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Report: Test Answer Key

District: Craven

Test: 9_12 Agriculture AA22 - Animal

Science II Test 1

Description: Test 55

Form: 501

1

.

From the table below, which nutrient

requirement will have to be supplemented by a

feed additive because the ration provides less

than the animal needs?

(N

CCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. Calcium.

B. Corn.

C. Phosphorus.

D. Soybean oil meal.

9_12 Agriculture AA22 - Animal Science II Test 1

2

.

From the table below, which nutrient is

provided in the exact amount needed from the

ration?

(N

CCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. Calcium.

B. Corn.

C. Phosphorus.


3

.


requirement is provided in surplus from the

ration?

(N

CCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. Calcium.

B. Corn.

C. Phosphorus.



4

.


requirement is NOT met by this ration?

(N

CCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. Bromegrass hay

B. Calcium

C. Corn

D. Phosphorus

5

.


requirement is provided in the exact amount

needed from the ration?

(N

CCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

Corn.

A.

B. Lysine.

C. Phosphorus.



6

.


requirement is NOT provided in a sufficient

amount from the ration?

(N

CCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. Corn.

B. Lysine.

C. Phosphorus.


7. Using the Pearson Square method, how many

pounds of 10 percent protein corn and 45.2

percent protein cotton seed meal would be

mixed together to make 2000 pounds of a 15

percent protein

feed? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. 10 corn and 45.2 cotton seed meal.

B. 15 corn and 15 cotton seed meal.

C. 1716 corn and 284 cotton seed meal.

D. 2000 corn and 0 cotton seed meal.


pounds of 8.9 percent protein corn and 45.8

percent protein soybean oil meal would be


percent protein


A. 8.9 corn and 45.8 soybean oil meal.

B. 13 corn and 13 soybean oil meal.

C. 1778 corn and 222 soybean oil meal.

D. 1954.2 corn and 45.8 soybean oil meal.



pounds of 8.9 percent protein corn and 45.8

percent protein soybean oil meal would be


percent protein


A. 0 corn and 2000 soybean oil meal.

B. 0 soybean oil meal and 2000 corn.

C. 276 corn and 1724 soybean oil meal.

D. 1724 corn and 276 soybean oil meal.


parts of 45.8 percent protein soybean oil meal

would be mixed with 32.8 parts of 8.9 percent

protein corn to make a 13 percent protein

ration? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. 4.1

B. 13

C. 32.8

45.8

D.


parts of 8.9 percent protein corn would be

mixed with 6.1 parts of 45.8 percent protein

soybean oil meal to make a 15 percent protein


A. 6.1

B. 15

C. 30.8

D. 100.5


parts of 8.9 percent protein corn and 45.8

percent protein soybean oil meal are needed to

make a 14 percent protein


A. 5.1 parts corn and 31.8 parts soybean oil

meal

B. 5.1 parts soybean oil mean and 31.8 parts

corn

C. 8.9 parts corn and 45.8 parts soybean

meal

D. 14 parts corn and 14 parts soybean oil

meal

13. The rule of thumb is that a poultry ration is

about: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. 1 percent of body weight.

B. 5 percent of body weight.

C. 10 percent of body weight.

D. 25 percent of body weight.


14. The rule of thumb for feeding swine is that

compared to market hogs, pigs weighing less

than 50 pounds and sows that are nursing pigs

require: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. Higher percent protein.

B. Lower percent protein.

C. More roughages.

D. The same percent protein.

15. The rule of thumb for feeding fattening cattle

is less than two pounds of air-dried roughage

and two pounds of

concentrates: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. Every other day.

B. Per 100 pounds of body weight.

C. Per cow per day.

D. Twice a day.

16. Molding or heating may occur if feed

materials are stored

at: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. High moisture content.

B. Low moisture content.

C. No moisture content.

D. Proper moisture content.

17. Data on feed composition calculated on the

basis of all moisture removed from the feed

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. 0 percent dry matter basis.

B. 100 percent dry matter basis.

C. As-fed basis.

Balanced basis.

D.

18. Data on feed composition calculated on the

basis of the average amount of moisture in the

feed as it is used on the farm

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. 100 percent dry matter basis.

