PMT MOCK TEST

Time – 3 Hours Max. Marks – 600

Instructions:

(i) The paper has three section Physics, Chemistry and Biology

(ii) The paper consists of 200 question.

(ii) For each correct response three marks will be awarded and for each incorrect response one mark will be deducted.

1. Pressure is (a) a scalar quantity (b) a vector quantity (c) a tensor quantity (d) either scalar or vector 2. A man walks from A to C, C to D and D to B (as shown in figure). The magnitude

of displacement of man is 10 m. Find the total distance travelled by the man

(a) 10 m (b) 2 m (c) 12 m (d) 7 m

3. From Newton’s law of motion, F ma=r r Three forces (shown in figure) are acted

on the body of mass 0.8 kg. The magnitude of acceleration of the body is

(a) 1 m/s2 (b) 2 m/s2 (c) 1.6 m/s2 (d) none of these 4. If the system shown in the figure is in equilibrium then calculate the value of

weight W. Assume pulleys to be weightless and frictionless

(a) 60 N (b) 120 N (c) 150 N (d) 90 N 5. A car moves at 80 km/hr in the first half of total time of motion and at 40 km/h–1

in the later half. Its average speed is (a) 60 km/hr (b) 30 km/hr (c) 120 km/hr (d) none of these 6. If the acceleration of a particle is the function of distance as a = f(x). Then (a) the velocity must be the function of displacement (b) the velocity versus displacement graph cannot be a straight line (c) the velocity may be the function of displacement (d) the acceleration displacement graph may be straight line 7. An object is thrown upward with a velocity u, then displacement-time graph is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

8. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the directions of its velocity and acceleration are

(a) parallel to each other (b) inclined to each other at an angle of 45o (c) anti parallel to each other (d) perpendicular to each other 9. A particle is projected at an angle 60o with the horizontal with a speed 10 m/sec.

Then latus rectum is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 5 m (b) 15 m (c) 10 m (d) 0 10. To a person going toward east in a car with a velocity of 25 km/hr, a train appears

to move towards north with a velocity of 25 3 km/hr. The actual velocity of the train will be

(a) 25 km/hr (b) 50 km/hr (c) 5 km/hr (d) 53 km/hr 11. Three identical blocks each of mass M are along a frictionless table and a force F

is acting as shown. Which of the following statement false?

(a) the net vertical force on block A is zero (b) the net force on block A is F/3 (c) the acceleration of block C is F/3M (d) the force of interaction between A and B is 2F/3 12. A body of mass m is hauled from the earth’s surface by applying a force F 2(ah 1)mg= −

r

where a is positive constant and h is height from the earth’s surface

(a) at height 1h2a

=′ the velocity of the body is maximum

(b) at height 1ha

=′

the velocity of particle is zero

(c) the motion of particle is oscillatory (d) all the above are correct 13. Two weights W1 and W2 are suspended from the ends of a light string passing

over a smooth fixed pulley. If the pulley is pulled up with acceleration g, the tension in the string will be

(a) 1 2

1 2

4W WW W+

(b) 1 2

1 2

2W WW W+

(c) 1 2

1 2

W WW W

−+

(d) 1 2

1 2

W W2(W W )−

14. A particle moves on a curved path with constant speed v. The acceleration of the particle at x = 0 is 2av2. The path of particle is

(a) straight line (b) parabolic (c) elliptical (d) none of these 15. A bullet hits horizontally and gets embeded in a solid block resting on a

frictionless surface. In this process (a) momentum is conserved (b) kinetic energy is conserved (c) both momentum and K.E. are conserved (d) neither momentum nor K.E. is conserved 16. Two boys of masses 10 kg and 8 kg are moving along a vertical rope, the former

climbing up with acceleration of 2 m/s2 while later coming down with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Then tension in rope at fixed support will be (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 200 N (b) 120 N (c) 180 N (d) 160 N 17. A rectangular plate of mass 20 kg is suspended from points A and B as shown. If

the pin B is suddenly removed, determine the angular acceleration (in rad/sec2) of the plate

(a) 48 (b) 19.6 (c) 29.4 (d) 23.6 18. Mark correct option or options (a) The centre of gravity may be coincided with centre of mass (b) Due to movement of body, centre of gravity changes but centre of mass does

not change (c) The centre of gravity must not be coincided with the centre of gravity (d) The centre of gravity is always above the centre of mass 19. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. What is the period of

another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R? (a) 4T (b) T/8 (c) T/4 (d) 8T 20. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/sec. If the

earth’s mass increases to twice its present value and radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity becomes

(a) 5.6 km/sec (b) 11.2 km/sec (c) 22.4 km/sec (d) 44.8 km/sec

21. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on the earth’s surface, and T2 when taken to a height R above the earth’s surface, where R is the radius of earth. The

value of 2

1

TT

is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 2 22. A particle of mass m is allowed to oscillate near the minimum of a vertical

parabolic path having the equation x2 = 4ay. The angular frequency of small oscillations is given by

