaningful sentence respectively without altering the exact meaning of the given sentences. However, it is not possible to construct a contextual sentence using the first starter as it would alter the intended meaning. Hence option (2) is the correct choice.

(ii) India is experiencing a cyclical upswing in economic growth, impacted last year due to temporary disruptions like demonetisation and the goods and services tax (GST).

(iii) The temporary disruptions of last year like demonetisation and the goods and services tax (GST) has led to the cyclical upswing in country’s economic growth.

64. (3) Among the three starters, only (iii) can give a meaningful sentence without altering the intended meaning of the given two statements. The other two options will give inappropriate meanings to the sentence. Hence option (3) is the correct choice.

(iii) Considering the fact that holding back of students to repeat a grade would undermine universal elementary education, no detention policy in the Right to Education Act has been introduced.

65. (4) Among the three starters, only (i) can give a meaningful sentence without altering the intended meaning of the given two statements. The other two options will give inappropriate meanings to the sentence. Hence option (4) is the correct choice.

(i) Despite Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s belief of more than 1,400 archaic laws that were an obstacle to doing business have been abolished, Asia’s third-largest economy has failed to receive foreign investors.

66. (2) Among the given four options, elimination of incorrect sentences can be easily carried out based on their inappropriate grammar usage like in the case of options (1) and (3). Moreover, they have altered the basic and true meaning of the sentence as asked in the question. Similarly, option (4) is incorrect in sentence structure which deviates the meaning of the sentence. Thus options (1), (3) and (4) are inept to the required answer. However, sentence (2) depicts the correct grammar usage along with its sentence structure which adds meaning to the sentence so formed after their unison. Hence option (2) is the correct sentence regarding both grammar and context.

67. (1) Among the four options, sentence (2) can be eliminated on the basis of both grammatical error and incorrect meaning of the sentence. Sentences (3) and (4) are inept based on their incorrect use of sentence structure which completely alters their meanings. Therefore, only option (1) stands to be grammatically and contextually correct. Hence option (1) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

68. (4) Among the given four options, elimination of incorrect sentences can be easily carried out based on their inappropriate grammar usage like in the case of option (1). Similarly, option (2) and (3) are incorrect in sentence structure which deviates the meaning of the sentence. Thus options (1), (2) and (3) are inept to the required answer. However, sentence (4) depicts the correct grammar usage along with its sentence structure which adds meaning to the sentence so formed after their unison. Hence option (4) is the correct sentence regarding both grammar and context.

69. (3) Among the given four options, elimination of incorrect sentences can be easily carried out based on their inappropriate grammar usage like in the case of option (1). Similarly, option (2) and (4) are incorrect in sentence structure which deviates the meaning of the sentence. Thus options (1), (2) and (4) are inept to the required answer. However, sentence (3) depicts the correct

grammar usage along with its sentence structure which adds meaning to the sentence so formed after their unison. Hence option (3) is the correct sentence regarding both grammar and context.

70. (2) Among the four options, sentence (1) can be eliminated on the basis of both grammatical error and incorrect meaning of the sentence. Sentences (3) and (4) are inept based on their incorrect use of sentence structure which completely alters their meanings. Therefore, only option (2) stands to be grammatically and contextually correct. Hence option (2) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

71. (4) With respect to the first paragraph of the passage, we can conclude that both the sentences (2) and (3) are correct. The article, which author finds disconcerting or bewildering, deals with the theme of child rearing done better by women at home rather than women at work. Hence the author wants to listen the opposing points of view after coming to any conclusion, this makes option (4) as correct answer choice.

Refer the lines “…an article titled Women in the workforce — no role for public policy, published on 7 May in this paper, which does little to encourage the already abysmal population of women at work by invidiously suggesting that working moms are failures insofar as child rearing goes compared to their stay-at-home sisters. I certainly champion free speech and believe that the ability to listen to opposing points of view is necessary for any kind of intelligent discourse, so here’s where I’d like to step in to make a counter argument.”

72. (2) The author of the article has put forward his own arguments in second paragraph against the participation of women in nation building. He has given ample explanations where he describes women as a nurturer rather than considering them a potential worth for the country’s economy. Both the first and the second statements can be inferred from the paragraph. However, the last statement doesn’t justify the author’s point of view as he hasn’t pointed anywhere in the passage regarding the issue. Hence option (2) is the correct choice in the context of the passage.

Refer the lines “He presents his facts in a way that make you think that he is handing out freedom of choice, while the tone is skewed towards convincing women to fulfil their traditional, socially enforced role — that of being a nurturer, leaving the hunting to their more capable partners.”