B. As-fed basis.

C. Balanced rations.

D. Feed additives.


19. When compared to as-fed basis, the weight of

100 percent dry matter basis will

be: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. 100 percent higher.

B. About the same.

C. Less.

D. More.

20. Which general principle of balancing a ration

makes it easier to balance

nutrients? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.01)

A. The ration should be bulky.

B. The ration should be economical.

C. The ration should be slightly laxative.

D. The ration should contain a variety of

feeds.

21. When beef cattle are put on spring pasture

grass or are fed grain, Poloxaline can be used

to: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Calm animals.

B. Prevent bloat.

C. Prevent parasites.

D. Treat worms.

22. Which is an antibiotic feed additive for

swine? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Aureomycin

B. MGA

C. Ralgro

D. Tranquilizers

23. Which feed additive will suppress estrus in

beef cattle

heifers? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Melengestrol (MGA)

B. Monensin (Rumensin)

C. Neomycin

D. Tylosin (Tylan)


24. To prevent coccidiosis, coccidiostats are

included as feed additives

for: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Beef cattle.

B. Dairy cattle.

C. Poultry.

D. Swine.

25. Which feed additive should be used to control

worms in beef cattle or

swine? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Antibiotics

B. Anthelmintics

C. Hormones

D. Tranquilizers

26. The feed additive that should be selected for

use when there is NO specific known disease

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics.

B. Coccidiostats.

C. Hormones.

D. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics.

27. Care should be taken to prevent crushing

hormone transplant pellets because crushed

pellets may result

in: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Long period of effectiveness.

B. Loss of implant.

C. Too rapid absorption.

D. Too slow absorption.

28. The hormone implanting instrument should

be pointed toward the

animal’s: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Back.

B. Feet.

C. Head.

Tail.

D.


29. The needle and the implantation site on the

animal’s ear should be cleaned with alcohol to

prevent: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Crushed pellets.

B. Diseases.

C. Infections.

D. Vein punctures.

30. Hitting a vein when implanting hormones can

result in: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Crushed pellets.

B. Diseases.

C. Loss of implant.

D. Overdoses.

31. Placing the hormone implant in the ear

cartilage may cause encapsulation resulting

in: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Faster-than-normal absorption.

B. Loss of the implant.

C. Normal absorption.

D. Slower-than-normal absorption.

32. On beef cattle, the hormone implanting

location is on the backside of the ear in

the: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Bone tissue.

B. Cartilage.

C. Middle one-third of the ear.

D. Largest vein.

33. Withdrawing the hormone implant needle too

rapidly can result

in: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Artery punctures.

B. Crushed hormone pellets.

C. Infections.

D. Vein punctures.


34. In hormone implants, a dull or bent needle

can cause: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Crushed pellets.

B. Diseases.

C. Infections.

D. Overdoses.

35. Which rule summarizes many of the rules and

procedures for properly mixing medicated

feeds? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Clean the mixer

B. Keep records

C. Read and follow the label

D. Store additives properly

36. Uniformly mixing additives in livestock feed is

necessary for all animals

to: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

Get the correct amount.

A.

B. Get well.

C. Grow at the same rate.

D. Have parasite control.

37. Great care should be taken to clean all

medicated feed from the feed mixer

to: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Avoid drug contamination.

B. Avoid extra feed costs.

C. Keep feeder from rusting.

D. Reduce odors.

38. The PRIMARY reason for using feed

additives and hormones in livestock is

to: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Decrease parasites.

B. Increase profits.

C. Increase reproductive performance.

D. Increase selling price.


39. Using antibiotics and antibacterials at a lower

level than would be used to treat sick animals

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Concentrated use.

B. Subtherapeutic use.

C. Supertherapeutic.

D. Therapeutic use.

40. The greatest economic return from the use of

antibiotics in swine feeds is

from: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.6.02)

A. Boars.

B. Market weight hogs.

C. Pigs.

D. Sows.

41. As Alison evaluates an animal from the rear

view, she notices the hock joints are set too

close together and the hooves point away from

one another. What conformation fault does

this animal

display? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. Post legged.