(a) gh (b) 2gh

(c) g2a

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(d) ga

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

23. Which of the following cannot represent a travelling wave? (a) y = a cos(ωt + kx) (b) y = a cos(ax + bt) (c) y = A sin(x – vt) (d) y = f(x2 – vt2) 24. A sonometer wire 65 cm long, is in resonance with a tuning fork of frequency f. If

the length of the sonometer wire is increased by 1 cm and it is vibrated with the same tuning fork, 8 beats are heard per second. The value of f is

(a) 256 Hz (b) 512 Hz (c) 260 Hz (d) 520 Hz 25. In the case of vibration of closed end organ pipe in fundamental mode of

vibration, the pressure is maximum at (a) open end (b) closed end (c) at middle (d) none of these 26. A thermodynamic cycle of an ideal gas is shown in the figure. Choose the correct

option which represents the same cycle

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

27. The propagation of heat in vacuum take place by (a) conduction (b) convection (c) radiation (d) none of these 28. On a plane mirror, a ray of light is incident at an angle of 30o with horizontal. The

make the reflected ray vertical, at what angle with horizontal must a plane mirror be placed

(a) 30o (b) 60o (c) 45o (d) 54o 29. Images in spherical mirrors suffer from several defects. Some of which is/are (a) diffraction effect (b) the magnification varies with the distance of the object from mirror (c) a point source will not produce a point image (d) all of the above 30. A point object P is placed at centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal

length 25 cm. The mirror is cut into two halves and shifted symmetrically 1 cm apart in perpendicular to the optical axis. The distance between images formed by both parts is

(a) 2 cm (b) 1 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm 31. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) the lens has two principal foci, but may have one focal length

(b) a single lens can never bring a beam of white light to a point focus (c) a brings glass light rays to same focus as heat radiation (d) (a) and (b) are correct 32. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air an then in water will (a) increase in water with respect to air (b) increase in air with respect to water (c) decrease in water with respect to air (d) remain the same 33. How many image are formed by the lens shown, if an object is kept on its axis

(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four 34. Interference fringes are obtained in Young’s double slit experiment on a screen.

Which of the following statement will not be correct about the effect of a thin transparent plate when placed in the path of one of the two interfering beams?

(a) The separation between fringes remains unaffected (b) The entire fringe system shifts towards the side on which the plate is placed (c) The condition for maxima for odd multiple of λ/2 and minima for even

multiple of λ/2 (d) The shape of the fringe also remains unaffected 35. In Young’s double slit experiment with monochromatic light of wavelength 600

nm, the distance between slits is 10–3 m. For changing fringe width by 3 × 10–5 m (a) the screen is moved away from the slits by 5 cm (b) the screen is moved by 5 cm towards the slits (c) the screen is moved by 3 cm towards the slits (d) both (a) and (b) are correct 36. Which of the following phenomenon can be used to analyse a beam of light into

its component wavelength? (a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Polarisation (d) Interference 37. A point charge Q is placed at the centre of a circular wire of radius R having

charge q. Find the force of electrostatic interaction between point charge and the wire

(a) 20

qQ4 Rπε

(b) zero

(c) 2

0

q4 Rπε

(d) none of these

38. In the diagram shown electric field intensity will be zero at a point

(a) between –q and +2q charge (b) on the RHS of +2q charge (c) on the LHS of –q charge (d) no where on the line 39. A semicircular wire of radius a having λ as charge per unit length is shown in the

figure. Find the electric potential at the centre of the semicircular wire

(a) 0

λε

(b) 04 Rλπε

(c) 04

λε

(d) none of these

40. In the given figure, the equivalent capacity between A and B is

(a) 3C (b) C/3 (c) 3/2C (d) infinity 41. Three identical capacitors are connected together differently. For the same voltage

to every combination, the one that stores maximum energy is (a) the three capacitors in series (b) the three capacitors in parallel (c) two capacitors in series with third capacitor in parallel with it (d) two capacitor in parallel with the third capacitors in series with it

42. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the circuit. Each resistance is of 1Ω

(a) 3/2 A (b) 5/3 A (c) 7/5 Ω (d) 8/7 Ω 43. The current through the 5Ω resistor is

(a) 2A (b) 4A (c) 0 (d) 1A 44. A charged particle follows a helical path of unequal pitch in a magnetic field. This

means that (a) the magnetic field is non-uniform (b) the velocity vector is not parallel to the magnetic field (c) the velocity vector is not perpendicular to the magnetic field (d) all of the above 45. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of

coils depend upon (a) the currents in the two coils (b) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils (c) relative position and orientation of the two coils (d) the materials of the wires of the coils 46. At resonance, in circuit

(a) the power factor is zero (b) the current through the A.C. source is zero (c) the current through the A.C. source is maximum (d) currents through L and R are equal

