psc315114 part 1 - cma.education.tas.gov.au · subject code: psc315114 external assessment 2015...

Pages: 16 Questions: 6 ©

Copyright for part(s) of this examination may be held by individuals and/or organisations other than the Office of Tasmanian Assessment, Standards and Certification.

Tasmanian Certificate of Education

PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Senior Secondary

Subject Code: PSC315114

External Assessment

2015

Time: approximately 45 minutes

On the basis of your performance in this examination, the examiners will provide a result on the following criterion taken from the course statement: Criterion 5 Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of principles of motion and force.

Criterion Mark

5 /40

PLACE LABEL HERE

PART 1

Physical Sciences – Part 1

CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS You MUST make sure that your responses to the questions in this examination paper will show your achievement in the criteria being assessed. Answer ALL questions. Answers must be written in the spaces provided on the examination paper. The 2015 External Examination Information Sheet for Physical Sciences can be used throughout the examination. No other written material is allowed into the examination. This examination is 3 hours in length. It is recommended that you spend approximately 45 minutes in total answering the questions in this booklet. Show all working in your answers to numerical questions. Some credit will be given for unsimplified answers. Credit cannot be given for an incorrect answer, unless it is accompanied by details of the working. Appropriate units must be included. All written responses must be in English. Note: When candidates are asked to ‘show that’: • a candidate should calculate their own answer to the appropriate number of significant figures

and use this subsequently. • a candidate who is unable to determine the required value should use the value given by the

examiner in subsequent questions. A spare grid and diagrams have been provided in the back of the booklet for you to use if required. If you use the spare grid or diagrams, you MUST indicate you have done so in your answer to that question.


Question 1 In a bicycle race the course consists of three sections that form a triangle. Cyclists commence at point A and ride 7.00 km south to point B and then 7.00 km west to point C before returning to the starting point A. (a) Draw a labelled diagram showing the displacement vectors for the three sections of the

course. (2 marks) (b) Show that the distance travelled by a cyclist completing the course is 23.9 km. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. The average speed of the winning cyclist was 40.5 km h–1.

(c) How long did he take to complete the course? Give your answer in minutes. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. A second cyclist stopped 22.0 km into the race after riding for 32.0 minutes. (d) Determine the average speed of this cyclist in km h–1. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (e) What was his average velocity in km h–1? (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 2 Students used a motion detector to investigate the motion of a volleyball. The ball was dropped from rest and the results were recorded as shown in the graph below. (a) What happened to the ball at 0.40 seconds? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) Show that the acceleration of the falling volleyball is approximately 8 m s–2 down. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

Question 2 continues.

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velocity

(m s – 1

) 3.0

2.0

1.0

– 0.5 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5

time (s)

0


Question 2 (continued) (c) Sketch a graph to show the general shape of the displacement against time for the

volleyball over 0.45 seconds. (No numerical values are required.) (2 marks) (d) What was the final displacement of the ball after 0.45 seconds? (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. The mass of the volleyball was 280 g. (e) Estimate the frictional force due to air resistance on the falling volleyball. (3 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 3 A golfer hits a golf ball off a tee that is 2.50 m above the fairway. The golf ball leaves the club with a horizontal velocity of 20.0 m s–1. (Ignore any effects due to air resistance.)

(a) Show that it takes approximately 0.7 s after the golf ball leaves the club before it lands

on the fairway. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) What horizontal distance will the golf ball travel before it lands on the fairway? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (c) What is the acceleration of the golf ball 0.50 s after it is hit? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) Calculate the speed of the golf ball as it hits the fairway. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Tee

Fairway

2.50 m

20.0 m s–1


Question 4 The specifications for an aeroplane that uses Hobart airport are:

• Thrust (force) of each of the two engines is 120 kN • Maximum take-off weight is 73.5 tonnes • Maximum landing weight is 64.5 tonnes • Take off speed is 79.6 m s–1 (a) Identify the term that is incorrectly used in the specifications. Explain. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) Why is there a difference between the ‘maximum take-off weight’ and ‘maximum

landing weight’? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (c) Show that the acceleration of this fully loaded aeroplane as it takes off is approximately

3.3 m s–2. Assume all the force from the engines is available. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) Calculate the minimum length of runway required for the aeroplane to take off. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 5 (a) Nylon ropes that stretch are used in rock-climbing. Rock climbers

attach themselves to the steep cliffs by means of these nylon ropes. If a rock climber loses his grip on the rock, he will begin to fall. His fall will be stopped by the rope.