“He further adds that there is a significant opportunity cost to having women in the work place.”

73. (4) Refer the lines mentioned in the fifth paragraph of the passage “Women today should not have to feel like they are failing in their maternal and wifely duties just because they have chosen to put their personal ambitions on par with the needs of their families.” From which we can derive that women should not be forced to do the things which are against their will.

All the other sentences are irrelevant in context to the passage. Hence option (4) is the most appropriate choice. 74. (4) The tone of the author is analytical as the author tried to

follow the chain of reasoning while drawing the inference. The author has analysed different points of view in favor of or against the subject before arriving at any conclusion. Hence option (4) is the correct choice.

75. (4) Here ‘strong’ refers to the society who dominates women in their decision while ‘weak’ refers to women who do not get freedom to make their own choices and ‘courage’ refers to the ‘public policy’ which empower their status.

Hence option (4) is the correct answer choice.

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Refer the lines “This calls to mind a Hindu prayer which asks to, “Give wisdom to the strong and courage to the weak”. Public policy and many of us are helping by trying to instil courage in our women, but who will teach wisdom to the strong?”

“Women do not raise their hands enough because society has led them to question their capabilities and priorities at every step of the way.”

76. (5) Abysmal means extremely bad; appalling. Hence all the words are similar in meaning to abysmal.

77. (2) Caveats means a warning or proviso of specific stipulations, conditions, or limitations. Hence it has similar meaning as admonition and caution.

Detritus means waste. Nefarious means wicked or criminal. 78. (4) Onus means something that is one's duty or responsibility.

Hence it has same meaning as liability, encumbrance and obligation.

Plausible means in a way that seems reasonable or probable. 79. (3) Insinuate means suggest or hint (something bad) in an

indirect and unpleasant way. Hence it has opposite meaning as withhold and conceal.

Splendid means magnificent. Contrite means feeling or expressing remorse at recognition that

one has done wrong. 80. (3) Disconcert means disturb the composure of; unsettle.

Hence it has opposite meaning as unperturbed and encourage.

Unravel means investigate and solve or explain (something complicated or puzzling).

Rigorous means extremely thorough and careful. 81. (1) The paragraph after rearranging the sentences is

describing about the unethical manner of the beachgoers and tourists regarding the maintenance of Goa beaches. The hint of the theme can be received from the first statement of the paragraph i.e., statement (A) which has described about the move by the Goan government to make the state free from garbage. However, statement (C) is describing about the process of behaviour change communication which does not exists in Goa for waste management. Moreover, the conjunction “however” is used to depict a contrast in the statement, but it is to be noted that in all the other given sentences there has been no mention about the BCC. By eliminating statement (C), the sequence of the coherent paragraph thus formed is ADBEF. Hence, option (1) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

82. (4) Taking a clue from the first sentence we can deduce that the theme of the paragraph is about the unethical manner of the beachgoers and tourists regarding the maintenance of Goa beaches. The first sentence indicates about the sentence that should follow it. Since sentence (D) has mentioned the unassertiveness regarding the target set by the Goan government to make the state garbage free, it logically follows the first sentence of the paragraph. Sentence (B) follows sentence (D) as it provides an example of a Goa beach that has polluted and unhygienic due to the dumping of the plastic wastes on the beach. Moreover, it has also mentioned that this is happening due to the lack civic sense among the beachgoers and the tourists. Sentence (E) should be the next statement in the sequence. It has described about the contrasting nature of the tourists. Here, the determiner ‘their’ is used for the tourists who are mentioned in the previous statement i.e., statement (B). Next comes the last statement of the coherent paragraph i.e., sentence (F) which is further describing about the attitude of the tourists towards the

improper disposal of wastes as they pretend to follow the care-free spirit of Goa. Hence, the correct sequence of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is ADBEF excluding the incoherent statement (C). Thus, among the given alternatives, sentence (4) appropriately follows the last sentence of the paragraph since it is adding an appropriate satire about the practice attitude adopted by the tourists to enjoy a polluted beach. Hence, option (4) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

83. (2) Taking a clue from the first sentence we can deduce that the theme of the paragraph is about the unethical manner of the beachgoers and tourists regarding the maintenance of Goa beaches. The first sentence indicates about the sentence that should follow it. Since sentence (D) has mentioned the unassertiveness regarding the target set by the Goan government to make the state garbage free, it logically follows the first sentence of the paragraph. Sentence (B) follows sentence (D) as it provides an example of a Goa beach that has polluted and unhygienic due to the dumping of the plastic wastes on the beach. Moreover, it has also mentioned that this is happening due to the lack civic sense among the beachgoers and the tourists. Sentence (E) should be the next statement in the sequence. It has described about the contrasting nature of the tourists. Here, the determiner ‘their’ is used for the tourists who are mentioned in the previous statement i.e., statement (B). Next comes the last statement of the coherent paragraph i.e., sentence (F) which is further describing about the attitude of the tourists towards the improper disposal of wastes as they pretend to follow the care-free spirit of Goa. Hence, the correct sequence of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is ADBEF excluding the incoherent statement (C). Therefore option (2) becomes the most viable answer choice.