47. Which of the following statement is false? (a) Material wave (de Broglie wave) can travel in vacuum (b) Electromagnetic wave can travel through vacuum (c) The velocity of photon is not the same whether light passes through any

medium (d) Wavelength of de Broglie wave depends upon velocity 48. Einstein’s phtoelectric equation states that Ek = hv – φ. In this equation Ek refers

to (a) Kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons (b) mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons (c) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons (d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons 49. The depletion layer in a p-n junction diode consists of layer of (a) positively charged donors on the p-side and negatively charged acceptors on

the n-side (b) negatively charged donors on the p-side and positively charged acceptors on

the n-side (c) positively charged donors on the n-side and negatively charged acceptors on

the p-side (d) negatively charged donors on the n-side and positively charged acceptors on

the p-side 50. When we apply reverse bias to a junction diode it, (a) lowers the potential barrier (b) raises the potential barrier (c) greatly increase the minority carrier current (d) greatly increase the majority carrier current 51. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol/L in a solution of pH = 5.4 will be (a) 3.98 × 10–6 (b) 3.68 × 10–6 (c) 3.88 × 106 (d) 3.98 × 108 52. Based on kinetic theory of gases following laws can be proved (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charles’ law (c) Avogadro’s law (d) All of these 53. Number of atoms in the unit cell of Na (bcc type crystal) and Mg (fcc type

crystal) are, respectively (a) 4, 4 (b) 4, 2 (c) 2, 4 (d) 1, 1 54. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of

an atom?

(a) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2 (b) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2 (c) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 (d) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 55. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4f

orbital? (a) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 4, s = + 1/2 (b) n = 4, l = 4, m = – 4, s = + 1/2 (c) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 1, s = + 1/2 (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = + 1/2 56. Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic

species? (a) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (b) N3–, F–, Na+ (c) Be, Al3+, Cl– (d) Ca2+, Cs+, Br– 57. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon (a) charge on the ion and size of the ion (b) packing of ions only (c) size of the ion only (d) charge on the ion only 58. Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure? (a) XeF4 (b) SF4

(c) 4BF− (d) [Ni(CN)4]2–

59. The states of hybridisation of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively

(a) sp2 and sp2 (b) sp2 and sp3 (c) sp3 and sp2 (d) sp3 and sp3 60. Select correct statement. (a) When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place (b) Pure H2O does not contain any ion (c) A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces (d) HF is less polar than HBr 61. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process. (a) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is

positive (b) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous (c) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous (d) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity 62. Consider the reaction : N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 carried out at constant temperature and

pressure. If ΔH and ΔE are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the following expressions is true?

(a) ΔH > ΔE (b) ΔH < ΔE

(c) ΔH = ΔE (d) ΔH = 0 63. The standard enthalpy of formation (ΔHo

f) at 298K for methane, CH4(g) is –74.8 kJ mol–1. The additional information required to determine the average energy for C–H bond formation would be

(a) the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon (b) latent heat of vaporisaton of methane (c) the first four ionisation energies of carbon and electron gain enthalpy of

hydrogen (d) the dissociation energy of hydrogen molecule, H2 64. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have (a) different boiling point and different freezing point (b) same boiling point and same freezing point (c) same freezing point but different boiling point (d) same boiling point but different freezing point 65. Two solutions of a substance (non-electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner. 480 mL of 1.5 M first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution What is the molarity of the final mixture? (a) 2.70 M (b) 1.34 M (c) 1.50 M (d) 1.20 M 66. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature? (a) Molarity (b) Molality (c) Mole fraction (d) Weight fraction 67. Four species are listed below

(i) 3HCO− (ii) 3H O+

(iii) 4HSO− (d) 3HSO F

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength? (a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (b) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv) (c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)\ 68. What is the conjugate base of OH– ?

(a) 2O − (b) O– (c) H2O (d) O2 69. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its

solubility product will be (a) 4 × 10–15 (b) 4 × 10–10 (c) 1 × 10–15 (d) 1 × 10–10 70. In a cell that utilises the reaction

22Zn(s) 2H (aq) Zn (aq) H (g)+ ++ → +

addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment will (a) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left (b) lower the E and shift the equilibrium to the right

(c) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the right (d) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the left 71. Which of the following is a redox reaction? (a) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl (b) CaC2O4 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4 (c) Ca(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → CaCl2 + 2NH3 + 2H2O (d) 2K[Ag(CN)2] + Zn → 2Ag + K2[Zn(CN)4] 72. Consider the following reactions at 1100oC (I) 2C + O2 → 2CO, ΔGo = –460 kJ mol–1 (II) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO, ΔGo = –360 kJ mol–1 Based on these, select correct alternate.

