report from the examiners 2015 · cameroun douala - guinness cameroun sa ... vitis industries li....

REPORT FROM

THE EXAMINERS

2015

The Master Brewer, Diploma, General Certificate and Fundamental

Examination Reports in one handy volume.

Qualifications

2 Institute of Brewing and Distilling

Table of Contents

Board of Examiners and Examination Centres Page 3

Statistics Page 6

Award Winners Page 7

Master Brewer Report Page 10

Diploma in Brewing Page 19

Diploma in Distilling 9

Diploma in Beverage Packaging Page 37

Fundamental and General Certificate Examinations Page 51

List of Successful Candidates Page 52

Examiners Report 2015 3

BOARD OF EXAMINERS AND EXAMINATIONS CENTRES 2015

THE EXAMINERS

Chair of the IBD Board of Examiners – David Quain

Diploma in Brewing

Module 1 David Cook Robert McCaig Ian Smith Marc Schmitt

Module 2 Alastair Pringle Tobin Eppard George Ritchie Yahia Chabane

Module 3 Phil Worsley Gary Freeman Andrew Barker Jean Michel Gualano Andre Dillman

Diploma in Distilling

Module 1 Douglas Murray Michelle Pizzi Jeremy Stephens George Bathgate

Module 2 Iain Campbell

Module 3 Alan Wolstenholme

Diploma in Packaging

Module1 Ruth Bromley Roland Folz Gavin Duffy Angus Steven

Module 2 Gavin Duffy Robin Cooper Zane Barnes Angus Steven Dick Charlton

Module 3 Thomas Shellhammer

Master Brewer Module1 Robert Illingworth Ian Smith

Module 2 Jeremy Stead Derek Orford Shiona Kamermans

Module 3 Michael Partridge Bob Pursley

Module 4 Robin Cooper Ian Bearpark

Module 5 Richard Westwood Jens Voigt

General Certificates

GCB Colin McCrorie Robin Cooper Jeremy Stead Dick Murton

GCP Robert Illingworth

GCD

Alan Wolstenholme

THE EXAM CENTRES

Algeria Alger - SARL Tango Heineken

Australia Abbotsford - Carlton United Breweries Adelaide - University of Adelaide Adelaide - Lion Albany - Great Southern Inst. of Technology Brisbane - Lion Bundaberg - Bundaberg Distilling Company Cairns - James Cook University Launceston - University of Tasmania Lidcombe - Tooheys Pty. Melbourne - University of Melbourne Perth - Murdoch University Regency Park - TAFESA Sydney - Diageo Australia Lindisfarne, Tasmania Townsville - Australian Defence Force Warnervale - Carlton United Breweries Yatala - Lion

Barbados St Michael - Ministry of Education

Belgium Brussels - Boston University Leuven - AB InBev

Botswana Gaborone - SABMiller

Burundi Bujumbura - Brarudi (Heineken)

Cameroun Douala - Guinness Cameroun SA

Canada Calgary AB - University of Calgary Charlottetown PEI - Holland College Creston BC - College of the Rockies Guelph ON - Sleeman Brewing Halifax - Dalhousie University London ON - Fanshawe College Montreal QC - MolsonCoors Niagara-on-the-Lake - Niagara College Toronto ON - MolsonCoors Canada Vancouver BC- BCIT Vancouver BC - Simon Fraser University Winnipeg MB - Canadian Malting Barley Technical Centre

China Shanghai - AB InBev Shanghai - British Council

Congo Kinshasa - Bralima (Heineken) Lubumbashi - Bralima (Heineken) Pointe Noire - BrasCo.(Heineken0

Czech Republic Plzen - Plzensky Prazdroj (SABMiller)

Denmark Copenhagen - Scandinavian School of Brewing

Dominica Roseau - University of West Indies


Egypt Alexandria - British Council

England Banbury - Hook Norton Brewery Bath - Bath Ales Blackburn - Daniel Thwaites Burton on Trent - Molson Coors Brewers Ltd Burtonwood - Thomas Hardy Brewery Bury St Edmunds - Greene King Hartlepool - Camerons Brewery Hereford - Heineken Ledbury - Universal Beverages London - Institute of Brewing & Distilling London - University College Manchester - Heineken Northampton - Carlsberg Ringwood - Ringwood Brewery Sheffield - Abbeydale Brewery Southwold - Adnams St Austell - St Austell Brewery Tadcaster - Heineken Stroud - Stroud Brewery Tongham - Hogs Back Brewery Ltd Wadebridge - Sharps Brewery Witney - Wychwood Brewery Wolverhampton - Marston's PLC

Fiji Lautoka - Paradise Beverages Ltd Suva - Paradise Beverages Ltd

France Paris - American University of Paris Sigogne - Sarl Distillerie de la Pouade

Germany Berlin - VLB

Ghana Accra - Accra Brewery Ltd (SABMiller)

Greece Thessaloniki - British Council

Guernsey St Peter Port - RW Randall Ltd

Hungary Budapest - Dreher Breweries

Iceland Akureyri - University of Akureyri

India Aurangabad - SABMiller (Central India Centre) Bangalore - SABMiller (South India Centre) Sonepat - SABMiller HBL (North India Centre)

Indonesia Tangerang - PT Multi Bintang

Ireland Clonmel - William Grant & Sons Cork - Middleton Distillery Dublin - Diageo Dublin - Dublin Central Dundalk - Diageo Kilkenny - St Francis Abbey Brewery Waterford - Diageo Waterford - Metalman Brewing

Italy Milan - British Council

Japan Tokyo - Temple University Japan Campus Yokohama - Kirin Brewery Co.

Kenya Nairobi -British Council

Lesotho Maseru - Lesotho Brewing Company

Malaysia Kuala Lumpur - British Council Selangor - Guinness Anchor Berhad Singapore - British Council Singapore - Diageo Asia Pacific

Mozambique Maputo - Cervejas de Mozambique SA

N.Ireland Bushmills - Old Bushmills Distillery

Netherlands Zoeterwoude - Heineken

New Zealand Auckland - Lion Christchurch - Christchurch Polytechnic Dunedin - Lion Nelson - Nelson Marlborough Inst. of Technology

Nigeria Ibadan - Nigerian Breweries Kaduna - Nigerian Breweries Lagos - Guinness Osun State - SAB International Breweries

Papua New Guinea Ports Moresby - Vitis Industries Li.

Reunion Saint-Denis - Brasseries de Bourbon (Heineken)

Romania Brasov - Ursus Breweries

Russia Moscow - AB InBev Ulyanovsk - SABMiller RUS

Scotland Aberfeldy - John Dewar & Sons Aberlour - Speyside Community Centre Edinburgh - Heriot Watt University Inverness - Inverness College UHI Islay - Ardbeg Distillery Jura - Jura Distillery

Seychelles Mahe - Ministry of Education

South Africa Cape Town – SABMiller Durban - Diageo Global Supply Durban - NCP Alcohols Durban - SABMiller Johannesburg - SAB World of Learning Port Elizabeth - SABMiller

Sri Lanka Colombo - British Council

St Lucia Vieux Fort - Heineken

St Vincent Kingstown - St Vincent Brewery

Sudan Juba - Southern Sudan Beverages Ltd (SABMiller)

Swaziland Matsapha-Swaziland Beverages (SABMiller)

Sweden Lillkyrka - Grythyttan Whisky Lulea - Lulea University of Technology Malmo - Purity Vodka AB

Switzerland Dittingen - Novozymes Switzerland AG

Tanzania Dar Es Salaam - University of Dar Es Salaam

Thailand Bangkok - Thai Asia Pacific Brewery Co. Ltd

Trinidad Champs Fleurs - Caribbean Development Co. Laventille - Angostura

UAE Dubai - African & Eastern BVI Ltd

Uganda Jinja - Nile Breweries Ltd (SABMiller) Kampala- EABL Uganda Breweries

USA Albany GA - MillerCoors Arcata CA - Humboldt State University Boston MA - University of Massachusetts Boston Brevard NC - Blue Ridge Community College Bridgewater Corners VT - Long Trail Brewing Co. Cincinnati OH - Samuel Adams Brewing Co. Cottleville MO - St Charles Community College Davis CA - University of California (Davis) Edwardsville IL - Southern Illinois University Elkton VA - MillerCoors Florida FL - Florida International University Fort Worth TX - MillerCoors Golden CO.- MillerCoors Greensboro NC - UNC Greensboro Holland MI - New Holland Brewing Co.


USA (cont) Irwindale CA - MillerCoors Kingshill VI - University of Virgin Islands Madison WI - University of Wisconsin-MBAA Mankato MN - Mankato Test Center Maryland MD - Frederick Community College Milwaukee WI - Miller Coors New York NY - Cambridge Business Institute Oregon OR - Oregon State University Portsmouth NH - Craft Brew Alliance, Inc. Roanoke VA - Roanoke Higher Education Center San Diego CA - White Labs Inc. St Croix VI - Diageo St Louis MO - AB InBev Trenton OH - MillerCoors Provo UT - Brigham Young University Woodinville WA-Craft Brewers Alliance

Vietnam Binh Duong - SABMiller Ho Chi Min City - British Council

Wales Magor – AB Inbev

Zambia Lusaka - Zambian Breweries (SABMiller) Ndola - Zambian Breweries (SABMiller)

Zimbabwe Bulawayo-Delta Beverages (SABMiller) Harare-Delta Beverages (SABMiller)


THE STATISTICS

Number of candidates who sat each module

Exam Module 2015 2014 2013

Diploma in Module 1 336 358 410

Brewing Module 2 269 338 287

Module 3 239 205 186

Pass in all modules 47 94 95


Distilling Module 2 29 35 31

Module 3 23 20 16



Packaging Module 2 41 23 33

Module 3 23 28 1


Exam Module 2015 2014 2013

Master Brewer Module1 43 33 34

Module 2 25 16 40

Module 3 22 23 27

Module 4 15 22 18

Module 5 15 7 16


Percentage of candidates passing each module (average mark %)

Exam Module 2015 2014 2013

Diploma in Module 1 65% (51%) 57% (46%) 71% (50%)

Brewing Module 2 56% (45%) 44% (41%) 53% (43%)

Module 3 23% (35%) 53% (46%) 64% (52%)


Distilling Module 2 45% (38%) 60% (48%) 58% (46%)

Module 3 61% (49%) 75% (58%) 81% (56%)


Packaging Module 2 67% (49%) 65% (57%) 82% (56%)

Module 3 61% (46%) 92% (62%) 100% (-)

Exam Module 2015 2014 2013

Master Brewer Module1 51% (52%) 46% (52%) 56% (51%)

Module 2 56% (57%) 56% (53%) 55% (53%)

Module 3 46% (46%) 48% (51%) 48% (51%)

Module 4 73% (60%) 73% (58%) 61% (52%)

Module 5 87% 86% 100%

Number of exams/modules entered for each qualification

1661

1890

2269

2770 2815

2975

0

500

1000

1500

2000

2500

3000

3500

2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015

FD/FBPB

GCB/P/D/S

DB

DD

Dipl Pack

Mbrew

BD

Total Applicants


AWARD WINNERS 2015

Award Winners for Examination Year 2015 were as follows:

MASTER BREWER: IBD Section

James S Hough Award – Best Overall Candidate Lisa Marlow Diageo Global Supply (Ireland) Irish

DIPLOMA IN BREWING:

John S Ford Award – Best Overall Candidate Marc-Andrew Nadeau Molson Coors (Canada) International Kyle Moskovitz SAB Miller (South Africa) Africa

Crisp Malting Award - Diploma in Brewing Module 1 Anne Rainey Moa Brewing Co. (New Zealand) Asia Pacific Carly Kinloch Carlsberg (United Kingdom) UK-Midlands

Brewery Engineers Association Award - Diploma in Brewing Module 3 Brett Sinclair Lion (Australia) Asia Pacific

DIPLOMA IN DISTILLING :

Worshipful Company of Distillers Scholarship Award - Best Overall Candidate Alan Wardlaw Diageo Global Supply (United Kingdom) UK-Scottish

Simpsons Malt Award - Diploma in Distilling Module 1 Isabella Wemyss The Wemyss Development (United Kingdom) UK-Scottish

Worshipful Company of Distillers Award - Diploma in Distilling Module 2 Aisling Burke Irish Distillers – Pernod Ricard (Ireland) Irish

Briggs of Burton Award - Diploma in Distilling Module 3 Nickolas Franchino The Cotswold Distilling Company (United Kingdom) UK-Southern

DIPLOMA IN PACKAGING:

Encric Award – Diploma in Packaging Module 1 Samuel Gubunje Delta Beverages Pvt. Ltd. (Zimbabwe) Africa

Micro Matic Award - Diploma in Packaging Module 2 Jodie Murdoch Carlton & United Breweries (Australia) Asia Pacific

Brewery Engineers Award - Diploma in Packaging Module 3 Patrick Ongom Nile Breweries Ltd. (Uganda) Africa

GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN BREWING:

Worshipful Company of Brewers Award - Livery Daniel Miller T & R Theakston (United Kingdom) UK-Great Northern

Worshipful Company of Brewers Award Christopher Brady Holgate Brewhouse (Australia) Asia Pacific

GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN PACKAGING:

Worshipful Company of Brewers Award Girma Fatula Heineken (Ethiopia) (Non-Member)

GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN DISTILLING:

Scotch Whisky Association Award Kelsey Mckechnie William Grant (United Kingdom) (Non-Member)

FUNDAMENTALS OF DISTILLING:

Worshipful Company of Distillers Fundamentals Award Emma Head Diageo Global Supply (United Kingdom) (Non-Member)


REPORT FROM THE CHAIR OF THE BOARD OF EXAMINERS

The examination year

The take up of the IBD examinations remains in rude health. There were in all 2975 applicants for complete IBD portfolio from ‘Fundamentals’ through to

Master Brewer. Candidates sitting the Master Brewer and Diploma’s in Distilling and Packaging increased by (respectively) 19%, 9% and an impressive 40%.

Numerically the Diploma in Brewing was down 6% (844 plays 901) but with a healthy cohort of French candidates (78). Pleasingly, within the Master Brewer

and Diploma portfolio there were eight new Master Brewers, with forty seven gaining the Diploma in Brewing, thirteen the Diploma in Packaging and twelve

for the Diploma in Distilling.

As ever, the global reach of the IBD is reflected in the awards to the best candidates passing various examinations that range across the portfolio from

Fundamentals of Distilling through to the James Hough award for the best overall candidate in the Master Brewer. There were some standout performances

with 16 awards awarded to candidates from United Kingdom (7), Australia (3), Ireland (2), South Africa, New Zealand, Canada, Uganda, Zimbabwe, Zambia

and Ethiopia. The collective Board of Examiners (BOE) sends its hearty congratulations to all award winners and of course all candidates who were

successful in the 2015 diet of examinations.

Performance

The average passmark for individual examinations fluctuates within -

typically a narrow band - annually. Although such changes are noted,

marked changes or trends within the Diploma of Brewing

examinations are (because of large number of Candidates) worthy of

comment and analysis.

As is clear from the chart, this year and unusually, the pass rate for the

Diploma in Brewing Module 3 fell precipitously to 23%.

Understanding of such a change is of course fraught with difficulty and

nothing more than directional. All Diploma and Master examination

papers go through process of draft, debate and rework at the Board of

Examiners meeting in February. However, after these results the

paper was reviewed (once more) by the Moderator and independently

by a Module 3 trainer and was found to fair and at an appropriate

level. Importantly, some Candidates excelled and one Candidate

achieved a Grade A and five with Grade B. This (I believe) is an

important ‘litmus test’ for the marking of an examination. Interestingly, the number of candidates (239) was the highest ever, reflecting the previously high

numbers taking Module 1 and then Module 2. Of these 239, an unheralded 65 candidates (27%) answered less than the required six questions and, not

surprisingly, only one passed the Module. Further, 50 Candidates received the lowest Grade (G) possible. Indeed and not surprisingly, the distribution of

marks was very much skewed toward towards the ‘fail’ grades of E, F and G. So, in conclusion, a definitive explanation cannot be offered but for many

Candidates it could be argued that they either took the examination too early or were simply unprepared. Other insights would be welcome – contact

details below.

Examiner feedback

The ‘Report from the Examiners’ is an important resource for Candidates, Trainers and Mentors. The intent is to reflect on the year’s examinations in terms

of performance and also to provide insight into the questions asked and the consequent expectations of the answers. In addition with monotonous

regularity, the Examiners share their feedback in terms of what to do and what not to do. The annual reappearance of mostly all these comments suggests

that for many this advice is unheeded.

This year rather than reinforcing these comments via a wordy commentary, I have gone for brevity, below. I hope these points and those in the full report

help you to succeed in IBD examinations.

10 top tips – preparation and during the examination

Check out http://www.ibd.org.uk/qualifications/examinations/ - read ‘preparing for success’ and the ‘Candidates

Welcome pack’

Read around – don’t limit yourself to the provided notes. Read the Brewer & Distiller International. Use the Learning

Zone via http://www.ibdlearningzone.org.uk/

Remember ‘by failing to prepare, you are preparing to fail’. Treat it as a project over months (not weeks).

Do not try and question spot – the syllabus is being examined

Read the question

Answer the question you are asked (and on a new page)

Avoid being vague or wooly

Record questions answered – in order – on the font of the booklet

Manage your time v marks on offer

Diagrams – practice, suitably sized, use colour and annotate

Write as legibly as possible and in ink

http://www.ibd.org.uk/qualifications/examinations/

http://www.ibdlearningzone.org.uk/


Looking forward – Master Distiller, Diploma in Malting and Diploma Review

Over the next two years, IBD examinations will undergo significant change. Firstly and anticipated to launch in 2016, is the Master Distiller examination

which is very much based on the structure of the Master Brewer but as applied to Distilling. Second up and again to kick off in 2016 is the first module of the

Diploma in Malting. Although the IBD is working with the Maltsters Association of Great Britain this will have a global feel in terms of the Examiners and will

not be exclusively focused on barley and malt.

A year ago the proposals from the Diploma examination review were in development and were subsequently shared with the Board of Examiners, Council

and the Membership. After much discussion, debate and reflection, the Diploma review is now entering its implementation phase. Communication here is

key and hopefully already familiar through the website, newsletter and BDI.

The new Diploma examinations will go live in 2017 and the last opportunity to take them in the ‘old’ format will be 2016. They will, of course be

interchangeable so for Candidates in the process of taking a Diploma exam they may well complete with a mix of new and old formats. What the new

format will bring is a ‘reboot’ of Diplomas examinations, the impact of which will reflect the age of the current offering. So for the newest Diploma exam -

Packaging - the differences will be more structural as the content and approach is more contemporary. Conversely with Brewing and to a lesser extent

Distilling, the degree of change will be more noticeable. The new Diploma in Malting will play by the new approach, of which the headlines are outlined

below (and have been communicated widely).

Everything stems from the syllabus. Accordingly each Diploma syllabi will be reviewed and reshaped to ensure it is contemporary, appropriately

weighted and without unnecessary complexity. New syllabi will be subject to cycles of draft and review before anonymous review from

appropriate industry experts.

Modules will be reshaped to remove duplication, repetition and, where appropriate, content will be reallocated across the modules.

Whilst all the Diploma examinations will retain the three Module format, examinations across the portfolio will be a mix of long and short

questions with a minimum pass rate for each.

The structure of Module 3 will adopt a common format, although the content will be flexed as appropriate by discipline.

The ‘revision notes’ will be retired and replaced by ‘headlines’ and ‘knowledge resources’. The ‘headlines’ will provide the big picture and

immutable facts. The ‘knowledge resources’ will provide the contemporary information via articles, book chapters etc. These will be linked to

the syllabus and sourced on-line.

Examiners

I’m doubtless biased but all the Examiners and Moderators do a magnificent job! They deliver reasoned examination questions, marking schemes and then

in mid-summer spend an inordinate amount of time marking. Whilst obviously remunerated, this (from my experience) is undeniably hard work especially

with tight deadlines and time out shipping scripts around the world. Application of the above ‘top tips’ would make the Examiner’s experience so much

better and, in passing, guarantee you a better result!

The BOE continues to develop in terms of mix, experience and gender. The ‘examiner without portfolio’ approach enables potential examiners to be gently

introduced into the hurly-burly of the BOE without the immediate responsibility of setting and marking scripts. As noted above, much change is afoot which

will be reflected in some ‘musical chairs’ and addition of new Examiners.

Thanks

The process that delivers IBD examinations is increasingly complex and demanding. Huge thanks are due to the Curlew Street team who manage the

interaction with candidates and pull together the logistics, locations, scripts and generally make things happen in a timely and efficient way. Thanks are also

due to the good people at examination centers who coordinate, arrange and, most importantly, securely invigilate the process. My thanks to all my

colleagues in the Board of Examiners for their steadfast commitment, good humour, constructive challenge, professionalism and end-to-end delivery of IBD

examinations. It is also important to acknowledge the support of the IBD Council and immediate past, present and future Presidents, Alan Barclay, Charlie

Bamforth and Katherine Smart. Finally as ever, a big thank you to Steve Curtis, Simon Jackson and Shane McNamara at the IBD for their fellowship,

unceasing hard work and shared vision of ‘what good looks like’ for IBD examinations. As this is the last Report under Simon’s leadership, a personal thank

you for his vision, support and wise council. I look forward to working with the new CEO, Jerry Avis.

As ever, I would welcome any feedback good or bad, big or small on IBD examinations. This is especially welcome from members who would like to know

more – without commitment – of potentially becoming an Examiner.

David Quain

(please contact via [email protected])


The Institute of Brewing and Distilling

Examinations 2015

Question Papers and Examiners’ Reports

MASTER BREWER EXAMINATION 2015

Examination team – Robert Illingworth, Ian Smith, Jeremy Stead, Shiona Kamermans, Derek Orford, Michael

Partridge, Bob Pursley, Robin Cooper, Ian Bearpark, Richard Westwood and Jens Voigt

Module 1 –Materials and Wort Production

Forty-three candidates sat the papers, twenty-two candidates passed, which is a pass rate of 51.2%. This pass rate is better than last year’s results (see page 6) but the five-year rolling average pass rate continues to decline, now standing at 54.7% (last year 56.1%).

Many candidates were woefully unprepared for taking this exam, which reflects the low pass rate. One candidate, when presented with Paper 2 Long Answer Questions, reportedly said, “I didn’t expect this” and didn’t sit the paper. Some of those who failed showed a notable degree of enthusiasm and passion for brewing and described their practical experiences and how they had solved difficulties, but without being able to elucidate the scientific principles underlying their actions. It is to be hoped that in future years that passion and conviction can be harnessed to the science that world class brewing is based on.

Paper 1: Short Questions and Multiple Choice

The marks for Paper 1 ranged from 28/100 to 89/100, a wider span than last year (35/100 to 85/100).

Barley, the malting process and adjuncts In general, this section was answered well though the lack of knowledge about barley agronomy is still very evident. Less than a third of candidates correctly identified the process for making Vienna malt, a surprising result when so many speciality beers are being brewed with more of the traditional malt types.

Hops and hop products Only 1 in 4 candidates correctly identified the climatic conditions necessary for the satisfactory cultivation of hop plants, many candidates picked weather conditions rather than climatic ones. I recommend future candidates to ensure they know the difference between weather and climate.

Supply and treatment of water supply The question about the techniques for reducing the alkalinity of water was well answered. Other questions about groundwater sources, sterilising water supplies and the significance of E coli in water were answered correctly in only 50% of scripts. Pairing up ions in water with their perceived effects on brewing and beer quality was done accurately in 70% of scripts.

Brewhouse operations Only one-quarter of candidates correctly calculated the costs of two brewhouse grists, some did not even attempt the question and many were out by a wide margin. The calculation of the two hop grists fared much better this year with 68% getting the correct answer. The SCADA systems diagram seemed to perplex many candidates perhaps because familiarity breeds contempt or this aspect of brewhouse control is left to the engineers. However with the commercial availability of cloud computing, SCADA systems have increasingly adopted Internet of Things technology; brewers must keep abreast of these developments.

The question about a lauter tun runoff profile was not particularly well answered, the key point that many candidates didn’t identify was the failure of the rakes to descend properly on the second and third rakes leading to high differential pressure and poor runoff rates.

Brewhouse management There was no improvement this year in the number of candidates calculating correctly the numbers of brews that could be carried out in a week, only 5% got it right. A further 30% were out by one brew and 28% were out by two brews. Many of the rest were a long way off. The key to this computation is to work out which stage in the process is the longest and thus is the rate-limiting stage. The time this step takes to carry out is then the cycle time of successive brews. Finally, it is necessary to take into account the extra time required at the start of the week for the cycle to get established and that required at the end of the week to run out the last brew. It is possible that a similar question might be asked in next year’s exam: I urge all prospective candidates to revise this aspect carefully.

Paper 2: Essay Questions

The marks for Paper 2 ranged from 30/100 to 68/100 (compare with last year’s 27/100 to 70/100) though one candidate didn’t sit Paper 2 at all. This year all candidates answered the requisite four questions though some had evidently run out of time for their final answer, at least judging by its length and quality.

Question 1

Draw up a design brief for barley intake, barley storage, steeping and germination stages of a maltings capable of producing 50,000 tonnes per year of a single specification malt. Describe the basic operation of all the items of plant to be used as well as their capacities. State all assumptions.

This question was attempted by 29 candidates (67%) and of those 9 (31%) passed. This was a straightforward question about design and operation of a malting plant; it should have produced a workmanlike answer, that it didn’t is reflected in the pass rate, the lowest of the exam. Time and again the design brief was too sketchy, often accompanied by an inadequate diagram and incomplete or non-existent capacity information. Barley is harvested once a year but for many of the designs it appeared to be a bountiful supply from an unspecified source. If the malt plant does not have fourteen or so months of stored barley on site, then the assumptions do need to state how and where it is being stored. Another assumption often ignored was the malting loss, which at typically 12% can impact capacity calculations. Extra marks could have been gleaned by briefly touching on water supply and effluent disposal.


Question 2 Sketch out a design for the most economical water delivery system in a brewery which produces one million hectolitres of beer, all packaged into 500ml cans. Mains water is available in unlimited volume at $2.00 per cubic metre; borehole water is limited to a daily abstraction of 1,000 cubic metres and costs $0.01 per cubic metre to abstract. Usage rate is five litres of water used for every one litre of beer packaged. Overall beer losses through the production process are 7.0%. The specifications for the three types of water are shown in the table.