Use the Law of Conservation of Momentum or one of Newton’s Laws to explain the advantage of using a stretchy nylon rope compared with a rope that does not stretch. (3 marks)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

(b) In baseball, players are encouraged to ‘follow through’ when hitting a

ball. This increases the time of contact between the bat and the ball compared with when the player does not follow through.

Use Physics principles to explain the advantage achieved by

‘following through’ assuming the forces are the same in both cases. (3 marks)

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Question 6 Two stationary ice skaters push off against each other. Skater 1 has a mass of 60.0 kg and skater 2 has a mass 45.0 kg. Assume the ice is frictionless. (a) On Diagram A below draw approximately to scale the horizontal force on each skater at

the instant they push off against each other. Justify your answer by using an appropriate Law of Physics. (A numerical answer is not

required.) (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) What are the horizontal forces on each skater after they have moved apart (shown in

diagram B)? Justify your answer using an appropriate Law of Physics. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................


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Diagram A – at the instant of pushing apart

2 1 Diagram B – after pushing apart


Question 6 (continued) (c) On the diagram below, draw approximately to scale the vertical force(s) on skater 1,

including numerical value(s). (2 marks)

The velocity of skater 2 (45.0 kg) after they push off is 0.375 m s–1 to the right. (d) What is the velocity of skater 1 (60.0 kg)? (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Skater 1


SPARE DIAGRAMS/GRAPHS

Question 2 (b) Question 6 (a)

2 1

velocity

(m s – 1

) 3.0

2.0

1.0

– 0.5 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5

time (s)

0


SPARE DIAGRAMS/GRAPHS

Question 6 (c)

\


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This question paper and any materials associated with this examination (including answer booklets, cover sheets, rough note paper, or information sheets) remain the property of the Office of Tasmanian Assessment, Standards and Certification.




PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Senior Secondary


External Assessment

2015


On the basis of your performance in this examination, the examiners will provide a result on the following criterion taken from the course statement: Criterion 6 Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of principles of sources and properties of

energy. Criterion Mark

6 /40

PLACE LABEL HERE

PART 2


Page 2

CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS You MUST make sure that your responses to the questions in this examination paper will show your achievement in the criteria being assessed. Answer ALL questions. Answers must be written in the spaces provided on the examination paper. The 2015 External Examination Information Sheet for Physical Sciences can be used throughout the examination. No other written material is allowed into the examination. This examination is 3 hours in length. It is recommended that you spend approximately 45 minutes in total answering the questions in this booklet. Show all working in your answers to numerical questions. Some credit will be given for unsimplified answers. Credit cannot be given for an incorrect answer, unless it is accompanied by details of the working. Appropriate units must be included. All written responses must be in English. Note: When candidates are asked to ‘show that’: • a candidate should calculate their own answer to the appropriate number of significant figures


examiner in subsequent questions.


Page 3

Question 7 (a) Complete the nuclear transmutation equations shown below and identify the type of

decay. (i) 5

12B → 38Li + (1 mark)

Type of decay: .......................................................................................................... (ii) 91

234Pam → 91234Pa + (1 mark)

Type of decay: .......................................................................................................... (b) When nitrogen-14 in the atmosphere is bombarded with cosmic radiation carbon-14 is

produced along with a proton. Write the equation for this reaction and identify the cosmic radiation that causes the reaction. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. Name of the cosmic radiation: .............................................................................................

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Question 8 (a) Complete the following nuclear fission equation: (1 mark)

01n + 92

235U ! →! 60152 Nd + ................... + 40

1n

(b) Using the equation in part (a), explain how nuclear fission may become ‘uncontrolled’. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (c) Many countries in the world use ‘controlled nuclear fission reactions’ as an energy

source. Explain what is mean by ‘controlled nuclear fission’. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) By comparing the properties of alpha particles and beta particles and neutrons, explain

why neutrons are more effective in initiating a fission reaction than either alpha or beta particles. (3 marks)

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Question 9

Strontium-90 is a radioactive beta emitter that can be produced as a by-product of nuclear fission. It has a half-life of 28.8 years and it enters the body through the food chain. (a) Estimate the time for the activity of a sample of strontium-90 to drop to just over 3% of

its initial activity. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) Explain carefully from the information provided, why strontium-90 is a serious health

hazard. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 10

Some light globes contain a thin piece of wire, called a filament, which acts as a resistor. The wire emits light when a large enough current passes through it causing it to heat up. A Physical Sciences student built an electric circuit to investigate the properties of the wire filament. (a) Draw a circuit diagram, including the light globe, ammeter, voltmeter and power supply

to show the experimental arrangement. (2 marks) The student recorded the following results:

Voltage (V) 0.50 1.00 1.50 2.00 2.50 3.00

Current (A) 0.10 0.20 0.30 0.40 0.42 0.43 (b) Plot the experimental results on the graph below. (2 marks)


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Voltage (V)

Current (A)


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Question 10 (continued) (c) Calculate the resistance of the wire filament for the voltage range 0.50 V to 2.00 V. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) What happens to the resistance of the wire filament for voltages greater than 2.00 V.

(No calculations are required.) (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (e) Suggest a reason for this change in resistance of the wire filament at higher currents. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 11 Two resistors, 12.0 Ω and 15.0 Ω , are connected in parallel. The current through the 15.0 Ω resistor is 4.00 A. (a) Calculate the current in the 12.0 Ω resistor. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) What is the total power output of the two resistors? (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 12

(a) A solar cell converts one form of energy to another. What energy change is occurring? (1 mark) ........................................................................................................................................... ...........................................................................................................................................

(b) Name a device that converts sound energy into electrical energy. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

(c) Describe the energy conversion associated with a person stretching a rubber band. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) A supermarket worker wheels a trolley containing a 7.50 kg box five metres along a

level floor at a constant speed of 2.00 m s–1.

(i) How much work does the worker do? (Ignore any frictional forces.) (1 mark)

.................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................

(ii) The worker now lifts the box onto a shelf 1.50 m high. How much work is done? (2 marks)

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Question 13 A 10 000 kg truck is moving downhill when its brakes fail. The runaway truck can use a safety ramp that allows it to travel uphill to slow it down. The ramp is inclined at an angle of 15˚ as shown in the diagram. The truck enters the safety ramp at 45.0 m s–1.

(a) Show that the kinetic energy of the truck as it enters the safety ramp is approximately 10 MJ. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. The safety ramp allows the truck’s kinetic energy to be converted to potential energy. (b) What is the required minimum height to bring the truck to rest? (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (c) Calculate the minimum length (L) of the safety ramp, required to bring the truck to rest. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................


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L Safety ramp


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Question 13 (continued)

(d) The truck came to rest 100 m along the safety ramp with a potential energy gain of 2.54 x 106 J. Calculate the frictional force against the truck while it is on the safety ramp. (3 marks)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

(e) Would the minimum length of the escape ramp need to be different for trucks of greater

mass? Explain. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Pages: 12 Questions: 4

©Copyright for part(s) of this examination may be held by individuals and/or organisations other than the Office of

Tasmanian Assessment, Standards and Certification.


PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Senior Secondary


External Assessment

2015


On the basis of your performance in this examination, the examiners will provide a result on the following criterion taken from the course statement: Criterion 7 Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the principles of chemical

fundamentals: structures and properties.

Criterion Mark

7 /40

PLACE LABEL HERE

PART 3


Page 2

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CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS You MUST make sure that your responses to the questions in this examination paper will show your achievement in the criteria being assessed. Answer all questions on this paper. Answers must be written in the spaces provided on the examination paper. The 2015 External Examination Information Sheet for Physical Sciences can be used throughout the examination. No other written material is allowed into the examination. This examination is 3 hours in length. It is recommended that you spend approximately 45 minutes in total answering the questions in this booklet. Show all working in your answers to numerical questions. Some credit will be given for unsimplified answers. Credit cannot be given for an incorrect answer, unless it is accompanied by details of the working. Appropriate units must be included. All written responses must be in English. Note: When candidates are asked to ‘show that’: • a candidate should calculate their own answer to the appropriate number of significant figures




Page 4

Question 14 (a) Predict the empirical formula for the compound formed between the two elements that

have atomic numbers 11 and 8. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) How many electrons are there in a nitride ion N3–? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (c) Predict the type of bonding likely to be found in rubidium chloride (RbCl). Give a

reason for your answer by referring to the electronic structure of rubidium and chlorine. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) It is more accurate to use the term ‘formula units’ than ‘molecular formula’ when

referring to solid rubidium chloride? Why is this the case? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (e) The noble gases (group VIII or group 18) are almost completely unreactive. By

referring to their electronic structure, give a reason for this lack of reactivity. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (f) Under conditions of high pressure xenon can be forced to react with fluorine to form

xenon tetrafluoride (XeF4). Identify the type of bonding in xenon tetrafluoride. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................


