sample examination ites[1].en 2003

8/7/2019 Sample examination ITES[1].EN 2003

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Waterman DeVilleBridging the Gap

ITIL

Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management(ITIL Foundation)

sample examinationedition 2003

Contents

2 introduction

4 sample questions

14 answer key

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Introduction

This is the sample examination ITIL Foundation.

This sample examination consists of 40 multiple-choice questions. Each multiple-choice questionhas a number of possible answers, of which only one is the correct answer.

The maximum number of points that can be obtained for this examination is 40. Each correct

answer is worth one point. If you obtain 26 points or more you have passed.

The time allowed for this examination is 60 minutes.

No rights may be derived from this information.

Good luck!

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Examination

1 of 40

Which ITIL process or function deals with errors and questions about use of services, raised by

end users?

A. Availability Management

B. Service Level Management

C. Problem Management

D. Service Desk

2 of 40

What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?

A. The underlying cause of a Known Error is known. The underlying cause of a Problem is notknown

B. A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure, A Problem does not involve such an

error.

C. A Known Error always originates from an Incident. This is not always the case with a

Problem.

D. With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified. This is not the case

with a Known Error.

3 of 40

Submission of Requests for Change (RFCs) is an activity of which ITIL process?

A. Change Management

B. Configuration Management

C. Incident Management

D. Release Management

4 of 40

Who is authorised to establish an agreement with the IT organisation for the purchase of IT

Services?

A. the Service Level Manager

B. the user

C. the ITIL process owner

D. the customer

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5 of 40

The Service Level Manager has established a Service Level Agreement (SLA) with the customer.

The IT department has been unable to fulfil the requirements documented in the SLA. The main

reason for this is that the purchasing department in the IT organisation orders new hardware only

once a month. The IT department often needs the hardware sooner than this, as the SLA agreedto delivery as required.

Which document(s) should the IT department and the purchasing division establish or review

together?

A. the Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

B. the Service Level Requirements (SLRs)

C. the Service Specification sheets

D. the Underpinning Contract (UC)

6 of 40

When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment,

it can affect other software packages.

Which ITIL process monitors whether other software packages must be tested and installed again

in such a situation?


B. IT Service Continuity Management


D. Release Management

7 of 40

A properly implemented Configuration Management process will help us determine what services

are no longer available in the event of a server crash. To achieve this what step has to have

been completed?

A. The Status attribute should have been added to the Configuration Items (CIs).

B. CIs should have been marked with asset stickers.

C. The Service Desk should have access to the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).

D. Relationships should have been defined between CIs.

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8 of 40

From which document can the Incident Management process obtain information about when and

to whom it must escalate issues if required?

A. the Service Improvement ProgrammeB. the Service Catalogue

C. the organisation chart

D. the Service Level Agreement

9 of 40

The Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of Problem

Control is to identify and record problems.

What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?

A. analyse all existing incidents

B. classify and prioritise problems

C. solve problems

D. provide management information

10 of 40

Which ITIL process or function checks that Requests for Change (RFCs) are logical, workable

and necessary?

A. Change ManagementB. Incident Management


D. Service Desk

11 of 40

From which data collection tool can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight into the

structure and composition of the IT infrastructure?

A. the Capacity Management Database (CMD)

B. the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)C. the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)

D. the Definitive Software Library (DSL)

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12 of 40

What is another term for Uptime?

A. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

B. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)C. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)

D. Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI

13 of 40

Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?

A. advising end users of a system failure

B. documenting the fallback arrangements

C. providing reports regarding availability

D. Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date.

14 of 40

What is the description of the term Confidentiality as part of the Security Management process?

A. protection of the data against unauthorised access and use

B. ability to access data at any moment

C. the capacity to verify that the data is correct

D. the correctness of the data

15 of 40

What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?

A. handling (standard) Requests For Change

B. handling complaints about the services of the IT organisation

C. tracing the underlying cause of incidents

D. providing information on products and services

16 of 40

Which of the following documents is part of a tactical process?