Water source

Calcium Carbonate Nitrate Chlorine

(free or combined)

Borehole 30 mg/l 24 mg/l 48 mg/l nil

Mains 10 mg/l 8 mg/l 10 mg/l <1.0 mg/l

Brewing water specification

10 mg/l 8 mg/l <20 mg/l nil

There is a reverse osmosis plant available which is 85% efficient (85% of the water entering the system is treated, the remaining 15% is discharged as waste water). Taking everything into account, in this unit each cubic metre of treated water costs $0.50.What is the annual cost of water? State all assumptions and show all calculations. This question was answered by 21 candidates (49%) with 8 achieving a pass mark (38%). There were no really good answers to this least popular question and the overall pass rate was low. Brewing may be an art, but one that is underpinned by science. A mastery of mathematics is essential for calculating volume and cost equations, a skill which was lacking in many answers. The central point of the question was economic, using the available water supplies to minimise cost. This meant using as much of the cheapest supply (borehole) and curtailing the most expensive (mains). Few candidates realised that for many applications not all borehole water had to be treated by reverse osmosis, as blending treated with untreated would bring all the ion contents into specification. Correctly reading the question cannot be emphasised too much; whilst beer volumes are generally given in hectolitres, water volumes are usually quoted in cubic metres. It is critical not to mix up the two units, as many did, leading to apparently high annual cost for water. Question 3 Explore the general trends in the worldwide hop market that have been evident over the last two or three years. Describe the factors that have lead to a decline in the overall amount of α-acid being produced globally. This question was answered by 32 candidates (74%) with 21 achieving a pass mark (66%). The improvement in candidates’ knowledge of the hop market over the last few years has been remarkable, no doubt driven partially by this question appearing as a regular fixture in this exam paper as well as the resurgence of interest in hops, especially aroma varieties, inspired by the renaissance of craft brewing. The contraction in the demand and production of α-acid is influenced largely by global brands, which in a broadly static beer market have been able to use hops and hop products more efficiently to achieve adequate bittering. This aspect of the question received scant attention in the answers and, as a result, useful marks were lost. Question 4 ‘Mashing is best seen as an extension of malting’. Discuss this statement and describe the different ways in which the maltster and the brewer control their parts of this process. Highlight the key control parameters that each has available. This question was answered by 34 candidates (79%) and of those 23 (68%) passed. This was the most popular question with a high pass rate and there were several scripts that gained high marks. Inadequate answers were full of ‘motherhood and apple pie’, with abundant use of superlatives and generalities. For example, “using only the best quality malt” or “ensure the temperature is correct” without specifying the what and the how implicit in those statements.

Question 5 Outline the development of a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) Protocol for a brewhouse from malt reception through to hot wort to the paraflow (heat exchanger). Describe the importance of prerequisite programmes in this exercise. You may illuminate your answer with examples, but limit these to three in number. This question was answered by 24 candidates (56%) with 12 achieving a pass mark (50%). The question was designed to guide candidates towards a comprehensive description of developing a HACCP protocol. Too many candidates ‘cherry picked’ different aspects of HACCP, some concentrated on the seven principles, others on risk and hazard analysis. Several failed to mention the importance of prerequisite programmes, despite the prompt in the question! The exhortation to limit examples to three in number was occasionally ignored; the point of this entreaty was to get answers that concentrated on the process rather than the possible outcomes. Question 6 Describe how ‘best’ brewing practices, can influence wort quality and financial performance. This question was answered by 28 candidates (65%) with 19 achieving a pass mark (68%). This question elicited an equal-first pass rate, with question four, though there were fewer high-scoring scripts. Practical aspects of best practices were well described in many answers as were the influences on wort quality. Financial performance was less well elaborated. Few scripts defined the term ‘best practice’ or introduced other concepts such as ‘world class manufacturing’ which would have set the context of the answer better, as would mention of some of the methodologies using to achieve it, such as Six Sigma or Total Quality Management.

Bob Illingworth



Module 2 – Fermentation and Beer Processing


There were a few very good papers, some good papers, some poor papers and the rest were clustered around the required minimum standard.

This paper covers the whole syllabus. The better candidates were able to answer questions across the whole paper with a wider spread of practical knowledge and experience. Some of the candidates found the multiple choice questions difficult. There were some questions that a few candidates did not read carefully enough and gave answers that were not relevant. The yeast and fermentation questions were, in general, answered better than the filtration questions, particularly the multiple choice filtration questions. More attention should be paid to design, general quality including cleaning in the fermentation and beer processing area. The financial questions were poorly answered. Candidates should share more their practical experience and application in answering the questions at this level.

Candidates should note that where a question asks for a specific number of responses, and more are offered, they will be marked in the order supplied up to the required number and extra answers will be ignored. Candidates should therefore read the questions carefully.

Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

There were 5 good papers and 9 passes, with the remainder below standard. Potential candidates may wish to carefully note that the next three paragraphs are repeated word-for-word from the examiner’s comments of 2014.

There were some areas of examination technique that let candidates down. Time management was a problem for a few candidates with 3 fairly complete answers presented, and then the fourth was barely started. There were some questions that candidates had either not read properly or had misunderstood the direction required, resulting in irrelevant information being presented and in some cases whole sections missed.

Several questions were ideally answered by including a well presented, labelled diagram, flow chart or graph, or a table of information and comments. This is a simple way of presenting large amounts of information without taking too much time. Diagrams ranged from very good to very poor. The best used at least half a side of paper, were drawn with a ruler and were neatly annotated with appropriate labels. The worst were very small, untidy and without adequate labelling. It is worth noting for future candidates that they are recommended to practice drawing diagrams of all of the main plant items (vessels, filters etc.) as part of their preparation. Candidates should also note that information supplied in one answer can be referred to in another answer without repeating the information in full.

There were a few common sources of frustration to the examiner. Many of the questions ask for details of how a problem may be overcome or how a new plant or process may be introduced. This is not an invitation to “say all you know about” a topic. Whilst that may generate a few marks as background to the situation, it only goes part of the way to answering the question. When answering troubleshooting questions, a number of candidates just propose to “check” a certain aspect and then do no more. The process of “checking” does not solve a problem; it is merely a way of finding out what is normal and what is not. It is the root cause analysis and corrective action that solves the problem and gains the marks. Furthermore, when a candidate states that “optimising” a process solves a problem, it does not demonstrate to the examiner any knowledge about the process and so cannot gain many marks unless the actual changes that may be made are elucidated.

A useful process for answering many questions is to note down a quick brainstorm, mind map or fish-bone analysis to prompt thoughts on all the relevant issues. Candidates should also note that the scope of the paper is fermentation and beer processing, so any lengthy discussion about brewhouse issues will not gain any marks.

Question 1

With the aid of clearly labelled diagrams, describe in detail the design of a cylindro-conical fermentation vessel suitable for fermenting 2000 hl of wort. Include in the answer details of how the operation of the vessel can be automated to minimise manual input during the complete cycle of use.

All 25 candidates attempted this question, with 21 achieving the pass standard. The better answers utilised a full page for a clearly annotated diagram, indicating all the main fittings and instruments to ensure an effective and well-controlled fermentation.

Some easy marks were lost where candidates were unsure about materials of construction or forgot that both insulation and cladding are usually required. The examiner has to wonder if some candidates have ever been to the top of a fermenter, as some basic requirements, such as CO2 outlets, access/observation hatches and anti-vacuum valves were omitted.

To gain maximum marks in the automation part of the answer, it was necessary to move logically through all the stages of the ‘life-cycle” of a fermenter, including filling, pitching, fermentation, CO2 generation, warm maturation, cooling, cropping, emptying and cleaning, explaining how manual input could be minimised at each stage.

Question 2

A brewery produces a significant volume of a global lager brand. Recently, reports from headquarters have indicated a flavour shift from the ideal profile. In respect of the processes from wort collection through to bright beer tank, describe the possible causes of flavour changes and the nature of the change due to each cause. State the corrective action required to overcome these changes.

14 out of 21 candidates achieved the pass mark, with 5 good and 1 excellent answer. Unfortunately, many candidates did not appear to read the question completely. The requirement was to describe 1) the causes of flavour change, 2) the nature of the change due to each cause and 3) the corrective action needed to overcome each change.

The better answers presented a table with three columns covering these three aspects. A few candidates wasted time and energy by describing how they would set up a problem-solving team and the techniques they would use. Of course in a practical situation these issues are very important but they were not the subject of the question.

Drinkers demand consistency in global brands (as do beer company directors!) and it might be a good exercise for potential candidates to look at their own brands and consider all the flavour variations that may occur in a brewery (there are at least a dozen main causes of the most common problems).

Question 3

Describe the processes and procedures that can be implemented in fermentation and beer processing to ensure colloidal haze stability in bottled or canned beer with a declared shelf life of twelve months. What tests are available to determine the level of stability achieved?

21 candidates attempted this question with 3 achieving the minimum standard, 6 good and 1 excellent answer. Candidates who described everything they knew about colloidal haze impressed the examiner, but unfortunately were not answering the question.

The better candidates worked their way through the main processes of fermentation, conditioning/cold storage and filtration, and described the procedures in sufficient detail to demonstrate a genuine practical knowledge of how to control haze stability in their own breweries.

In general, the available tests were quite well known. A Master Brewer should certainly be aware which test is relevant for whichever aspect of stability is under consideration.


Question 4

Describe the design and operation of a CIP (cleaning in place) plant suitable for use in a conditioning tank farm of 10 x 500 hl tanks and 20 x 2000 hl tanks where up to 3 simultaneous tank and mains cleans are required. What equipment, systems and procedures should be in place to ensure all plant is cleaned effectively?

Only 8 out of 25 candidates attempted this question, and only 2 achieved a satisfactory mark, leading the examiner to question the level of knowledge of this crucial part of a tank farm operation

The best answer used a full page, well annotated diagram, and recognised the implications of the requirement for three simultaneous cleans (three delivery and three scavenge systems, with different fluid pressures and flow rates for different cleaning tasks).

In the past, many brewers (including the examiner) have attempted to clean tanks full of beer, and it seems this unfortunate trend will be continued, as only one candidate referred to scavenging first and checking for flow at the start of a vessel CIP.

The second part of the question was answered a little better, but with insufficient detail; at this level it is important that “micro checks” be understood thoroughly in terms of where they should be carried out and for what reason.

Question 5

Describe in detail, with the aid of suitable diagrams, the complete cycle of operation of a nominated kieselguhr filtration plant and associated equipment. What instrumentation and procedures may be installed in this operation to assure reliable physical/chemical quality and maximise the right first time achievement in bright beer tank?

14 candidates attempted this question, with only 3 satisfactory, and 2 good answers. The better answers presented a simple, but accurate layout of the nominated plant AND the associated equipment. This provided a good basis for the written description.

Few candidates were able to demonstrate a thorough knowledge of the complete cycle of operation at the level of detail required and expected.

A good knowledge of filter aids, how they are used, and at what rate was shown in the better answers. However, in others, with regard to plant, critical items of associated equipment, such as buffer tanks, chillers and trap filters, were omitted.

Setting up a problem-solving team is NOT a procedure to ensure quality; it is one of the means by which quality issues can be explored, and it is necessary to know what quality parameters need to be controlled and the procedures that can be employed to do so.

Question 6

Discuss the range of procedures available for measuring and accounting for the beer losses between wort collection in fermenter and filtered beer in bright beer tank. What technical procedures can be adopted to minimise these losses?

There was 1 good, and 1 satisfactory answer, out of 11 attempts. A good start would have been to show a simple process flow chart. This would have helped the candidates who forgot to include additions between FV and CT, or CT and BBT, or the whole area of beer recovery.

In accounting for beer losses, the examiner was seeking demonstration of how this might be done in practice, for example: with what frequency (per brew, per day, per week, per month) and on what aspect of the process (fermentation, cold storage, filtration).

The better answers got the brewers and operators out of the control room and onto the plant, with due consideration of the importance of both planned and reactive maintenance.

Jeremy Stead


Module 3 – Packaging of Beer

General comments and overview

In all there were 22 submitted scripts compared with 23 candidates in 2014 and 27 candidates in 2013. The pass rate was 45.5% compared to 47.8% in 2014 and 48.1% in 2013.The average mark for all candidates was 46.3% compared with 51% for 2014 and 50.5% in 2013. Overall performance was centred around the D (pass) and E (fail) grade boundary which accounted for 82% of the candidates with 45.5% (D) and 36.4% (E). Analysis of questions that were answered and the corresponding pass rate was illuminating. Question 1 was answered by 91% of the candidates with 55% passing. Conversely Q4 was answered by 81 % with a pass rate of only 28%.


The marks for the MCQ ranged from 28/100 to 68/100 with a range of 40 marks which is very wide. The average was 54.2 marks. Some candidates did not answer all of the questions which immediately reduced the opportunity to score marks.

The structure of the paper was to evaluate the candidates across the range of packaging processes that they should be able to demonstrate knowledge of. Overall the candidates appear to have reasonable knowledge of one method of packaging – but limitations were evident in their answers across the range of other packaging processes.

Calculation questions were not answered particularly well, with a wide range of approaches to get to an answer. Often the method used was difficult to follow with little structure to their workings. Bottling and Kegging questions were answered best with questions testing bottle pasteurisation and can seaming not being answered well.


Overall for some candidates there appeared to be a lack of “hands on” operational experience across the various disciplines which was reflected in some of the answers.


Question 1

A new plant is to be established for keg filling with an annual capacity of 1,200,000HL split between 30L and 50L kegs 40% of which will be in 30 L keg size. Production includes standard ales and lagers with the addition of one dealcoholised lager and a highly flavoured wheat beer product. With the aid of a diagram describe and detail the individual plant required including throughput, capacity, equipment layout and manning in your calculation. Regarding the latter two products consider and justify what extra requirements are needed to ensure conformance to plan and product quality across the full product range. State any assumptions made.

This question was answered by 91% of the candidates (with a overall pass rate of 55%).

Good answers focussed on calculating data and relating this to the base design using sensible assumptions to justify the decisions taken. Sensible consideration of efficiency, shift patterns, holiday allowance, thus reflecting practical knowledge is key to this answer. Time appreciation regards the impact of 30 v 50 L keg sizing, its impact on filling speeds, the need for specific sterilisation patterns due to the product complexity and an understanding of product cycle time for planning stock rotations are all key factors when deciding on plant capacity and running times. Poor answers concentrated on a calculation alone which is insufficient. The better papers gave the explanation needed to support the assumptions regards the final design. When a diagram is requested as in this answer it should be produced, it can be a simple and useful tool to demonstrate a good underlying practical knowledge of temperatures, flow rates, CCP’s and manning skillsets.

The second section regards specific risks associated with low alcohol and wheat production was poorly answered with generalities referring to microbial risks and flavour taint. The poorer papers omitted this area and the better papers detailed specific risks in more detail and detailed preventative actions and procedures to minimise such risks.

Question 2

Describe the management information and the frequency at which it should be collected for bottle and can small pack lines in order to allow effective control and conformance to planned production performance and quality targets? Describe suitable reports and illustrate how these reports effectively present the data in a form which is of use to the line manager.

This question was answered by 54% of the candidates (with a overall pass rate of 58%)

The key to answering this question was to explain what specific data would be required to understand whether or not departmental performance was improving or not. A small pack packaging line is dependent on several elements of performance these can be broadly specified as equipment, manning or teams and consumables.

Most answers explained in broad terms the equipment performance measures such as line efficiency and OEE. The better answers included a good knowledge based consideration of this by product and pack size. Manning considerations were poorly explained other than wage bills with little thought to absence and team training skill set targets. Consumables tended to cover water, electricity and process gases, for the purposes of this question product, dry goods and losses should be considered.

Few answers produced sensible targets or values or demonstrated the importance of being able to drill down into figures such as analysis of quality, losses or efficiency performance by packaging line, item of equipment, product type, complexity of package, operator performance, shift performance or team performance. Also little understanding was evident in respect to the fixed and revenue expenditure

Question 3

Describe in detail the design of a complete cellar dispense system suitable for multi brand draught lager beers to a variety of bars in one establishment. List and justify your choice of materials and overall design for all components and give details of operating procedures to ensure the system continues to operate optimally.

This question was answered by 59% of the candidates (with a disappointing overall pass rate of 46%) This key to this question is a good diagram illustrating the fundamentals of a dispense system and demonstrating the challenges of a multisite multilevel operation against a single point installation. A diagram can really emphasis the differences between dispense at its most simple level versus a complex solution suitable for multiple dispense points. The poorer answers basically included a keg line cool and font in a simplistic diagram, whereas the better answers increased complexity in stages and illustrated the challenges through added solutions such as pumped systems, non-return set ups extra coolers along with quoting sensible dispense pressures, gas solutions, delivery speeds and showed a good grasp of values in respect of cleaning temperatures and materials The second part of the question was poorly answered with little reference to food safety, material transmission characteristics and risks, understanding of modern bar font technology and only the very best answers reference sensible procedural requirements. In respect to hygiene temperatures, times, flow rates and cleaning material examples are required; a simple statement that all pipework must be clean and hygienic is insufficient.

Question 4

List the utilities required to operate either a keg racking line or a cask racking line. For each utility, describe how variation in the supply could impact on product quality, overall efficiency and environmental performance.

This question was answered by 82% of the candidates (with a disappointing overall pass rate of 28%) There is a basic relationship between utilities relating to line efficiency, product quality, environmental performance and overall running costs. The better answers demonstrated an understanding of this and illustrated this through examples such as the effects of low steam consumption versus high steam consumption and its impact on the other areas. As with most relationships an optimum is required and that can be defined through a set of values. The fact that more steam gives a better sterility at greater cost is insufficient; the detail required was the optimum use of saturated steam to optimise performance. The better answers demonstrated this through giving example temperature, time and pressure targets and a thorough explanation justifying the optimum value. A similar level of detail was needed for the other main utilities. In general the environmental relation was poorly demonstrated with little demonstrated understanding of noise, heat, refrigerants, and power control, which were covered by very few answers.

Question 5

Following a step change improvement in changeover times, haze and taste complaints have increased substantially in canned beer products. List the likely root causes and describe an investigation process which would identify the cause of this increase. Then detail what corrective and preventative actions could be taken throughout the supply chain to remedy the problem.

This question was answered by 41% of the candidates (with an overall pass rate of 55%) The best answers approached this problem systematically, considering a range of reasons that would contribute to specific types of taste and haze complaints. Examples of potential root causes were suggested and justified. For each example consideration was then given to the likely relationship between improved changeover times and the identified root causes. There was no right or wrong answer, the good answers considered a range of options in the relationship, justified them and then offered a solution to prevent reoccurrence. Poor answers majored on problem solving techniques in general such as setting up a team based approach but could not focus on specific examples, values or techniques related to a canning production unit.


Question 6

For a non-returnable bottling line operation, describe the policies procedures and processes that would be subject to inspection during a third party customer food safety audit. Describe how product risks to the consumer, customers and plant personnel are assessed and controlled.

This question was answered by 73% of the candidates (with a disappointing overall pass rate of 45%) The best answers covered the following detail and demonstrated involvement in customer specific audits regards procedural and process third party audit requirements to ensure food safety. They clearly demonstrated an understanding of the purpose and the importance of certain prerequisite programs e.g. HACCP, Risk analysis, product recall traceability and the requirements and duty of care. Operational hygiene requirements were understood by most however control of Food contact materials, Supplier Approval process and specific customer requirement were less well understood. The second part of the question was best answered by illustrating with sensible knowledge based practical examples relating risks to the customer and consumer. Poorer answers focus mainly on the general principles of HACCP but failed to demonstrate this in practice in relation to bottling operations.

Michael Partridge


Module 4 – Resource Management and Regulatory

Compliance

A total of fifteen candidates attempted the two examinations.


15 candidates sat the exam, achieving an average score of 68, with the scores ranging from 50 to 80.

Once again the pattern of recent years was repeated with questions on the environment, health and safety, quality assurance and resource planning being answered more strongly than finance and supply chain. However, as can be seen from the average score, the overall standard was good.

For Q1 (“fugitive” emissions) the examiner was seeking a reference to polluting gases and liquids entering the environment (to air, water or ground) due to loss of containment. Examples might include: a leak of ammonia gas from a compressor into the air, a loss of beer from an un-bunded fermentation vessel entering a storm water drain and thereafter a river or diesel fuel leaking from a cracked underground storage tank into the ground.

Q3 (impacts of the brewing industry on the environment), Q4 (water cycle) and Q11 (risks to health from working in breweries) were all awarded [4] marks. This did not mean [4x1] and the examiner was seeking more than 4 elements to the answers. For Q3 and Q11, up to 8 elements were expected (and often submitted) whilst for Q4, 6 elements were sought and reproduced in the better answers.

Q13 (explanation of “so far as is practicable”) was, in general, not well answered. Too many candidates explained the more common “so far as is reasonably practicable”. “So far as is practicable” implies a higher standard. Better answers were along the lines “whatever is technically possible in the light of current knowledge which the person concerned had or ought to have had at the time. The cost, time and trouble involved are not to be taken into account".

Candidates are regularly reminded to read each question carefully before answering. For Q15 (types of contaminant in beer), several candidates completely missed out the likely causes from their answers and proposals to minimise the risk of one of them.

Q17 (stages of a HAZOP study) saw a contrast in answers with some extremely good ones and some very poor ones, with few in between. A number of the poorer answers failed to include Critical Control Points (CCPs) at all!

Q19 (records to ensure traceability from a bottle’s date code) was generally well answered with many required items listed including malt records, beer vessel movements/any blending, calibrations, packaging records, bottle pallet batch numbers, warehouse temperature and damage reports, CIP, analytical and micro results.

Q20 (what depreciation should reflect) found half the candidates understanding the relationship with the life of the asset but sadly the other half did not.

Q22 (the advantage of building up production costs using a standard costing model) produced few correct answers. The examiner was seeking something along the lines “smooths out short term variances and gives a target to compare against”.

There was a great deal of confusion (as in previous years) over categories of cost. For Q24 (fixed and variable overheads), salaries can only be considered a fixed overhead if they are not a direct labour cost. So finance team, human resources, IT services would be allowed. Similarly materials can only be considered a variable cost if they are not a direct material cost. So laboratory chemicals, general cleaning materials would be allowed. Candidates are encouraged to remember that “Manufacturing Cost = Direct materials + Direct Labour + Manufacturing Overhead” where Manufacturing Overhead has Fixed and Variable components.

For Q27 (events which can reduce the available running time of a bottling line) CIP, changeovers etc only count if they exceed the planned time.

With Q32 (constraints on maximising a brewery’s output) many candidates failed to appreciate that the capacity, and therefore theoretical maximum output, was fixed. Thereafter, the variation and failure to maximise the output will be from, for example, breakdowns, utility failures / variations, bottlenecks, seasonality, raw material supplies, product mix, slow fermentations etc.


Question 1

List in descending order the principal uses of thermal energy in a brewery having, in addition to brewing, kegging and traditional canning operations. Develop a firm plan to achieve an ongoing annual reduction of 5% in the fossil fuel specific energy consumption for this brewery.

10 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between a weak 11 and a good 17, with an average score of 14.


The examiner asked for a list in the first part of the question, strongly implying that the majority of marks would be allocated to the second part.

The list of uses of thermal energy was fairly well covered with the better answers having 8 to 10 uses. Several candidates had not read the question accurately and included uses of thermal energy in bottling!

The key to the second part of this question was the word “ongoing”. This should have made it clear that a “one-off” exercise was wholly insufficient.

A structure to the plan was sought initially with the roles and responsibilities of key players (perhaps including a “champion”), communication, motivation, measurement (including benchmarking), target setting, reporting and review meetings. The better answers stressed the importance of commitment of senior management.

In terms of an ongoing plan the examiner was looking for 3 strands:

1. Addressing the so called “low hanging fruit” or quick wins e.g. steam leaks, missing insulation, steam trap maintenance, timingof demands for steam (avoiding large coincidental demands forsteam, timely start-up of tunnel pasteurisers) etc.

2. Short/mid-term actions e.g. consistency of wort boiling,pasteuriser control, CIP regimes, hot water management etc.

3. Longer term actions which should include the identification ofcapital projects with cost-saving paybacks e.g. wort boilingsystems, real-time energy management with more sophisticated metering and empowered workforce, alternativesources of thermal power etc.

Better answers then emphasised that an ongoing plan is achieved by getting into the usual circle of continuous improvement. Capital projects should produce step-wise changes providing fresh platforms for incremental improvements.

Question 2

What are the objectives of having a Health and Safety policy? How can these objectives be achieved in practice?

This very popular question was attempted by fourteen candidates with marks ranging from 8 to a good 17 with a disappointing average of 12. Safety questions are generally answered very well reflecting the everyday importance of the issue in breweries. However, this question was not answered as well as anticipated.

Many candidates did not make the objectives of having a Health and Safety Policy clear often being confused with the policy itself. The examiner was seeking objectives along the lines: to set a clear direction for the organization to follow; to contribute to all aspects of business performance as part of a demonstrable commitment to continuous improvement; to ensure responsibilities to people are met in ways which fulfill the spirit and letter of the law; to ensure stakeholders' expectations in the activity (whether they are shareholders, employees, or their representatives, customers or society at large) are satisfied; to ensure there are cost-effective approaches to preserving and developing physical and human resources, which reduce financial losses and liabilities.

Better answers provided explanations of how these objectives can be achieved by developing the four key areas of “organising”, “planning”, “measuring performance” and “auditing and reviewing performance”.

Question 3

What procedures should be put in place and records kept to ensure beer is produced to the correct specification and due diligence shown if customer complaints are received?

Another very popular question with fourteen candidates choosing to answer this question with marks ranging from a very poor 5 to a very good 22 with an average of 12.

The examiner was seeking detailed explanations of procedures and records built up in a structured manner. Examples of areas which should have been included (not an exhaustive list): raw material certification; batch identification; in-process and finished stock management; HAZOP analysis and review; standard operating practices; training records; analytical testing/records at each stage of movement and prior to packaging; packaging run checks; quality system reviews; supplier reviews; maintenance of accreditations and compliance; audits; maintenance and cleaning records etc.

The best answer included all of the above points and more. Importantly, he/she also explained the purpose of retaining sample packaged goods from each CT/BBT for the duration of product shelf life as a reference during the life cycle of the batch. Some answers were more technically detailed and lacked the emphasis on management procedures.

Question 4

Describe the content and purpose of the three major financial statements in a company’s accounts. Explain depreciation, its purpose and impact in the company’s accounts. Although depreciation is not normally considered as part of the decision to approve capital expenditure, when could it become a significant factor? Suggest suitable rates of depreciation for a can line, lauter tun, brewhouse building, desktop computer, delivery vehicle.

Sadly the finance question was attempted by just 4 candidates. Marks ranged from 7 to a creditable 21 with an average of 12. Depreciation was generally well understood as a concept and most candidates suggested sensible depreciation rates for the items requested.

In order to manage a business effectively from the financial perspective, it is important to measure: (a) how many assets there are; (b) how much profit is being generated; (c) when the cash is coming in and (d) how it is being spent. Assets are measured by the (1) Balance Sheet, whilst profit and cash are measured by the (2) Income Statement / Profit and Loss Account and the (3) Cash Flow Statement respectively. These are the three major financial statements in a company’s accounts.

The balance sheet shows the position that the business is in at the end of the relevant time period. It shows the assets the business has, its liabilities, and the amount of equity belonging to the shareholders.

The liabilities and equity section shows where the business gets its funds and the assets section shows how those funds have been used. Examples of long term or fixed assets include: property, plant and machinery, financial investments that are to be held for the long term, patents and licenses. Short term assets include: inventories or stock, account receivables / debtors, cash and financial investments that are to be held for the short term only (i.e. less than 1 year). Short term liabilities include: accounts payable / creditors, income taxes payable and short term borrowings (where the repayment date is within 1 year). Long term liabilities include borrowings where the repayment date is longer than 1 year from the balance sheet date.

Shareholders’ equity is made up of 2 key parts. The capital part represents the shares bought by the investors when the business was set up i.e. the cash that was physically given to the business by the investors, i.e. shareholders. The second part is retained earnings / profit and loss reserve. This is the cumulative profit earned that has not been paid to the owners in dividends but has been re-invested in the future growth of the business instead. The income statement / profit and loss account measures the sales made and the costs incurred over a particular time period. For external reporting this is usually for a year but internally most businesses will prepare their income statement / profit and loss account on a monthly basis.