B. Sickle hocked.

C. Buck kneed.

D. Cow hocked.

42. As Cheyenne evalutes a group of breeding

gilts she notices an animal with a hock joint

that is excessively straight. What

conformation fault does this animal

display? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. Post legged.

B. Sickle hocked.

C. Buck kneed.

D. Cow hocked.

43. What conformation trait from the Unified

Dairy Scorecard evaluates the skeletal

parts? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. Frame.

B. Dairy Strength.

C. Udder.

D. Feet and legs.


44. A 16-pound ready-to-cook turkey that has the

wing tips and the second wing joint on both

wings missing can be no higher than USDA

Grade: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

45. A ready-to-cook 16-pound turkey has the

same USDA Grade requirements as a 4-pound

broiler EXCEPT the discoloration and non-

breast and non-leg exposed flesh areas can

be: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. Disregarded for broilers.

B. Disregarded for turkeys.

C. Less for turkeys.

D. More for turkeys.

46. A four-pound ready-to-cook broiler that has

all the skin removed, all bones broken and

both wings and the tail missing would be


A. AA.

B. A.

C. B.

D. C.

47. The maximum missing parts that a four-

pound ready-to-cook broiler can have and still

be Grade A

are: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. Both whole wings and tail.

B. One whole wing and tail.

C. Second wing joints and tail.

D. Wing tips and tail.

48. As determined by candling, the USDA quality

grade for an egg with a clean and unbroken

shell, clear and firm white, yolk free of defects

and air cell 1/8 inch or less

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. AA.

B. A.

C. B.

D. Leaker.


49. The exterior quality grade of eggs with foreign

material sticking on the egg shells

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. AA.

B. A.

C. B.

D. Dirty.

50. When laying hens are evaluated, the

relationship of pigment to egg laying

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. Less pigment, less eggs.

B. Less pigment, more eggs.

C. More pigment, more eggs.

D. No relationship.

51. If laying hen one has pigment in the vent, hen

two in the rear of the shanks, hen three in the

front of the shanks and hen four on the tops of

the toes, which hen has been laying the

longest? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

52. If laying hen one has pigment in the vent, hen

two in the beak, hen three in the front of the

shanks and hen four in the eye ring, which hen

has been laying the

longest? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

53. If a hen’s abdomen is soft and pliable and the

vent is moist, bleached and enlarged, the hen

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. About ready to start laying eggs.

B. Currently laying eggs.

NOT currently laying eggs.

C.

D. Unable to lay eggs.


54. Live broilers should be healthy and well

fleshed with normal confirmation and only

slight defects so that they will be


A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

55. Although the selection of broiler chicks is an

important management decision for broiler

production, basically no broiler producers

make this decision

because: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.01)

A. Broilers are grown on contract.

B. Producers do not know how.

C. There are no broiler chick hatcheries.

D. Transporting chicks is too difficult.

56. A polled bull bred to a polled cow that

produces a calf that has horns is an example

of: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Meiosis.

B. Mitosis.

C. Purebreeding.

D. Recessive genes.

57. Using the Punnet Square, what percent of

calves would have horns if a homozygous

polled (PP) bull were crossed with a

homozygous polled (PP)

cow? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. 0

B. 25

C. 75

D. 100

58. If black is dominant over red and white faces

are dominant over colored faces in cattle,

what color offspring would come from

crossing a purebred black Angus bull with a

purebred white faced red Hereford

cow? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Black all over

B. Black with white face

C. Red all over

D. Red with white face


59. Using the Punnet Square, what percent of the

offspring would be black if a white

heterozygous (Ww) boar is bred to a white

heterozygous (Ww)

sow? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. 0

B. 25

C. 50

D. 100

60. Using the Punnet Square, what percent of the

offspring would be white if a dominant white

homozygous (WW) boar is bred to a black

recessive homozygous (ww)

sow? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. 0

B. 25

C. 75

D. 100

61. Based on the Punnet Square, what percent of

the calves would have horns if a bull with

heterozygous genes for horns (Pp) were mated

with a cow with heterozygous genes for horns

(Pp)? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. 0

B. 25

C. 75

D. 100

62. Based on the Punnet Square, what percent of

calves would have horns if a bull with

homozygous dominant genes for polled (PP)

were mated with a cow with homozygous

recessive genes for horned

(pp)? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. 0

B. 25

C. 50

D. 100

63. The tendency for genes that are located close

together on the chromosome to stay together

and pass traits in groups

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Crossover.