A. user manual in the area of an application

B. newsletter from the Service Desk about an application

C. discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an application with the person

who submitted the RFC

D. agreements on the availability percentage of an application

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17 of 40

An end-users PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems with his PC. It also

crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk.

What is happening here?

A. an Incident

B. a Known Error

C. a Problem

D. a Request for Change

18 of 40

Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?

A. a complaint about the provision of servicesB. an error report

C. a relocation of equipment request

D. a request for documentation

19 of 40

What is an activity within the area of Pro-active Problem Management?

A. handling Requests for Change

B. performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems

C. following up on all incidents and disruptionsD. minimising the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment

20 of 40

A user has forgotten his password and asks the Service Desk for a new password.

What type of request does this involve?

A. an Information Request

B. a Request for Change (RFC)

C. a Service RequestD. a Standard Change

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21 of 40

Control is one of the activities of Configuration Management.

What does this activity entail?

A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships in the Configuration

Management Database (CMDB)

B. verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the CMDB

C. installing new CIs in the operating environment

D. taking inventory of the CIs

22 of 40

Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?

A. classifying Requests For ChangeB. defining the impact code for incidents

C. identifying problems with the availability of IT Services

D. measuring the availability of IT Services

23 of 40

In which ITIL process are negotiations held with the customer about the rates for the IT Services?


B. Capacity Management

C. Financial Management for IT ServicesD. Service Level Management

24 of 40

Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to ascertain

which Configuration Items are undergoing maintenance at a particular moment in time?

A. purchase date

B. owner

C. location

D. status

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25 of 40

Which of the following Changes must be authorised through Change Management?

A. data entry from users into a database

B. changing a passwordC. adding a new user to the system

D. relocating of a printer from the second floor to the third floor

26 of 40

Which measure will contribute to an improvement in the way Problem Management functions and

therefore structurally reduce regularly recurring incidents?

A. holding an information campaign among users to encourage them to engage the services of

Problem Management

B. setting up and implementing Problem Control and Error ControlC. introducing a distributed Service Desk

D. selecting a new tool that enables the Service Desk to oversee all incidents much more

effectively

27 of 40

Which ITIL process or which ITIL function has the matching of incidents with known

(documented) solutions as one of its activities?


B. Incident ManagementC. Problem Management

D. Service Desk

28 of 40

Which status does a Problem obtain when the cause of that problem is known?

A. the status Incident

B. the status Known Error

C. the status Solved

D. the status Request for Change

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29 of 40

After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed.

What is this evaluation called?

A. Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)

B. Post Implementation Review (PIR)

C. Service Improvement Programme (SIP)

D. Service Level Requirement (SLR)

30 of 40

Due to a defect, a users sound card is replaced with a new one.

For future reference, which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card made

by a different manufacturer?


B. Configuration Management

C. Incident Management

D. Problem Management

31 of 40

At which moment does Release Management start building, testing and implementing a Change?

A. After the members of the Change Advisory Board (CAB) have discussed the impact analysis.B. After the Request for Change (RFC) has been formally authorised and scheduled.

C. After the Service Quality Plan has been realised, so that the quality is guaranteed after the

Change has been implemented.

D. After Problem Management submits the RFC.

32 of 40

Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. arrangements about the services to be provided

B. availability statistics of a past periodC. an action plan for setting up the Service Level Management process

D. detailed technical descriptions of the TCP-IP protocol

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33 of 40

Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a

malfunction?

A. Change ManagementB. Incident Management


D. Service Level Management

34 of 40

One of the activities of Capacity Management is described as:

making predictions about the behaviour of the infrastructure. The available technologies range

from formulating estimates to extensively testing prototypes.

Which Capacity Management activity does this involve?

A. Demand Management

B. Modelling

C. Application Sizing

D. Tuning

35 of 40

Who provides input to the Security Management process in order to define security

requirements?

A. configuration manager

B. database manager

C. customer

D. Service Desk employee

36 of 40

Which ITIL process co-ordinates the implementation of a new software release?


B. Configuration ManagementC. Release Management


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37 of 40

Which ITIL process analyses threats and dependencies to IT Services as part of the decision

regarding countermeasures to be implemented?