The income statement / profit and loss account captures a sale when the product or service is delivered to the customer. Costs are recorded in the income statement / profit and loss account to reflect the costs of making the sales during that time period. The costs are always deducted from sales in order of how closely they relate to the sale itself. After costs are deducted from sales, the figure that remains is the bottom line profit (also known as the net income or profit after tax) which belongs to the shareholders, and consequently is reflected as part of shareholders’ equity on the balance sheet. The cash flow statement shows how cash has been generated and used over the relevant time period. Most cash flow statement styles will present the flows of cash using 3 main categories: operating cash flows; investing cash flows; financing cash flows. Operating cash flows will include the flows from the core operations of the business and are driven by trading. Investing cash flows deal with any investments in the future of the business. Any new plant and equipment would be included in this section. The financing section deals with any investments made by shareholders and any dividends paid to them. Any new borrowings or any repayments of existing loans would also be shown in this section. The second part of the question concerned depreciation which can be described as “the gradual conversion of the cost of a tangible capital asset or fixed asset into an operational expense which then normally appears in the fixed cost budget”. The objectives of depreciation are to: (a) reflect reduction in the book value of the asset due to obsolescence or wear and tear; (b) spread a large expenditure (purchase price of the asset) proportionately over a fixed period to match revenue received from it; (c) reduce the taxable income by charging the amount of depreciation against the company's total income. In effect, charging of depreciation means the recovery of invested capital, by gradual sale of the asset over the years during which output or services are received from it. Depreciation is computed at the end of an accounting period (usually a year), using a method best suited to the particular asset. Depreciation can be a significant factor where, in some countries, capital allowances are available. The difference between depreciation and capital allowance is subtle. Depreciation takes account of the cost of an asset in any given year in the company accounts. Capital allowances takes account of the costs of the same assets in any given year for the purposes of corporation tax. The design of capital allowances seeks to encourage investment. It does this by increasing the “cost” declared in the early years of an asset. Higher cost in the early years reduces corporate tax in the early years. Hence, by reducing corporation tax in the early years, it ought to help cash flow the purchase of the asset. Suitable rates of depreciation for the specified items would typically be: can line 10years, lauter tun 20 years, brewhouse building 50 years, desktop computer 3 years and delivery vehicle 7 years. In marking the question the examiner made appropriate allowances on these rates as they can vary within different codes of accounting rules. As ever, the finance question was straightforward and it remains disappointing that more candidates do not attempt this section as it represents a very important aspect of brewery management and with some knowledge is not difficult to answer. Question 5 To increase profitability, the brewery has decided to consider outsourcing some brewing and packaging to a competitor brewery at a favourable cost. One beer brewed and bottled and a second beer brewed, bottled and kegged are to be considered. If the direct comparison of production costs offers a potential saving of 25%, what other associated costs will reduce that value? Identify the factors which would need to be considered to ensure the arrangement works well for both parties. Describe three factors that would influence flavour matching. Ten candidates attempted this question with marks ranging from 9 to an excellent 23 with an average of 15. The top mark represented a near model answer. Some answers adequately covered technicalities but lacked a clear idea of the implication for the various cost factors.

For the first part of the question, the associated costs the examiner was seeking should have included as a minimum: transport, warehousing, possible additional raw material (and delivery) costs, extra kegs to allow adequate supply for the desired stock levels, additional time in the supply chain and mistakes in process / deliveries. For the second part of the question, the factors which would need to be considered to ensure the arrangement works well for both parties should have included: extensive technical evaluation or audit of the plant and processes, a clear contract identifying roles and responsibilities including lead times and possibilities for emergency changes, excellent communication and co-operation to place orders and understand stocks held between the two locations, realistic sales forecasts for converting into demand on the supplier brewery which may not be able to react to changes quickly. The poorer answers did not cover the importance of defining the roles and responsibilities or the communication systems required to ensure the arrangement continued to work. Factors that would influence flavour matching might include: the water supply and the potential need to dose additions to achieve matching, age of plant, extract performance for malt / hops in particular, style of vessels (all of which should be understood at technical evaluation stage). Many candidates failed to mention water quality and composition which is always the first thing to concern consumers. Question 6 List the range of managerial competences exhibited by a world class production team leader. For three of these competences, describe behaviours which demonstrate their use in everyday brewery operations. For the same three competences, explain what training might be given to aspiring team leaders and managers to assist them in gaining these competences. Eight candidates submitted answers to this question with marks ranging from 10 to a very satisfactory 18 with an average of 14. The examiner was seeking managerial competences such as:

Managing tasks (analysis, creativity, planning, decision making)

Managing people (leadership, persuading / influencing, sensitivity, coaching)

Self management (communication, drive, energy)

Environment (business awareness, customer and supplier orientation)

Technical (health and safety, business systems, finance, human resources, manufacturing, logistics) Two of the poorer answers only offered technical competences whilst the best answer provided almost the full range. Behaviours which demonstrate their use in everyday brewery operations are too many in total to describe here but to take three examples to illustrate the level the examiner expected:

1. Planning: plans in logical sequence, sets and defines objectives, reviews plans regularly, meets deadlines, organises time well, keeps control, thorough and systematic, considers the broader picture, assesses priorities, criticises constructively, reviews progress and modifies plans, allocates resources, involves others, thinks tactically.

2. Leadership: balanced coaching style, provides honest and constructive feedback, sets personal high standards, allocates and controls resources efficiently, confidence in dealing with potential conflict, uses humour appropriately, sets and agrees goals and objectives, leads by example, confident with people, delegates responsibility, analyses others’ behaviour, enthuses others, tolerant of risk taking.

3. Communication: speaks in clear articulate manner, is socially confident, keeps people informed, presents to people in the appropriate style, competent in the use of visual aids, checks understanding, expressive in oral / written communication, demonstrates listening, acts as reliable source of information, consults before deciding / acting, able to brief effectively to all levels.


In seeking an explanation of what training might be given to aspiring team leaders and managers to assist them in gaining these competences the examiner anticipated essentially work-based activities. A couple of examples for “leadership” might be:

Invite the aspiring team leader to volunteer for a project either as the leader or (to have another perspective) a team member. Provide support and objective feedback.

Arrange for the aspiring team leader to observe or shadow a respected, well rounded working team leader or manager.

For some competences (or aspects of competences), self study or distance learning may be appropriate using books, videos etc.

Robin Cooper and Ian Bearpark


DIPLOMA IN BREWING EXAMINATION 2015

Examination team – Robert McCaig, Ian Smith, David Cook, Marc Schmitt, Alastair Pringle, Tobin Eppard,

George Ritchie, Yahia Chabane, Jean Michel Gualano, Gary Freeman, Phil Worsley and Andrew Barker

Module 1 – Materials and Wort

The examination was sat by 336 candidates (18 in French), compared with 358 candidates in 2014 and 410 in candidates in 2013. The pass rate for the examination this year was 66.9%. This compares with a pass rate in 2014 of 57% and 2013 of 71%.

The average mark for all candidates was 51.6%. This compares with an average mark of 45.9% in 2014 and 49.7% in 2013.

Once again the examiners request that you number each question that you have answered clearly in the examination booklet (in order!) as well as marking on the front of the examination booklet what questions were attempted, for example, Q1, Q2 etc, in this way sections or parts of answers will not get mixed up. Additionally mark clearly on each page what question it is you are answering. It is of utmost importance for the candidate to indicate clearly on the first page of the examination booklet the questions, in order, that they have answered. It is also better if the candidate starts each question on a fresh page, and only on the pages indicated to write on. There were a high number of candidates exhibiting poor exam technique with regard to not laying out or even labelling their answers according to the question (part i), ii) etc.). Q1 in particular, some candidates felt they could answer the 10 parts in almost any order (probably that of their confidence in answering each part). Others used the unruled pages in the answer book for answers they clearly intended to be marked, even though the instructions for the exam expressly tell them that such work will be disregarded. This year the quality of candidates presenting themselves for this examination were better prepared over last year. There were a number of very good candidates and that is reflected in the marks at the top end of the scale. There was also a dramatic difference in the quality of the answers to the various questions. Some which were similar to questions asked in the past were generally well answered, but the questions which were asking the candidates to demonstrate their knowledge with slightly different questions, were in many cases poorly answered. It is clear that many candidates practise question spotting and then try and ‘shoe horn’ a prepared answer into the question, regardless how relevant it is. There were also some candidates who were clearly unprepared for an examination at this level. If they had looked at the examiners reports for the previous examinations this would have been very obvious to them the standard of knowledge required.

Question 1

Define and briefly discuss the relevance to malting of the following: a) Aleurone b) Endosperm c) Scutellum d) Husk e) Embryo f) Germination energy g) Germination capacity h) Water Sensitivity i) Chitting

j) Acrospire (2 marks each) (20) This question was attempted by 307 candidates (97%) with 83% achieving the pass mark. The candidates should have realized how much was required for each answer in that 2 marks were allocated per item. Several candidates wrote pages for 2 marks, which would have impacted their time management for other questions. Again reading the question is important in that several candidates gave the relevance of the item to brewing while the question quite clearly indicated malting. Full marks were given to those candidates that indicated that the aleurone was a living tissue that lies under the testa and above the endosperm and is important in water transportation and enzyme production in the growing barley. The Endosperm was identified as the food storehouse for the growing barley and consisted of a matrix of starch embedded in a protein matrix. The best answers talked about the difference between stealy and mealy. The required answers could be quite short to achieve full marks. The scutellum is the other living tissue in the barley kernel that separates the embryo from the endosperm and is involved in generation of plant regulatory hormones. The husk is the hard outer layer of the kernel, made up of lignin silica nad cellulosic material. Its’ purpose is to protect the barley kernel as well as inhibit dehydration. The embryo is the living part of the kernel, consisting of the coleoptile and the coleorhiza. It produces plant growth regulators such as gibberilic acid. Germination energy is the ability of barley top germinate and hence malt. Full marks were given to those candidates that detailed the 4 ml test and explained how it was measured. Germination capacity is the measurement of the potential of barley to germinate and is conducted using hydrogen peroxide. It is a useful test to determine dormancy versus dead kernels. Water sensitivity is a method to determine the capacity of barley to germinate in the presence of excess water. It is related to growing conditions. Chitting is the appearance of white nubs at the distal end of barley which will eventually become the rootlets. The presence of chitting is an indication that hydration has occurred and that the barley is ready to move into germination. The acrospires is the development from the embryo of the coleoptile which becomes the green part of the barley plant. The length of it is an indication of modification in germination.


Question 2 Outline the operational stages involved in processing barley into malt from receipt to malt dispatch. Explain the main aims of each stage and how these aims are achieved. (20)

This question was attempted by 302 candidates (95%), with 68% achieving the pass mark. This was well answered, but for full marks candidates had to remember that there are five stages, storage, grading, steeping, germination and kilning and dispatch. In storage the main points included control of temperature and moisture as well as bin hygiene and aeration. In grading and cleaning items of importance to note were the use of magnets, air jet and vibrating screens, grading cylinders and size classifications for uniformity in processing. In steeping the best answers included details on the purpose of steeping, to clean and hydrate the grain from storage moisture to 40 to 45%. Points to include were a number of wet and dry steeps, aeration was applied during wet steeps, CO2 removal during dry steeps as well as temperature control.. Also noted was that the signal for steeping to end and germination to begin was chitting. In germination the purpose is to allow the grain to modify, along with a very brief description of what modification is. Key parts of the process include supply of fully humidified fresh air, temperature control and turning to prevent rootlet tangling and hot spots in the bed. In kilning the purpose is to fix the grain, to stop the biological process and make it ready for storage as well as to develop the characteristic colour and aroma. The best answers included a description of the three phases of kilning as well as the process of deculming and storage. Question 3 List the most important inorganic components of brewing water and discuss their relevance to the brewing process and final beer quality. (20)

This question, attempted by 241 candidates (76%) with 69% achieving the pass mark, was generally answered well. Many candidates however did provide wonderful answers on organic components of water, again a failure to read the question. Others missed providing the relevance of the inorganic components to either the brewing process of final beer quality. The key inorganic components include calcium, magnesium, sodium, potassium, iron, copper, zinc, chloride, sulphates and manganese. Most important is calcium which reduces pH in mashing, boiling and fermentation which increases wort fermentability, extract recovery, and FAN, improves protein precipitation enhancing final beer clarity, improves yeast flocculation and beer stability and protects alpha amylase from thermal denaturing. Magnesium is similar to calcium and is a co-factor in many yeast reactions and can cause flatulence in final beer. Sodium imparts a sour salty flavour, potassium can have a laxative effect, copper is toxic to yeast above 10 ppm, suphate imparts a dry more bitter flavour to beer, manganese is a co-factor for yeast but a higher levels in inhibitory. Iron prevents saccharification, promotes beer oxidation and permanent hazes and imparts a flavour of metallic or blood to beer.

Question 4 With the aid of a flow-diagram detail the equipment which should be installed between the malt silos and the mill. (8) Explain the design and operation of the milling equipment normally used with a lauter tun and a mash filter. Include a typical grist specification for each application. (12) This question was attempted by 264 candidates (83%) with 62% achieving a pass mark. The first part of the question had not been asked before recently and the quality of the answers was very variable with many candidates ignoring it entirely or simply showing a conveyor or auger. Even if a candidate works in a micro brewery they must be able to describe the type of equipment to be found in larger breweries. There were however a few excellent answers demonstrating a working knowledge of this part of the brewery. A good answer to part one would have included a clear flowsheet typically showing the following equipment: Malt screen, destoner, magnets, weighing system, aspiration system with dust collection, explosion flaps with safe discharge including sensors, conveyors and elevators.

The second part of the answers was much better answered with many candidates showing a good knowledge of the way the grist fractions flow through the screens on a six roller mill. The knowledge of the hammer mill was much sketchier and a common mistake was missing out the sieves on the hammer mill. For the grist specification what was required were the percentage fractions of the grist such as husks, coarse grits, fine grits and flour. It was notable that relatively poor candidates tended to write answers to the question they wished had been asked, with all sorts of detail about mash separation processes. This simply wastes valuable time and does not earn any marks. They should stick to answering the question (!) which is about the design and operation of milling equipment. Question 5 Demonstrate with the aid of diagrams two types of ‘modern (new generation) wort boiling systems’, including the advantages and disadvantages for each system. (8) List the various hop products available to the brewer, describe their advantages and disadvantages and how they are used in the brewery. (The manufacturing processes for the hop products are not required.) (12)

This question was attempted by 285 candidates (90%) with 57% achieving a pass mark. The first part of the question was answered either very well or very badly depending upon whether the candidate had up to date knowledge of modern boiling systems. A similar question had been asked a few years ago and in the question it is clear that ‘modern (new generation) systems were what the examiners was looking for. Despite this there was still an issue with candidates reproducing simple and old-fashioned wort kettle designs (steam jacketed or internal calandria) – for which they got no credit. The type of systems the examiner was looking for include: Symphony, Jetstar, Stromboli, Triton, Merlin, Ziemann vacuum and PDX. The second part on Hop Products was generally well answered and showed that this was a question the spotters had prepared for. This question lends itself to a tabular answer and a rambling essay with information on products scattered around in the text, wastes time for both the candidate and the examiner. The list of products is long and includes: whole/leaf hops, type 90 and type 45 pellets, type 100 pellets, stabilised pellets, isomerised pellets, extracts both ethanol and hexane, CO2 extracts, IKE, PIKE, IHE, reduced hops of RHO, TETRA and HEXA, PHA flavours, Hop Aid antifoam, essential oils and hop emulsion. Fresh hops were also mentioned in several answers and this was given credit.

Question 6 What is the purpose of wort clarification prior to cooling? (4) Explain the mechanism of trub formation and the role of trub precipitation aids. Describe the different ways that trub can be separated from boiled wort. (6) For each system include a diagram and explain the mechanisms employed. (10)

This question was answered by 245 (77%) of candidates with 62% achieving a pass mark. This question discriminated well between good and poor candidates with many candidates demonstrating a worrying lack of knowledge of this key area of the process. This may well be that this is an area not examined in this depth in recent times and it was also obvious that some of the candidates were answering as a question of last resort. The first part of the question was particularly patchy with many candidates simply talking about removing the trub rather than addressing the reasons why. These include : the metabolism of the proteinaceous material by yeast and infecting organisms can cause H2S formation, flavour defects due to the premature development of aged flavours by the metabolism of fatty acids, blinding of the cell wall inhibiting the yeast metabolism leading to slow fermentations and high PG, encouraging infection by adding nutrients such as amino acids, blinding downstream filters and affecting fining performance, increasing downstream process losses, reducing shelf life and increasing stabilising costs.


In the second part there was for many a limited understanding of the ‘mechanism’ of trub formation and rather than the physico-chemical answer we were looking for candidates started to write about flocs forming in the boil and how these were separated using a whirlpool, which then pre-empted their answer to part iii). A few candidates over-emphasized the protein-polyphenol nature of trub and started writing about aspects strictly more related to chill-haze than trub (the Siebert model etc.). A lot of candidates were very vague about the role of trub precipitation aids and mixed up carrageenan with collagen and isinglass. Many thought carrageenan was a protein rather than a sulphated polysaccharide and also mixed up the charges involved or sidestepped them. The answers to the third part of the question were also variable with many candidates simply describing a whirlpool rather than covering the many other methods employed around the world. The question specifically asked for a diagram but many candidates neglected to include one with a consequent loss of marks. Question 7 The composition of effluent is normally characterised using which parameters and how are they measured? (7) List the sources of effluent from a brewhouse including typical values for the parameters set about above. (7) Explain a typical method of calculating brewhouse effluent costs. (6) This was by far the least popular question and was only attempted by 55 (17%) of candidates but with 71% achieving a pass mark. Of those electing to answer it, part i) was generally well attempted with several copybook answers which achieved full marks. Answers to parts ii) and iii) (effluent streams from the brewhouse and formulae for calculating effluent costs, respectively,) were of much more variable quality. It was clear that several candidates had prepared an answer to a similar question asked a few years previously but other candidates were using this as a question of last resort and presented vague rambling answers. In part two many candidates included effluent streams from the entire brewery despite the question clearly stating the brewhouse. A lot of candidates did not include values to the parameters or simply said high or low. The last part of the question was deliberately kept open and although the Mogden formula or something similar is used in much of the world any valid and justified method was given full credit. For example methods used in New Zealand and parts of North America were described and given good marks. Question 8 With the aid of a diagram describe the difference between accuracy and precision in laboratory analysis. (4) Define the difference between repeatability and reproducibility in analysis. (4) List the two main brewing organizations and their reference publications for defining worldwide beer analytical methods. (2) Define HACCP and the steps involved in setting up a successful HACCP program in a brewery. Briefly describe a typical CCP in a brewery. (10) This question was answered by 186 candidates (59%) with 58% achieving a passing mark. This question has appeared a number of times in past papers and yet is still not attempted by large numbers of candidates, or are passing marks high. In part I, a simple diagram was the best way to explain, although many candidates did provide very good descriptions for full marks. An example of the diagram is below: Precise and Accurate Imprecise and Inaccurate

In part ii the best papers detailed the explanation of each of repeatability and reproducibility, as well as stated the range and the results. For part iii the two organizations are the American Society of Brewing Chemists with their Methods of Analysis and the European Brewing Congress and their EBC Analytica. In part iv, many candidates forgot to define HACCP and its’ use. The main steps in a HACCP program are:

1. Prepare a flow diagram of the process and identify the hazards at each stage.

2. Specify the control or preventative measure at each stage 3. Identify the critical control point (CCP) for the hazards 4. Establish critical limits for each CCP 5. Establish corrective actions 6. Establish record keeping for documentation and verification 7. Establish audit procedures 8. Review the process on a regular basis for changes

Robert McCaig and Ian Smith



Module 2 – Yeast and Beer

General comments and overview In all there were a total of 269 submitted scripts with a pass rate of 55.8%. The pass rate this year is higher than last year (45%), but similar to 54% pass rate in 2013. We believe that the higher pass rate is a reflection of the candidates being better prepared to answer a broad range of questions in this area. This year the exam was also taken in French: 19 candidates took the exam and achieved a pass rate of 57.9%. As in past years the papers were split between the two examiners and all the scripts that were close to the pass mark underwent an additional review by the moderator. Development of a standard answer key early in question development and the moderation step make this a fair and robust process. Overall Our objective as the examiners of module 2 is to test a candidate’s knowledge and understanding of the principles underpinning all the topics on the syllabus. After the completion of marking this year’s papers we believe a number of factors contributed to a candidate’s success:

Read the question and answer it specifically. They organised the information in small blocks of text with headings or where appropriate used tables. They added diagrams when asked, but did not include information that was not relevant. They sparingly highlight sections to avoid making it difficult to read.

Give the right number of examples. When asked for two examples they provided two mainstream examples. They did not try to include three, as the examiners only give marks for the first two.

Give precise and to the point answers. They gave clear descriptions of processes and operations that provided direction and magnitude for the effect of variables. They avoided non-quantitative descriptions such as massive issues, huge problems, poor quality flocculation, or poor attenuation. They also resisted dumping information from the same section of the revision notes into their answer, when it was not relevant to the question.

Practiced writing answers to previous questions. Fine-tuning a candidate’s ability to formulate answers and write them clearly in a given time helps successful candidates. Less successful candidates try to memorise practice answers and insert answers and diagrams for previous questions. We caution against trying to over-analyse the previous questions and the distribution of points as this can only have a limited benefit. It is very unlikely that the same question will be asked again.

Understand the breadth of this module. The best candidates had obviously spent time in both production and a brewing laboratory so they could answer questions that focused on either area.

Understand the depth of this module. Successful candidates not only knew of a technique or procedure, but knew how it was performed. Sometimes this involved reading beyond the revision notes and or observing plant operation in a brewery.

Allotted the right amount of time to studying. Some successful candidates have told us they studied every night for 6 months. They also recognised that review classes could improve their chances of passing, but were not a substitute for the hard work of self study.

Aware of brewing practices globally. This is an exam where students are required to knowledge of practices in large and small breweries around the world. Answers that only focus on the candidate’s brewery or their segment of brewing industry will not provide broad enough information to gain full marks.

Clear and accurate diagrams. Successful candidates took care to make their drawings accurately represented the process, equipment, pathway, or microbe.

Question 1 Define yeast viability and outline the principle and procedure for three different methods that can be used in a brewery to determine the viability of pitching yeast. (14) Outline three different methods for determining the cell concentration of pitching yeast. (6) Part one of this question required a definition of viability, which is the percent of live cells in a culture. Next candidates were required to describe three methods for determining viability, which included viable stains, capacitance, and slide culture. The marks were distributed almost equally among the three methods. Few or no marks were awarded for methods that are not in general use, such as bioluminescence. No marks were awarded for plate counts are impractical to obtain results in a timely manner. In the second part of this question students were required to outline three methods for cell counts, such as wet solids, dry solids, turbidity and cell counts. Marks were evenly distributed between the three methods and only the first three described were awarded marks. Methods for vitality were not awarded marks neither were discussions of a methods pros and cons.

Question 2 Define flocculation. (2) Describe the following: a) The Lectin theory of yeast flocculation, including Flo types (5); and b) Coflocculation. (3) Outline the effects of too little or too much yeast flocculation on beer quality. (10)

This question was a combination of theory of flocculation and how it practically affects the brewing process. A simple definition of flocculation was required followed by a description of the formation of the lectin surface protein, its action in binding mannose residues and the role of calcium. The description should have included a brief description of Flo1 and New flo types. Some candidates include a diagram: however those who only included a diagram gained few point without a description. Coflocculation as a phenomenon between two non-flocculant strains should have been described briefly. In the second part of this question candidates were awarded points for identifying the impact of flocculation on flavour compounds, attenuation, and beer clarity. Some candidates effectively conveyed this information in table-form. No points were awarded for a description of Stokes Law. Question 3 Name one beer spoilage bacterium from each of the process stages listed below (total of four different bacteria). Describe the shape, Gram stain, catalase, and adverse effect(s) on beer flavour and aroma for each bacterium:

a) Wort (5) b) Early fermentation (5) c) Maturation (5) d) Small package (5)

This was a straightforward question as long as the candidate understood which bacteria were typically found in each part of the brewing process. The 5 points were allotted to a bacterium from each area and generally a point awarded for each of the characteristics. Candidates who knew the material were able to collect a large number of marks. Some candidates efficiently organized their answer organised into a table: this meant they were less likely to miss an item and made it easy for the examiners to award marks. Some candidates incorrectly identified mold or wild yeast as spoilage bacteria. No marks were awarded for turbidity or non-specific mentions of ‘off flavours’ as adverse effects.


Question 4 Outline the steps required to develop a quality assurance plan for a beer brand. (8) Outline the ten steps required to develop a HACCP program in a brewery. (12) This question probed two different aspects of quality. It was only attempted by about 35% of the candidates and was the least attempted question by far. In part one, marks were awarded for the steps that includes definitions of requirements and responsibilities in developing a brand, definition of beer properties, definition of materials, analysis of sources of faults, definition of actions etc. Discussion of GMP or HACCP in this part did not gain the candidate addition marks. Part 2 required the standard ten steps in developing a plan be outlined. These included defining the process, identifying hazards, assessing risks, identifying CCPs, reviewing the HACCP system, in addition to establishing critical limits, monitoring procedures, corrective actions, record keeping and audit procedure. One mark was awarded for each step with the extra ones being given for detail on some of the steps. Variations in the 10 steps were recognized and points awarded. Candidates who were familiar with HACCP were able to easily capture a large majority of the points. No marks were awarded for long explanations of the philosophy or history of HACCP.

Question 5 Outline the formation of foam when beer is poured into a glass. (2) Describe how foam destabilises and breaks (collapses). Describe how foam positive and negative compounds interact within the foam matrix, and how they can be controlled in the brewing process. (18) The first part of this question was answered well by most candidates. Good answers focused upon the need to provide disruption or turbulence usually provided by the pouring action itself. Importantly and surprisingly some candidates failed to mention the requirement of a dissolved gas to enhance this process, in combination with adequate nucleation and the resulting interaction with foam positive materials demonstrating understanding. The second part of this question required the candidates to provide the detail of foaming mechanisms relative to formation, and thus eventual breakage. A single mark was given for a complete description of the “what and how” for each relevant description. Good answers outlined the physical interactions within the foam destabilising processes such as disproportionation and coalescence in combination with the influence of provided by drainage of foam active compounds. Many candidates provided a thorough “list” of foam active materials normally found in many beers, and as well listed some foam enhancers which may be employed such as PGA. The important point was to demonstrate not only the “what”, but to describe the “how” for each, including processing steps which provide optimal enhancement of these compounds. For example, including wheat malt in the grist bill of materials, and thus the resulting increase in glycoprotein normally associated with this material, which in turn would increase the substrate level of high molecular weight protein (glycoprotein) which interacts with divalent cations, and iso-alpha acid in order that a stable foam is then created. Good answers described the specific role which the material or process (positive or negative) would influence foam stability.