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Question 14 (continued) (g) Draw an electron dot diagram (Lewis diagram) for ethyne (C2H2). (2 marks)

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Question 15 Information for five substances, A, B, C, D, E (not their correct chemical symbols) is given in the table below. Four of the substances are elements and one is a compound that is formed by reacting two of the elements together.

Substance Melting point Boiling point Electrical

conductivity in solid state

Electrical conductivity in liquid/molten

state

State at room temperature

A 1410˚C 2355˚C none none solid

B 858˚C 1502˚C none high

C 63˚C 774˚C high high

D –39˚C 356˚C high high

E –220˚C –188˚C none none (a) Complete the column ‘state at room temperature’ for substances B, C, D and E. (1 mark) (b) What is uncommon about the properties of substance D at room temperature? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (c) Two of the substances are non-metallic elements. Identify these substances and justify

your answer using information from the table. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................


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Question 15 (continued) (d) Which one of the substances is the compound? Give reasons for your choice and

identify the type of bonding in this substance. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (e) Referring to your answers and the information given in this question, complete the table

below, giving one possible real name for each substance. (3 marks)

Substance Possible real name

A

B

C

D

E

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Question 16 (a) Complete the following table. (5 marks)

Name Structural formula 1-bromo-3-methylbutane

1-chloro-4-ethyl-cyclopentene

(b) Draw and name two isomers of the organic compound whose molecular formula is

C3H5Cl. Choose one saturated isomer and one unsaturated isomer. (3 marks) Name: Name:


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Question 16 (continued) (c) (i) State a test that could be used to identify the unsaturated isomer in part (b). (1 mark) .................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................... (ii) Use your unsaturated isomer from part (b) to illustrate the answer with an

appropriate structural chemical equation. (2 marks) Carbon exists as a range of allotropes. (d) Explain the meaning of the term ‘allotrope’, giving three examples of the allotropes of

carbon. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (e) Describe the different structures of two allotropes of carbon, explaining how their

differing structures relate to two of their physical properties. (4 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 17 The table of relative atomic masses included on the information sheet is ‘based’ on 12C = 12.00. (a) Explain what this means. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) The table of relative atomic masses shows that there are virtually no elements whose

relative atomic mass is a whole number. Explain why this is the case. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. The mass spectrum below shows the relative abundances of the three isotopes of a naturally occurring element.

(c) From the data shown in the graph, calculate the relative atomic mass of the element. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) Hence, or otherwise, use your information sheet to identify the element. (1 mark) .............................................................................................................................................

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

90

100

75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

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relative isotopic mass

Relative abundance %

83%

10%

7%


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PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Senior Secondary


External Assessment

2015


On the basis of your performance in this examination, the examiners will provide a result on the following criterion taken from the course statement: Criterion 8 Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of principles of chemical reactions and

reacting quantities.

Criterion Mark

8 /40

PLACE LABEL HERE

PART 4


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CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS You MUST make sure that your responses to the questions in this examination paper will show your achievement in the criteria being assessed. Answer all questions on this paper. Answers must be written in the spaces provided on the examination paper. The 2015 External Examination Information Sheet for Physical Sciences can be used throughout the examination. No other written material is allowed into the examination. This examination is 3 hours in length. It is recommended that you spend approximately 45 minutes in total answering the questions in this booklet. Show all working in your answers to numerical questions. Some credit will be given for unsimplified answers. Credit cannot be given for an incorrect answer, unless it is accompanied by details of the working. Appropriate units must be included. All written responses must be in English. Note: When candidates are asked to ‘show that’: • a candidate should calculate their own answer to the appropriate number of significant figures




Page 4

Question 18 (a) Balance the following chemical equation. (1 mark)

H2(SO3)(aq) + AgNO3(aq) ! →! Ag2SO3(s) + HNO3(aq) (b) Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following reactions.

(i) When solid lithium is added to water, an aqueous solution of lithium hydroxide is formed and a gas is given off. (2 marks)

.................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................

(ii) When iron(III) sulfate solution is added to a test tube containing sodium hydroxide solution a precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide forms.

(2 marks)

.................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................

(c) Write a balanced chemical equation and name the products for the reaction occurring

between solutions of ammonium phosphate and calcium chloride. (3 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. Name(s) of product(s) ..........................................................................................................