A. Availability ManagementB. IT Service Continuity Management



38 of 40

Which ITIL process draws up a (long-range) plan for the expected purchase of IT Services?



C. Configuration ManagementD. Service Level Management

39 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for drawing up a charging system?



C. Financial Management for IT Services


40 of 40

What is IT Service Management?

A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services

B. organising the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices of ITIL

C. managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT organisation can

provide the customer with IT products in a professional way

D. promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience

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Answer key

1 of 40

A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with users.

B. Incorrect. Service Level Management mainly concerns itself with the agreements with thecustomer for the IT Services, not on resolving malfunctions or answering users questions.

C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying cause.

D. Correct. Dealing with questions about use or errors with services is the task of the Service

Desk ITIL function.

2 of 40

A. Correct. An underlying cause will be defined when a Problem is being investigated. This

results in a Known Error.

B. Incorrect. The cause of both a Known Error and a Problem can be located in the IT

infrastructure, but this cause will be known in the case of a Known Error.C. Incorrect. A Problem should always have been defined from the registration of one or more

Incidents.

D. Incorrect. In the description of a Problem, the Configuration Items involved are not yet known.

The Problem must still be investigated, after which it becomes a Known Error.

3 of 40

A. Incorrect. Change Management itself does not submit any Requests for Change (RFCs).

Change Management receives RFCs, evaluates them and implements them or rejects them.

B. Incorrect. Configuration Management does not submit RFCs. Configuration Management

provides information about the Configuration Items involved in an RFC to be implemented.C. Correct. When the cause of an Incident is clear, Incident Management can submit an RFC.

D. Incorrect. Release Management does not submit RFCs. Release Management provides

(planning) information about which releases are to be included in an RFC.

4 of 40

A. Incorrect. The Service Level Manager is part of the IT organisation and as such cannot

establish any agreements.

B. Incorrect. The user is the person who uses the IT resources for his or her daily tasks, but has

no authorisation to establish agreements.

C. Incorrect. The ITIL process owner is part of the IT organisation and as such cannot establishany agreements.

D. Correct. The customer is the authorised person to establish an agreement with the IT

organisation for the purchase of IT Services.

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5 of 40

A. Correct. The purchasing division is an internal supplier, and an Operational Level Agreement

(OLA) should be reviewed/modified or established.

B. Incorrect. The Service Level Requirements (SLRs) specify the customers

requirements/expectations. This is not the appropriate type of contract between an internalsupplier and the IT Service Provider.

C. Incorrect. Although the Service Specification sheets specify which kind of technology must be

available, it is not the appropriate type of contract between an internal supplier and the IT

Service Provider.

D. Incorrect. Underpinning Contracts (UCs) are intended for external suppliers.

6 of 40

Carefully read the introduction to this question.

A. Correct. Change Management ensures that the risks associated with a Change are kept tothe minimum.

B. Incorrect. IT Service Continuity Management May be involved indirectly in this matter if there

is a serious problem as a result of the Change and the IT Service Continuity Plan must be put

into effect as a result. However, this is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity

Management.

C. Incorrect. This is not the task of Problem Management.

D. Incorrect. The actual activities (reinstalling and retesting other packages) may be the task of

Release Management, but Change Management is responsible for monitoring these

activities.

7 of 40

A. Incorrect. If the status of the server is inactive, you still cannot see which services are

affected. In that case, you must also have defined the relationships.

B. Incorrect. Stickers do not show which services are using the server.

C. Incorrect. Although it is useful that the Service Desk has access to the Configuration

Management Database (CMDB), it is absolutely not necessary in order to see which services

are no longer operational. The Configuration Manager can also see that.

D. Correct. In the CMDB, the relation between the hardware infrastructure (for example, a

server) and the services linked to it (for example, which applications are running on a server

and which business process is being supported in this way) has been recorded.

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8 of 40

A. Incorrect. The Service Improvement Programme contains steps necessary to make

improvements in Service Delivery following major failures in delivering services.