Question 6 Briefly describe two analytical techniques used for measuring each of the following: (12) a) Bitterness b) Beer and wort colour c) Foam stability Write brief notes on the following: a) Sampling error (2) b) Accuracy and precision (2) c) Repeatability and reproducibility (4)

This question focuses upon the understanding of commonly required laboratory analyses and their methodologies and builds upon as well, the analysis of laboratory data. Marks were evenly split for each method presented. Good answers for example in the case of IBU would have stated: 10 ml sample would be acidified, and mixed/shaken with 20 ml of 2,2,4 trimethylpentane (Iso-octane) then being analysed using a spectrophotometer @ 275nm, where the result would be determined by the following formula – A275*50 = 1 BU = 1ppm iso-alpha acid. The key was to provide an abbreviated, step by step description of the method. In addition to the manual BU method, some of the candidates were able to describe the IAA by HPLC method to obtain full marks for this specific analyte. The three methods for colour determination were the Lovibond comparator, spectrophotometric method and tristimulus. Both the Nibem and Rudin methods were required when demonstrating the evaluation of foam stability. The second part of the question evaluated the common methodologies which are utilised to validate data which would be typically generated within a brewery quality laboratory. Marks were evenly split between the responses. Sampling error is associated with “in-homogeneity” or non-representative methods. Many candidates were successful in their description of a simple, good example to drive the point. Good answers for the description of a accuracy and precision would provide more than just a simple “diagram” which outlined a rendition of an archer’s “target”. There was a tendency to simplify this to only the diagram, with little supporting information. Good answers would completely describe the visual representation. The last requirement for the discussion of r95 and R95 which are internal and external laboratory checks was well understood by most candidates. Better answers understood that measures encompass a stated precision rate of 19 out of 20 replications.

Question 7 Describe the process of yeast cropping from a vertical cylindroconical fermentation vessel for re-pitching, and conditions of yeast storage vessel required to maintain yeast viability. (14) If these optimal

conditions are not met in a yeast storage vessel, whatsubsequent fermentation problems might occur? (6) This question was the most “popular” question this year, answered by 94% of all candidates writing the examination. This is encouraging as management of yeast is of prime importance to the success of a brewery. For the first part of the question, marks were split between yeast cropping processes, and conditions of yeast storage. Each relevant point accurately depicted earned one mark. The key here was cropping completed from a vessel which contains a collection cone. Many candidates chose to include drawings of the fermentation device, and showed depictions of cone-to-cone pitching, which was not required. Good answers provided description of necessary cooling to encourage flocculation and temperature ranges typically sought as well as cone angles typically utilized in modern construction, and why. Answers should have included a description of the removal process typically using a positive displacement pump, while vented including a generalised rate of flow while being collected to the yeast brink. Additional marks up to the maximum were awarded for good descriptions of stratification which would be experienced in large VCF’s, and the requirement to discard earlier, and even perhaps later layers, favouring the middle portion, which improves yeast homogeneity. Conditions of storage within typically a brink, was also required to gain the second half of the marks. Good answers focused upon noting the enclosed nature of the vessel where good clean-in-place systems can be utilized to remove soils and effectively sanitize the vessel between uses and as well noting perhaps a cone for easy yeast removal, and cooling jackets/agitators to effectively remove CO2, and to provide adequate convection thereby reducing yeast temperature to a defined range. Strategies to eliminate oxygen, and reasoning was also expected. Some excellent answers included exclusion of oxygen via displacement with inert gasses, and dilution with cold deaerated brewing liquor to eliminate/reduce ethanol toxicity.


The second part of this question focused upon the result of poor yeast brink management. Good answers noted poor viability at less than 90%, extended attenuation processes in subsequent pitches and as well eluded to yeast vitality in terms of poor replication which will be followed by high SO2 production, sulphur excretion as H2S, poor biological performance and off-flavours in the final beer product. Our suggestion is that future candidates study and understand the mechanism of stress, as related to poor yeast growth and the resulting production of SO2, which is a regulated metabolite in most beer markets. It is essential to understand how to control this excreted compound through effective yeast management and product design. Question 8 Construct a labelled diagram outlining the significant cellular features of a brewing yeast cell. (10) Briefly describe the function of each of these structures during the logarithmic growth phase of fermentation. (10) This question was the second most answered question where 86% of all candidates elected to write responses. The key statement was to draw a completed, labelled diagram and secondly, provide the function for each associated structural component. Up to ten full marks were awarded for accurate depictions – a single mark for each. Better answers, and was expected, that candidates would select a species of yeast, and thereby label appropriately the genus and species – strikingly this was not done with nearly all responses. Many candidates chose to provide in addition, a “bud” which was not required. Good answers combining both the diagram, and secondly a description of function included: 1) effective representations of the cell wall where macromolecular “sieving” occurs, and structure and protection is provided to the yeast cell, 2) the periplasm where extracellular enzymes are concentrated – notably invertase, and 3) the plasmalemma including a description of the structure of the phosphlipid bilayer, including some expanded views of imbedded proteins for the purpose of cellular transport, and 4) the nucleus being identified, which showed an accurate depiction of the nuclear pores, and bi-layer nature, including a notation on the “location” of the cellular DNA and importance/relation to replication and cellular control and, 5) an accurate representation for the mitochondrion which would show the elongated cylindrical morphology, complete with the internal membrane which shows invaginated structure known as “cristae” - it is important to note in depicting mitochondria in yeast, that their size is somewhat small, due to the lack of full function during the fermentation process – the function being principally provide surface and substrate for oxidative phosphorylation, which is again subdued in actively fermenting yeast and, 6) ribosomes for the purpose of creating functional proteins from amino acids and the 7) associated system of membranes known as the endoplasmic reticulum providing transport and surface area for enzymic reactions, and 8) liposomes for the storage and transport of lipid, 9) the golgi apparatus (or body) which is involved in protein transport and, 10) the large internal vacuole would be included which is generally a storage or excretion organelle and 11) a representation of the bud, and birth scar should also be shown noting their origin during replication. Extra points at a half mark each, were awarded up to the maximum where accurate dimensions were provided.

Alastair Pringle and Tobin Eppard



Module 3 – Packaging and Process Technology

General Comments In all there were a total of 239 submitted scripts (including English and French) with a pass rate of 23.0%. The pass rate this year is substantially lower than last year (53%), with an average mark of 35% (2014 was 46%). This year there were 65 (27%) candidates who chose to answer less than six questions; only one candidate was able to pass from this group. With some exceptions, a significant number of scripts demonstrated poor exam technique, diagrams and illustrations were poorly drawn and annotated, hand writing (some scripts virtually illegible) and grammar made marking very difficult. Apart from the perennial reminder to “read” and only answer the “question” candidates should be advised to ensure:-

a. Effective exam technique. b. Importance of “reasonably” legible hand writing and

grammar. c. Start a new question on a new page. d. Not to leave bank pages between questions. e. Answers written in “Ink” only. “Pencil” is NOT acceptable. f. Mark front page of answer script booklet with question

number in the order answered. g. Adequately equipped with appropriate writing and the

recommended drawing aids.

Question 1 i) Describe in detail and with use of diagrams the method by

which bottle filling is achieved for a rotary filler equipped with each of the following :-

a) Short tube. b) Long tube.

Briefly list by comparison, the advantages and disadvantages of each method. (10)

ii) For either (a) or (b) describe, with the assistance of diagrams, each stage of the filling cycle from filler star wheel entry to pre–crowner. Identify the features that control fill levels and minimise dissolved oxygen pick-up. (10)

i) The majority of candidates focused on describing the “short

tube” methodology and failed to give a balance answer

between it and the “long tube” methodology. A short

explanation of the overall difference between short and long

tube methods at the beginning accompanied by a detailed

diagram and descriptions attached for both short and long

fillers was applied by more successful candidates. To support

my comments in the “General comments and overview”

(above) the quality and knowledge reflected in the diagrams

was disappointing as being “sketchy” and poorly annotated.

The level of detail provided by candidates was variable and

many failed to give a concise answer by tabulating the

comparative advantages and disadvantages of each method.

The comparison list for short and long tube should have been

more focused. Such as, short tube advantages: ease of

maintenance, potential for higher speed fill rates. Long tube –

ease of purging. Short tube disadvantages: high C02

consumption for purging.

ii) Surprisingly, many of those candidates having answered

section (i) chose not attempt this section, or if so, only in part, a

reflection of poor exam technique with respect to allocating

time.

Accuracy of diagrams led to some students missing marks. Students also needed to ensure that they highlighted the controlling of DO levels, both by the design of the machine (multiple evacuation points) and by the function of the machine (fast speeds, consistent fill heights).

Question 2 For a multi-lane “walking/reciprocating beam” stainless steel keg filler describe:-

i) With the aid of annotated process flow and equipment diagram(s) the typical cleaning and sterilising stages and operating parameters from in-feed to before the filling position, including detergents, steam condition, temperatures and process times. (10)

ii) Process flow and equipment diagrams with typical operating conditions for the CIP delivery station and describe best practice with respect to energy optimisation, water and effluent minimisation. (10)

i) This was the least well answered question in section A of the paper. This question invites the candidate to communicate their process knowledge by means of step by step illustration and notated diagrams of a keg washer/filler (infeed, washer, steam, filling and discharge). In this regard, and as again in Q1, the quality of illustration and particularly the level of knowledge in annotation was relatively poor and hence marking suffered as a consequence. Some candidates were able to support their answer by providing the parameter details required and generally these where the candidates that provided competent diagrams and illustrations.

ii) Generally well answered by those who attempted this section

and with extra marks available for mention of the significance of non-caustic detergent to avoid CO2 depletion and the appropriate steps to minimise effluent loading. Again as a symptom of poor exam technique a few candidates lost sight that the question was specifically with respect to stainless steel kegs and not cask racking.

Question 3

i) How is oxygen pickup minimised when preparing filtered beer for packaging? Start your answer at maturation tank and include the steps required following CIP and beer change over. (8)

ii) Draw a typical equipment flow-diagram for the above, identifying the individual plant components. (3)

iii) Identify the typical operating parameters (oxygen content, pressure, temperature and flow rate) through this process and describe their significance in relation to achieving the correct product specification in the pre-filler tank. (9)

i) The process steps and activities to minimising oxygen pick were answered adequately by most candidates who attempted this question. Vessel/line purging, leaks, pressures, CIP residuals checks all gained easy marks.

ii) As with other questions in the Section A - Packaging Technology the absence of a “given” process-flow diagram yielded answers of highly varied content and knowledge. Some diagrams were a mere rough sketch with < 3 elements of process plant identified, whilst those receiving the higher proportion of marks were drawn with a comprehensive plant elements including control loops.

iii) This section was straight forward and best completed in a tabular format. DO: 0-0.1ppm, minimisation of DO is essential to maintain beer stability. Temperature: -2 to 1, prevention of haze, oxidation, aging, foam, C02 loss. An expression of each parameter and an understanding of why it is important is what was required.


Question 4 i) For a beer flash pasteuriser,

a) Draw a diagram of the product and services flow and describe features in the design of the equipment (including instrumentation) and its operation that assures a microbiologically stable product. (6)

b) Identify and describe the process, both during normal operation and between different beer brands that ensures product quality. (4)

c) Define the term “pasteurisation” and “lethal kill”. For a typical flash pasteuriser, calculate the PUs applied to the product in a holding tube by subjecting it to 20 seconds at 73 °C. (5)

ii) Explain why the operating conditions in a tunnel pasteuriser differ from those in a flash pasteuriser in order to achieve pasteurisation of the product. (5)

A popular question amongst candidates reflecting that pasteurisation is a key element of plant and familiar topic in the brewing industry, and the most well answered question in this section.

i) The answers varied from comprehensive to weak and it was unfortunate to see some candidates choose to respond with answer(s) with respect to a tunnel rather than flash pasteuriser (please double check the question you are answering).

a) Many poor illustrations of the process routing limited marks for

students. Numerous answers omitted the services and instrumentation features requested.

b) The process to preserve quality between differing brands was generally answered well, especially so by those who were able to describe how to optimise changes between brand quality and avoiding the need to re sterilise between changes.

c) For the first part most were able to make the distinction between pasteurisation and lethal kill and then also to recall the equation 1Pu = t x 1.303(𝑇 − 60). It was rewarding to see that some candidates were able to indicate the correctness of their calculation by reflecting on the order of magnitude expected for the situation given in the question.

ii) A table would be the best way to approach this: packaged vs

beer, hygienic process, energy / utility consumption, simple heat transfer, heat vs time, package integrity. Simple graph comparing time/heat/PU would have been useful.

Question 5

i) Define the following terms and their role in packaging operations.

a) Quality Assurance (QA) b) Quality Control (QC) c) Total Quality Management (TQM).

Discuss in detail the roles and responsibilities of line operatives in implementing each of the above procedures. (12)

ii) Identify two QA activities and one QC activity for each of the following canning line equipment items.

a) Filler b) Can seamer c) Pasteuriser d) Can ink jet coding

Briefly describe process control actions for managing non-conformance events and the required corrective steps for each. (8)

i) Candidates generally provided a consistent and comprehensive answer for a definition of TQM. However, widely differing and disorderly answers were revealed for QA & QC and this is reflected in the marks given. Those candidates reporting modern lean style structures and ownership of issues at operator level as opposed to traditional autocratic style and awareness of process control procedures were awarded extra marks accordingly.

ii) There was clear evidence that where a candidate was uncertain

in defining departmental QC & QA roles it would follow

naturally that any uncertainty would compromise their answer in this section. In managing non-conformances only a few were able to acknowledge the process control steps extend to the suppliers also. A number of candidates did not answer two QA and one QC question.

Question 6 A wort boiling system in a brewery is heated by an external wort boiler using saturated steam. Write brief notes on the effects of the steam pressure on:

a) The area of heat exchange that will be required. (1) b) Wort temperature in the heat exchange zone (1) c) The requirements for cleaning of the system (2) d) Wort quality. (3)

The brewery requires the wort to undergo 5% by mass evaporation in one hour. The wort is boiled at atmospheric pressure. Using the data below calculate the flow of steam required. State any assumptions made. (5) Saturated steam pressure = 3 bar gauge. Condensate pressure in wort boiler = 3 bar gauge. Enthalpy of steam at 3 bar gauge = 2739 kJ kg-1

Enthalpy of water at 3 bar gauge = 605 kJ kg-1

Initial wort volume at 100ºC = 500 hl Enthalpy of vaporisation of water at 100ºC and atmospheric pressure = 2257 kJ kg-1

Density of water at 100ºC = 958 kg m-3

It has been suggested that the efficiency of the above system could be improved. Write brief notes with supporting diagrams as appropriate on the following energy saving opportunities:

e) Recovery from flash steam (2) f) Available technologies for energy recovery from the wort

vapours. (4) g) A wort recirculation pump that is operated at certain points of

the cycle. (2) This question was the most popular but also the least well answered. Questions (a) to (d) were answered very poorly by a majority of the candidates. Many seemed to ignore the wording of the question that the answers pertained to steam pressure. Simple marks were to be gained with a basic understanding that higher pressure steam caused higher temperatures, reducing the requirement for heat exchange area but increasing the need for cleaning (due to “burn on”) and potentially impairing wort quality. The calculation for flow of steam was answered better with a good many candidates acquiring all the marks or most of them. The answer was 0.704 kg/s. Assumptions included negligible heat losses and the reduction in wort volume being exclusively due to water. Parts (e) to (g) were answered patchily. The majority of candidates did not understand flash steam. It is steam produced by pressure reduction of condensate. Energy may be recovered from the wort vapours to several points in the process, the most obvious being the hot liquor tank or preheating the wort inflow to the copper. Most candidates understood that a wort recirculation pump was useful during the raise-to-boil phase when the thermosiphon does not work effectively.

Question 7

Part A. A filter is supplied with beer from a buffer tank. The tank has an applied pressure of carbon dioxide at 1 bar gauge pressure. The beer level in the buffer tank is controlled to a depth of 3 metres. The maximum back pressure from the filter is 6 bar gauge. The inlet to the filter is at the same height as the outlet from the base of the buffer tank. Transfer of beer to the filter is by centrifugal pump. i) Draw a simple flow diagram to illustrate the system (2) The

pipework between the buffer tank and the filter is 100 millimetres diameter and the flow rate of beer from the buffer tank to the filter is 400 hl h-1. The density of the beer is 1010 kg m-3 and the viscosity of the beer is 0.0025 Pa s

ii) Calculate the Reynold’s Number for the flow through the pipework (3)

iii) Using the supplied friction factor chart determine the value of the


∆𝑃 = 4 . 𝑓 . 𝐿 . 𝜌 . 𝑣2

𝑑

friction factor for the flow through the pipe assuming that the pipe has a smooth internal surface. (1) The pipe contains three 90 degree bends of standard radius. The 90 degree bends each have an equivalent length of 35 diameters.

iv) Calculate the total pressure loss through the pipework given that:

Where: ΔP = Pressure loss in pipe due to friction (Pa) f = Friction factor L = Effective pipe length including fittings (metres) 𝝆 = Beer density (kg m-3) v = mean beer velocity in pipe (m s-1) d = Inside diameter of pipe (metres) (2)

iv) Set out the Bernoulli equation that describes the whole system (3)

v) Calculate the pump power required at maximum back pressure from the filter if the efficiency of the centrifugal pump is 60%. Note that the gravitational acceleration is 9.81 m s-1. (4)

Part B. i) With the aid of simple diagrams describe the key design

features of a typical centrifugal pump. (3) ii) Give two distinct brewery process examples of when a

centrifugal pump would not be suitable for a particular duty. In each case suggest a suitable alternative pump technology. (2)

This question was the most popular and achieved the second highest pass rate. Most candidates were able to describe the system diagrammatically, which is an essential part of the logical process to answering these questions. Most candidates scored well on Reynold’s Number, but the majority failed to correctly read the friction factor chart. Examinees are reminded to remain cautious when reading values from charts with logarithmic scales. The calculations for parts (iv) to (vi) were very poorly answered in general. It was particularly disappointing to note that most candidates laid out the Bernoulli equation with only kinetic, pressure and liquid head terms; ignoring the pump power and frictional terms. This same comment had arisen the previous year. Only a few candidates scored well and achieved the answer of approximately 8.9 kW. The drawings for the centrifugal pump were in general very poor. The examiner was hoping to see a credible design, approximately, of the impeller and volute. Marks were gained by the majority of candidates for the pump types employed when centrifugal is unsuitable. Question 8 A brewery operates a closed circuit vapour compression refrigeration system using ammonia as the refrigerant. The process heat to be removed at the evaporator is 120 kW. The vapour enters the compressor at 300 kPa with 5ºC of superheat. It is compressed isentropically to a pressure of 1100 kPa, condensed at constant pressure and sub-cooled by 3ºC. Finally, it is expanded at constant enthalpy to 300 kPa at which pressure evaporation occurs. Using the pressure-enthalpy diagram attached, calculate:

The required mass flow rate of refrigerant. (3)

The electrical power required by the compressor set assuming that it is 80% efficient. (3)

The coefficient of performance (COP) for the refrigeration system. (3)

Comment on the value of COP obtained. (1)

Describe, with reference to the pressure-enthalpy diagram, how the COP can be manipulated by changing the pressures in the evaporator and the condenser. (3)

Draw a diagram of a water-cooled shell and tube condenser that is integrated with a water cooling tower. Include basic structural details, flows and control points that maintain the operation of the condenser. (5)

Briefly describe one advantage and one disadvantage of a water-cooled condenser such as that above over an air-cooled condenser. (2)

This question was relatively popular with the candidates but achieved a poor pass rate of 33%. Some candidates scored well on the calculations based on the pressure-enthalpy diagram. Future candidates should certainly familiarise themselves with the diagram since its use enables elegant calculations of refrigeration cycles. The mass flow of refrigerant is calculated from the heat adsorbed divided by the refrigerant enthalpy change at the evaporator. The answer was approximately 0.115 kg/s. Compressor power is calculated similarly with the change in enthalpy at compression multiplied by the flow rate with an allowance for efficiency. The answer was 43.3 kW. The COP is the removed heat at the evaporator divided by the compressor power, and in this case it is revealed to be low (ideally it should exceed 4). Reducing the condenser pressure or increasing evaporator pressure demonstrably increases COP by reference to the pressure-enthalpy diagram. Refrigeration effect is increased and compressor power reduced. Diagrams of the water-cooled shell-and-tube condenser were very variable in quality. However many candidates scored well because marks were readily available for the design features requested in the question. Marks were available in the final part of the question for any valid comment on health and safety (particularly legionnaire’s disease), the relative high capital cost of air-cooled systems and the higher efficiency of water-cooled. Question 9

i) In the context of automatic control loops and by reference to suitable diagrams, concisely explain the terms:

a) Set point (1) b) Gain (2) c) Response time (1) d) Rise time (2) e) Over-shoot (1)

ii) The following figure is a simplified system diagram of the liquid level and flow control to a packaging plant sterile beer vessel. The aim is to maintain the beer level by control of flow from the vessel:

During operation the flow into the vessel increases by 20% in a step change. Explain with the aid of graphical illustrations the system response characteristics for the following control. Include example(s) for which incorrect gain setting can cause control problems:

a) Proportional control (P) b) Proportional and Integral Control (PI) c) Proportional, Integral and Derivative Control (PID) (9)

iii) The output from the level sensor is required to be displayed on a SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition) screen. Explain briefly how this might be provided to the human-machine interface computer if the output from the level sensor is:

• Digital (1) • Analogue (1)

iv) For a differential level sensor describe how it may be

calibrated, stating factors that affect the calibration. (2)


𝒅𝑪

𝒅𝒕= 𝒌𝑳 ×

𝑨

𝑽 × (𝑪𝒆 − 𝑪𝒕 )

This was the least popular question that was also the second most poorly answered with a pass rate of just 35%. Most candidates scored reasonable marks on the definitions in parts (a) to (e). There was some confusion between response time (interval between readings by the controller) and rise time (time to return process variable to set point). The graphical illustrations requested in part (ii) were again supplied with very variable quality. If the examinee heeded the request to show graphically the effect of incorrect gain settings leading to slow or no return to the set point for the process variable, then high marks were readily achievable. A rudimentary understanding of transmission of control signals was required for part (iii) but this was not achieved by most candidates. Digital protocols employ remote terminal units (RTU) and analogue signals typically require a PLC. Candidates should note that such control and data acquisition systems are an increasingly important part of a brewer’s life and facilities. Part (iv) again required an answer that coherently described a basic method to calibrate the sensor, and how the calibration would be affected by beer density and depth. Question 10 A lager beer is matured for several weeks in a cylindrical, horizontal lagering vessel at 5ºC. The vessel has a diameter of 5 metres. During maturation a top pressure of 0.1 bar gauge carbon dioxide is maintained. The fill level in the vessel may be taken as 100%.

i) Calculate the equilibrium value after maturation for the average carbonation level in the beer in grams per litre stating any assumptions made. (8) Data: Atmospheric pressure = 101.3 kPa Henry’s constant for carbon dioxide in beer at 5ºC = 15.75 atm litre mol-1

Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2 Beer density at 5ºC = 1010 kg m-3 Molecular mass of carbon dioxide = 44 g mol-1

ii) After processing it is necessary to increase the carbonation

level in the beer by in-line addition of gaseous carbon dioxide. The following equation may be used to calculate the rate of dissolution of the gas after the point of addition:

Where: C = concentration of carbon dioxide in solution t = time after gas addition kL = liquid film mass transfer coefficient between gas and beer at time t A = total interfacial area between gas bubbles and the beer at time t V = total volume of gas bubbles at time t Ce = equilibrium carbon dioxide concentration in the liquid phase at the prevailing temperature and pressure conditions Ct = concentration of carbon dioxide in the beer at time t

By direct reference to the terms in the equation describe how the process and product conditions affect the speed and completeness of gas dissolution to the required specification. (6) Describe options for how the brewer achieves these conditions in practice with reference to practical technologies and diagrams. (6)

This question was attempted by just over half the candidates with a pass rate of 56%. The calculation for the carbon dioxide concentration was quite well answered with most candidates achieving pass grades. Top marks could be achieved by the realisation that the “average” carbon dioxide concentration would occur 2.5 metres up the vessel, and also that equilibrium had to be assumed. The calculation was complicated somewhat by the need to convert kPa to atmospheres to apply Henry’s Law as given, but very few marks were deducted for arithmetical errors. Few candidates scored well in the second part. The terms in the equation imply the benefits of dissolution time (for example holding tubes), beer turbulence to increase mass transfer, small bubbles to increase mass transfer area and reduced beer temperature to increase driving forces. Candidates would have done better in the final part of the question with improved diagrams for the described technologies. Despite this a significant number of candidates exhibited good overall knowledge of technology options, for example carbonation stones, Venturis and static mixers.


DIPLOMA IN DISTILLING EXAMINATION 2015

Examination team – George Bathgate, Graeme Walker Douglas Murray, Jeremy Stephens, Michelle Pizzi, Iain

Campbell and Alan Wolstenholme

Module 1 – Materials and Fermentable Wort – Cereal

In all there were 51 submitted scripts with 41 candidates achieving a pass grade to give a pass rate of 80.4%. Although there were more candidates this year (51 vs 34 last year), the pass rate is similar to last year’s (79%). It is encouraging that there were a higher number of candidates that were well prepared vs last year as well, with 11 B grade passes and even two A grade passes this year.

There was a wider discrepancy this year between the average of those that passed (60%) and the average of the fails (32%). It was obvious from these latter papers that they had not prepared themselves adequately for this level of qualification. On a more positive note, there were two grade A passes and 11 grade B passes (65-74%). Seven of these people passed all of their chosen questions as well as both sets of multiple choice sections.

Overall pass/fail rates and grades

Passed No %

Grade

A 2 4

B 11 22

C 15 29

D 13 25

Failed

Grade

E 4 8

F 5 10

G 1 2

The purpose of the multiple choice questionnaire used in section A of the examination is to test the candidate’s overall/wider knowledge of the other categories of substrates (outside of their chosen elective). Most candidates passed (78% pass rate). A marked improvement has been noticed this year vs last year in this section with more candidates being prepared for these questions. More candidates passed this section (78% pass rate vs 75% pass rate last year), with 10 candidates obtaining an A pass and one candidate even achieving an 85% pass for the multiple choice section.

The questions in section B were answered well in a few cases with the highest pass marks for some of the questions being up at 98%. A greater number of candidates managed to do well in all 5 questions they had chosen this year (17 this year vs only 5 candidates last year). Thus indicating that candidates are choosing to prepare themselves in all areas more, and/or not leaving their studying till the last minute. A few candidates that added practical elements/experience to their answers and that showed they had done more work than just revise the notes provided by the IBD, really stood out from the crowd. On the other end of the scale it was disappointing to find there were candidates that sat this level of exam when still confusing barley and malt, that were not able to provide more than just “an adequate temperature” or “at a proper temperature” when discussing parameters or that felt a five line answer would be adequate for most of their essay questions. This is a technical exam. Candidates, don’t under-estimate the need to be specific and give examples in your answers and to also consider both malt and grain distilling when one has not been specified. I would also advise candidates not to rewrite the exam question before answering, as they are spending precious time on this that could be used on answering the question instead (with the potential to score more points). A number of candidates ran out of time for their last question.

Performance by question

Question Answered by Passed by Passed %

1 40 25 63

2 48 31 65

3 32 27 84

4 42 33 79

5 39 24 62

6 39 25 64

7 13 8 62

The general comments above are discussed more specifically in the following report on each question in Section B (the elective long-answer questions).