(a) zinc can be oxidised by CO (b) zinc oxide can be reduced by carbon (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above 73. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as

E/RTk Ae−= In this equation, E represents

(a) the energy above which all the colliding molecules will react (b) the energy below which colliding molecules will not react (c) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T (d) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the

reaction

74. In respect of the equation E /RTak Ae−= in chemical kinetics, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) k is equilibrium constant (b) A is adsorption factor (c) Ea is energy of activation (d) R is Rydberg constant

75. For a reaction A + 2B → C, rate is given by d[C] k[A][B]dt

+ = , hence the order of

the reaction is (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

76. In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property indicated against it?

(a) Li < Na < K < Rb: Increasing metallic radius (b) I < Br < F < Cl: Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign) (c) B < C < N < O: Increasing first ionisation enthalpy (d) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– : Increasing ionic size 77. Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the

strongest oxidising agent? (a) Electron affinity (b) Ionisation enthalpy (c) Hydration enthalpy (d) Bond dissociation energy 78. According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements

is related to their (a) atomic masses (b) nuclear masses (c) atomic numbers (d) nuclear-proton number ratios 79. Heating of an aqueous solution of aluminium chloride to dryness will give (a) Al(OH)Cl2 (b) Al2O3 (c) Al2Cl6 (d) AlCl3 80. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H – X) is (a) HI > HCl > HF > HBr (b) HCl < HF > HBr < HI (c) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (d) HI > HBr > HCl > HF 81. The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states in general than the

lanthanoids. This is because (a) the 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f orbitals (b) there is a similarity between 4f and 5f orbitals in their angular part of the wave

function (c) the actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids (d) the 5f orbitals extend farther from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals 82. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism? (a) [Co(CN)6]3– (b) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (c) [ZnCl4]2– (d) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ 83. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an

excess of dilute nitric acid?

(a) Cr3+ and 22 7Cr O − are formed

(b) 22 7Cr O − and H2O are formed

(c) 24CrO − is reduced to + 3 state of Cr

(d) None of the above

84. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is chiral? (a) Twist boat (b) Rigid (c) Chair (d) Boat 85. The absolute configuration of

(a) S, S (b) R, R (c) R, S (d) S, R 86. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is (a) isopropylmethyl ketone (b) 2-methyl-3-butanone (c) 4-methylisopropyl ketone (d) 3-methyl-2-butanone 87. Following types of compounds (as, I, II)

3 3 3

2 3

(I) CH CH CHCH (II) CH CH OH|

CH CH

= − −

are studied in terms of isomerism in (a) chain isomerism (b) position isomerism (c) conformers (d) stereoisomerism 88. Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring (a) activates the ring towards electrophilic substitution (b) renders the ring basic (c) deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic substitution (d) deactivates the ring towards electrophilic substitution 89. HBr reacts with 2 3CH CH OCH= − under anhydrous conditions at room

temperature to give (a) CH3CHO and CH3Br (b) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH (c) BrCH2–CH2–OCH3 (d) H3C–CHBr–OCH3 90. Which one of the following has the minimum boiling point? (a) n-butane (b) 1-butyne (c) 1-butene (d) Isobutene 91. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This

is due to (a) dipolar character of ethers (b) alcohols having resonance structures (c) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers

(d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols 92. The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is (a) benzophenone (b) acetophenone (c) benzoic acid (d) benzyl alcohol 93. Picric acid is

(a) (b)

(c) (d) 94. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for

separation of amines? (a) Curtius reaction (b) Wurtz reaction (c) Hofmann method (d) Hinsberg method 95. On heating benzyl amine with chloroform and ethanolic KOH, product obtained is (a) benzyl alcohol (b) benzaldehyde (c) Benzonitrile (d) benzyl isocyanide 96. Nylon threads are made up of (a) polyvinyl polymer (b) polyester polymer (c) polyamide polymer (d) polyethylene polymer 97. Monomers are converted to polymer by (a) hydrolysis of monomers (b) condensation reaction between monomers (c) protonation of monomers (d) None of the above 98. The correct order of mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is (a) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+ (b) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+ (c) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ (d) K+ > Rb+ > Na+ > Li+ 99. Orlon is a polymer of (a) styrene (b) vinyl chloride (c) acrylonitrile (d) butadiene and adipic acid 100. Which of the following reaction is given by only primary amines? (a) Reaction with HONO (b) Reaction with chloroform and alc KOH (c) Reaction with acetyl chloride (d) Reaction with Grignard reagent