B. Incorrect. The Service Catalogue (product and service catalogue) contains descriptions about

all services, but not the people to whom Incident Management can escalate.C. Incorrect. The organisation chart displays the existing organisational structure and contains

no information about escalation in a particular situation.

D. Correct. Arrangements about escalation can be recorded in a Service Level Agreement.

9 of 40

A. Correct. Analysis of all existing incidents is the first activity of Problem Management in the

Problem Control subprocess.

B. Incorrect. This is not one of the first steps.

C. Incorrect. This will certainly not be the first step. In order to solve a Problem, Problem

Management must first investigate what the Problem is.D. Incorrect. Problem Management can only report on the Problem when information in known

about the Problem. This is the last step.

10 of 40

A. Correct. Change Management evaluates Requests for Change (RFCs).

B. Incorrect. Incident Management must be informed about RFCs, but it does not verify them.

C. Incorrect. Problem Management can, however, submit RFCs.

D. Incorrect. The Service Desk can, however, be involved in implementing a Change.

11 of 40

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Management Database (CMD) contains only capacity and

performance data on the IT infrastructure.

B. Correct. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) contains a record of the entire IT

infrastructure and its interrelationships.

C. Incorrect. The Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) is the storage location for hardware stocks of

standardised basic configurations.

D. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) contains all source software and

documentation for the operational software.

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12 of 40

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the average time required to resolve an incident

(Downtime).

C. Incorrect. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI) is the average time between theoccurrence of two successive incidents. This also includes the MTTR, therefore.

D. Incorrect. A relationship between two different time indicators produces a factor or

percentage as a result. This has nothing to do with Uptime.

13 of 40

A. Incorrect. Advising users of system failure is a Service Desk activity.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Providing reports on availability is an activity of Availability Management.

D. Incorrect. Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date is an

activity of Configuration Management.

14 of 40

A. Correct. Protection of the data against unauthorised access and use is the description of

Confidentiality as used in the Security Management process.

B. Incorrect. Ability to access data at any moment is a description of Availability as used in the

Security Management process.

C. Incorrect. The capacity to verify that the data is correct is part of the description of Integrity as

used in the Security Management process.

D. Incorrect. The correctness of the data is part of the description of Integrity as used in the

Security Management process.

15 of 40

A. Incorrect. The handling of (standard) Requests For Change is an activity within Change

Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity.

B. Incorrect. The handling of complaints about the services of the IT organisation is an activity

within Service Level Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity.

C. Correct. Tracing the underlying cause of incidents is an activity of Problem Management.

D. Incorrect. Providing information on products and services can be an activity of the Service

Desk.

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20 of 40

A. Incorrect. The user is not just requesting information. Moreover, Information Request is not

an ITIL term.

B. Incorrect. A Request for Change is submitted to Change Management.

C. Correct. A Service Request is an Incident whereby the Service Desk can help the user in astraightforward way.

D. Incorrect. A Standard Change is a Change that can be regarded as standard as far as its

content is concerned but that no longer has to go through the entire Change Management

process.

21 of 40

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. Verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the

Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is a description of Verification and not the

Control activity.C. Incorrect. Installing new CIs in the operating environment does not describe the Control

activity. It is an activity that is usually executed by Release Management under the

responsibility of Change Management.

D. Incorrect. Taking inventory of the Configuration Items (CIs) is a description of Identification

and Registration and not the Control activity.

22 of 40

A. Incorrect. Classifying Requests for Change is a Change Management activity.

B. Incorrect. Defining the impact code for incidents is an Incident Management activity.

Incorrect. Identifying problems with the availability of IT Services is a Problem Managementactivity.

C. Correct. In addition to reporting, measurement is the most important activity in the Availability

Management process. The measurement and reporting activities create the basis for verifying

service agreements, removing problem situations and formulating improvement proposals.

23 of 40

A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with the customer.

B. Incorrect. Capacity Management has no direct contact with the customer.

C. Incorrect. Financial Management for IT Services determines the cost price and sales price on

the basis of the financial policy or negotiations with the customer, but is not directly involvedin negotiations.