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Question 19 An organic compound has a molar mass of 90.0 g mol–1. Analysis shows that it contains, by mass, 26.7% carbon, 2.2% hydrogen and 71.1% oxygen. (a) What is the empirical formula of the organic compound? (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) What is the molecular formula of the compound? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 20 Hydrated blue copper(II) sulfate crystals have the chemical formula CuSO4.5 H2O . (a) Show that the molar mass of copper sulfate is 249.6 g mol–1? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) What is the percentage, by mass, of water in hydrated copper sulfate? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. A 2.00 g sample of hydrated copper(II) sulfate is gently heated until it becomes a white solid of constant mass. (c) What is the mass of the white solid? (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (d) Carefully describe how the white solid may be returned to blue crystals. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 21 When sucrose (C12 H22O11) is eaten, it is slowly converted to carbon dioxide and water by cellular respiration according to the following chemical reaction.

C12H22O11(s) + 12 O2(g) → 12 CO2(g) + 11 H2O(l) (a) The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g mol–1. Show that there are 5.85 x 10–3 moles in

2.00 g of sucrose. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) Calculate the mass of oxygen that is consumed in the reaction with 2.00 g of sucrose?

(2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 22 A recent survey of the levels of mercury in fish in the River Derwent provided the following data for the average levels of mercury in the following types of fish.

Bream 1.41 mg per kg Flathead 0.62 mg per kg Salmon 0.26 mg per kg

(a) How many ions of mercury are there in 1.00 kg of bream? (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. Mercury when ingested can cause serious health problems. The Food Standards Code recommends that the upper limit of mercury intake should be no more than 0.075 mg per 150 g serve. (b) What recommendations would you make to members of the public contemplating eating

the above three types of fish caught in the River Derwent? Justify your recommendation with appropriate calculations. (2 marks)

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Question 23 Limestone is a rock that is composed mainly of calcium carbonate. A scientist wishes to determine the percentage by mass of calcium carbonate in a sample of limestone. To do this a 0.280 g sample of the limestone is reacted with hydrochloric acid. This required 44.6 mL of 0.102 mol L–1 hydrochloric acid to react completely. Assume any impurities in the sample do not react with hydrochloric acid. The chemical equation for the reaction is shown below.

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) (a) Calculate the number of moles of hydrochloric acid used in the reaction. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) How many moles of calcium carbonate are there in the rock sample? (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (c) Calculate the percentage of calcium carbonate in the rock sample. (3 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 24 A student is provided with unlabelled samples of each of the following solids. • Barium carbonate (BaCO3 ) • Silver nitrate (AgNO3) • Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3 ) The student is asked to provide the correct labels for the samples using only water and 1.0 mol L–1 hydrochloric acid to assist in the analysis. (a) Write the net ionic equation for the reaction between solid barium carbonate and

hydrochloric acid. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) Using the water and acid provided, outline a procedure for identifying the samples. List

any observations and provide chemical equations where appropriate. (4 marks)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Question 25 (a) Distilled water has a pH of 7. Describe what will happen to the pH when ammonia gas

(NH3(g)) is bubbled into distilled water. Support your answer with a chemical equation. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. (b) While monitoring the pH, a student slowly adds dilute potassium hydroxide solution to

dilute sulfuric acid, stirring the mixture continuously. Describe the observations made. (2 marks) ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................

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Page 12


Physical Sciences


2015 External Examination Information Sheet

Page 1 of 7

CONSTANTS Acceleration due to gravity: g = 9.81 m s – 2 down Charge on an electron: e = –1.6 × 10–19 C

EQUATIONS OF MOTION

€

vav =st

€

v = u + at

€

v2 = u2 + 2as s = ut + 21 at2

MOMENTUM, ENERGY & POWER PHYSICAL QUANTITY SYMBOLS (SI UNITS) p = mv s = displacement (m)

u = initial velocity (m s-1) v = final velocity (m s-1) a = acceleration (m s-2) t = time (s) p = momentum (kg m s-1) ∆p = change in momentum (kg m s-1) m = mass (kg) F = force (N)

€

Ek = kinetic energy (J)

€

Ep = potential energy (J)

€

ΔE = change in energy (J) g = acceleration due to gravity (m s-2) h = change in vertical height (m) Pav = average power (W) W = work done (J) q = charge (C) I = current (A)