101. A broad spectrum antibiotic is obtained from (a) Usnea and Cladonia (b) Peltigera and Lobaria (c) Cetraria and Parmelia (d) Rocella and Lecanora 102. Noctiluca is famous for (a) Holozoic nutrition (b) Syngamy results in a diploid zygote (c) Bioluminescene (d) Photophosphorescence 103. Saccharomycodes ludwigii is ____ (a) Budding yeast (b) Fission yeast (c) Helobial yeast (d) Baker’s yeast 104. Which one of the following shows pendulum like movement? (a) Fallen star (b) Oscillatoria (c) Pandorina (d) Volvox 105. Flag smut of wheat is caused by _____ (a) Ustilago tritici (b) Ustilago kolleri (c) Urocystis tritici (d) Ustilago avenae 106. Calvacin, a substance obtained from Calvatia is used against ____ (a) Cancer (b) AIDS (c) Whooping cough (d) Tuberculosis 107. Match the following: Column – I Column – II 1. Sphagnum (i) Hair cap moss 2. Polytrichum (ii) Green moss 3. Pogonatum (iii)Golden Maiden hair moss 4. Funaria (iv) Turf moss (a) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(ii) (b) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(iii), 4 (ii) (c) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iii) (d) 1(i), 2(iv), 3(iii), 4(ii) 108. Thallus of which of the following bryophyte is not differentiated into

photosynthetic and storage region? (a) Anthoceros (b) Riccia (c) Marchantia (d) More than one is correct 109. Resistant nature of bacterial endospores is due to (a) Thick wall and high water content (b) Low water content and presence of dipicolinic acid (c) Presence of diaminopemellic acid and thick wall (d) Active enzymes and high NAG and NAM

110. Find odd one (w.r.t. taxon) (a) Mushroom (b) Yeast (c) Earthworm (d) Mosses 111. All given statements are wrong regarding biological N2 fixation, except (a) Leghemoglobin maintains the oxygenated environment for activity of

nitrogenase (b) Only legumes show symbiotic N2 fixation (c) Nitrogenase is synthesized by nif genes of plant (d) Fixation requires anaerobic form of Rhizobium called bacteroid 112. Development of sporangium is eusporangiate in which of the following

pteridophyte? (a) Azolla (b) Salvinia (c) Equisetum (d) Selaginella 113. In which of the following pteridophyte sporangia are not present inside

sporocarps? (a) Marsilea (b) Salvinia (c) Azolla (d) Selaginella 114. In which of the following pteridophyte stele is not ectophloic siphonostele? (a) Osmunda (b) Schizaea (c) Adiantum (d) Equisetum 115. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) The root of Dryopteris shows exarch and diarch condition (b) Leaves of Dryopteris are bipinnately compound (c) Binucleate NCC in archegonium is present in male shield fern (d) Wall of antheridium of Dryopteris is made-up of 5 cells 116. Which of the following is correct statement? (a) Cupressus is commonly called as Monkey’s puzzle (b) Chilgoza are obtained from all species of Pinus (c) Wood of Cycas is monoxylic (d) The number of microsporangia on a single microsporophyll of Cycas is 900 –

1000 117. Syndetochelic stomata are present in (a) Ginkgo (b) Ephedra (c) Gnetum (d) Pinus 118. Which of the following is correct statement? (a) The foliage leaves of Pinus are circular (b) Pinus is heterosporous diecious plant

(c) Pinus wood in pycnoxylic and homoxylous (d) The archegonium of Pinus contains both venter and neck canal cells 119. Nonyclic photophosphorylation is different from cyclic photosphorylation in

which one of the following? (a) More common occurence in photosynthetic monerans (b) Production of both ATP and NADPH + H+ (c) External donor of e– as PS-1 (d) Operation under low CO2 and anaerobic conditions 120. When the plant grows horizontally for some distance and then rises upward, it is

regarded as (a) Procumbent (b) Decumbent (c) Deliquescent (d) Diffuse 121. Match the following: Column – I Column – II 1. Etaerio of berries (i) Anona 2. Etaerio of drupes (ii) Rubus 3. Etaerio of achenes (iii)Ranunculus 4. Sorosis (iv) Pineapple (a) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(iii), 4(ii) (b) 1(iv), 2(ii), 3(iii), 4 (i) (c) 1(i), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(iv) (d) 1(i), 2(ii), 3(iii), 4(iv) 122. Basal and parietal placentation are observed in the respective families (a) Poaceae and Cucurbitaceae (b) Cucurbitaceae and Poaceae (c) Poaceae and Malvaceae (d) Compositae and Liliaceae 123. Which of the following group contains winged seeds and winged fruits

respectively? (a) Fraxinus and Oroxylum (b) Moringa and Cinchona (c) Moringa and Hiptage (d) Holoptelea and Cinchona 124. Which of the following is an example of geocarpy? (a) Bauhinia (b) Arachis (c) Eichhornia (d) Clitoria

125. Floral formula Br % O↑+ (5) 1 2 (2) 1 (9)K C A G1+ + + belongs to the family

(a) Caesalpinoideae (b) Mimosoideae (c) Papilionaceae (d) Cucurbitaceae 126. Which of the following group of plants belong to the family liliaceae?