84.(1) The correct sequence of the sentences after the rearrangement is ADBEF. The second sentence (D) has questioned about the goa’s certainty to reach its desired goal to be garbage free by 2020. While sentence (B) that follows sentence (D) has provided an example of a polluted beach of goa due to the lack of basic civic sense among the beachgoers and tourists. Thus, by taking a hint from both the sentences, we can conclude that sentence (1) can appositely link both the sentences as it is describing about the parties responsible for the contaminated beaches of goa. Hence, option (1) becomes the most viable answer choice.

85. (3) Taking a clue from the first sentence we can deduce that the theme of the paragraph is about the unethical manner of the beachgoers and tourists regarding the maintenance of Goa beaches. The first sentence indicates about the sentence that should follow it. Since sentence (D) has mentioned the unassertiveness regarding the target set by the Goan government to make the state garbage free, it logically follows the first sentence of the paragraph. Sentence (B) follows sentence (D) as it provides an example of a Goa beach that has polluted and unhygienic due to the dumping of the plastic wastes on the beach. Moreover, it has also mentioned that this is happening due to the lack civic sense among the beachgoers and the tourists. Sentence (E) should be the next statement in the sequence. It has described about the contrasting nature of the tourists. Here, the determiner ‘their’ is used for the tourists who are mentioned in the previous statement i.e., statement (B). Next comes the last statement of the coherent paragraph i.e., sentence (F) which is further describing about the attitude of the tourists towards the

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improper disposal of wastes as they pretend to follow the care-free spirit of Goa. Hence, the correct sequence of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is ADBEF excluding the incoherent statement (C). Therefore option (3) becomes the most viable answer choice.

86. (1) Statements (A) and (D) can be joined together using the conjunction “unless”. The conjunction unless is used to mean ‘except if’. The clause which follows unless is a subordinate clause, it needs a main clause to make a complete sentence. Here, statement (A) stands as the main clause while statement (D) as a subordinate clause. Both the sentences are in the similar context and therefore, the statement thus formed is “The new President of the Court of Appeal has warned waiting times of at least 22 months for appeal hearings will get worse unless new judges are appointed urgently.” Hence, option (1) is the most viable answer choice.

87. (3) Statements (A) and (B) can be joined together using the conjunction “although”. Although means ‘in spite of something’. It is a subordinating conjunction. This means that the clause which it introduces is a subordinate clause, which needs a main clause to make it complete. Here, statement (B) stands as the main clause while statement (A) as a subordinate clause. The meaningful sentence thus formed is “Although there has been an increase in the number of birds and animals seen at the sanctuary, according to a recently conducted forest census, small and native birds are under threat.” Hence, option (3) is the most viable answer choice.

88. (1) Statements (C) and (D) can be joined together using the phrase “Notwithstanding”. ‘ Notwithstanding’ means although; in spite of the fact that. Both the sentences are in the similar context therefore, the single coherent sentence thus formed is “Notwithstanding the planned reduction in the cost of production and maintenance, the need for additional funds remains for the development of a new product.” Hence, option (1) is the most viable answer choice.

89. (4) Statements (A) and (B) as well as Statements (B) and (D) can be joined together using the conjunction “because”. ‘Because’ is used to introduce a word or phrase that stands for a clause expressing an explanation or reason. In the first case, statement (A) stands as a reason for the event in statement (B). The meaningful sentence thus formed is “Because there is a huge heap of garbage on Mumbai-Goa Expressway which is feeding site for kites, there has been a rise in the number of eagles, hawks and vultures in the area.” In the second case, statement (D) stands as a reason for the event in statement (B). The meaningful sentence thus formed is “There has been a rise in the number of eagles, hawks and vultures in the area because of the garbage lying around on which these birds thrive.” Hence, option (4) is the most viable answer choice.

90. (5) All the statements given are independent and complete themselves. It should be noted that all the four statements cannot be contextually linked together using the given phrase or conjunction. Hence, option (5) becomes the most suitable choice.