D. Correct. One of the activities of Service Level Management is drawing up the contract. Part

of this activity involves negotiating on the desired provision of services in relation to the costs.

Pricing information is recorded in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

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24 of 40

A. Incorrect. The purchase date of a Configuration Item (CI) has nothing to do with the

maintenance being carried out on that CI.

B. Incorrect. The owner does not change if a CI is undergoing maintenance.

C. Incorrect. While the location of a CI maychange when under maintenance this attributewould not be a useful way to show all CIs currently under maintenance (there could be

multiple maintenance locations).

D. Correct. Reporting on the status flag will show us all CIs that are currently flagged as being

in a maintenance state.

25 of 40

A. Incorrect. In that case, for example, every time an order is entered or a document is stored,

permission would have to be received from Change Management.

B. Incorrect. Changing a password is not a Change but a Service Request. If it was a Change,

the Change Management process would be overloaded with Requests For Change thatgenerally have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure.

C. Incorrect. Adding a new user to the system is not a Change, but a Service Request. If it was a

Change, the Change Management process would be overloaded with Requests For Change

that generally have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure.

D. Correct. This is a change in the IT infrastructure and can have a certain impact on the way

the IT infrastructure functions.

26 of 40

A. Incorrect. Users do not engage the services of Problem Management.

B. Correct. Problem Control and Error Control focus on investigating underlying causes andeliminating errors through Requests for Change, respectively. Both processes actively

contribute to the reduction of regularly recurring incidents.

C. Incorrect. A distributed Service Desk does not improve the way Problem Management

functions.

D. Incorrect. A tool enables the Service Desk to oversee the reported and outstanding incidents

more effectively, but this does not necessarily improve the way the Problem Management

process functions.

27 of 40

A. Incorrect. Change Management concerns itself with submitted Requests for Change and withdealing with those requests.

B. Correct. Matching is an activity that is part of the Incident Management ITIL process.

C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying cause of one

or more incidents.

D. Incorrect. The Service Desk concerns itself with providing users with support.

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28 of 40

A. Incorrect. The status Incident does not exist. Several incidents together make up a Problem.

B. Correct. If the cause of the Problem is known, it obtains the status Known Error.

C. Incorrect. The status Solved is not a correct term in the ITIL descriptions. The Problem must

still be solved after its cause is known.D. Incorrect. A Request for Change (RFC) is the logical consequence of a Known Error. The

Known Error can be solved by applying for and implementing an RFC.

29 of 40

A. Incorrect. A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC) is not an evaluation, but a calendar with a

schedule of the coming changes.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. A Service Improvement Programme (SIP) is not an evaluation. A SIP can, however,

be the consequence of an evaluation (from Service Level Management).

D. Incorrect. Service Level Requirements (SLRs) are the expectations of the customer for a(new) service. There do not involve an evaluation.

30 of 40

A. Incorrect. Change Management is indeed responsible for the Change, but not for registering

that Change.

B. Correct. Configuration Management registers new Configuration Items (CIs) in the

Configuration Management Database (CMDB).

C. Incorrect. Incident Management registers the Incident and its development, but does not

register the Change in the CMDB.

D. Incorrect. Problem Management may have concluded that the sound card had to be replaced,but it is not responsible for registering the Change.

31 of 40

A. Incorrect. Discussion of the impact analysis does not signify approval of the Change

proposal. Moreover, a schedule will have to be compiled for the Change before Release

Management can do its job.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. The Service Quality Plan has nothing to do with the moment of building, testing and

implementing a Change.

D. Incorrect. Problem Management cannot itself initiate Change activities. Change Managementmust initiate the formal start of those activities.

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32 of 40

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. The availability statistics are described in reports.

C. Incorrect. The agreement to establish and/or execute the action plan can be included in a

Service Level Agreement (SLA), but not the plan itself.D. Incorrect. Detailed technical descriptions of services are not included in a good SLA

(customer language), let alone a technical description of the TCP-IP protocol.

33 of 40

A. Incorrect. Change Management can sometimes be involved in the solution procedure.

B. Correct. Malfunctions (Incidents) are reported through Incident Management. Incident

Management tries to resolve the malfunctions as soon as possible.