Question 1

With the aid of diagrams, describe the different types of germination systems that can be used in malting technology and give the advantages and disadvantages for each of these options. (20)

This question was answered by 78% of candidates with 63% of these passing. Although this was a question where a lot of the answer could have been taken straight from the notes, most commonly, only 2-3 types of germination systems were covered (in notes there are a minimum of 5). Excellent candidates considered more options (that had not been in the notes), and had understood the differences between these systems and methodically thought through advantages and disadvantages for each. Indeed the highest grade for this question was of 93%.

It was unfortunate that some candidates did not know the difference between steeping and germination and only gave drawings for two different types of steeps instead. Others had maybe forgotten details around germination or misread the question as they gave several pages on steeping, including various examples of possible steeping schedules. For some of the advantages/disadvantages part of this question, candidates would have had to have either studied further or to have thought through logically, which the excellent candidates did.

A few unfortunately didn’t give advantages/disadvantages for each option but chose to describe different parameters for controlling germination in general instead. On the other side of the scale, one person went so far as to say there were only two types of technology possible and that the type of technology used was completely irrelevant and made no difference at any level.

Question 2

Describe in detail, with diagrams, the modification of barley during the malting process. (20)

This question was answered by most candidates (94%), with 65% of these passing. The average score was of 51% and the highest mark was of 95%.

A number of people underestimated this question and the level of detail that could be required, as it became clear a number of candidates hadn’t put in the effort to really understand what happens during modification. We had examples of people thinking that modification take place in the mashtun and that water alone degrades starch, or that enzymes all come from the embryo ….and some couldn’t name any enzymes at all.


This question was taken straight from the notes, and those that had revised got a very good mark. Candidates with good scores covered as a base the main elements of water uptake, GA synthesis, enzymes & their release, synthesis, action and order of involvement in endosperm breakdown in a logical and structured way, how the modification process is halted etc and provided a number of drawings to illustrate the sequence of events and progress of modification within a barley grain. Something that could help candidates is to think logically through the physical sequence of events that take place during modification (eg in very basic terms, starch cannot be reached by enzymes until the cell walls and protein matrix have started to be degraded first. If you use this as a base, the rest of the pieces of the puzzle will fall into place or could be worked out from there). Question 3 Outline the characteristics of barley varieties which impact on distillery performance. (10) Describe how new barley varieties are developed. (10) This question was chosen by 63% of candidates with 84% passing. The majority of candidates were able to pass or do well in the second half of this question as it is in the notes (eg a typical breeding programme, gene mapping techniques for parental selection, etc). Where some struggled was in the first part of the question, which would have required additional reading or thought to answer well. Excellent candidates also provided examples of approved varieties for both malt and grain and differentiated characteristics between the two. Unfortunately a few candidates provided different elements of a malt spec rather than characteristics of a barley variety. We also had one candidate write pages on different types of dormancy alone. Please take time to read and understand the question upfront. Question 4 Compare typical malted barley specifications, including target values, for both malt and grain distilling. (14) Discuss why the differences between these specifications are important. (6) The majority of candidates answered this question (82%) with 79% passing and the average pass mark being 61%. This question spanned across both malt and grain distilling and those that were able to provide all the necessary answers and understood the reasoning and differences between the two really stood out. The first part of this question was taken straight from the notes. Those candidates that were able to remember the table that had been provided, and were then also able to explain the main differences and why they were important and related them back to both grain and malt distilling processes, got close to full marks. Indeed the highest score for this question was 98%. Remember to read the question. Some stated the differences but then did not go on to explain why these were important. On the other side of the spectrum, we unfortunately had examples of candidates that were determined to write what they had studied in detail,… whether it had anything to do with the question or not (eg several pages on milling including drawings of different mills and examples of various grist ratios). Another got confused and went into to great detail for moisture levels at each step of the maltings process (the question was about a malted barley, ie grain that has finished going through the malting process). At this level it also isn’t sufficient to only provide 3 parameters and to just say one is greater than the other, or even to provide no values for these at all.

Question 5 Discuss the importance of maintaining enzyme activity in wort production and explain how this affects spirit yield and spirit quality. (20) This question was answered by 76% of candidates with 62% passing. The highest grade was 90%, with the average pass mark being 52%. We were looking for candidates, as a minimum, to provide which enzymes were involved during mashing, what factors during mashing could affect their activity (eg temperature, pH, thickness, etc), how the wort needed to be cooled, and of course, to then go on to discuss secondary conversion. Good candidates not only covered the importance of mashing parameters being maintained, but also what the effect would be if these were not maintained, and how, as a result, these would impact on overall spirit yield and quality, with some great examples for both. Question 6 Discuss the various methods by which unmalted cereal is made ready for enzymatic conversion in a mashing process. (14) Describe methods used for cooling wort from

a) An “all grains in” process (3) b) A filtered wort process (3)

This question was answered by 76% of candidates with 64% passing. The average score was of 54% and the highest was 88%. For the first part of the question, it was clear that there were a number of candidates that had either chosen not to study the grain distilling part of the syllabus or had totally mis-read the question. We unfortunately had a few candidates describe a mashing process for a malt distillery (with malted barley) only, another covered only milling, one did an essay on enzymes alone. Another candidate mis-read the question and wrote an essay on how abrasion and exogenous gibberellic acid would improve the maltings process. Good candidates covered all that was in the notes, and more. They even remembered to include the fact that exogenous enzymes could be used, examples of what these were, etc. For the second half of the question not only did they give several options for a) and b), but also gave advantages and disadvantages for each. Question 7 Describe in detail the analytical methods currently used for analysing diastatic power (DP) and dextrinising units (DU). (12) Define and compare, in relation to laboratory analysis, the terms “repeatability” (r) and “reproducibility” (R). (8) This was the question the fewest candidates answered. It was only answered by 25% of candidates with 62% passing. The average score was of 52%, and the highest grade was of 80%. We were looking for plain descriptions of the lab methods used for for DP and DU. Candidates that have already carried out this type of analysis stood out, and could describe and name reagents used, volumes used and times involved as well. For “repeatability” we were looking for candidates to define as a basic that it was analysis carried out on the same sample, by the same technician, on the same equipment, in the same lab. And to then differentiate and compare how “Reproducibility” differs from this.

Michelle Pizzi


Module 1 – Materials and Fermentable Wort – Molasses

This year nine candidates sat this paper. This is a higher number than last year and hopefully is the start of more as molasses processing is a large industry and the number of candidates should reflect this. The level of knowledge of several candidates fell far short of that required to achieve a pass at diploma level. This is reflected in only 4 candidates achieving a pass (44.4%). It was also noted that several candidates were not able to attempt the required number of long questions. In summary 1 grade B, 3 grade C, 1 grade E and 4 grade G. Multiple Choice Section This section had a wide range of marks. The highest mark was 13 and the lowest 5. The questions are set at standard grade and candidates need to show this level of knowledge of Cereal and Grape. Candidates who did well answered both grape and cereal equally in the marks achieved. Question 1 Compare and contrast the different environmental and agronomic factors which need to be considered when cultivating sugar beet and sugar cane. (10) Indicate, for one of the crops the key factors affecting when to harvest, the techniques used and how this will impact on the processing of the crop into ethanol. (10)

8 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 2 to 16. The first part asked the candidate to compare the two main sugar based crops. Good marks were gained by ensuring both environmental and agronomic were included in the answer. Full marks required a discussion and a simple list of factors for both crops was not sufficient to answer the question. Several candidates wasted examination time by giving detail that was not asked for. This included information on downstream processing. The second part was answered well by most candidates attempting this question. All opted for answering sugar cane harvesting. Full marks required information on the impact of harvesting on subsequent molasses processing. Detail of how molasses was made was again given but not required.

Question 2 Describe the different types and sources of yeast used in rum production. (8) Discuss the influence that these yeasts have in the production of light and heavy rum. Include the method of propagation and method of addition to the process. (12) This question was attempted by 4 candidates and marks ranged from 6 to 14.5 The question required the candidate to describe all yeast types used in Rum production not just one or two. The question also required candidates to provide information on the different sources. Good answers included purchased and self-propagated pure strains as well as the locally produced yeasts. Some candidates showed high level of knowledge by giving the names of typical pure yeast strains used in making Rum. The second part was a question that diploma level candidates need to know as its critical to the quality of the Rum being produced and it was disappointing that this part of the question was poorly answered. Again the main cause of loss of marks was not providing depth of knowledge by only discussing one or two yeasts. The question also asked for the method of addition and most candidates failed to gain these marks by omitting to include this in their answer.

Question 3 In relation to the interpretation of analytical data in a distillery, define the terms and give an application of each:

Normal distribution (4)

Standard deviation (4)

Variance (4) Discuss the basic concept of repeatability (r) and reproducibility (R). (8) 5 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 0 to 18.5. This type of question has been asked periodically over the last 5 years and the syllabus structure gives a high level of certainty that a question on laboratory / statistical analysis will appear. It is therefore surprising that some candidates were not even able to give a definition of these terms. There were some good answers that gained high marks and these not only defined the terms but gave practical examples of why they are useful techniques for a distiller to use. The second part was again answered well by some candidates but I was disappointed that several candidates did not know what the question was asking and were unable to define the difference. Question 4 With the aid of a flow diagram show the key steps in the production of Blackstrap and High test sugar cane molasses. (8) For each step describe the need and purpose along with a comment on any impact the step may have on the quality of the molasses produced. (12) 7 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 6 to 16. This question was similar to that asked in 2014 and it was disappointing that candidates had not taken on board the comments given in the examiner’s feedback. The question asked for a flow diagram and the best answered used annotation of this diagram rather than lengthy textual descriptions. Marks were lost by not clearly showing the different points that both Blackstrap and High test are produced. The question did not mention only the sugar refining process so candidates needed to mention any steps prior to arrival at the refinery to gain full marks. The need and purpose of each step required to be stated along with the key impacts on quality. Most marks were lost by not mentioning the impact on quality for all of the steps. The division of marks showed a high level of detail was required. Question 5 List the analysis specifications in a typical sugar cane molasses purchasing contract. (8) For each state: a) why the analysis is included, the typical range; and (6) b) corrective measures to reduce the impact if out of specification. (6) This question was attempted by 7 candidates and marks ranged from 3.5 to 19. A good answer gave most of the 15 potential analysis. 6 Marks were awarded for the key analysis with 0.5 additional for others up to 2 marks. Part a) this required some information on the need for the analysis along with a typical range. Full marks required the unit of measurement to be stated. Ranges were well recorded but the need required candidates to show the importance of the analysis result to the process. Part b) The answers to this section were of varying quality. Good answers gave and impact and corrective action for all the analysis stated.


Question 6

Discuss the types of microbial spoilage of sugar cane molasses. For each indicate the cause, impact on the process and measures to reduce the contamination. (20)

This question was attempted by 4 candidates. Marks ranged from 4 to 11. A similar question has been asked in previous papers and the knowledge to answer this question well is easily available in the literature. It is therefore disappointing to see so few candidates attempting this question. The answers concentrated on a few and not the full range of microbial spoilage organisms. When mentioned the requirements of the question were achieved.

Question 7

For sugar cane molasses describe a method of analysis to measure the total sugar as invert (TSAI) and total sugar as sucrose (TSAS). Explain why both would be performed and how to interpreted the result. (20)

This question was not attempted by any candidates.

Douglas Murray


Module 2 Fermentation, Distillation and Maturation


Grade Number of candidates % of total

(Pass) A 0 0

B 2 7

C 2 7

D 9 31

(Fail) E 4 14

F 6 21

G 6 21

Since this is my last year as examiner I would have preferred to leave at a happier time than the lowest-ever pass rate, only 13 (45%) of the 29 candidates. Having most of the passes in grade D, and none in grade A, are also disappointing results. There were 10 grade Ds in 2014, but they were less than half of the 21 passes, the others being 1 each at A and B and 9 at C (total pass rate 60% of 35 candidates). Perhaps the worst aspect of the 2015 results was the very low marks of most of the failed candidates: only 4 were in the just-failed grade E, but F and G had 6 each. In contrast, most (9) of the 2014 failures were grade E, with 4 in F and only 1 in G, Until now, even one G result per year has been unusual, but this year 21% of the final marks were in that grade. With so many very low marks, it is not surprising that the average of all final marks was only 38%, at the bottom end of grade E, yet another lowest-ever record. The 2014 average mark was not particularly good, 47.5%, but at least it was in grade D.

Grade F or G, and particularly the latter, suggests that the candidate was not yet ready for the examination, and several of the G group could attempt only 4 or 5 questions. There were many very short answers with little of the required information, and marks of 0, 1 or 2/20 were common. Before returning for a re-sit examination, more thorough preparation is required. That must include training in answering Diploma questions, most of which require essay answers, and these need practice for good marks. As a general rule, at least two pages are required per essay. To fill these pages usefully, (a) select from your memory the facts which are relevant to the question and (b) arrange them in a logical argument, which will certainly score better than the same information in a random list. There is also point (c), that the basic “revision notes” must be supplemented by other reading or work experience for a good mark.

Perhaps some grade E failures were due to poor study preparation, but all lost marks at some point by writing about some irrelevant topic, or not answering part of a question. Many successful candidates also lost marks in these ways, and they might have reached a higher grade by writing about, and earning marks for, what was actually required. Without other answers of grade A or B standard to compensate, even one such mistake could bring the final mark below 45%. So, before re-sitting the examination, please practice with previous papers, particularly in writing answers without zero-marked irrelevance. I suggest you do not read the examiner's comments until you have finished, to make sure you can decide what is required without the guidance of the report.

Actual and expected answers are discussed below, after a tabular comparison of the success rate for each question, and its popularity or otherwise. Note that only questions 4, 6 and 8 reached an average mark that was actually pass grade

Performance by question

Question Answers Passes Pass rate %

Average mark (pass = 9.0/20)

1 1 - - -

2 28 12 43 6.7

3 22 11 50 7.5

4 28 14 50 9.1

5 24 11 46 7.8

6 24 16 67 9.7

7 29 6 21 6.1

8 13 7 54 9.1


Question 1

Explain the importance of one inorganic anion and one inorganic cation for yeast activity during fermentation. Only one candidate attempted this question. (20)

Did nobody else realise that it just meant to choose any two ions, one –ve and one +ve, and write about their biological importance? It would be unfair to discuss the actual answer so the following comments summarise the expected information. The requirement for a reasonable amount of information would probably limit the choice of anion to phosphate or sulphate. For the former, adenosine phosphates and energy management, and organic phosphate compounds (e.g. phospholipids) were certainly an important part of the answer. Or, S-amino acids and other S compounds (especially sulphydryl) have important biological roles; in a fermentation context all are normally derived from SO4

2- in the wort. For cation, my own choice would be Mg2+ as a cofactor in various biochemical reactions, to make use of information from recent research papers. Ca2+ and Zn2+ were other possible cofactors, but perhaps with less source material specifically related to distilling fermenattions. Fe-containing compounds (particularly cytochromes), or the role of K+ or Na+

in trans-membrane transport were other possibilities. Even NH4+, as a

supplementary nutrient in brandy or rum fermentations, could be the basis of a good answer.

Question 2

Name the fermentable sugars of the worts for malt whisky and rum production, and explain how these sugars are incorporated into the metabolic activity of the yeast. (20)

All but one candidate answered this question, but with widely variable results.. Some did not notice that both cereal and molasses sugars, i.e. no fewer than fructose, glucose, maltose, sucrose, raffinose, malto-triose and -tetraose, had to be named. These sugars collectively involved three transport mechanisms into the cell. So a substantial part of a good answer had to explain (a) fructose and glucose (enzyme-facilitated diffusion), (b) sucrose and raffinose (enzymic hydrolysis within the cell wall, with subsequent enzyme-mediated transport of the monosaccharides) and (c) maltose saccharides (active transport across the cytoplasmic membrane). Also the sequence of utilisation of the maltose di-, tri- and tetra-saccharidess was appreciated. Many answers gave little of this information, or none at all, hence the poor pass rate of only 43%. . For “incorporated into the metabolic activity of the yeast” I was particularly interested in how the different sugars enter the first steps of the metabolic pathway. Since fermentative metabolism was implied by the question, Embden-Meyerhof would have been sufficient, and was all that was offered if this part was actually answered. So isomerisation and phosphorylation of galactose (from raffinose) and glucose to fructose-6-phosphate had to be explained, but additional information in the better scripts on subsequent stages of that pathway was welcome.

Question 3

Give a chemical explanation of the detergent and antimicrobial activities of sodium hydroxide. (6) Discuss, with respect to both manual and automated cleaning and sanitisation, the advantages and disadvantages of NaOH for distillery fermentation equipment. (14)

Answers to part (a) were disappointing. Few gave an adequate chemical explanation of dispersion of inorganic deposits, solubilisation of fatty acids and proteins of inert organic soil, and lethal damage to fatty acids, phospholipids, etc of microbial cell membranes. Even fewer gave the expected chemical equations. For (b), the question specified discussion, so a simple table of advantages and disadvantages was insufficient for a high mark by itself. However, a tabular overview from which to develop discussion was very effective in some of the better answers. Disadvantages which I particularly wanted to see discussed were the corrosive properties of NaOH (particularly important with manual operation), incompatibility with CO2, and the requirement for supplementary chemicals for optimal detergent effect. The second part, with most of the marks, was more competently answered, but even so, only 11 of the 22 answers came into the pass range, Despite the 50% pass rate, the average mark 7.5/20 was only just in grade E.

Question 4

Why are the heads/foreshots of a spirit distillation normally unsuitable for incorporation into the spirit fraction? (8) In order to produce two different spirits in-house it is proposed that one will retain the existing spirit to feints/tails cut point at 65% alcohol by volume; for the other the cut point will be 50% abv. Discuss the expected flavour differences and other implications of this plan. (12)

It was not enough to state that high-volatile congeners of the current distillation and dissolved low-volatiles of the previous run appear in the first runnings of the still. Part (a) required an explanation why these compounds are unacceptable, the most important reasons being objectionable aromas, potential haze, and in the case of grape or fruit brandies, the possibility of toxic methanol from pectin. However, “normally” in the question could encourage speculation that a limited amount of the first two effects might be tolerated for a desirable flavour impact. I suspect that few candidates had practical experience of a part (b) situation, but the question tested understanding of distillation theory, shown well in the best answers. The increased amount of congeners of lower volatility than ethanol should make a “heavier” spirit from the 50% cut point. Many answers claimed that the spirit would be too weak for maturation, but a correctly drawn graph of %abv over a distillation run (many were not: more marks lost) shows that abv falls rapidly between 65 and 50%. Only a relatively small additional volume is involved, and the final sprit will still be comfortably above maturation strength. Similarly, the slightly lower %abv of the feints/ tails is unimportant, also they are combined with foreshots/heads, and distillate from the beer/wash still, neither of which are affected by the change. Many of the 28 candidates answering this question were unable to convert their practical knowledge into part (b) predictions and only 14 passed. However, this was one of the three questions in which the average mark was actually pass grade, but only marginally so, at 9.1/20.

Question 5

Draw graphs of the concentrations of ethanol and the principal flavour congeners in the rectitifier column of a continuous still and explain their distribution. (8) What would be the effect on the other congeners of reducing the rate of removal of iso-amyl alcohol? (6) Discuss the implications for continuous still operation and the quality of the distilled spirit of the energy-saving plan to increase the alcohol concentration in the beer/wash from 8.0 to 10.0 % abv. (6)

Graphs were an important part of answer (a). They had to be accurate and neat for a good mark, and accompanied by an explanation, which I expected to include each higher alcohol concentrating where its volatility and that of ethanol were equal. Also, the rate of removal of higher alcohols would have to balance the amount coming into the rectifier, in order to maintain a steady state. So an important point to make for part (b) was that iso-amyl alcohol could be increased for only a short time. It could then be adjusted to a new steady state with a greater IAA “bulge”, and longer “tail” to increase its concentration at the spirit plate. Other higher alcohols further up the column would also increase in the spirit,“pushed” up by the IAA. Most answers to part (c) mentioned reducedreflux with less water. This applies to both the analyser/stripper and rectifier columns, and at least as important in the latter is the stronger incoming spirit vapour affecting the level (amount and. plate number) ofthe fusel alcohols. Several candidates noted that adjustment of stilloperation to maintain the established characteristics of the spirit would be difficult, certainly for a rum or whisky distillery. With only 6 marks on offer, brief comment on these points sufficed. This question producedsome very good answers, but other marginal passes and the 13 fails meant a low average mark.


Question 6 Starting from the fermented beer (wash), give an account of the production of spirit of the quality specification for vodka. (10) What is the preferred stage in that sequence for obtaining spirit for production of gin? Continuing from that point, describe one method for production of a London-style distilled gin. (10) With only 15 min to score 10 marks for each part, careful time management was essential. Part (a) includes all of the continuous distillations. A simple drawing of the series of columns, stating the purpose of each and showing the routes of process fluids, followed by an explanation of carbon filtration or some equivalent final stage.was all that could be expected in the time available. So, with a neat drawing and correct information, that scored 10 marks. For part (b) I expected the general principles (not company secrets) of batch distillation of diluted spirit and “botanicals”, including typical cut points of heads, gin spirit and feints/ tails. Only one method was requested, therefore the descriptions of other ways of adding the botanicals were (literally) pointless. Brief mention of the fate of the non-spirit fractions was also expected, since they can not be recycled to the next distillation. A high-quality feedstock is required for distilled London gin, but the final (de-methylation) distillation of vodka purification is normally unnecessary since any traces of methanol are removed in the heads fraction of the gin distillation itself. Marks ranged over virtually the whole 0 – 20 scale. With six grade A answers to counterbalance those showing little knowledge of gin and vodka production, this proved to be the most successful question of the module with respect to both pass rate and average mark.

Question 7 Discuss how the choice of wood and the preparation of a new cask can influence the maturation of distilled spirit. (20) By chance, an article on maturation was published in the May 2015 issue of Brewer & Distiller International with all the information for a perfect answer. With that fresh in candidates' minds, I expected excellent answers. Most showed a good recollection of facts about maturation, but the pass rate and average mark were by far the worst of the module since so many were unable to select the required information. The question tested ability to use knowledge of maturation, not to repeat revision notes. Although it specified a new cask, some answers even discussed the re-use of Bourbon and sherry casks, and rejuvenation! “How does the way you construct a cask influence maturation?” may be best answered by explaining, with emphasis on their influence on maturation, the stages from selecting a particular tree to the finished cask ready for its first fill. In that context (but not as part of general discussion of maturation chemistry), two important topics were the choice of type of oak, and heat treatments of the wood during and after building the cask. But in order to earn marks, the information had to relate to the question, and explain what was the maturation effect from each point mentioned. Other aspects of wood preparation or cooperage also scored valuable marks. Three examples from the best answers were “natural” seasoning of the wood (better development of flavour congeners than artificial drying), direction of sawing (to prevent leakage along the grain) and construction of the cask without glue or nails (to avoid solvent or metal taints). Everyone attempted question 7, but many answers scored only a few marks where I could find information which they identified as related to cask construction, hence the disappointing grade F average mark. Question 8 Briefly explain the principles of Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) and High-Pressure (or High-Performance) Liquid Chromatography (HPLC). (10) For each, describe one analysis in the production or quality assurance of potable spirits which is carried out by these instruments: why is it necessary, and how is it performed? (10)

Again it seemed that some candidates did not fully understand what was required, but the situation was not as bad as with the preceding question. Essentially it was to explain (a) how the instruments work and (b) why the chosen analyses are necessary, and how to carry them out.

I was surprised how few answers specifically mentioned the important difference between GLC and HPLC, that the former only measures volatile compounds (or compounds which can be quantitatively converted to volatile derivatives), so only the latter can detect non-volatile compounds, e.g. associated with maturation. The 13 answers ranged from excellent essays to extremely poor accounts showing little knowledge of the instruments or their operation. Which was strange, because when analyses were described for part (b) the examples were almost all correct for the instruments, although several answers lost marks by ignoring the purpose of the analyses. To end a rather depressing examination report on a positive note, this question had the second-highest pass rate, 54%, and a second-equal grade D average mark.

Iain Campbell



Module 3 – Process Technology

General comments and overview In all there were 23 submitted scripts with 14 candidates achieving a pass grade to give a pass rate of 60.9%. This is lower than last year (75%) and considerably lower than the 81.3% who passed in 2013. However it is encouraging that there were 2 A and 4 B grade passes. The D (pass) and E (fail) grade boundary accounted for 39.13% of the candidates with 17.39% (D) and 21.74% (E). Overall pass/fail rates and grades

Grade Number of candidates % of total

(Pass) A 2 8.7

B 4 17.39

C 5 17.39

D 4 17.39

(Fail) E 5 21.74

F 2 8.7

G 2 8.7

Analysis of questions which were answered and the corresponding pass rate was interesting. Question 1 was answered by all but one of the candidates with 86.4% passing. Conversely Q2 was answered by just 8 candidates with a pass rate of only 37.5% and an average mark of 7.6. Further analysis is presented below. These first two questions well represented the extremes of attempts and marks with full correlation. The most attempted question was rewarded with the highest average score (13.82) and the least attempted question got the least average result (7.63) and the second poorest pass rate. This might not be noteworthy in itself but the fact that Q1 related to batch distillation and Q2 to continuous distillation, raises an old concern of mine that many candidates are not seriously covering the entire syllabus. The question was so poorly answered by the few who attempted it that I can hardly bear to think about the state of knowledge of those who did not! Performance by question


1 22 19 86.4

2 8 3 37.5

3 21 11 52.4

4 19 15 78.9

5 13 3 23.0

6 12 7 58.3

7 17 6 35.3

8 19 9 47.4

Question 1 Discuss, with the aid of drawings and diagrams as necessary, how the design, construction and operation of a pot spirit still distillation system influences reflux and hence varies spirit quality. (15) Assuming an average still temperature of 90oC how much radiant heat will a copper still of 15 m2 surface area emit over a 5 hour run? (5) Assume an ambient stillhouse temperature of 20oC. Assume emissivity is 0.5 Stefan-Boltzmann constant: 5.67 x 10-8 W. m-2K-4

As previously mentioned, a popular question, chosen by all except one candidate. It was generally well answered and resulted in the highest average mark of 13.82 . Most found the calculation straightforward, remembering the importance of both degrees Kelvin and the time element. In the narrative most candidates included adequate responses related to the shapes and surface areas of stills, lyne arm orientation, fill level, ambient temperatures and rate of running. Better answers included the impact of alternative heating options, cooling systems, purifiers, still emissivity, sulphur compound removal etc. The best answers also touched on nucleate boiling, degradation of long chain fatty acids, ethyl carbamate removal, ester formation and reflux ratios. Question 2 Draw, and briefly explain the function of, the principal features of the equipment for pressure-cooking unmalted cereal for grain whisky production, and for energy recovery from the cooked cereal. (8) From the data below, calculate:

a) the initial temperature of the water/grain slurry; (3) b) the weight of steam required to heat a batch of 15 tonnes of

wheat to 140oC, assuming a perfectly insulated cooker vessel; (4) c) After the specified holding time at 140oC, the slurry is cooled to

100oC by flashing off steam. Calculate the weight of steam flashed off. (5)

Data: Water charge to cooker = 37 tonnes Temperature of water = 80oC Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1K-1 Initial temperature of wheat = 12oC Specific heat of wheat = 1.5 kJ kg-1K-1

Latent heat of condensation/evaporation of steam at average temperature of slurry over the heating and cooling programme = 2256 kJ kg-1

As mentioned already not a popular question and not well done. The responses suggest a general lack of engagement with processing which doesn’t solely focus on malted barley. The first part yielded mainly very poor cooker diagrams, whether batch or continuous, and there was little evidence of knowledge about atmospheric exhausting of cooked slurry, let alone vacuum exhausting equipment. Two candidates avoided the first part altogether and only attempted the calculations! For the calculations, most candidates remembered about the importance of using degrees Kelvin.

a) This part could be tackled in two possible ways. i) Postulating the temperature as an unknown where Q would be the same for water and grain or ii) Calculating an average specific heat for the slurry.

b) This part involved calculating the heat input required to raise the temperature once the slurry is mixed in the cooker which is straightforward.

c) This required a calculation of the vapour generation once depressurisation occurs. As I had not specified that the steam had been directly injected (though that is the norm) I allowed either assumption (injection or heat exchange) when marking.