91. (5)

92. (2)

93. (4)

94. (3)

95. (2)

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96. (1)

97. (1)

98. (3)

99. (3)

100. (4)

101. (3)

102. (2)

103. (4)

104. (1)

105. (4)

106. (4)

107. (1)

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108. (2)

109. (4)

110. (1)

111. (2)

112. (4)

113. (2)

114. (5)

115. (4) 116. (3) ATQ—

117. (2)

118. (1)

119. (3)

120. (5)

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121-125.

121. (2)

122. (3)

123. (1)

124. (5) 125. (4) Total number of students in Medical stream =

300+120=420 Total number of students in Non-Medical stream = 120+210=330 Total number of students in Commerce stream = 200+160=360 Total number of students in Arts stream = 180+210=390 Total number of students in Arts stream is second highest

126.(4)

127. (1)

128. (2)

129. (4)

130. (2)

131. (4)

132. (1)

133. (1)

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134. (3)

135. (1)

136. (3)

137. (2)

138. (1)

139. (3)

140. (1) 141. (4) F ≤ T = J > W I. T = W (false) II. J > F(false) 142. (2) R > D ≥ K < M ≤ J I. M > R(false) II. K < J(True) 143. (5) For I: Yes, about counterfeiting is mentioned, whether ban

on high currency notes gets success in terrorism,

corruption and counterfeiting. So, we can easily assume that Govt. was concerned about the counterfeiting of notes.

For II: Yes, as according to statement demonetization is good or bad is a matter of debate, but its impact on weaker section is not mentioned, but if we assume it as bad we can consider that it has bad impact on weaker sections of society.

For III: No, from statement we can conclude that there is revamp in tax compliance but to classify its increment into direct and indirect tax, it’s not possible to assume according to statement.

144. (4) In this question, we have to find which is not related to the above statement.

For I: It is completely related to the passage, there must be awareness program to make society awake.

For II: This is must do step which should be taken by Government but it is not related to statement which is mention above.

For III: It is a myth that should be avoided or abolished but it is the part of the statement given above.

145. (2) For I: Yes, in this question we have to find the possible adverse impact of playing IPL game on Dream11. So, there may be wrong impact on working as concentration of employee may be deviated from their office works.

For II: No, as according to the question we have to find the adverse impact but IInd statement is a positive vibe for employees.

For III: Yes, addiction of betting may impact on their basic earning which is coming from their hard work.

146-150. The machine rearranges number and word in each step. The words and numbers are arranged in alternatively in every step from both sides’ right end and left end. The numbers are arranged in smallest even number from left to right with greatest odd number from right to left after then words are arranged in alphabetical consonant order from left to right with alphabetical decreasing vowel order from right to left.

Input: best 40 37 ice hot 50 25 under ape trend 33 18 38 sun 21 open.

Step I: 18 best 40 ice hot 50 25 under ape trend 33 38 sun 21 open 37.

Step II: best 18 40 ice hot 50 25 ape trend 33 38 sun 21 open 37 under.

Step III: 38 best 18 40 ice hot 50 25 ape trend sun 21 open 37 under 33.

Step IV: hot 38 best 18 40 ice50 25 ape trend sun 21 37 under 33 open.

Step V: 40 hot 38 best 18 ice 50 ape trend sun 21 37 under 33 open 25.

Step VI: sun 40 hot 38 best 18 50 ape trend 21 37 under 33 open 25 ice.

Step VII: 50 sun 40 hot 38 best 18 ape trend 37 under 33 open 25 ice 21.

Step VIII: trend 50 sun 40 hot 38 best 18 37 under 33 open 25 ice 21 ape.

146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (5) 149. (4) 150. (5) 151-155. Step 1: Using the given conditions, P attend the dancing

class on the last day of the week but not with M so from these it is clear that M does not attend the dance class on Saturday. There are four students who attend the dancing class between M and A. A attends dancing class one of the day after B, but not the day immediate after and B does not attend the class in the morning. E attend the dancing class immediately after A. E does not attend the dancing class in the evening. So, from these conditions there will be three possible cases,

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Note : B position is fixed only in case I, but in other cases we can’t fix the position of B. P is also not fixed in the three conditions except case III.

Step 2: There are three student who attend their class between C

and E. D attend his class immediately before C.

Step 3: Now, Student R and F attend the dance classes on the same day. F attends his dance class immediately after B(B attend his class in the evening). So, case II will be eliminated. Now, there are three students who attend their classes between R and Q.

Step 4: Continuing with rest of the statement, N and O attend the

dance class on the same time but on the different days of the week. N does not attend his dance class on Monday. O attend his dance class one of the day after Wednesday. So, case III will be eliminated and hence we get our final arrangement.