V = potential difference (V) R = resistance (Ω)

netp m(v–u)Ft t

Δ= =Δ Δ

maFnet =

gF mg=

€

Ek = 12mv2

mgh=Ep

avWPt

=

avEPtΔ

=

W = Fs W = ∆E

ELECTRICITY

qI =tΔ

W ΔEV= =q q

V = IR

€

P = VI = I2R = V2

R

T 1 2 3R = R + R +R resistors in series

1 2T

1 2

R RR = resistors in parallelR +R

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PREFIXES T — tera

€

1012 G — giga

€

109 M — mega

€

106 k — kilo

€

103 c — centi

€

10−2 m — milli

€

10−3 µ — micro

€

10−6 n — nano

€

10−9 VECTORS AT RIGHT ANGLES

tan θ

€

=oppositeadjacent

=ba

sin θ

€

=oppositehypotenuse

=bc

cos θ

€

=adjacenthypotenuse

=ac

€

c2 = a2 + b2 IONISING RADIATION PHYSICAL QUANTITY SYMBOL (SI unit) A = Activity (Bq)

€

α (alpha)

€

β (beta negative)

€

γ (gamma) Neutron Proton Nature of radiation

helium nucleus

€

24He

electron

€

-10e

electromagnetic waves

neutron

€

01n

proton

€

11H

b

c a

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ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Alkanes:

€

CnH2n+2 Alkenes:

€

CnH2n Alkynes:

€

CnH2n–2 Cyclic Alkanes:

€

CnH2n Cyclic Alkenes:

€

CnH2n–2

ORGANIC STEM NAMES

Carbon Atoms in Chain

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Stem Name meth- eth- prop- but- pent- hex- hept- oct- non- dec- SIDE CHAINS AND SUBSTITUTES methyl – CH3 bromo – Br ethyl – C2H5 chloro – Cl propyl – C3H7 fluoro – F iodo – I

PREFIXES

Atoms in molecule

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Prefix mono- di- tri- tetra- penta- hexa- hepta- octa- nona- deca-

GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS OF DIFFERENT STRUCTURES

Structure Melting/boiling point

Electrical conductivity Further physical

properties

Particles present

Charge carriers Solid Molten Aqueous

Metallic high conducts conducts not applicable

dense, malleable, ductile, lustrous

+ ions & electrons

electrons

Ionic high non-conducting

conducts conducts if soluble

hard, brittle + & - ions ions

Covalent molecular

low non-conducting

non-conducting

non-conducting if soluble

soft solids, liquids or gases

molecules none

Covalent network

very high non-conducting

non-conducting

not applicable

hard, brittle atoms none

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COMMON POSITIVE IONS (CATIONS) 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+

ammonium

€

NH4+ barium

€

Ba2+ aluminium

€

Al3+ lead (IV)

€

Pb4+

hydrogen

€

H+ calcium

€

Ca2+ chromium (III)

€

Cr3+ tin (IV)

€

Sn4+ lithium

€

Li+ copper (II)

€

Cu2+ iron (III)

€

Fe3+ potassium

€

K+ iron (II)

€

Fe2+

silver

€

Ag+ lead (II)

€

Pb2+

sodium

€

Na+ magnesium

€

Mg2+ mercury (II)

€

Hg2+ nickel (II)

€

Ni2+ strontium

€

Sr2+ tin (II)

€

Sn2+ zinc

€

Zn2+

NAMES AND FORMULAE OF SOME COMMON NEGATIVE IONS (ANIONS) –1 –2 –3

bromide

€

Br– carbonate

€

CO32– nitride

€

N3– chloride

€

Cl– chromate

€

CrO42– phosphate

€

PO43–

ethanoate (acetate)

€

CH3COO– dichromate

€

Cr2O72–

fluoride

€

F– oxide

€

O2–

hydrogen carbonate

€

HCO3– sulfate

€

SO42–

hydrogen sulfate

€

HSO4– sulfide

€

S2–

hydrogen sulfite

€

HSO3– sulfite

€

SO32–

hydroxide

€

OH– thiosulfate

€

S2O32–

iodide

€

I–

nitrate

€

NO3–

nitrite

€

NO2–

permanganate

€

MnO4–

IMPORTANT REACTIONS OF ACIDS

acid + base [hydroxide/ metal oxide]

€

" → " salt + water

acid + reactive metal

€

" → " salt + hydrogen

acid + carbonate/ hydrogen carbonate

€

" → " salt + water + carbon dioxide

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SOLUBILITY TABLE FOR COMMON IONIC COMPOUNDS

Negative Ions (anions) Solubility of Compounds

ethanoates (acetates) (

€

CH3COO– )