Question 3 Explain the basic principles of a plate heat exchanger and describe the heat-transfer implications of operation with co-current and counter-current flow. (10) Hot condensate is collected from four points in a distillery and combined for use in a heat exchanger. Calculate the temperature and flow rate of the combined stream if the flow rates of the individual water streams are as follows: (a) 0.5 kg s-1 at 72oC (b) 1.2 kg s-1 at 82oC (c)1.4 kg s-1 at 90oC (d) 0.8 kg s-1 at 68oC The combined hot stream feeds a counter-current heat exchanger to heat fresh water from 8oC to 70oC. What is the flow rate of cold water if the heat exchanger is operated to cool the hot stream to 20oC? (6) What is the total plate area of the heat exchanger? (4) Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1K-1 Overall heat transfer coefficient of the heat exchanger = 850 W m-2K-1

This question was attempted by all but two candidates but with a very wide range of outcomes and an average mark of 10.71. To gain good marks in the first part, diagrams of a plate heat exchanger (with plate detail) and graphs relating to “co” and “counter” current situations were necessary to illustrate written text. Discussion on surface area, material of construction, turbulence, cleaning, heat transfer efficiency etc. should all have been included. In the first calculation, two options were possible. The elegant one is to calculate the heat content of each flow, add them all together and divide the total by the combined weight in kg. Most, however, opted to use a simple “weighted average” of the flows. This gives the correct answer for the combined temperature. With this it is straightforward to calculate the cooling water flow required. The second calculation requires the LMTD to be calculated and used in the equation q=uAΔT. Even amongst the acceptable answers marks were lost due to carelessness in the calculations including, but not limited to, missing a decimal point (value* 10); using 800W instead of the given 850W; giving the answer as plates instead of plate area, using unweighted averages; etc.

Question 4 On the assumption that three of the factors for regulatory charging for effluent treatment are within the control of the distillery, describe briefly one possible way to reduce the contribution of each factor to the total cost. (4 marks each) (12) Give a brief account of two methods for removal of copper from still effluent. (8) A popular question and generally high scoring with the second highest average mark at 12.0. It should be straightforward for candidates to earn marks by sharing knowledge of effluent charging schemes. Most started off by showing and explaining the Mogden formula which was most acceptable, though not insisted upon as it is not universally used internationally. What was expected was the listing of volume, COD/BOD and suspended solids as chargeable components. Whilst pH and temperature commonly form part of a consent, they do not usually count towards a normal charging scheme. In extremis, fines may be levied but these are not ongoing charges. A very wide selection of processes were acceptable, including some which reduced more than one element of charging. Cooling towers, CIP, AD, biotowers, sludge tanks were all offered as appropriate technologies. Pot Ale evaporation reduces COD/BOD discharges but there is still the issue of condensate volume to be addressed. On copper treatment, the main offerings were reed/willow beds, electrolysis and membrane filtration. To achieve full marks a reasonable description and perhaps an illustration was expected, demonstrating understanding. Some candidates erred on the side of brevity, losing easy marks.

Question 5 Describe, with the aid of diagrams, how a still is protected from damage in the event of exceptional pressure conditions for both a) a wash pot still and its shell and tube condenser and b) a continuous still system processing high solids wash. For each, give a brief description of these safety devices and their operations and discuss the likely causes of such pressure variations. (10 marks each) A very straightforward question, not generally well answered and not popular. The average mark was the second worst at 7.69 This is rather concerning not least when one considers the recent fatality due to a still explosion in the USA. Wash Pot Still. I expected a drawing showing either separate or combined auto PRV/VRV anti collapse fitments. Also a seal pot and a condenser siphon device and indeed the manual valve on the still body shoulder and the still access door itself. Steam coils and supply system could also be mentioned. A detailed diagram of a PRV etc. and a discussion on its operation would gain marks. Also a discussion of potential issues, such as chokages, filling an unvented still, adding cold cleaning fluid to a hot stilll, etc. Continuous still. Various of the above apply equally to the continuous situation and this could be so stated. I was, however, looking additionally for discussions on bubble caps, perforated plates, weirs and downcomers, clapper valves and sealpots. I hoped for insights about operational malfunctions due to progressive choking of perforations, wash build up on plates, back pressure due to pump failure and liquid build ups at the base of a column. I received very little on the above and lack of familiarity with continuous systems is, I suspect, why many avoided this question. Question 6 Describe, with diagrams, two of the following processes. (10 marks each) (20)

Recovery and processing of fermentation CO2 for sale as a co-product.

Removal from a continuous still and processing, of fusel oil (higher alcohols) for sale as a co-product.

Production of PET containers for spirit packaging including any product quality considerations.

Three disparate options giving the opportunity for candidates to show specific knowledge of particulars areas of the syllabus. The average mark was 10.17. No-one chose the PET alternative so I have no comments to make on it. The CO2 option was relatively better tackled than the Fusel Oil option though most answers on both, with few exceptions, tended to be poorly done. Many answers did not offer proper (or any) diagrams. Several seemed to choose this question as a “last option” and were clearly running out of time. CO2 recovery should include collection, scrubbing, compression, purification, liquefaction, distillation and storage etc. The Fusel Oil option should explain the offtake of high alcohol components from the rectifying column, decanting and/or distillation in a column, and identify the various streams. Question 7 Describe, with reference to appropriate diagrams, graphs and design features, the process of fractionation to produce neutral spirit (vodka) of specific parameters by continuous distillation. Indicate ancillary equipment, and the other streams which leave the system. (20) Once again, a question on the theory of distillation, and continuous distillation, which was not particularly well answered by many with an average score of 8.29. I was expecting some reasonable diagrams, theoretical discussions including McCabe Thiele diagrams etc, explanations of partial pressure, theoretical plates, higher alcohol extraction etc. Also design features of columns; how that aids fractionation and also discussion of ancilliary equipment such as reboilers, fusel oil columns, coolers, condensers etc. Also some mention of streams other than spirit such as fusel oil, heads, spent wash and lutter water. Some candidates offered a description of a Coffey grain whisky apparatus which is totally inadequate response. A wide variety of standards of answer but many were disappointing.


Question 8 Explain Reynolds Number in terms of properties of a fluid, and its relevance in calculating fluid flow regimes. (4) Draw diagrams of typical flow regimes in a pipe of circular cross section showing their velocity profiles, stating the relationship between the centre line velocity to average velocity in each case. Give an example of where each flow regime may typically be encountered in a distillery. (8) A fermenter (washback) of 3 m diameter contains fermented beer/wash to a height of 5 m at atmospheric pressure. A discharge valve of 75 mm in its base is fully opened and the contents of the fermenter are allowed to discharge under gravity to an adequately sized still which has its hatch open. Estimate the time which will be taken to empty the fermenter assuming a linear relationship between volume flow and the height of the wash in it. (8) Data: Density of the wash = 997 kg m-3 Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2

Generally there was a reasonable understanding of Reynolds numbers (part 1) and explanations of the flow diagrams (part 2) were of variable standard but adequate. One or two candidates were a bit confused and got their laminar and turbulent flow diagrams the wrong way round. The third part of the question (fermenter discharge) was found by most to be more challenging, though there were a couple of fully correct answers. Many who tackled it went astray during the calculation but were given full credit for a reasonable approach and shown workings. Various alternative approaches were used in arriving at the result but basically they require the application of Bernoulli’s equation.

Q=a C√2gh. In this simple situation C, the discharge coefficient, can be assumed to be unity and the average height can be used to arrive at the answer, although some chose to use integration. I was very concerned at the number of candidates who attempted to use the formula for circumference ( 𝜋D ) where they required to use the area of a circle formula 𝐴 = 𝜋𝐷2/4 This question resulted in an average score of 9.53.

Alan Wolstenholme

DIPLOMA IN PACKAGING EXAMINATION 2015

Examiners - Ruth Bromley, Tracy Adie, Gavin Duffy, Robin Cooper, Zane Barnes,

Angus Steven, Dick Charlton, Derek Mckernan and Thomas Shellhammer

Module 1:

General comments and overview In all there were 56 submitted scripts with 31 candidates achieving a pass grade to give a pass rate of 50.8%. This is significantly lower than last year (59.7%) and is the lowest pass rate to date in this exam. Similar to last year 8% of candidates withdrew during the year (after submitting at least the first assignment) and the decline in marks – especially in the long answer questions – does raise the question as to whether candidates who have previous sat the General Certificate exams are stepping up to the Diploma level without the full understanding and training required for this level. It was disappointing to see that only 7% of candidates achieved either an A or B grade pass compared to 12% last year. 1 candidate script is currently under review with the Examinations board and so is excluded from the scoring table below. Overall pass/fail rates and grades

Passed No %

Grade

A 0 0

B 4 7

C 14 23

D 13 21

Failed 24 39

Withdrawn 5 8

Unit 1 – Packaging Theory and Materials

Assignment This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood how the technical and functional materials selected for packaging help with the overall consumer experience of the brand. Selecting a small pack finished product of your choice from your production site or business, provide photographs of the pack and its components, accompanied by a list of all of the packaging materials used in the pack split into their technical functional groups, i.e. primary materials, secondary materials and tertiary materials.

Assignment Performance

Grade No %

A 3 4.8

B 4 6.5

C 12 19.4

D 18 29.0

E 17 27.4

F 4 6.5

G 4 6.5

The first section of this assignment was generally well answered with candidates being able to use their local production facility to match the theoretical description of primary, secondary and tertiary materials with the actual small pack production and its components. Complete answers included well structured photographs showing all of the component materials alongside their technical functional group, as well as an overall pack photograph. For the second section the Examiners were looking for the candidate to explain how the specifications of the material helped it meet the functional requirements. Good answers explained this in terms of the different requirements of each grouping, e.g. for a bottle or a can this would be identified as a primary packaging material which provides a variety of requirements such as product containment, measuring, protection & reservation to name just a few. This structure could then be used to follow the same profile for both secondary and tertiary materials. In general here as long as candidates correctly identified the materials correctly (primary, secondary and tertiary) then they generally were able to link to the correct functional requirements – however a number of candidates then failed to make the link back to the specifications of the material that helped it to provide that property. The final section worth 8 marks was generally where a lot of candidates lost significant marks. Many named only a couple of the marketing functions and most candidates failed completely to link this to the impact of the brand in the market place. This was disappointing, as it showed a disconnection between the production operation and the impact that this can have in the actual sales of the business.


Short Answer Section The scores within this section ranged from 2 to 32, with only 37% of candidates scoring greater than 50%. Overall this section was very poorly answered with a number of candidates appearing to struggle with the breadth of the syllabus knowledge that this section required. Questions that were well answered tended to be based around the production operations for cans and bottles, with the weaker topics relating to the manufacture of secondary materials (such as cardboard) and the material specifications provided to suppliers. Candidates knowledge about some of the ancillary topics covered in this unit, such as material life cycle, were also not well known. Long Answer Section Performance by question


1 49 17 35%

2 7 3 43%

Question 1 List the raw materials used in the manufacture of a glass bottle, along with the normal proportion of each ingredient used in the final mix. (10) Explain which materials are added to produce bottles of different colours, and which materials are added to remove colour. (5) Sketch a diagram of a bottle furnace and clearly label it with all four process stages, giving a brief explanation of what is happening at each stage. (10) Using a table, compare and contrast the three main methods of glass bottle manufacture and include examples of reasons for using each type of manufacturing process. (10) This question was designed to test the candidate’s knowledge an understanding of the glass bottle production methodology – and it was a clear question of choice within this year’s candidates. The first two parts of the question were designed to look at the ingredients used within the manufacturing process. The majority of candidates managed to identify the main raw materials, but there was a wide variation in the proportions of each of these that were suggested by candidates – and only the better answers looked to explain the variation in volume of the addition of cullet as part of the process. The knowledge of the colouring ingredients was surprisingly poorly answered, often with only the amber ingredient correctly identified. The sketches of the bottle furnace were generally poor – the better ones allowed clear identification of each of the sections and were accompanied by clear labelling of the four stages, leading on to clear and accurate descriptions of what was happening at each stage – from the kiln charging, on to the melting and refining stages before reaching the cooling and conditioning stages in order to produce a homogeneous mix, ready to be fed into the feeder prior to gob formation. In the last section many candidates failed to use the table format which was requested. This would have simplified the comparison between the different bottle production methods. This meant that answers were very repetitive and often far too wordy – leading to candidate confusion about which method they were actually writing about. Question 2 Define the key properties which make PET bottles a suitable alternative for glass bottles. (5) List five advantages and five disadvantages of using PET bottles for beer when compared with glass bottles. (10) Explain why multi-layer PET bottles are used, and the different types of materials used. Sketch a diagram showing how the multi-layer PET bottle preforms are manufactured, labelling each of the key points on the system. (10) Using a flow diagram describe each of the key points of the stretch blow moulding process used to convert the preform into an empty PET bottle ready for filling. (10)

This question was distinctly unpopular with candidates, and only 2 candidates submitted acceptable answers. The first two sections were where candidates collected the most marks – with the comparisons with glass bottle beer production varying from very comprehensive answers describing a variety of reasons to use PET to those which tried to turn an advantage into a disadvantage by simply negating the statement they had just made If asked for both advantages and disadvantages these should be clearly different e.g. advantages are light-weight, can be blown on the production side and it is easier to modify the shape, whereas the disadvantages relate to the barrier properties of the PET materials meaning a higher risk to the production quality. The final two sections were very poorly answered with only limited marks awarded to any candidate on these sections, despite the question being covered in detail within the learning materials. This tended to suggest that candidates had focused on the main primary packaging materials and were not yet recognising the value that PET production can have in certain markets.

Unit 2 – Beer Preparation

Assignment This assignment was designed to show that you understand the principles and importance of chilling and carbonating beer and how this is carried out within your site. Explain the differences in counter-current and co-current heat exchange. Using clearly labelled diagrams or photographs, provide an example of one of these methods of chilling in use at your own site and detail the operating principle behind the design. With the aid of clearly labelled diagrams or photographs describe the operation of a carbonation system in use at your own site. Explain what factors need to be considered when choosing the location for the carbon dioxide injection point using an example from your own site. Assignment Performance

Grade No %

A 16 26

B 13 21.5

C 14 23

D 4 6.5

E 4 6.5

F 3 5

G 7 11.5

77% of the candidates who submitted an assignment passed. In part one of the questions, the differences in counter and co-current heat exchange were generally described well. The better answers highlighted the difference with a temperature profile graph, and also a sketch of both heat exchangers which illustrated the differences in beer and coolant flows in each. The diagrams or photographs supplied for the next section of part one were generally acceptable as long as the images were clear (some photographs were blurry) and all parts were clearly labelled. There should have also been some additional information given regarding what the purpose of this heat exchanger is at your brewery. The best answers for the final section of part one not only described its design in detail, and how it operates, but also highlighted important issues such as cleaning, run rates, planned maintenance and any possible food safety issues. Part two of the question focussed on carbonation. In general, the diagrams supplied in this part were of a lesser standard than those submitted for part one. A good diagram would have clearly shown what kind of carbonator it is, i.e. venture, sintered or nozzle an would have illustrated whether it is manually or process controlled and therefore given detail on direction of flow of product and gas, any inline sensors, sight glasses, non-return valves, etc.


The final ask of candidates was to explain what factors need to be considered when choosing a location for CO2 injection point at your site. It was clear from some submissions that only the revision notes were referenced as there was no example given from their own site. Short Answer Section The scores within this section ranged from 8.5 to 36 out of 40 marks, with 43% of candidates scoring greater than 50% in this section. In general, more attention should have been paid to the section of the syllabus pertaining to sterile filters. The short answer question asked which related to this topic accounted for six marks and there were no full marks given for this question. In fact, most candidates struggled to pick up any part marks at all. Other than the issue described above, there appeared to be a good spread of knowledge from the course material by most candidates. Long Answer Section Performance by question


1 38 8 21

2 15 6 40

Question 1 What is the purpose of beer filtration? (5) Name three types of filtration and describe the principles of each. (15) Give an example of a type of powder filter which is commonly used and explain how it is designed and operated. (15) As you can see from the table above, question 1 was answered by the majority of the candidates, however it was very poorly answered. Part one of the question was answered fairly well and in most cases almost full marks were achieved. Part two of the question is the main reason most candidates did not score well on question one. Many candidates confused ‘types’ of filtration with ‘principles’ of filtration, i.e. the correct answer addressed rough, sheet, membrane or cross-flow filtration NOT surface, depth, absorption etc. The latter could have been used an explanations of the principles behind each of the named filter types. However, more detail was also required in describing briefly how the filters work as detailed in the revision notes. The third part of the question was more adequately answered, and the best scoring candidates included a labelled diagram and fully covered both design and operation principles. Unfortunately a handful of candidates miss-read ‘powder filter’ as ‘filter powder’ and therefore incorrectly answered the question, i.e. the answer should have described either a plate and frame, leaf or candle filter, NOT kieselguhr. Question 2 When transferring beer post fermentation through to bright beer tank, describe in detail which quality parameters need to be controlled, and how. (25) Explain which factors need to be considered when designing a bright beer tank. (10) Only 28% of the candidates answered question two. There was a higher pass rate on this question, but in general most answers lacked enough detail. In part one, not all candidates were able to correctly name which quality parameters need controlling during beer transfer post fermentation to bright beer tank. These are clearly called out in the revision notes as dissolved oxygen, microbial contamination, carbonation and fobbing. A lot of marks were not accounted for when it came to describing HOW these quality parameters can be controlled. A good answer would have listed the correct quality parameters, explained why these are important to have controlled during transfer at this stage of the process (i.e. impact on final product and consumer), and it would have given examples of how they can be controlled (i.e. operational practices, quality control checks and any necessary corrections)

Part two of the question was more strongly answered and the better candidates included a labelled diagram of a bright beer tank, which detailed good design features. The best answers went into detail about the importance of good drainage and ease of clean, pressure and vacuum relief systems and construction materials.

Module 1:

Unit 3 – Planning and Line Design

Assignment This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understands how the key principles of line design are integrated and applied when undertaking a major change/modification to an existing packaging line. Due to an increase in market demand and competitor activity you have been tasked with developing a project brief to procure, install and commission a multipack machine on your 50000 BPH NR bottling line. (The current line only runs one pack format). You are required to outline and dimension the key requirements for the machine under the following headings :-

a) Size of machine, number of pack formats - how positioned in the line with profile requirements, and, rationale for these.

b) Key operational requirements – projected efficiencies, capacity, and down time requirements for cleaning and maintenance, pack format changes and frequencies, and summarised weekly capacity projections versus projected increase in sales/demand.

c) Materials supply and removal logistics requirements to and from the machine; and key waste/usage targets by pack material/format.

d) Manning requirements for the machine including level of skills/competence requirements to operate and maintain the machine.

e) Summary of key performance requirements, overall weekly line capacity implications and supporting commentary/reasons for the changes as a result of the machine introduction.


Grade No %

A 4 8

B 5 9.5

C 8 15

D 5 9.5

E 11 21

F 12 22

G 8 15

53 candidates submitted this assignment, achieving an average score of 12 out of 25 (48%), with the range of scores from 5 to 21.5. Candidates in the higher scoring A and B categories covered the assignment content comprehensively, with well substantiated content and support material. They demonstrated a good understanding of how the key principles of line design are integrated and applied when undertaking a major change/modification to an existing pack line, with good examples of key performance requirements, capacity implications and projected KPI changes post change/modification. Students in the C, D and E categories generally scored lower, with less quantification and substantiation of aspects tabled ,and, in some cases did not adequately address all the key requirements of the assignment. Of concern were the scores in the F and G categories where 20 submissions scored below 40% (E). These candidates clearly did not demonstrate an understanding of how the key principles of line design are integrated and applied when undertaking a major change/modification to an existing pack line. Many of these candidates were unable to quantify and substantiate key operational and performance requirements, projected efficiencies and capacities as a consequence of introducing new pack formats and a new multi-pack machine. The respective responses tabled and covered generic theory without adequate quantification or elaboration.


Short Answer Questions 54 candidates sat the exam, and achieved an average score of 22.5 (56%), with the scores ranging from 5 to 34 out of 40 marks. This section of the examination paper focused on determining the candidate’s breadth of knowledge of the unit subject matter. The lower scoring responses were spread over all areas covered in the questions, and of particular concern is the lack of understanding of the key elements of capacity planning, scheduling and operations planning as applied in packaging. Questions on these topics were either not answered or answered incorrectly. Long Answer Questions Performance by question


1 39 21 53

2 15 7 47

Question 1 Draw a flow diagram of a can or NR bottle line and indicate the manned positions on the line. (10) Using a tabular format summarize the duties carried out at each position with brief supporting explanation of reasons for these. (15) Briefly explain how the operational effectiveness of these positions could be measured. (10) 39 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 2 and 29, with an average score of 17.5 out of 35 marks (50%). This question focused on determining the candidate’s understanding of manning requirements and practices used and applied on a modern packaging line. In the weaker submissions the schematic line layouts provided had little to no indicative manning requirements, and the description of the duties of the manned positions tabled were generic descriptions of the process functions of the respective machines – “filler fills and crowns the container, and, the operator starts, operates and shuts down the machine” – with no elaboration on specific duties. Operational effectiveness measures and indicators were hardly covered, and if they were, these were very generic, with no specific elaboration on key KPI’s by key position/process area. In the higher scoring submissions the respective sub questions were comprehensively covered with well labelled schematic line layouts, manned positions identified, key duties and reasons for these, with comprehensive coverage of how operational effectiveness of the nominated positions/process areas could be, or are measured. Question 2 List the six major loss categories found on a packaging line. (6) Using a tabular format, outline and discuss two key contributor examples by loss factor including possible reasons/causes for/of these. (15) Identify and list a possible set of preventative actions by respective contributor/reasoning in above. (12) Define the formula to calculate O.E.E. (2) 15 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 10 and 28, with an average score of 18.7 out of 35 (53%). This question focused on determining the candidate’s understanding of the six major loss categories found on a pack line, what these are, how they are categorized, and what are the contributing factors and possible causes/reasons for these. In the higher scoring responses the candidates clearly demonstrated how they would analyze and dimension the key contributors by loss factor, and provided plausible causes and reasons for these, with supporting potential corrective action proposals. The weaker responses tabled the loss factors with generic ‘one liner’ comments, and very little substantiation or elaboration on key contributor examples, and, possible causes/reasons for these. Of concern here is the regurgitation of the learning material theory with little clear demonstration of understanding of how applied on a pack line.

Module 1:

Unit 4 – Small Pack Operations

Assignment

This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood the working principles of a bottle crowner or can seamer and how the functionality of the equipment ensured product and package integrity. For a bottle or can line of your choice describe in detail the working principles of the crowner or seamer. Identify the key parameter settings and the impact on package Integrity if there is deviation from these settings. For the period of the assignment include actual results for each piece of equipment and from these show the level of control achieved. Explain how the crowner or seamer is managed, maintained and calibrated and the procedure for changeover between different package types. Assignment Performance

Grade No %

A 7 14

B 6 12

C 9 18

D 6 12

E 13 27

F 6 12

G 1 2

48 candidates submitted this assignment, achieving an average score of 14 with a range of scores from 3 to 22 out of 25. Although registered 14 candidates did not submit an assignment. Good submissions provided assignments which were well structured , contained detail of the working principles of a seamer or a crowner and contained detailed information, photos and diagrams where appropriate. The purpose of the assignment is to get the candidate to understand in depth the working principles of a machine and be able to explain this in depth. The better submissions demonstrated this and showed they had spent time at the machines and not simply copied text from the manual. The assignment asked for key parameter settings and how deviations in these settings may impact on package integrity. Again the better submissions had real data and an understanding of how these settings could affect the crowning or seaming operation. Not all candidates answered this part which therefore lost marks. Actual results were asked for which most but not all candidates quoted. Analysis of these results was very important to demonstrate control of the process – the better submissions did this. Part 2 focussed on managing , maintaining, calibrating and changing over a crowner or seamer . Submissions which explained these 4 key aspects of operation achieved good marks and excellent marks were also awarded if the actual operating procedure or maintenance plan was included Short Answer Section Of the 62 candidates registered for this unit, 54 sat the examination with the others marked absent or withdrawn. The average scores were 25 (62%), with scores ranging from 16 to 36 out of 40 marks (94 % of the candidates scored greater than 50%). This section of the examination paper focused on determining the candidate’s breadth of knowledge of the unit subject matter.

Long Answer Section Performance by question


1 36 22 61

2 17 6 35

Question 1 Explain the operation of one type of bottle labeller using a sketch or flow diagram. (20) Describe the benefits and constraints of wet glue labelling versus PSL ( Pressure Sensitive Labelling ). (10) List the main factors which impact on bottle label presentation for a wet labelled bottle and the reasons why these factors are important. (5)


The first part of the answer attracted the most marks and the best answers had a detailed sketch or diagram of the labeller with all the important parts highlighted and an explanation of the operation of each of these parts. Marks were also awarded to candidates who explained which parts were most important and included actual settings. This part of the question was fairly well answered. The second part was not so well answered. The best way to answer this was by using a table which highlighted the benefits and constraints of PSL labelling eg cost, presentation, efficiency, ease of application, cleanliness etc. The third part required a list of factors that affect glueing a label to a bottle and how they can affect the final presentation eg glue type, amount, temperature, effect of brushes, pallets, grippers, bottle condition etc, label condition etc. The question was answered by 36 candidates with an average score of 18 . Candidates must ensure all parts of the question are answered and not just simply draw a sketch of a labeller. Question 2 Describe the can filling operation using a sketch or diagram highlighting the reason for each part of the operation. (20) For cans which have been produced with leaking seams list the reasons why this may have occurred and what actions would need to be put in place to ensure this process was brought back under control. (15) Only 35% of candidates passed this question. The main reasons for such a low score were that it was insufficient to just draw a diagram of a can filler operation and not put in any detail on the operating principles of each stage or an explanation of what was happening at each stage. The better answers had this detail and also included real settings and parameters from their operation. The second part of the question was best answered by listing how a can may end up with a leaking seam and for each possibility highlighting the probable cause and the remedy. There were some really good answers covering flange damage, pin height settings, chuck / roll settings etc which then discussed management and maintenance of the seamer and how this my affect the integrity of the seam. Although the average score was 17 there was a striking difference between those candidates who obviously know how a filler / seamer works and those who only knew some of the theory.