B. Incomplete dominance.

C. Linkage.

D. Mutation.


64. The appearance of a new trait in the biological

offspring that is NOT in the genetic makeup of

the parents is

a: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Dominant gene.

B. Mutation.

C. Recessive gene.

D. Sex-linked trait.

65. The situation in which one gene

does NOT completely hide the effect of the

other gene in a gene pair

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Dominant.

B. Homozygous.

C. Incomplete dominance.

D. Recessive.

66. In livestock, sex-linked traits are often

recessive and are covered up

by: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Dominant genes.

B. Female hormones.

C. Male hormones.

D. Recessive genes.

67. The traits on the portion of the Y chromosome

which does NOT link with the X chromosome

in livestock are transmitted only

from: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Father to daughter.

B. Father to son.

C. Mother to daughter.

D. Mother to son.

68. After meiosis, one half the sperm carry an X

chromosome, one half carry a Y chromosome

and all the ova carry an X chromosome. The

chromosome combination that produces a

male offspring in mammals

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. X.

B. XX.

C. XY.

D. YY.


69. For a cow to have horns, the gene pair must

be: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Crossbred.

B. Dominant.

C. Heterozygous and dominant.

D. Recessive and homozygous.

70. If a polled cow bred to a polled bull produces

a calf with horns, the parents’ genotypes

are: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.02)

A. Dominant.

B. Heterozygous.

C. Homozygous.

D. Purebred.

71. The EPD trait that predicts the average size of

calves is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Maternal milk.

B. Yearling weight.

C. Weaning weight.

D. Birth weight.

72. If four bulls have the same pedigree and look

the same but their Expected Progeny

Differences (EDP) for weaning weight are

34.2, -18.0 +10.5 and +36.9, the bull with

which EDP should be selected as the sire to

most improved calf weaning weight in the

herd? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. -34.2

B. -18

C. 10.5

D. 36.9

73. The only sure way to determine the ability of

an individual bird to transmit genes for a

desired characteristic to most of its sons and

daughters is a: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Culling test.

B. Feeding test.

C. Mortality test.

D. Progeny test.


74. If each bird in the flock is a high performer,

the most effective present performance

selection method for breeding stock

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Culling.

B. Family selection.

C. Individual selection.

D. Pedigree.

75. When the performance information used to

select poultry breeders is the pedigree, the

type of record used

is: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Future performance.

B. Past performance.

C. Present performance.

D. Rate of gain performance

76. The formula that includes number of pigs

born alive and adjusted 21-day litter weight

for individual sows compared to a

contemporary group of sows is


A. General Gilt Index.

B. Growth Rate Index.

C. Heritability Estimates Index.

D. Sow Productivity Index.

77. For superior individuals and outstanding

performers in a pedigree to really have any

meaning, they should

be: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Close up in the lineage.

B. Four generations removed.

C. Named fancy names.

D. Several generations back in the lineage.

78. A bull with an Estimated Breeding Value

(EBV) of +60 pounds for yearling weight

would have an Expected Progeny Difference

(EPD) of +30 pounds

because: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. All this trait comes from the mother.

B. Half the trait comes from the mother.

C. Percent heritability is 30 percent.

D. Percent heritability is 50 percent.


79. If four bulls are on the same performance test,

which average daily gain ratios (ADG Rat.) is

the BEST? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. 108

B. 102

C. 100

D. 97

80. If the percent heritability for birth weight is

40, weaning weight is 30, tenderness is 60 and

ribeye area is 70 in beef cattle, which trait can

be improved the most through selective

breeding? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Birth weight

B. Ribeye area

C. Tenderness

D. Weaning weight

81. If the percent heritability of calving interval

for a female beef cow is 10 percent, selecting

females whose mother has outstanding calving

interval records would affect calving intervals

of the herd: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Very fast.