(a) Yucca, Dracena, Colchicum (b) Yucca, Smilax, Trigonella (c) Dracena, Tulipa, lberis (d) Lily, Allium, Avena 127. A lens-shaped mass of tissue and a somewhat raised corky spot where the

underlying cells break through the epidermis, is called (a) Knot (b) Lenticel (c) Hydathode (d) Polyderm 128. Which of the following is incorrect statement? (a) The fusiform initials give rise to secondary phloem and secondary xylem (b) Ray initials produce secondary medullary rays (c) A wood that lacks vessels is called as non porous (d) Both spring wood and autumn wood are observed in the wood of

monocotyledons 129. CAM plants are succulent in habit, and show separation of photosynthetic

process. These show night fixation of CO2 in _______ (a) Diurnal, mesophyll cells (b) Spatial, bundle sheath cells (c) Spatial, mesophyll cells (d) Diurnal, bundle sheath cells 130. In stem of Cucurbita the vascular bundles are (a) Amphivasal (b) Amphicribal (c) Collateral (d) Bicollateral 131. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) The lateral roots arise from the layer present just outside the pericycle (b) An abscission layer appears in a leaf between petiole and lamina (c) The vascular bundles are arrangd in rings in stem of Oryza (d) The hypodermis in dicot stem is sclerenchymatous 132. By habit the angiospermic plants of Monotrapa are (a) Parasites (b) Saprophytes (c) Semi parasties (d) Facultative parasites 133. The enzyme phosphofructokinase is activated by (a) Mn++ (b) Fe++ (c) Mg++ (d) Cu++ 134. In which of the following step decarboxylation does not occur? (a) Conversion of pyruvic acid to Acetyl Co-A (b) Conversion of oxalosuccinic acid converted to α-ketoglutaric acid

(c) Conversion of fumaric acid to Malic acid (d) Conversion of α-ketoglutarate to Succinyl Co-A 135. Match the following Column – I Column – II 1. Triple response Test (i) Cytokinins 2. Avena curvature Test (ii) Gibberellins 3. α-amylase activity Test (iii)Auxins 4. Chlorophyll preservation Test (iv) Ethylene (a) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) (b) 1(iv), 2(ii), 3(iii), 4 (i) (c) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(iii), 4(i) (d) 1(i), 2(iv), 3(iii), 4(ii) 136. Which of the following is not true for ethylene? (a) Induces flowering in Pine apple (b) Induces maleness (c) Induces sleep disease in some bloosomed flowers (d) Promotes transverse growth and inhibits longitudinal growth 137. Which of the following is not true for C4 plants? (a) More efficient CO2 fixer (b) Do not show oxygen inhibition of photosynthesis (c) Posses monomorphic chloroplasts (d) CO2 compensation point is 0 – 10 ppm 138. The hair like appendages present on the flagella are called as (a) Axonemes (b) Mastigonemes (c) Ramenta (d) Trichomes 139. Which of the following is not long-day plant? (a) Beta vulgaris (b) Spinach (c) Chrysanthemum (d) Poppy 140. Root pressure was termed by Stephan Hales for a a. Positive hydrostatic pressure b. Pressure developed in xylem vessels due to active accumulation of solute c. Factor responsible for guttation and bleeding (a) All are correct (b) Only c is incorrect (c) Only b is correct (d) Both a and c are incorrect 141. Seed dormancy due to immaturity of embryo is observed in (a) Ginkgo biloba (b) Nicotiana tobaccum (c) Tomato (d) Phlox 142. Select the incorrect match

(a) Evident plasmolysed cell – DPD = OP (a) Negative tension – Dixon and Jolly (c) Guard cell – Flux of H′ (d) Sugar translocation – Bidirectional 143. Match the following elements to their specific category/function Column – I Column – II 1. Zn (i) Non mobile element 2. Ca (ii) Pyruvate kinase activity 3. K+ (iii)Mobile element 4. Mg (iv) Alcohol dehydrogenase activity (a) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(iv), 4(i) (b) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4 (iii) (c) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iii) (d) 1(iii), 2(ii), 3(i), 4(iv) 144. Which of the following is correct? (a) Chitin is present in the cell wall of slime moulds (b) Suberin turns yellow when treated with KOH (c) Golgi complex was first observed in nerve cells (d) Peroxisomes are absent in algae and yeast 145. Plants showing light induced efflux of CO2 are also characterised by (a) Presence of Rubisco in mesophyll cytoplasm (b) Requirement of 5 ATP and 2 NADPH + H+ to fix a CO2 molecule (c) CO2 fixation once, only in mesophyll cells (d) Absence of Warburg effect 146. Centrioles move to their respective poles during (a) Prophase (b) G2 phase (c) G1 phase (d) Metaphase 147. Which of the following is known as protein factories? (a) Palade’s particle (b) F0 – F1 particle (c) Organelle associated with xenobiotics (d) Lysosome 148. Isidia are known for carrying out (a) Photosynthesis (b) Vegetative propagation (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Gaseous exchange 149. Each sporangium of acellular slime moulds is surrounded by a hard and brittle