C. Incorrect. It is only after it has become clear that one or more malfunctions have a structural

cause that is, there is a Problem involved that Problem Management tries to resolve the

Problem.D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not resolve malfunctions. This process records

the arrangements made about service levels in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

34 of 40

A. Incorrect. Demand Management is the adjustment of customer demand to capacity.

B. Correct.

C. Incorrect. Application Sizing is the specification of the hardware capacity required to support

new (or adapted) applications.

D. Incorrect. Tuning involves the optimal fine-tuning of systems to the actual or expected

workload.

35 of 40

A. Incorrect. Configuration Management links the specification of the desired confidentiality,

integrity and/or availability (classification) to a Configuration Item (CI). This classification is

derived from the security requirements in the Service Level Agreement (SLA).

B. Incorrect. The database manager does not draw up the requirements to be defined for the

database security level, but takes measures that guarantee the integrity of the data in the

database.

C. Correct. The user is the only party who can determine the importance of information or

information systems for the business processes. The security requirements are recorded in aSLA.

D. Incorrect. The Service Desk does not provide any input in order to determine which

requirements are specified for security.

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36 of 40

A. Correct. Control and management of the distribution of releases are the responsibility of

Change Management.

B. Incorrect. Configuration Management does not manage the distribution of releases. It is,

however, involved in providing Configuration Item information and in modifying thatinformation as a result of the distribution.

C. Incorrect. Release Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it does

provide content-related information about releases and the schedule.

D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it

does provide the user with reports on releases.

37 of 40

A. Incorrect. Availability Management provides data about the requisite availability of

components in the IT infrastructure and their mutual dependency. This data is used for the

analysis of threats and dependencies in the IT Service Continuity Management process.B. Correct. IT Service Continuity Management analyses the threats and dependencies and

determines the relevant countermeasures.

C. Incorrect. Problem Management investigates the IT infrastructure in order to detect the

causes of (potential) malfunctions in the provision of services. However, external threats are

not considered to be malfunctions or errors in the IT infrastructure.

D. Incorrect. Service Level Management is responsible for the transparency of the obligations

assumed for the IT Services.

38 of 40

A. Incorrect. The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability of the IT Services.B. Correct. The task of Capacity Management is to plan the expected purchase of the IT

Services.

C. Incorrect. The task of Configuration Management is to register and monitor the current

information on the IT infrastructure.

D. Incorrect. The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements about IT Services.

39 of 40

A. Incorrect. The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability of the IT Services.

B. Incorrect. The task of Capacity Management is to plan the expected purchase of the IT

Services.C. Correct.

D. Incorrect. The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements about IT Services.

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40 of 40

A. Correct.

B. Incorrect. IT Service Management is much broader than the ITIL method.

C. Incorrect. IT Service Management focuses on IT services rather than on IT products.

D. Incorrect. IT Service Management restricts itself to people who are working or are involved inthe specialised field.

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The evaluation

Examination results

A maximum of 40 points can be earned on an ITIL Foundation examination.

A score of 26 points or higher is considered a passing grade.The following table relates the number of points earned to a grade.

failed

number of

passed

number of

points earned grade points earned grade

0 11 1 26 29 6

12 15 2 30 32 7

16 18 3 33 36 8

19 22 4 37 39 9

23 25 5 40 10

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Sample examination

The table below shows the correct answers to the questions in this sample examination.

number answer points number answer points

1 D 1 21 A 1

2 A 1 22 D 1

3 C 1 23 D 1

4 D 1 24 D 1

5 A 1 25 D 1

6 A 1 26 B 1

7 D 1 27 B 1

8 D 1 28 B 1

9 A 1 29 B 1

10 A 1 30 B 1

11 B 1 31 B 1

12 A 1 32 A 1

13 B 1 33 B 1

14 A 1 34 B 1

15 C 1 35 C 1

16 D 1 36 A 1

17 A 1 37 B 1

18 D 1 38 B 1

19 B 1 39 C 1

20 C 1 40 A 1

sample examination ites[1].en 2003

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