Module 2:

General comments and overview In all there were 37 submitted scripts with 24 candidates achieving a pass grade to give a pass rate of 64.9%, which is identical to last year. Similar to last year a much lower proportion of candidates withdrew during the year (after submitting at least the first assignment) which is often as a result of the candidate already having successfully completed Module One and therefore being more used to what is expected from them. It was also interesting to note that the grade breakdown percentages were also very similar to last year, and very pleasing to note that the proportion of candidates sitting the Soft Drinks elective also remained at just over 20% of the candidates. Overall pass/fail rates and grades

Passed No %

Grade

A 0 0

B 4 10

C 9 23

D 11 28

Failed 13 33

Withdrawn 3 8

Unit 1 – Quality

Assignment This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understands the key quality and analytical measures used on a can or NRB line; and how these are monitored and managed to ensure consistently high packaged product quality. For a packaging N.R.B. or can line of your choice, outline FIVE key quality/analytical measures applied in filling and seaming / filling and crowning with respective key performance indicators/targets. For the FIVE measures identified, conduct a full review and evaluation of these on your line, and dimension both the key deviations and good performance areas against these with your supporting comments/reasoning. Select TWO of those measures/analysis which have the highest impact on Quality, provide a detailed recommendation of an improvement plan for each of these with your projected performance improvement results. You are encouraged to provide and include diagrams, checks, analysis samples and tools/techniques that you have used in your evaluation as part of your submission. Assignment Performance

Grade No %

A 5 13

B 4 10.5

C 4 10.5

D 6 16

E 12 31.5

F 6 16

G 1 2

38 candidates submitted this assignment, achieving an average score of 14 (56%), with the range of scores from 8 to 23 out of 25. Although registered, one candidate did not submit an assignment. Good submissions (A and B categories) provided well structured comprehensive submissions with good visual support material – charts, trends, commentary ,and, conducted in-depth reviews and evaluation of the content. They also tabled good recommendations with supporting commentary, quantification and substantiation for the measures and analysis selected. Candidates with satisfactory scores (C, D and E categories) generally scored lower on actual review aspects, and most submissions lacked in-depth substantiation of recommendations and improvement plans tabled. The weaker and poorer submissions (E, F and G categories) were not well prepared, with little in-depth analysis and substantiation to recommendations made. Most of these submissions did not adequately address the review and recommendation aspects asked for in Parts B and C of the assignment. Short Answer Questions Of the 39 candidates registered for this unit, 36 sat the examination with the others marked absent. The average scores were 24 (60%), with scores ranging from 17 to 32 out of 40 marks (95% of the candidates scored greater than 50%). This section of the examination paper focused on determining the candidate’s breadth of knowledge of the unit subject matter. The lower scoring responses were generally in the quality assurance and micro-biological/hygiene areas. These were either not answered or answered incorrectly. Long Answer Questions Question 1 List the twelve principles of TQM. (6) Briefly explain with an example, how each of these are applied on a packaging line. (24) Quality assurance of a packaged product is structured into seven key steps – outline FIVE of these and provide a practical example of how you use on a pack line. (5)


29 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 0 and 30, with an average score of 13 out of 35 marks (37%). This question focused on total quality management and was aimed at verifying the candidate’s understanding of what the key principles of TQM are and with provision of examples how these are applied on a packaging line. In the third part of the question the focus was on quality assurance and the identification of five of the seven key steps and how these were applied and used on a pack line. Of concern here was the lower than targeted average scores and generally poor responses to this question, which indicated that candidates either did not fully understand the concepts and learning material content, and/or had not had sufficient exposure and application development in their respective plants/pack lines. The higher scoring candidates demonstrated a good understanding of the subject matter and provided good examples and substantiation of points made to the question. Question 2 Draw a ‘fishbone’ analysis diagram to evaluate whether the management of a process environment is understood. Identify the FOUR key input elements and indicate the supportive sub elements by key input element. (20) Discuss THREE sub elements identified in (a) and elaborate on these in terms of procedures, KPI’s and consequence. (15) 7 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 3 and 26, with an average score of 17 out of 35 (48%). Two candidates had poor scores of 3 and 10 out of 35 respectively. This question focused on problem solving and trouble shooting, with the candidates required to identify the key input elements and respective sub elements in the management of a process environment. The second part of this question was aimed at verifying the candidate’s understanding of the input elements and sub elements, and their respective contribution to process monitoring and management. The identification/determination of cause and effect relationships of inputs to outcomes (process performance, results and related consequences)by covering a more detailed discussion of these using examples familiar to the candidate. One would have expected the candidates to have scored higher on this question as the topic is common across all aspects of the operation and applied universally. The higher scoring candidates demonstrated a good understanding of process problem solving, using a fish bone analysis and tabled good examples and rationale to their answers.

Module 2:

Unit 2 – Operations Management

Assignment

This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood how packaging financial performance is monitored and reported. Candidates and their companies were reminded that financial information provided by candidates in their submissions would be treated in the strictest confidence.

For a packaging line (or packaging area) with which you are familiar and for a financial month (or period) from the third quarter from this (or the last) financial year, use actual financial figures for both fixed cost accounts and variable cost accounts to demonstrate:

The month / period performance against budget.

The year-to-date performance against budget.

The year-end forecast position. Explain how the significant positive and negative variances came about and what measures were put in place to maintain the year-end budget position. Suggest ways in which financial performance awareness could be raised more widely for packing line operators and technicians and suggest which financial KPIs might be included in a performance dashboard or report.


Grade No %

A 3 8.5

B 6 17

C 10 28.5

D 6 17

E 8 23

F 2 6

G 0 0

Two candidates scored 24 and one 23 with all three producing near model submissions. The better candidates had a good structure with very helpful use of screen dumps and tables together with photographs of dashboards, display boards etc. In too many cases not all aspects of the assignment were answered, especially the year-end forecast position in the first part. For those who did answer, a number of candidates simply proportioned the full-year with the 9 months year to date performance – for both fixed and variable costs. For most operations this will not be accurate enough and a more in-depth analysis will be required superbly demonstrated in the near model submissions. Explanations on how the significant positive and negative variances came about and what measures were put in place to maintain the year-end budget position were very variable and generally lacking necessary detail. The final part was characterised by some very sound suggestions on raising financial awareness – team briefings, notice boards, electronic dashboards etc as well as being part of incentive schemes perhaps. Too many candidates failed to suggest financial KPIs for a dashboard which they and their colleagues could directly influence on a day to day basis preferring to cite KPIs on overall company profitability, sales etc. Relevant KPI examples might include (with appropriate targets): beer loss ($/hl), bottle or can loss ($/hl), cost of downtime ($/minute), packaging cost ($/hl), maintenance cost ($/hl). The very best answers included energy consumptions ($/hl or MJ/hl) and water ($/hl or hl/hl). Short Answer 36 candidates sat the exam, and achieved an average score of 20, with the scores ranging from 10 to a very good 33. Once again, the questions on line operations and world class manufacturing were answered better than those on finance and purchasing. For Q1, 2 marks were to be awarded. This did not mean [2x1] and so more than two advantages for having annualized hours were expected. This principle also applied elsewhere in the paper and so candidates are reminded that if a specific number of answers are required, the examiner will set the question accordingly – for example Q4 “List the six key influences………” with [6x1/2] marks. For Q4 several candidates listed measures of performance rather than influences on performance. The missing component of the three that make up manufacturing cost (Q10) should have been straightforward but too many candidates answered “Indirect Materials” and several “Utilities” rather than the correct answer of “Direct Labour”. The majority of candidates were unclear on indirect material and indirect labour costs (Q11 and Q12) whilst most had a better understanding of variable costs (Q13). In the middle of the examination paper’s section on finance, the examiner was entitled to expect a financial explanation of depreciation (Q15)! One brief explanation might be “the gradual conversion of the cost of an asset into an operational expense which then normally appears in the fixed cost budget”. Surprisingly, a number of candidates made no attempt to answer “which three items should match exactly to allow automatic payment to a supplier?” (Q19). The straightforward answer was purchase order, goods received note and invoice (or, where appropriate, the up to date electronic equivalents). Too many candidates, in answering on key aspects of a service level agreement (Q20), provided aspects more in line with traditional contracts. Importantly those that made a good attempt often missed out performance pricing.


Long Answer Performance by question


1 34 16 47

2 2 1 50

Question 1 Explain the typical composition of an autonomous canning line team having responsibility for all tasks from operating (including on-line quality checks), size changing, cleaning and maintenance. (15) Describe the competences of the various team members and outline how these competences can be gained and maintained. (20) This was clearly the most popular of the long answer questions with marks ranging between a poor 9 to a good 27, with an average score of 17. Too many candidates clearly failed to exercise good time management and allowed insufficient time for their answers. The first part of the question specifically asked for an explanation not simply a list. A list could have been supplemented with an explanation but was not sufficient in itself to achieve good marks. In addition to the roles and locations of team members the examiner was seeking explanations of how planned and unplanned absences are covered, how specialist skills are accessed for major maintenance / overhaul tasks and how interfaces with the bright beer and warehouse are managed. The second part of the question commanded the majority of the marks and therefore demanded rather more than half the time available. The examiner was expecting descriptions of competences, not brief job descriptions. Better answers included managerial as well as technical competences for the team leader and, for an autonomous team, a development of multi-skilling. In describing how competences can be gained and maintained, the better answers covered training needs analysis, on-the-job and off-the-job training and, importantly, the role of original equipment manufacturers (OEM) in delivering training and supporting personnel using their equipment subsequently. The best answers also indicated how, when necessary, personnel could be released from their normal duties for off-line training and how competence is monitored (and recorded) and periodically re-evaluated. The examiner was particularly pleased to see several candidates describe the “buddy” system for on-the-job training. Question 2 Describe the process for the selection of a new supplier in an area of competitive supply markets, in this case specifically CIP materials. (20) What would be the benefits of having an ongoing partnering arrangement with the new supplier of CIP materials and outline how these would be achieved? (15) The 2 candidates who chose to answer this question scored marks of 11 and 22. For the first part, the examiner was seeking a description (not simply a list!) of the process stages for selecting a new supplier specifically in an area of competitive supply markets with up to seven stages representing a good answer. In addition, two very important aspects are (a) establishing the financial health of potential supplier together with past, present and future financial performance and analysis of the supplier’s financial accounts and (b) finding a means of establishing the potential supplier’s actual quality and delivery performance (and reputation) with existing customers. For the second part of the question, in addition to the well-known general benefits of having an ongoing partnering arrangement, there can be specific benefits in the case of a CIP chemical supplier. These might include: the potential for holding consignment stock (only paying when consumed), the use of supplier owned and maintained CIP plant and equipment (e.g. bulk tanks, dosing pumps etc), the remote monitoring of chemical stocks with automatic replenishment, the optimisation of CIP regimes (including potential incentivisation of the supplier within the contract) and the potential to extend the supply of chemicals to other areas perhaps (e.g. boiler treatment chemicals, pasteurizer treatment chemicals etc).

Module 2:

Unit 3 – Large Pack Operations Keg

Assignment This assignment was designed to show that you understood the process of keg filling and how keg contents are controlled through the filling process. For a keg filler of your choice, explain the theory and practice of keg filling. This should include details of keg preparation stages prior to filling to ensure beer quality is maintained. The assignment must show detail of cycle times, filler settings and the factors which may affect beer quality. Assess and discuss how keg contents are controlled by the filling process showing all factors which may affect this control. Show your understanding of Contents Legislation in your region and how this is adhered to in practice. Analyse the actual contents results for the period of the assignment and show the level of control achieved. Assignment Performance

Grade No %

A 4 13

B 1 3

C 7 22

D 6 19

E 11 34

F 2 6

G 1 3

32 candidates submitted this assignment, achieving an average score of 14 with a range of scores from 7 to 22 out of 25. Although registered 8 candidates did not submit an assignment. Good submissions provided assignments which were well structured, contained detail of the working principles of keg filling and contained detailed information, photos and diagrams where appropriate. The purpose of the assignment is to get the candidate to understand in depth the working principles of a machine and be able to explain this in depth. The better submissions demonstrated this and showed they had spent time at the machines and not simply copied text from the manual. The assignment asked for the theory and practice of keg filling and keg preparation to maintain quality. The submission should contain drawings of a keg being filled with appropriate description of each stage and actual parameters for the filler related to keg preparation and filling. Purely theoretical answers will not receive full marks. Every aspect of beer quality eg fobbing, flat, high DO, micro infection etc should be listed and a link made with how substandard set up of the filler and keg preparation could have led to this. This then leads into the second question where the candidate is asked to explain how the filling cycle controls the fill level. Reference should be made to fill speed, pressure in the keg, filling control valves etc to demonstrate an understanding of this. The last part of this which asked for Legislation was not well answered. Candidates were then asked for contents results for the 8 weeks of the assignment. Some did not do this and for those that did the best submissions used these numbers to demonstrate statistically how the contents were controlled and legal (some were illegal which is interesting!)

Short Answer Of the 40 candidates registered for this unit, 36 sat the examination with the others marked absent or withdrawn. The average scores were 26 (65%), with scores ranging from 12 to 38 out of 40 marks (83 % of the candidates scored greater than 50%). This section of the examination paper focused on determining the candidate’s breadth of knowledge of the unit subject matter.


Long Answer Performance by question


1 32 21 67

2 4 1 25

Question 1 Draw a typical keg line layout highlighting the function of each piece of equipment. (10) On the pre-fill side of the keg line choose two pieces of equipment and describe in detail the purpose of each piece of equipment, how it operates, how it is maintained and any process parameters associated with the equipment running speeds for each piece of equipment. (20) Draw a ‘V’ Graph of this keg line highlighting the potential running speeds for each piece of equipment. (5) The answer to first part of this question was a straightforward drawing of a keg line layout with explanation of each piece of equipment to show what it was and what its function is. The second part of the question required the candidate to choose 2 pieces of equipment and describe in detail its purpose, operation, maintenance regime and any process parameters associated with it. The better answers covered each one of these in detail and described working principles, any maintenance plan in place and how the keg operation was impacted by the machine. Candidates should carefully select which machine they describe as some machines allow this to be more fully answered than others. The last section of the question required a V graph of the line. Marks were awarded for drawing a V graph containing all the important pieces of equipment and for marking each with a theoretical running speed based on the principle of the filler usually being the slowest with a 5 to 10% increase for each machine from the filler. I would have expected more candidates to have passed this question as each section was asking for basic principles of a kegging operation. For many candidates there was not enough detail in the answers. Question 2 List the key design and operational features of a keg and extractor ( spear) which determine the dispense characteristics of beer . This may be represented using diagrams of beer dispense from a keg. Include the impact of keg and extractor design on dispense yield. (15) Describe how beer quality during dispense may be affected by each of the following parameters. (20)

Temperature

Hygiene

Gas Pressure

Gas type ( CO2 or CO2/N2 mix) Only 4 candidates attempted this question. There was one excellent candidate who scored 31 out of 35 and the other 3 candidates failed the question. The first part of the question required an explanation of the purpose and design of a keg extractor and then a more detailed discussion of its component parts and how it works. Explanation was then required on the impact of these components on beer yield from the keg. The 3 candidates who failed did not answer this part of the question. The second part of the question was answered much better and the best answer contained descriptions of how temperature. Hygiene, gas pressure and gas type impacted the quality of the beer being dispensed. This should include micro contamination, fobbing / flat beer, not being able to get beer out of a keg, oxygen pick up etc. The model answer also covered dispense equipment applicability to training of bar persons.

Module 2:

Unit 5 – Brewing

Assignment This assignment was designed to allow the candidate to demonstrate their knowledge of their brewery’s grist preparation facility and how it was controlled. (If the candidate’s site did not have a grist preparation facility then they were advised to organise attendance at an appropriate location.).

With the aid of clearly labelled diagrams and/or photographs describe the main features of the grist preparation facility in your brewery and explain how grist composition is controlled. Your submission should identify all equipment and unit operations from raw material intake to slurried grist in the mash vessel (details of mash vessel are not required ). Your description should include conveying techniques, safety features for dust explosion avoidance, food safety compliance, and inventory control. Provide two recommendations to improve grist preparation performance at your brewery. Justify each with an indicative cost/benefit analysis. Assignment Performance

Grade No %

A 2 9

B 7 32

C 6 27

D 5 23

E 2 9

F 0 0

G 0 0

Much better effort was made this year to describe the candidate’s own operation rather than presenting a textbook description. Recognition was given for this but more marks would have been gained by better highlighting of photographs to identify the exact feature being referred to in the text. Most candidates were well aware of the need for dust extraction and iron and stone removal to minimise the risk of dust explosions, but there was very little mention on the need for ignition proof rated equipment or the need for earthing to prevent static build up. Conveyor design in some cases was very well covered, but there was little mention of the need for rotation sensors to detect any abnormal speeds of idler sprockets/rollers of chain conveyors/elevator belts, nor of the need for choke switches at conveyor discharges to detect blockages The description and importance of milling control for the performance of mashing and mash separation was well covered. Suggestions for improvement, which included changes to operational procedures as well as plant modifications were generally valid and technically feasible. However, with a few notable exceptions , there was insufficient consideration of an outline cost/benefit analysis as requested and one candidate offered no suggestions at all (32% of marks available) Short Answer The scores within this section ranged from 13(32%) to 36(90%), with 84% of candidates scoring greater than 50% . An adjunct is a source of extract other than malt. If added to the kettle it must have no requirement for enzymic conversion which rules out cereal adjuncts as kettle additions Some poor understanding of protein breakdown to polypeptides and amino acids – some candidates offering alpha acids and amylose. The alpha acids naturally present in hops are not isomerised. Several candidates identified good conditions for yeast growth such as pH and temperature instead of providing nutrients as asked for in the question. Methods for assessing a batch of yeast’s suitability for pitching must be immediate and practical such as methylene blue staining for viability. Light during storage does not accelerate haze formation (but can lead to skunky/sunstruck flavours). Long Answer Performance by question


1 19 5 26

2 6 3 50

Question 1 Describe the enzymic degradation of starch during the mashing process. Clearly identify starch structure, enzymes and their mode of action, and resultant breakdown products. (23) Discuss how mashing conditions affect these enzymic reactions and how this will affect wort composition. (12)


The answer would have required more widespread reading than the learning notes and some of the poor marks (37% at grade G) suggests this had not been the case. Many candidates offered lines and dots as starch structure with no explanation e.g. that the dots were glucose units Few mentioned the two forms of starch, namely the linear polymer amylose (circa 25%) and the branched polymer amylopectin (circa 75%). Even where both structures were described no indication was given of the size of the molecule (amylose a linear polymer of 200 – 400 glucose units, amylopectin a branched polymer of circa 6000 glucose units with branches every 15-30 glucose units). Starch is a polymer of glucose units and therefore its breakdown cannot contain fructose and sucrose (although these will be present in the mash) The temperature optima for alpha and beta amylase were frequently reversed and there was a common incorrect perception that alpha amylase was most active in the range 45-55C. Some candidates spent time describing the enzymic degradation of beta glucan and protein which was not asked for. The role of Calcium to adjust mash pH for optimum amylase activity was generally understood, but nothing was mentioned about its role to help stabilise alpha amylase during mashing. The impact on wort fermentability was reasonably well covered by the better candidates. Question 2 Draw a clearly labelled diagram showing the six major features of a yeast cell. (12) Briefly describe the function of these features. Indicate the size of the cell Provide a clearly labelled time based diagram showing the progression of a fermentation, detailing the quantitative changes in yeast count, specific gravity, pH, and ethanol. (9) In addition to ethanol and carbon dioxide produced by the yeast during fermentation identify seven other types of flavour active compounds that can occur. List each type of compound and briefly describe the taste/aroma it can impart to the beer. (14) The diagrams of the yeast cell were generally poor and two candidates appeared to be representing the cross section of a barley seed. Little understanding of the role of each of the cell features was demonstrated For the fermentation profiles offered, the timescale was generally correct, but the pattern for each parameter was not e.g. the timing of maximum ethanol needs to coincide with minimum specific gravity. Also the ethanol concentration needs to reflect the degrees of gravity fermented. One candidate provided a good description of the different phases of yeast growth but this was not part of the question. Generally answers displayed poor knowledge of the compounds that can be produced during fermentation and their possible affect when present above flavour thresholds. Correct answers would have included higher alcohols, fatty acids, organic acids, esters, aldehydes, Diacetyl/VDK, sulphurs, phenols.

Module 2:

Unit 6 – Carbonated Soft Drinks

Assignment Using examples of filling machines in your own plant or company, describe and explain, in your own words, the function of two different types of filling machine, for example a counter-pressure filler and either a vacuum or volumetric filler. On a filling line of your choice, investigate and explain fully in your own words, how, under the following scenarios, product is kept stable and under control in the filler bowl, following carbonation or pasteurization and then how it is transferred into the container, detailing gas pressure (CO2 or sterile air) and product temperature data in order to maintain final product specification: at production start-up or product changeover, and after a line stoppage in excess of one hour. Use diagrams & photographs of filling valves, where appropriate and reference any source material used eg supplier diagrams or photographs from manuals. Provide a review of the filling process on your line, highlighting the quality, hygiene, maintenance and operational performance criteria and identify key aspects for improvement. Give examples of two specific recommendations that have been, or could be made to enhance the overall operation of the filling process.


Grade No. %

A 3 38

B 0 0

C 1 13

D 2 25

E 0 0

F 2 25

G 0 0

Good answers focussed on a well structured assignment report, with detailed description and diagrams. They also gave strong evidence of improvements and recommendations, whilst also giving a good summary. Those assignment reports which were weaker than the others were downgraded for reasons of poor to average explanations, little or no use of diagrams and photographs and sparse evidence of improvements and summary relating to cost, quality or efficiency. An assignment should be viewed as an individual opportunity to demonstrate knowledge and understanding of examples asked for, along with evidence of involvement and appreciation of continuous improvement. Where the assignment questions ask for review and explanation, marks are given for evidence produced rather than a simple reproduction of information which is contained either in training notes or equipment manuals. Of the eight candidates, three received a mark in excess of 80% (grade A), one attained a grade C, two attained grade D, and two received marks of less than the pass mark. Short Answer The scores within this section ranged from 11 to 24, with 37% of candidates scoring greater than 50%. Generally, the questions in which most candidates did not score related to products containing aspartamer, carbonation measurement and those questions relating to components of soft drinks. Those questions which scored highly were based on topics relating to primary packaging, as well as taste types and fill level variables. Long Answer Performance by question


1 4 3 75

2 4 4 100

Question 1 Consider a 2 litre PET bottling line with an empty bottle depalletiser, a 40-head bottle rinser, a 100-head filler, capper and wraparound labeller. During the filling operation, intermittent underfills are being rejected at a rate of approximately up to 10 bottles per filler revolution at a time. Give three different operational reasons as to why this may be occurring. For each reason, give specific recommendations for immediately curing the issue of underfilling, and then detail a performance improvement proposal which will outline monitoring checks to prevent re-occurence of the issue. (3x10) Give one important reason why underfilled containers of product must not be emptied and re-fed into the rinser/filler for re-filling. (2) Fully explain the implication if this is ignored, and provide a brief description of what preventative measure can be put in place. (3) Good answers to Part a) focussed quite simply on exactly what the question asked for – three different operational reasons – with specific recommendations as to how the issues can be rectified. It is always a good indication of how well a candidate understands the practical implications of the process of filling a soft drink and the principles of problem-solving. Part B of the question was looking for evidence that the candidate understood the implications of hygiene and the avoidance of microbial contamination, whilst Part C examined the candidate’s knowledge of the risk implications which relate to the importance and understanding of food safety and hygiene. Question 1 was answered by only 50% of the candidates (with an encouraging pass rate of 75%). Question 2 Describe, with the aid of diagrams, the features of each of the following three labelling types used in PET soft drinks manufacturing, including an outline of the application/operation of the equipment involved: (3x5)


Patch labelling

Wraparound labelling

Sleeve wrapping Provide a short explanation of five key advantages of ACL labelling over the use of paper/plastic labels, which encompass each of the following parameters – financial, design and quality – and detail the benefits. (5x4) The four candidates who attempted this question gave, in the main, model answers to both parts and there was 100% pass rate. There was no reproduction of training notes for Part a) and the answers demonstrated a good to high level of practical understanding. In general, it should be noted that, where a specific number of examples is asked for in a question, the candidate should adhere to the instruction and avoid listing as many examples as he/she can recollect from their notes. Careful reading of exam questions is paramount so that candidates can clearly understand that which is being asked. The clue is given in the ‘marks allocated’ column as a guide for the candidate, and this is noted in the instruction and information at the front of the exam question pack.

Module 3:

General Comments In all there were only 19 submitted scripts with 14 candidates achieving a pass grade to give a pass rate of 73.7%, which is lower than last year (82.1%). It was also interesting to note that the grade breakdown percentages were also very similar to last year, but disappointing to see 3 candidates withdraw during the exam year – something which is quite unusual within Module Three history, as normally candidates have already passed the two preceding Modules and are aiming for completion of their Diploma by the time they are sitting this Module.


Passed No %

Grade

A 0 0

B 4 17

C 4 17

D 6 26

Failed 5 22

Withdrawn 4 17

Unit 1 – Resource Management

Assignment This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood the principles of health and safety risk assessment. For an existing and controlled packaging line hazardous process or procedure (operational or maintenance) with which you are familiar and using your company’s risk assessment process describe in detail: How the risk of injury was assessed. The measures that were put into effect to allow the process or procedure to continue safely. Explain the issues and concerns which may arise when carrying out health and safety risk assessments and how these issues and concerns may be overcome. Assignment Performance

Grade No %

A 5 24

B 3 14

C 2 10

D 6 29

E 1 4.5

F 3 14

G 1 4.5

21 candidates tendered submissions for this assignment, achieving an average score of 15, with the range of scores from a poor 7 to a very good 23. The better submissions had a good structure throughout with helpful supporting diagrams, tables and photographs. Most candidates made clever use of referenced appendices to convey additional information without wordcount penalty.

For the first part of the assignment the best answer had a brief scene setting introduction moving smoothly to an excellent table clearly showing a six stage process in assessing the risks associated with the labelling process. The table showed how risk scores were compiled from probability of occurence, severity and exposure leading to an overall zone rating. The table compared the current to the previous risk assessment together with mitigating measures. The second part of the assignment was, in general, not answered well and a number of candidates chose not to answer it at all! For the issues and concerns which may arise when carrying out health and safety risk assessments the examiner was seeking examples such as:

Are the individuals / group competent to assess the risk – do they have the right knowledge and experience?

Are the individuals who will be exposed to the risk represented?

Is the risk assessment original or merely a copy of another which may not be identical?

Is the assessment being rushed without all the correct information?

Is the assessment being carried out in the area of the risk or remotely (are all the implications being taken into account)?

Do the individuals / group have authority to put mitigation measures in place or would there be a delay in the process?

What are the processes or procedures for ensuring that tasks are carried out safely, taking into account the results and requirements of the risk assessment?

Is the risk assessment being adequately documented?