wall-like layer, called as (a) Theca (b) Capsule

(c) Peridium (d) Peridinium 150. Which of the following is demerit of Bentham and Hooker’s system of

classification? (a) Position of gymnosperms between dicots and monocots (b) Position of Ranales (c) Monocots are considered advance (d) Monocots are divided into 7 series 151. Allantoin, used for healing wounds, is produced by maggots of (a) Spanish fly (b) Stone fly (c) Deer fly (d) Red ants 152. Mark the incorrect statement (a) Members of class anthozoa show alternation of generation (b) Hydra shows locomotion by gustatoreceptors and walking (c) Amphid of Ascaris are gustatoreceptors while phasmids are chemoreceptors (d) Permanent gonads are not present in Nereis 153. Mark the incorrect combination (a) Hectocotylized arm – Octopus (b) Radula – Pila (c) Glochidium – Gastropoda (d) Nauplius – Crustacea 154. Which of the following has mesodermal skeleton and enterocoelous coelom? (a) Echinocardium (b) Echinococcus (c) Coccinella (d) Chiton 155. Which of the infections is more prevalent in rural areas as people move

barefooted and hygiene is neglected? (a) Taeniasis (b) Ancyclostomiasis (c) Filariasis (d) Dracunculiasis 156. The infective stage of Plasmodium is a minute sickle shaped sporozoite which are

inoculated in thousands in human blood. After how much time, these disappear from blood stream and can be detected in parenchymatous cells of liver?

(a) 1 hour (b) 1/2 an hour (c) 1 day (d) 1 week 157. Mark the correct statement (a) All urochordates have vanadocytes to extract vanadium from sea water (b) Closed circulatory system is present in hemichordates consisting of dorsal and

ventral blood vessels

(c) Heart is placed obliquely and shows periodic reversal of blood flow in urochordates

(d) Heart is absent in cyclostomata 158. Which will not be included in osteichthyes? (a) Crossopterygii (b) Choanichthyes (c) Holocephali (d) Dipnoi 159. Ribs and sternum developed first in which vertebrates? (a) Mammals (b) Amphibians (c) Reptiles (d) Aves 160. Which of the following reptiles shows metachrosis, is ovoviviparous and with

prehensile tail? (a) Hemidactylus (b) Heloderma (c) Chameleon (d) Varanus 161. In poisonous snakes, two maxillary teeth, called poison fangs, are large, ground

and curved. They are connected internally by poison glands, which are modified (a) Parotid glands (b) Cutaneous glands (c) Sublingual (d) Both (b) and (c) 162. Which character is not true of metatherians? (a) They are oviparous (b) Both vagina and uterus are double (c) Penis is generally bifurcated and scrotum lies in front (d) Anus and urinogenital aperture are distinct, controlled by same sphincter 163. Bones can grow from outside and inside, growth is bidirectional. The growth of

bone is due to (a) Osteoblasts (b) Osteocytes (c) Osteoclasts (d) Both (b) and (c) 164. Mark the incorrect combination (w.r.t. human) (a) Broncho-tracheal ring – Calcified (b) Pinna – Yellow elastic cartilage (c) Periosteum – White fibrous tissue (d) Ligamenta flava – Yellow elastic tissue 165. Which cells of connective tissue contain peripheral clumps of heterochromatin,

giving cartwheel appearance to the nucleus? (a) Plasma cells (b) Mast cells (c) Fibroblasts (d) Histiocytes 166. Mark the correct combination (a) Apocrine glands – Parotid gland

(b) Merocrine glands – Axillary sweat gland (c) Compound tubular glands – Milk gland of prototherians (d) Simple tubular gland – Brunner’s gland 167. Increased count of RBC’s due to low O2 availability as at high altitude can be

attributed to (a) Polycythemia (b) Squeezing of RBC’s from spleen (c) Kidneys produce erythropoietin (d) All of these 168. Mark the incorrect statement (a) In brain and spinal cord, distinct, neurilemma is absent (b) Nodes of Ranvier may show axon branching or origin of collateral fibres (c) Nonmyelinated nerve fibers are present in nerve terminals and autonomic

nervous system (d) Oligodendrocytes form blood-brain barrier and myelin sheath around nerves in

CNS 169. Which of these does not fall in the category of glucosan? (a) Cellulose (b) Starch (c) Glycogen (d) Pectin 170. Mark the incorrect statement (a) Linkage in glycogen is both α-1-4 and α-1-6 linkage between gluco-pyranose

units (b) Linkage in cellulose is both β-1-4 and β-1-6 linkage between gluco-furanose

units (c) Inulin shown β-2-1 linkage between fructofuranose units (d) Trehalose is disaccharide made of two glucose residues and non-reducing 171. Mark the correct statement (a) All lipids are fats (b) Waxes are simple lipids (c) N-acetyl galactosamine and sialic acid are components of both cerebrosides

and gangliosides (d) High level HDL is linked to atherosclerosis 172. Mark the incorrect combination (a) Fibroin – α-helix (b) Glutelin – Oryzenin (c) Metalloprotein – Ferritin (d) Vibratile fibrous protein in sieve tubes – P-protein 173. The I.U.B. code of 3.4.23.1 would apply to which category of enzymes? (a) Cleavage of substrate through addition of water in region of specific bond