151.(5) 152. (1) 153. (4) 154. (3) 155. (2)

156-160. 156. (5) 157. (4) 158. (1) 159. (1) 160. (2) 161. (4) From statement I and II, Together Step 1: From the given conditions, more than two person lives below

R. Two person lives between S and R. S does not live on the ground floor. So, there will be two possible cases,

Step 2: Now, U is not the immediate neighbour of R. Two person

lives between U and T. T lives below U. So, case I is eliminated. Continuing with case II, Q lives one of the floor below on which P lives. Hence, we get our final answer.

162. (2) From condition II, Anshika is 19th from the right so, her

rank from left is (45-19+1)= 27th. Monika is five places to the right of Anshika, Monika’s rank from the left is 32nd. Now, Rahul is seven places to the left of Monika, Rahul’s rank from the left is 25th (32-7). Rahul is five places to the right of Atul. So, Atul’s rank is (25-5)= 20th from the left.

163. (4) From statement I and Statement II together, Step 1: Using the given conditions, He prepares muffin on third day

of the week (i.e. Wednesday). Cookies is prepared one of the day after Wednesday. So, there will be three possible cases.

Step 2: Now, two items were prepared between the day on which

Biscuit and Pastry are prepared. Cake is prepared after Biscuit but not immediately after. Pastry is prepared after Cake. Two items are prepared between Cake and Rusk. So,

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from these Case I and Case II will be eliminated, And we get our final arrangement.

164. (4) From both I and II, we find that there are total 8 people in

the row.

165. (4) From both I and II, we find that Shiva is (35 - 19) = 16 years

older than his brother, who was born in 1964. So, Shiva was born in 1948.

166. (2) I is an absurd course of action. Hence I. is not advisable. II is advisable because the move will compel the organised retailers to be involved in a dialogue to sort out the problem. III is the right way to eliminate the problem. Hence, III is advisable.

167. (4) 168. (1) I is necessary to solve the problem. II and III are not

advisable because the matter is very sensitive. The problem is not of one or two sugar mills. All sugar mill owners are opposing the decision of the government.

169. (1) Option (1) may be the cause of vacant seat in the engineering colleges because due to the recession, the number of jobs available are decreasing day by day, hence the unemployment is increasing in the engineering sector. So (1) is the correct option.

170. (2) Option (2) may be a possible effect of big pig holes developed on the roads.

171. (3)

172. (2)

173. (5) 174. (5) The given number is = 8756432 Number after operation= 9647523 Thus there is no repeated digit. 175.(3) Only Two, P---R and O----R

176-180.

176. (1) 177. (4) 178. (2) 179. (2) 180. (4) 181-185. The given words are coded as per following pattern: (i) First letter of the code represents the opposite letter of the last

letter of the given word. For example. Again- ‘N’=M (ii) Last letter of the code represents the opposite letter of the first

letter of the given word. For example. Again- ‘A’=Z (iii) The symbol of the code is depending on the total number of

letters in the given word.

181. (4) 182. (3) 183. (1) 184. (2) 185. (5) 186-190. Step 1: Using the given conditions, Monika sits third to the

right of Shruti, whose monthly income is twice the monthly income of Swati. Monika’s monthly income is 39k. Only one person sits between Monika and Raman. Rahul sits 2nd to the right of Raman. So, there will be two possible cases in which Shruti sits at the corner or at the middle of the side. Monika’s monthly income is 2k less than the monthly income of Rahul, so Rahul’s income is 41k as Monika’s monthly income is 39k.

Step 2: Now, Rahul, who sits third to the right of Rajat. Rahul’s

monthly income is 5k more than the monthly income of Anshika [Anshika’s monthly income is (41k-5k)= 36k]. Rajat’s monthly income is 4k more than the twice of monthly income of Anshika which is [{(2×36)+4k} = 76k]. Anshika sits third to the right of Raman. Atul’s monthly income is 18k more than Monika’s monthly income which is (18k+39k) = 57k.

Step 3: As it is given that, Atul face outside and his monthly income

is 57k. Raman’s salary is 30k less than Atul’s monthly income. So, Raman’s monthly income is (57k-30k) = 27k. Raman’s monthly income is 3k more than the monthly salary of Swati [Swati’s monthly income is (27k-3k)= 24k]. Shruti’s monthly income is twice the monthly income of Swati which is [2×24k]= 48k.

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Now, one of the friend whose monthly income is 48k does not face outside so, case II will be eliminated. Hence, we get our final arrangement

186. (1) 187. (4) 188. (5) 189. (3) 190. (2)

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