B. Very little.

C. Very much.

D. Very slowly.

82. Which performance data is a measure of

reproduction performance for beef

cows? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Birth Weight Related to calving difficulty

B. Carcass grade

C. Efficiency of gain

D. Ribeye area

83. Which performance data is a record of the

animal’s

ancestry? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Adjusted backfat

B. Pedigree

C. Pounds of gain per day on feed

D. USDA Grade


84. Which performance data is a measure of sow

productivity that combines numbers of pigs

weaned and milk

production? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.7.03)

A. Adjusted 21 day litter weaning weight

B. Adjusted backfat at 230 pounds

C. Adjusted days to 230 pounds

D. Number of live pigs born per litter

85. Scrotum circumference is part of the

performance data provided in advertisement

information


A. Boars.

B. Bulls.

C. Heifers.

D. Steers.

86. Which method is NOT recommended to

prevent foodborne

illness: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Use a disposable towel to clean surfaces.

B. Defrost food at room temperature.

C. Refridgerate leftovers within 2 hours.

D. Wash hands and surfaces.

87. What source of foodborne bacterial

contamination involves the transfer of

bacteria when hands are not washed

thoroughly? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Animal.

B. Soil.

C. Water.

D. Humans.

88. What federal act governs poultry meat

inspection? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Humane Methods of Livestock Slaughter

Act.

B. Egg Products Inspection Act.

C. Federal Meat Inspection Act.

D. Poultry Products Inspection Act.


89. What phase of meat inspection involves

checking animals before they are

slaughtered? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Postmortem inspection.

B. Worker sanitation inspection.

C. Ante mortem inspection.

D. Plant sanitation inspection.

90. What source of foodborne bacterial

contamination involves the transfer of

bacteria through saliva when food is not

cooked

properly? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Animal.

B. Soil.

C. Water.

D. Humans.

91. What common food borne illness is contracted

by eating contaminated

eggs? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Camphyobacter.

B. Coccidiosis.

C. E. coli.

D. Salmonella.

92. The final step in carcass inspections in meat

processing plants is for the meat to be

condemned or to

be: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Bled.

B. Eviscerated.

C. Passed.

D. Suspected.

93. The MAIN purpose of carcass inspection is to

detect irregular and contaminated meat and

to: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. Package it.

B. Remove it.

C. Sell it.

D. Stamp it.


94. When USDA inspectors check livestock for

diseases or other problems before slaughter

and find the animals unfit for human

consumption, the animal is marked

with: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.01)

A. U.S. condemned.

B. U.S. diseased.

C. U.S. No. 2.

U.S. No. 3.

D.

95. During the slaugher process the internal

organs are removed. This process is known

as: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.02)

A. Evisceration

B. Exsanguination.

C. Ante mortem inspection.

D. Postmortem inspection.

96. The stunning process causes an

animals: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.02)

A. Senses to shut down.

B. Heart to stop beating.

C. Brain to separate from spinal cord.

D. Tongue to swell.

97. Which method of stunning livestock involves

asphyxiation? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.02)

A. Mechanical.

B. Chemical.

C. Exsanguinate.

D. Electrical.

98. Which animals’ carcasses are chilled in ice

water after they have been

slaughtered? (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.02)

A. Beef cattle

B. Broilers

C. Hogs

D. Sheep


99. During the slaughtering process, turkeys and

broilers are scalded to remove


A. Diseases.

B. Feathers.

C. Hair.

D. Skin.

100. During the slaughtering process, broilers and

turkeys are bled

by: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.02)

A. Cutting the jugular vein.

B. Removing the heart.

C. Removing the gizzard.

D. Sticking.

101. The purpose of sticking beef cattle and hogs

during the slaughtering process is


A. Bleeding.

B. Eviscerating

C. Inspecting.

D. Stunning.

102. During the slaughtering process, the Federal

Humane Slaughter Act permits mechanical,

chemical and electrical methods

of: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.02)

A. Inspecting.

B. Skinning.

C. Sticking.

D. Stunning.

103. Before slaughter animals are hoisted by their

rear legs and stuck for bleeding, federal

regulations require that all animals

be: (NCCTE.9_12.AE.AA22.8.02)

A. Condemned.

B. Given pain medicine.

C. Insensible to pain.

D. Killed.


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