(b) Cleavage of substrate without hydrolysis on addition of groups to double bonds

(c) Bonding of two chemicals with the help of energy from A.T.P. (d) Rearrangement of molecular structure of effect isomeric changes 174. Mark the correct statement (a) A low Ki reduces enzyme while high Ki increases enzyme activity (b) A high Km indicates low affinity between substrate and enzyme while low Km

shows strong affinity (c) Allosteric enzymes show typical Michaelis Menten behavior and classical

hyperbolic curve (d) Most cellular enzymes show optimum activity at acidic pH 175. Cockroach bears three ganglia in the thorax. One in each segment, and six ganglia

in the abdomen. Mark the correct statement (a) The abdominal ganglia are found in abdominal segment one to ten except 8th (b) The abdominal ganglia are found in one to seven abdominal segments except

5th (c) The sixth abdominal ganglia is present in 10th segment (d) The last abdominal ganglia lies in 6th abdominal segment 176. To a curly haired mother and straight haired father 8 children are born. The ratio

of curly and straight haired will be (a) 6 : 2 (b) 4 : 4 (c) 2 : 6 (d) 3 : 5 177. Tendency of genes to get inherited together is called (a) differential inheritance (b) sex linkage (c) linkage (d) cross-over 178. A tall plant on selfing produces tall and dwarf both what are the probabilities that

first offspring will be (a) tall (b) away (c) equal chance (d) data insufficient 179. The number of gametes produced by individual with genotype of aaBBCc are (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 6 180. Which one of the following individual can produce 16 different gametes? (a) AaBbCcDd (b) AaBbccDDEeFf (c) AaBbCcddEEFf (d) AaBbCcDDEeFf 181. Which one of the following crosses shows 3 : 1 ratio? (a) AaBb × AaBb (b) aabb × AABb (c) Aabb × Aabb (d) AaBb × aabb

182. Thalassemia is a genetic anaemia and resembles with (a) sickle cell syndrome (b) alkaptonuria (c) phenylketonuria (d) Albinism 183. 23 pairs of chromosomes can give rise to how many combinations? (a) 8.6 million (b) 7.6 million (c) 6.6 million (d) 5.6 million 184. To make a karyotype, chromosome are photographed during (a) Fertilization (b) Mitosis (c) Meiosis (d) s-phase 185. Baldness is a trait which is (a) Sex linked (b) Sex influenced (c) Sex limited (d) Autosomal 186. Sex linked characters are mostly (a) Dominant (b) Recessive (c) X-linked (d) Incompletely dominant 187. Turner’s syndrome is (a) 44 + X0 (b) 44 + 0Y (c) Both correct (d) None of these 188. A cell has 2n = 4 what is the probability of a sperm to have all 4 maternal

chromosomes (a) 1 in 2 (b) 1 in 4 (c) 1 in 8 (d) 1 in 16 189. Frequency of an autosomal lethal gene is 0.4. Frequency of carrier in a population

of 200 individual is (a) 72 (b) 96 (c) 104 (d) 36 190. Telomerase is a type of (a) ligase (b) Topoisomerase (c) Reverse transcriptase (d) DNA polymerase 191. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (X) number of chromosomes are (a) n = 21 and X = 14 (b) n = 21 and X = 7 (c) n = 7 and X = 21 (d) n = 21 and X = 21 192. In E.coli DNA has 18% of bases of cytosine what fraction of adenine will be

present? (a) 18% (b) 32% (c) 36% (d) Data insufficient 193. Typhus fever is transmitted by

(a) Body louse (b) Mosquito (c) Bed bug (d) Housefly 194. The second abundant class of antibodies is (a) IgA (b) IgD (c) IgE (d) IgM 195. The accumulation of protein called amyloid β-peptide in human brain causes (a) Addison’s Disease (b) Huntington’s discase (c) Alzheimer’s Disease (d) Parkinson’s Disease 196. “Flavr Savr” is the transgenic variety of (a) Wheat (b) Tomato (c) Rice (d) Cotton 197. A strain of “golden rice” contains high contents of (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin K (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin C 198. The transgenic food may cause (a) Benign Tumour (b) Syphilis (c) Allergies (d) None of these 199. The best method to protect genetic resonance is (a) Gene library (b) Cloning of plants (c) Cryo preservation (d) Multiplication 200. Bt is resistant to (a) Virus (b) Adverse environmental condition (c) Boll worm (d) Herbicide