All soluble

nitrates

€

(NO3– ) All soluble

chlorides

€

(Cl– ) All soluble except AgCl,

€

PbCl2, HgCl2

bromides

€

(Br– ) All soluble except AgBr,

€

PbBr2, HgBr2

iodides

€

(I– ) All soluble except AgI,

€

PbI2, HgI2

sulfates

€

(SO42–) All soluble except

€

BaSO4, CaSO4, SrSO4, PbSO4, Ag2SO4, SnSO4

hydroxides

€

(OH–) Insoluble except LiOH, NaOH, KOH, RbOH,

€

NH4OH, Sr(OH)2, Ba(OH)2

sulfides

€

(S2– ) Insoluble except

€

Li2S, Na2S, K2S, Rb2S, (NH4 )2S, MgS, CaS, SrS, BaS

carbonates

€

(CO32– ) Insoluble except

€

Li2CO3, Na2CO3, K2CO3, Rb2CO3, (NH4 )2CO3

phosphates

€

(PO43–) Insoluble except

€

Li3PO4,Na3PO4,K3PO4,Rb3PO4,(NH4)3PO4

sulfites

€

(SO32–) Insoluble except

€

Li2SO3, Na2SO3, K2SO3, Rb2SO3 QUANTITATIVE CHEMISTRY Avogadro’s Number:

€

NA = 6.02 ×1023

€

mol−1

N = n

€

×

€

NA

€

c =nV

€

n =mM

N = number of particles, etc n = amount of substance (mol) m = mass (g) M = molar mass (g ) c = concentration (mol ) V = volume (L)

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TABLE OF RELATIVE ATOMIC MASSES (BASED ON

€

12C =12.00)

Name

Symbol Atomic Number

Relative Atomic Mass

Name

Symbol Atomic

Number Relative Atomic Mass

actinium Ac 89 - mercury Hg 80 200.6 aluminium Al 13 26.98 molybdenum Mo 42 95.94 americium Am 95 - neodymium Nd 60 144.2 antimony Sb 51 121.8 neon Ne 10 20.18 argon Ar 18 39.95 neptunium Np 93 - arsenic As 33 74.92 nickel Ni 28 58.71 astatine At 85 - niobium Nb 41 92.91 barium Ba 56 137.3 nitrogen N 7 14.01 berkelium Bk 97 - nobelium No 102 - beryllium Be 4 9.012 osmium Os 76 190.2 bismuth Bi 83 209.0 oxygen O 8 16.00 boron B 5 10.81 palladium Pd 46 106.4 bromine Br 35 79.90 phosphorus P 15 30.97 cadmium Cd 48 112.4 platinum Pt 78 195.1 caesium Cs 55 132.9 plutonium Pu 94 - calcium Ca 20 40.08 polonium Po 84 - californium Cf 98 - potassium K 19 39.10 carbon C 6 12.01 praseodymium Pr 59 140.9 cerium Ce 58 140.1 promethium Pm 61 - chlorine Cl 17 35.45 protactinium Pa 91 - chromium Cr 24 52.00 radium Ra 88 - cobalt Co 27 58.93 radon Rn 86 - copper Cu 29 63.54 rhenium Re 75 186.2 curium Cm 96 - rhodium Rh 45 102.9 dysprosium Dy 66 162.5 rubidium Rb 37 85.47 einsteinium Es 99 - ruthenium Ru 44 101.1 erbium Er 68 167.3 samarium Sm 62 150.4 europium Eu 63 152.0 scandium Sc 21 44.96 fermium Fm 100 - selenium Se 34 78.96 fluorine F 9 19.00 silicon Si 14 28.09 francium Fr 87 - silver Ag 47 107.9 gadolinium Gd 64 157.3 sodium Na 11 22.99 gallium Ga 31 69.72 strontium Sr 38 87.62 germanium Ge 32 72.59 sulfur S 16 32.06 gold Au 79 197.0 tantalum Ta 73 180.9 hafnium Hf 72 178.5 technetium Tc 43 - helium He 2 4.002 tellurium Te 52 127.6 holmium Ho 67 164.9 terbium Tb 65 158.9 hydrogen H 1 1.008 thallium Tl 81 204.4 indium In 49 114.8 thorium Th 90 232.0 iodine I 53 126.9 thulium Tm 69 168.9 iridium Ir 77 192.2 tin Sn 50 118.7 iron Fe 26 55.85 titanium Ti 22 47.90 krypton Kr 36 83.80 tungsten W 74 183.9 lanthanum La 57 138.9 uranium U 92 238.0 lawrencium Lr 103 - vanadium V 23 50.94 lead Pb 82 207.2 xenon Xe 54 131.3 lithium Li 3 6.941 ytterbium Yb 70 173.0 lutetium Lu 71 175.0 yttrium Y 39 88.91 magnesium Mg 12 24.31 zinc Zn 30 65.37 manganese Mn 25 54.94 zirconium Zr 40 91.22 mendelevium Md 101 -