How frequently are risk assessments reviewed? Short Answer 18 candidates sat the exam, and achieved an average score of 20, with the scores ranging from a poor 8 to a good 29. For Q2, disappointingly, only one candidate recognized the precautionary principle whilst in Q3 (greenhouse gas emissions from a packaging operation) a number of candidates included CO2 emissions from fermentation which, in the context of this exam, is not part of a packaging operation. In completing the safety section of the examination paper the examiner was expecting Q7 (dealing with risk) to produce the answer “risk” rather than “waste” in response to “avoiding”, “reducing”, “transferring” and “retaining” are all techniques for dealing with…….. Similarly for Q9 (compliance) an explanation of the term “compliance” was anticipated in the context of safety. Q11 (main objectives of holding an accident inquiry) saw most candidates missing the objective of an assessment of the effectiveness of the immediate response to the incident. For Q12 (so far as is reasonably practicable) the examiner was seeking an explanation such as “the degree of risk in a particular activity or environment can be balanced against the time, cost and physical difficulty of taking measures to avoid the risk”. Q14 (boiler scaling) required more than one correct answer (actually two in this case) even though there was only 1 mark to be awarded, hence the use of the symbol before each alternative. Q17 (the principal electricity consuming processes in packaging) importantly contained the word principal and so the examiner did not expect to see minor consumers such as PLCs and instruments! Long Answer Performance by question


1 8 3 38

2 10 7 70

Question 1 Discuss the pressures to reduce the materials used for the packaging of bottle and can products in the last 20 to 25 years explaining in detail where these pressures have come from. Use examples to illustrate the answer. (35)


Marks for this question ranged between a very poor 5 and a good 25, with an average score of 14. The examiner was looking for a well planned and structured essay with an introduction which might have included governments’ objectives to minimize packaging and packaging waste, promote re-use of packaging materials and encourage recovery and re-cycling of packaging materials. The sources of pressure should have included as a minimum: legislation, market forces, the consumer and cost. The examiner expected these areas to be developed – for example packaging waste regulations, landfill tax, sustainability, corporate social responsibility, environmental awareness, recycling, competition, a whole range of cost pressures etc. Clearly these areas will differ for different countries and different stages in supply chain development across the world. Examples of changes in packaging materials that could have illustrated candidates’ answers include: can light weighting (bodies and ends), glass light weighting, card and cardboard reduction, the rise of PET and laminates, reductions in the thicknesses and uses of films, stretch and shrinkwraps, Hi-cone etc. Several of the better answers pleasingly included water as a packaging material and measures to reduce consumption. Question 2 Explain the water treatments that may be necessary (and why) to meet the requirements of a stand-alone small packaging operation. (20) The packaging operation includes a tunnel pasteuriser. How may these treatments be achieved? (15) The 10 candidates who chose to answer this question, were awarded marks ranging between 16 and a very good 28 with an average score of 20. For the first part of the question the examiner was seeking a very broad range of water treatments for the differing requirements of product water (de-aerated for packaging), process water and service water. An explanation of which types of water are used at different points in packaging was expected. At the outset of course, a brief description of the source of water was important as this generally dictates some of the treatment(s). The better answers went beyond basic treatments and included corrosion prevention, scale inhibition, and biocide addition (to prevent the growth of slime bacteria and Legionella). One of the best answers excited the examiner with the inclusion of waste water treatment and water recycling. For the second part of the question, having explained which water treatments may be necessary, describing how they may be achieved was relatively straight forward for most candidates some of whom chose to include helpful simple sketches. A number of candidates used a comprehensive table to lay out the requirements for differing water specifications, treatments and how they may be achieved. The very best answers included quantitative information to support their explanations.

Unit 2 – Fluid Mechanics

Assignment This assignment is designed to show the candidate’s understanding of beer carbonation. Using diagrams and/or photographs describe in detail how the carbonation level in beer is achieved or adjusted at your facility and explain how this process is controlled. Describe how carbonation is measured in the final product (both on-line and off-line), including typical specifications and control limits. Explain the principle of operation for each measurement technique. Provide clear recommendations of how the carbonating and measuring processes can be improved or provide a rationale justifying the current approach.


Grade No. %

A 1 6

B 3 19

C 3 19

D 2 13

E 1 6

F 3 19

G 3 19

Twenty candidates attempted this section but only 9 passed with an average passing score of 67% correct. The examiner was looking for candidates to discuss how beer is carbonated in the packaging hall with a focus on the basic principles (Henry’s Law) that determine equilibrium CO2 concentrations in solution. The candidate needed to discuss how CO2 was measured prior to and after carbonation adjustment along with the rationale and procedure for adjusting and controlling the carbonation level upwards (or in some cases downwards, as some candidates pointed out). While this task would appear to be straightforward it was not well explained by many candidates. The second part of the assignment asked candidates to describe how carbonation is measured and explain the basic principles of the measuring technique(s). While some candidates did a fine job, many chose to simply outline a technician’s operating sequence, which was not satisfactory. Nearly all candidates failed to identify control limits for CO2 in the beverages being packaged. Recommendations varied in detail and scope with some candidates simply ignoring this part of the assignment. Short Answer Seventeen candidates attempted this section and 15 passed with an average passing score of 73% correct. This section of the exam is meant to examine the breadth of the syllabus. Nearly all candidates demonstrated sound knowledge of fluid viscosity, state of flow and Reynolds number concepts. Similarly, calculations involving mechanical energy balance were handled well. However, concepts involving liquid-gas equilibria were weak. Candidates were poorly prepared to answer simple questions around factors affecting gas super-saturation and mixed gases. Likewise, simple concepts around pressure were mishandled. For instance, when given a list of factors that might affect the pressure at the bottom of a tank filled with fluid, nearly all candidates selected temperature as a non-important factor, which is wrong. Temperature affects a liquid’s density, which in turn affects its hydrostatic pressure (for a given fluid height). Long Answer Performance by question


1 11 5 45

2 6 1 17

Question 1 Compare and contrast the operation and features of centrifugal and positive displacement pumps including advantages and disadvantages of each. (20) Calculate the pump size required for a pump operating at 60% efficiency to deliver 15 m of pump head at 5 L s-1. Data: Acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m s-2. (15) Eleven candidates chose this question and five passed with an average score of 78%. The five that did not perform well were not close to passing, averaging only 36%. The first part of the question asked the candidate to briefly compare and contrast the operation of centrifugal versus positive displacement pumps. Concise answers of the basic operation were all that was required. Drawing diagrams of the two types of pumps while somewhat help was unnecessary, particularly in place of a compare and contrast list. The best answers laid out a clean table with advantages in one column and disadvantages in the other. The examiner was looking at features such as delivery head pressure, flow rates (capacity), cost of purchase and operation, metering capabilities, types of fluids to be pumped.


The second part of the question involved three steps and an understanding of how to calculate pressure given density, gravitational constant and pump head plus calculating pump power from flowrate and pump pressure. Candidates needed to make an assumption about a fluid density (all assumed water, which worked well). While in some cases there were errors associated with units, this did not results in significant downgrading provided the overall approach was correct. Question 2 Name three factors that affect the equilibrium concentration of carbon dioxide in beer. Examining each factor individually, discuss what happens to the carbon dioxide concentration in beer when each of these factors increases in magnitude, given all other chemical and physical properties of the system are held constant. (15) Given beer with 2.4 volumes of CO2 in solution, calculate the mass of carbon dioxide dissolved in 1000 hL of beer. (5) Assume that this beer (with 2.4 volumes of CO2) is being packaged in aluminium cans with a target fill volume of 500 ml. One standard practice for measuring the fill volume of cans is to measure the weight of beer in the packaged can. Estimate the target weight of 500 ml of fully carbonated beer. What percentage of this total weight is contributed by the carbon dioxide? (15) Data: One mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 L at STP. Atomic weights (g mol-1): CO2 = 44, H2O = 18. Beer density (fully degassed, measured at 20°C) = 1.0085 kg L-1 Six candidates chose this question but only one passed with average score of 77%. The five remaining did poorly with an average of 23%. The first part of the question involved describing the three main factors that affect carbonation levels in beer, namely temperature, pressure and beer composition (i.e. dissolved solids). As temperature increases, the equilibrium CO2 concentration decreases (gases are less soluble at higher temperatures). As pressure increases, the equilibrium CO2 concentration increases. As beer’s residual extract increases the equilibrium CO2 concentration decreases (dissolved solutes reduce CO2 solubility). Many candidates focused on the volume of beer as a factor, but this does not influence the final carbonation level in the beer. It can affect how fast the beer will come to equilibrium but that was not the focus of this question. The second and third parts to this question proved very difficult for all but one candidate. The second part involved converting 2.4 volumes of CO2 into 4.71 g/L, which meant 1000 hL would hold 47.1 kg of CO2. The third part utilized the same 4.71 g/L CO2 concentration to estimate 2.357 g CO2 in a 500 ml can, which was approximately 0.465% of the total content’s weight.

Unit 3 – Thermal Energy Transfer

Assignment This assignment is designed to show the candidate’s understanding of the operation and maintenance of an efficient steam distribution system. Draw or reproduce a schematic diagram of the steam distribution system for a brewery or packaging line of your choice. The diagram should trace the path of steam flowing from the boiler, although a schematic of the boiler itself is not required, to the point(s) or use and follow the condensate back to the boiler. Clearly identify all the key devices in the system along with pipe and insulation sizes, pressures and temperatures. Explain the purpose of each device and its maintenance requirements. Comment on any known performance issues. Explain where energy losses occur in the system and propose ways to reduce avoidable thermal energy losses. Estimate how much financial benefit could accrue by reducing these losses. Draw conclusions on the overall performance of the steam distribution system and make recommendations for improvements.


Grade No. %

A 11 61

B 4 22

C 3 17

D 0 0

E 0 0

F 0 0

G 0 0

Eighteen candidates attempted this section and all passed with an average passing score of 80% correct. The examiner was looking for the candidate to present a detailed schematic as a key part of this assignment and associated with it the identification of and description of pipe runs, isolating valves, pressure reduction valves, blow down valves, pressure relief valves, strainer/filters, pressure gauges, flow meter, expansion joints/bellows, condensate traps, condensate pumps and return lines along with piping insulation requirements. Energy losses often occur due to missing pipe insulation, steam leaks and failing condensate traps. The examiner was looking to see a discussion of these plus some rough estimates of the amount of energy lost and conversion of these figures into potential financial savings as determined by the amount of steam saved. Short Answer Seventeen candidates attempted this section and fourteen passed with an average passing score of 68% correct. Candidates in general did well the basic concepts of latent vs sensible heats, convective vs conductive heat transfer, and the factors that affect heat transfer. Many did not correctly identify the temperature dependency of beer density on temperature and that a maximum (not a minimum) density occurs around 3 – 4 °C. All candidates were able to correctly identify the components of a steam pressure reducing station. Interestingly, very few candidates could correctly draw the temperature profile across two materials over differing thermal conductivities bonded together (i.e. an insulated wall). The largest temperate drop across the material will occur in the insulation and not the conductor. Working with steam tables gave some candidates trouble and many were unable to calculate a specific enthalpy for wet steam using the table. Long Answer Performance by question


1 10 7 70

2 7 2 29

Question 1 Refrigeration systems rely on primary and in most cases secondary refrigerants. Explain the difference between the two by describing how the two types function, explaining practical considerations for using each, naming two different types of each, and providing a separate example (one for each type) of where you would find them being used in a packaging plant. (15) Using the R717 pressure – enthalpy diagram on the following page, draw the primary refrigerant flow path (directly on the diagram) for a system operating with the condenser at 20 bar and the evaporator at 3 bar. On or below the x-axis (enthalpy) write out or circle the values for the specific enthalpy of the refrigerant when it is leaving the condenser, leaving the evaporator and leaving the compressor. (15) What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of this refrigeration system? What does the COP describe? (5) Ten candidates chose this question and seven passed with an average score of 77%. The three that did not perform well were not close to passing, averaging only 28%.


The first part of this question asked the candidate to define primary and secondary refrigerants, that is those that involve a phase change and those that don’t. While the differences seem obvious some candidates had difficulty accurately and completely describing and defining the two. Many candidates failed to offer two examples of each. The points of use of each type were handled with a broad range of detail from vague statements about refrigerants being used to cool stuff to specific answer of glycol systems being used to extract heat from heat exchangers or cooling vacuum pump water. The second part of the question asked the candidates to draw out the refrigerant path on a P-H diagram, which most were able to do accurately. The final part on COP was a mixed bag. While some answers were thorough and included an accurate calculation others simple stated that COP is a measure of efficiency, which in and of itself is not thorough enough for full marks. Question 2 Explain why steam is a useful heating medium in the packaging hall. (5) Define steam quality, explain why wet steam is not desired, and describe different means for ensuring dry steam is available at the point of use. (15) Water at 60°C is flowing at 0.001 m3 s-1 and being heated to 86°C in a steam-jacketed heat exchanger prior to receipt in a hot water tank. Calculate the steam flow rate (kg s-1) in the heat exchanger if the steam arrives at 300 kPa with a 95% dryness fraction. Steam table data are provided below. (15) Seven candidates chose this question and only two passed but they did outstanding with an average score of 96%. The five nonpassing candidates averaged 40%. The description of why steam is an effective heating medium was correctly answered by nearly all candidates, but things began to fall apart when steam quality was addressed. Steam quality can be defined by how much condensate has been formed in transit from the boiler to the point of use, for instance as a measure of dryness or wetness. The dryness fraction is the ratio of useable energy from the phase change at the point of use relative to the total potential amount of energy capable of being released (at a constant pressure) if the steam were 100% dry. Another way to explain this is the portion of available latent heat at the point of use. Wet steam is not desired because it is inefficient…hot condensate is simply being pumped around the system. If significant condensate forms then it can damage pipes and fittings as it gets blown through the system. There are several ways to ensure dry steam at the point of use. One is to superheat the steam in the boiler and another is to discharge the steam from the boiler at a higher pressure than is needed and step it down to the desired pressure at the point of use. Yet another approach is to simply remove the condensate via a trap prior to the point of use. The heat balance calculation was difficult for many despite the fact that it was a rather straightforward task of balancing the heating required by the water being heated versus the energy released by the steam. Specific enthalpy values were given in the steam table for all streams making the calculation quick and simple.

Unit 4 – Unit Control

Assignment Part 1 – How process control is applied on a packaging line and is able to identify the types of devices on the line and their principle of operation. Part 2 – Using part 1 as the base, this question was designed to probe if the system described was an open or closed loop system and why it was chosen. Part 3 using an existing control system, critically analyse it and make recommendations to improve in terms of reliability, control accuracy and integration. 19 of the 23 registered candidates submitted the assignment. The average mark was 16 out of 25. Part 1 was well answered with some excellent examples of the application with good views on the types of devices in use. Part 2 showed that some of the candidates had difficulty identifying a feed forward control loop in operation. However the open loop was much easier to identify and describe.

Assignment Performance 19/23 average mark 16/25

Grade No %

A 3 16

B 5 26

C 8 42

D 1 5

E ) 0

F 1 5

G 1 5

Part 3 had some very comprehensive responses, with the majority of candidates responding well. An area of uncertainty was around how to improve the current system, with some responses not grounded in the principles of process control. Short Answer 18 of the 23 registered candidates answered the short answer question with an average mark of 16 out of 25. The scores within this section ranged from 13 to 38 out of 40, with 83 % of candidates scoring greater than 50%.

Q1 -7 were well answered

Q8 was variable, with many not attempting the question

Q9 response was variable, with many not responding correctly and some not responding at all


Q11-12 were well answered


Q14-15 response was variable, with many not responding correctly and some not responding at all

Long Answer Question 1 Describe with the aid of a diagram how the necessary components of a flash pasteurizer control the temperature of beer at the discharge of the heating section of the heat exchanger. (15) Using the basic elements of control theory, describe what type of controlling algorithm might be used to control the beer temperature as it enters the holding tube. Explain, with another diagram, how the various temperature and control signals move throughout the control loop to achieve control, identifying the nature of the signal joining each component. (15) What type of control loop is being used in this example, feed forward or feed back, and why is this type of control employed? (5) Platinum Resistance Temperature Detector Acceptable answers should include: Resistance thermometers, also called resistance temperature detectors (RTDs), are sensors used to measure temperature by correlating the resistance of the RTD element with temperature. Most RTD elements consist of a length of fine coiled wire wrapped around a ceramic or glass core. The element is usually quite fragile, so it is often placed inside a sheathed probe to protect it. The RTD element is made from a pure material, typically platinum, nickel or copper. The material has a predictable change in resistance as the temperature changes and it is this predictable change that is used to determine temperature. The advantages of platinum resistance thermometers include:

High accuracy

Low drift

Wide operating range

Suitability for precision applications.


Limitations: RTDs in industrial applications are rarely used above 660 °C. At temperatures above 660 °C it becomes increasingly difficult to prevent the platinum from becoming contaminated by impurities from the metal sheath of the thermometer. This is why laboratory standard thermometers replace the metal sheath with a glass construction. At very low temperatures, say below -270 °C (or 3 K), because there are very few phonons, the resistance of an RTD is mainly determined by impurities and boundary scattering and thus basically independent of temperature. As a result, the sensitivity of the RTD is essentially zero and therefore not useful. Turbine flow meter Acceptable answers should include: The basic structure of turbine flow meters includes a bladed rotor axially suspended in the pipe. As the fluid flows through the pipe, the rotor spins at a speed which is proportional to the fluid's velocity. The rotating blades generate a frequency signal proportional to the liquid flow rate, which is sensed by the magnetic pick-up installed outside of the pipe and transferred to the applicable transducer. Electrical pulses can also be added and totalized so that we get the aggregate flow rate over a specific time period. Advantages of turbine flow meter

Simple, durable structure

Easy to install and maintain

Turbine meters are able to operate under a wide range of

temperatures and pressures

Low pressure drop across the flow meter

Most effective in applications with steady, high-speed flows

Disadvantages of turbine flow meters

Require constant backpressure in order to avoid cavitation

Accuracy adversely affected by bubbles in liquids

Sensitive to changes in fluid viscosity

A straight run of pipe upstream and downstream the turbine

meter needs to be installed to allow homogenisation of the

flow pattern

Significant bearing wear is another drawback of turbine flow

meters.

15 out of 18 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 20% and 74 %, with an average score of 54%. Part 1 – diagram should include heat exchanger of some sort, a regulating control valve on the process fluid side (hot water or steam), temperature probe in the product stream downstream of the heating section of the HX, and possibly a temperature probe in the process stream upstream of the control valve. See Revision notes 1.2.4.3 – page 11 for flash pasteurization set up and this should be blended with 3.4.1.4 - feedback vs feed forward control beginning on page 30. Part 2 – looking for an appropriate explanation of P, PI or PID control. Temperature signal comes from temperature sensor and may or may not be converted before entering the temperature controller. Within the controller, temperature difference between setpoint and measured temperature produces an error. Controlling action is determined by the type of control and magnitude of error. Controlling action results in a signal that leaved the controller and most likely needs to be converted (electric to pneumatic) before the actuator on the control valve can respond appropriately. See Revision notes 3.4.1.2 Feedback control beginning on page 17 and 3.4.1.5 on P, I and D control. Part 3 – depends on how the control loop in Part 2 is described. Looking for key benefits of type of control loop. See Revision notes 3.4.1.4 Feedback vs feed forward control beginning on page 30. Open vs closed loop control.

Question 2 Describe the principle of operation for the following sensors. Include in your answers diagrams which identify the important components. (20)

Thermocouple

Platinum Resistance Temperature Detector

Turbine flow meter

Electromagnetic flow meter

Draw comparisons within each group (temperature and flow) by listing their advantages and disadvantages. (15) 3 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 34% and 68%, with an average score of 54%. Thermo couple Acceptable answers should include Tthermocouple is a temperature-measuring device consisting of two dissimilar conductors that contact each other at one or more spots, where a temperature differential is experienced by the different conductors (or semiconductors). It also produces a voltage when the temperature of one of the contact points differs from the reference temperature of another, in a process known as the thermoelectric effect. Thermocouples are a widely used type of temperature sensor for measurement and control, and can also convert a temperature gradient into electricity. Commercial thermocouples are inexpensive interchangeable, are supplied with standard connectors, and can measure a wide range of temperatures. In contrast to most other methods of temperature measurement, thermocouples are self powered and require no external form of excitation. The main limitation with thermocouples is accuracy; system errors of less than one degree Celsius (°C) can be difficult to achieve. Electromagnetic flow meter Acceptable answers should include: Although there are numerous types of magnetic flowmeters available for measuring liquid flow rates, all of them function according to the fundamental principles of Faraday’s law, which dictates the relationship between a moving conductor and the voltage it creates within a magnetic field.. Issues of cost, accuracy, reliability, and ease of use are some of the significant factors involved in choosing a flowmeter. Advantages and Disadvantages There are numerous benefits to using electromagnetic flowmeters to perform fluid flow measurements. They are generally non-invasive and have no moving parts, reducing the risk of breakdowns and the frequency of repairs. A decrease in flowmeter pressure is also usually no greater than that of an equivalent pipe length, reducing the piping costs. Some of the other major advantages provided by magnetic flowmeters include:

Power usage is relatively low, with electrical power

requirements as low as 15 watts for some models.

They are mechanically obstructionless and can be equipped

with abrasion-resistant liners, making them effective for

measuring slurries and other erosive fluids.

They are capable of dealing with most kinds of acids and bases,

as well as water and water-based solutions, due to lining

materials that are both insulators and have corrosion

resistance.

Relatively small amounts of electrode metals are needed for

magnetic flowmeters.

They can measure both very low flows and very high volume

flow rates, with a minimum diameter of roughly 0.125 inches

and a maximum volume of up to 10 cubic feet.

They can usually measure multidirectional flow, either

upstream or downstream.


FUNDAMENTAL AND GENERAL CERTIFICATE

EXAMINATIONS

Fundamentals of Brewing and Packaging of Beer FBPB Nov 2014 - May 2015 The number of candidates sitting the IBD’s entry level brewing and packaging examination, the Fundamentals of Brewing and Packaging of Beer, was 106 for the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 82% compares just less favourably to the pass rate of 83% from the same period last time. 37 credit passes and 11 demonstrates the commitment of the candidates to studying the Learning Material.

Fail Pass Credit Distinction Total

FBPB CF 16 35 37 11 99

FBPB CASK 3 3 1 0 7

FBPB Total 19 38 38 11 106

Fundamentals of Distilling FD Nov 2014- May 2015 The number of candidates sitting the IBD’s entry level distilling examination, the Fundamentals of Distilling, was 50 for the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 62% compares less favourably to the pass rate of 72% from the same period last time.


FD 19 18 10 3 50

The Learning Material from both the FBPB and the FD qualifications can be purchased in book form from the IBD’s bookshop at http://www.lulu.com/spotlight/IBD General Certificate in Brewing GCB Nov 2014- May 2015

560 candidates sat the General Certificate in Brewing across all formats in the period November 2014 to May 2015, up from 493 candidates for the equivalent period 2013-14. The pass rate of 56% was also up on 55% last time.


GCB Mainstream 188 149 44 8 389

GCB Craft 58 91 20 2 171

GCB Total 246 240 64 10 560

An updated version of the General Certificate in Brewing’s Revision Notes have been prepared by the GCB Examiners and is available to all candidates.

General Certificate in Packaging (Beer) GCP Nov 2014- May 2015 A total of 269 candidates sat the General Certificate in Packaging (Beer) across all formats in the period November 2014 to May 2015, up slightly from 266 candidates for the equivalent period 2013-14. The pass rate of 56% was lower than the 67% from the equivalent period 2013-14.


GCP CAN 25 16 8 0 49

GCP KEG 6 8 3 0 17

GCP NRB 32 19 10 2 63

GCP RB 47 26 31 15 119

GCP All 9 10 2 0 21

GCP Total 119 79 54 17 269

General Certificate in Distilling A total of 172 candidates sat the General Certificate in Distilling across all three formats in the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 51% was slightly lower than the 54% from the equivalent period 2013-14.

GCD Nov 2014- May 2015


GCD Cereal 70 65 15 0 150

GCD Grape 0 0 0 0 0

GCD Molasses 15 7 0 0 22

GCD Total 85 72 15 0 172

General Certificate in Packaging (Spirits) A total of 32 candidates sat the General Certificate in Packaging (Spirits) across in the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 84% was higher than the 79% from the equivalent period 2013-14.

GCP(S) Nov 2014- May 2015


GCP(S) 5 13 13 1 32

General Certificate in Malting A total of 50 candidates sat the General Certificate in Malting in the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 64% was higher than the 53% from the equivalent period 2013-14.

GCM Nov 2014- May 2015


GCM 18 26 5 1 50


Successful Candidates – Completion of Award

Diploma of Brewing

Crystal Fraley International

Stephen Frazier International

Keith Garson UK Scottish

Fiona Gogo Africa

Aaron Golston International

Adam Goodall UK Midland

Jocelyn Havel International

Michael Heinrich International

Matthew Hill Africa

Jennifer House International

Rodney Hughes International

Sarah Hughes UK Southern

Paul Johns Asia Pacific

Silas Kaale International

Paul Kaposela Africa

Zikhona Kondze Africa

Jason Lappe Asia Pacific

Rory Main Asia Pacific

Guylain Mantezolo Africa

Nadeau Marc-Andre International

Aaron McClure UK Southern

Gordon McKenzie UK Southern

Herman Moloto Africa

Agnieszka Morgan UK Midland

Mpelegeng Moshidi Africa

Kyle Moskovitz Africa

Dominic Mutiso Africa

Nicolas Muzzin International

Tapiwa Mwazha Africa

Robert Obree Africa

Nicholas O'Donnell Asia Pacific

Matthew Ojo Irish

Gabriel Olatoye Africa

Rabinarayan Pradhan Asia Pacific

Chen Liang Qian Asia Pacific

Andre Raposo Dos Santos Silva International

Winston Reddy Africa

Aleksandr Sanin International

Diana Santana International

Anil Kumar Sharma Asia Pacific

Tshifhiwa Sidogi Africa

Brett Sinclair Asia Pacific

Darren Tan Asia Pacific

Samuel Tourle Asia Pacific

Bruce Turner UK Southern

Michael Wootton UK Midland

Wenyan Zhang International

Diploma of Distilling

Elaine Cassidy UK Scottish

Rebecca Eccles UK Scottish

Pauric Ennis Irish

Aidan Finnegan Irish

Nickolas Franchino UK Southern

Calum Fraser UK Scottish

Jennifer Graham UK Scottish

John McGhee Doyle UK Scottish

Sam Slaney Asia Pacific

Diane Stuart UK Scottish

Roselyn Thomson UK Scottish

Alan Wardlaw UK Scottish

Diploma of Packaging

Chee Hoong Chim Asia Pacific

Ikechukwu Ekeleme Africa

Piotr Janas UK Scottish

Tichafara Jaya Africa

Peter Mushonga Africa

Joseph Mwaikasu Africa

Ashley Ndaba Africa

Emmanuel Onabanjo Africa

Mthulisi Nyoni Africa

Patrick Ongom Africa

Minh Peart-Tang Asia Pacific

Sreenath S.R. Asia Pacific

Zibusiso Siziba Africa

Ronald Timbigamba Africa

Master Brewer

Miles Chesterman UK Southern

Lisa Marie Marlow Irish

Wade Paul McCann Africa

Patrick McGinty UK Midland

Richard Moxom Irish

Luis Ortega Irish

Genevieve Upton UK Midland

Chris Willcock Asia Pacific


The Institute of Brewing and Distilling

www.ibd.org.uk

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