PERIODIC TABLE OF ELEMENTS

I II III IV V VI VII VIII

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 1 H Hydrogen 1.008

2 He Helium 4.002

3 Li Lithium 6.941

4 Be Beryllium 9.012

5 B Boron 10.81

6 C Carbon 12.01

7 N Nitrogen 14.01

8 O Oxygen 16.00

9 F Fluorine 19.00

10 Ne Neon 20.18

11 Na Sodium 22.99

12 Mg Magnesium 24.31

13 Al Aluminium 26.98

14 Si Silicon 28.09

15 P Phosphorus 30.97

16 S Sulfur 32.06

17 Cl Chlorine 35.45

18 Ar Argon 39.95

19 K Potassium 39.10

20 Ca Calcium 40.08

21 Sc Scandium 44.96

22 Ti Titanium 47.90

23 V Vanadium 50.94

24 Cr Chromium 52.00

25 Mn Manganese 54.94

26 Fe Iron 55.85

27 Co Cobalt 58.93

28 Ni Nickel 58.71

29 Cu Copper 63.54

30 Zn Zinc 65.37

31 Ga Gallium 69.72

32 Ge Germanium 72.59

33 As Arsenic 74.92

34 Se Selenium 78.96

35 Br Bromine 79.90

36 Kr Krypton 83.80

37 Rb Rubidium 85.47

38 Sr Strontium 87.62

39 Y Yttrium 88.91

40 Zr Zirconium 91.22

41 Nb Niobium 92.91

42 Mo Molybdenum 95.94

43 Tc Technetium

44 Ru Ruthenium 101.1

45 Rh Rhodium 102.9

46 Pd Palladium 106.4

47 Ag Silver 107.9

48 Cd Cadmium 112.4

49 In Indium 114.8

50 Sn Tin 118.7

51 Sb Antimony 121.8

52 Te Tellurium 127.6

53 I Iodine 126.9

54 Xe Xenon 131.3

55 Cs Caesium 132.9

56 Ba Barium 137.3

57 La Lanthanum 138.9

72 Hf Hafnium 178.5

73 Ta Tantalum 180.9

74 W Tungsten 183.9

75 Re Rhenium 186.2

76 Os Osmium 190.2

77 Ir Iridium 192.2

78 Pt Platinum 195.1

79 Au Gold 197.0

80 Hg Mercury 200.6

81 Tl Thallium 204.4

82 Pb Lead 207.2

83 Bi Bismuth 209.0

84 Po Polonium

85 At Astatine

86 Rn Radon

87 Fr Francium

88 Ra Radium

89 Ac Actinium

104 Rf

105 Db

106 Sg

107 Bh

108 Hs

109 Mt

110 Uun

111 Uun

112 Uub

113 114 115 116 117 118

58–71 Lanthanide Series 58 Ce Cerium 140.1

59 Pr Praseodymium 140.9

60 Nd Neodymium 144.2

61 Pm Promethium

62 Sm Samarium 150.4

63 Eu Europium 152.0

64 Gd Gadolinium 157.3

65 Tb Terbium 158.9

66 Dy Dysprosium 162.5

67 Ho Holmium 164.9

68 Er Erbium 167.3

69 Tm Thulium 168.9

70 Yb Ytterbium 173.0

71 Lu Lutetium 175.0

90–103 Actinide Series 90 Th Thorium 232.0

91 Pa Protactinium

92 U Uranium 238.0

93 Np Neptunium

94 Pu Plutonium

95 Am Americium

96 Cm Curium

97 Bk Berkelium

98 Cf Californium

99 Es Einsteinium

100 Fm Fermium

101 Md Mendelevium

102 No Nobelium

103 Lr Lawrencium

5 B Boron 10.81

Atomic number

Name

Relative atomic mass

Symbol

Atomic radii decreases

Ato

mic

radi

i inc

reas

es

psc315114 part 1 - cma.education.tas.gov.au · subject code: psc315114 external assessment 2015...

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