problems
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problemsTRANSCRIPT
Problems
I had purchased $20,000 worth of shares at Rs 125 per share in Indian market(1$
=Rs42) on 1st January 200X. I plan to sell sell 75% of such number of shares on 31
st
December 200X at Rs 150 per share. The expected market value 1$ = Rs45. The cost
of capital(Discounting rate) is 10% per annum.
Calculate the following:
a) What is the purchase price in Indian rupee?
b) What is the total sales in dollar?
c) What is the net profit /loss incurred in dollar?
d) If we use cost of capital 10%, what is the present value of selling price in
Indian Rupee?
e) What is the absolute profit/loss in dollars and present value of profit/loss
in dollars?
Production, purchases and sales budgets. 2. The management of AE Manufacturing Co.Ltd. produce a range of components
and products. They are considering next year’s production, purchases and sales
budgets. Shown below are the budgeted total unit costs for two of the components
and two of the products manufactured by the company.
Particulars Component
1
Rs. Per unit
Components
2
Rs. Per unit
Product
P1
Rs.per
unit
Product
P2
Rs.per unit
Direct Material
Direct Labour
Variable overhead
Fixed overhead
18
16
8
20
62
26
4
2
5
37
12
12
6
15
45
28
24
12
30
94
Components 1 and 2 are incorporated into other products manufactured and sold by
the company, but they are not incorporated into the two products shown above.
It is possible to purchase components 1 and 2 from other companies for Rs.60nper
unit and Rs.30 per unit respectively.
The current selling prices of products P1 and P2 respectively.
Required:
a) Evaluate, clearly indicating all the assumptions you make as to whether it would
be profitable in the year ahead for the company to
i) Purchase either of the components
ii) Sell either of the above products.
b) Prepare statements for management with supporting explanations as to how the
following additional information would affect your evaluation in a) above if next
year’s production requirements for the components are 7,000 units of component
1 and 6,000 units of component 14 and the budgeted sales for the two products
P1 and P2 are 5000 units and 4,000 units respectively when a special machine,
AMC is required.
The AMC machine is needed exclusively for these two components and two
products because of specific customer requirements but for technical reasons the
machine can only be used for a maximum of 80,000 hours in the year.
The budgeted AMC machine usage for any one year is 80,000 hours and
requirements per unit for the various items are as follows:
Component 1 8 Machine hours
Component 2 2 machine hours
Product P1 6 machine hours
Product P2 12 machine hours
The operating costs of the AMC machine have been included in the unit costs shown
in (a) above.
Answer:a)
Particulars Component
1
Rs. Per unit
Components
2
Rs. Per unit
Product
P1
Rs.per
unit
Product
P2
Rs.per unit
Purchase /Selling price
Variable cost
Saving/contribution
60
42
(18)
30
32
2
33
30
3
85
64
21
(i) The company should continue to manufacture component 1
but should purchase component 2 from other companies, at a
saving of Rs.2 per unit.
Assumptions:-
1. No fixed over head would be saved if the production of
any component was ceased.
2. Variable costs vary in direct proportion of output.
3. The quality and reliabllity of external supplies is
acceptable
4. The moral of staff would would be adversely affected by
purchasing externally.
5. Suppliers prices and variable use for the capacity which
will be stable for the year ahead.
6. There is no more profitable use for the capacity which
will be used to manufacture component 1.
ii)The company should continue to produce and sell both products since
each of them makes a contribution towards fixed over head and profit.
• 1. After spending Rs. 20,00,000 for market study a BPO Company has
identified two places to set up its business operations. They request you to choose
any one of the places based on the following information.
• Place I:- Koramangala:
• 80% of the employees are staying in 8 kilometres radious and 20% of the
employees are staying in 12 kilometres radius. Cabs are arranged for the
employees both the ways.10% of the total number of employees do not take the
transport facilities and are paid by Rs.3 per Kilometre for 10 kilometres basis per
day trip irrespective of the number of kilometres traveled by them. A cab can
bring 4 employees at a time. The cabs while leaving the first shift employees in
their houses pick up the second shift employees to the company.
• The cab is always full. The cabs are taken on a daily rental of Rs.800 irrespective
of the kilometres for 12 hours duration. For 18 hours duration Rs.1200 is charged
per cab(both shifts and transport time)ie.Rs. 400 charged the company for second
shift employees to be dropped after second shift.
• The rent of the building is Rs. 25per month per square feet for the first year, Rs.28
Per month for the second year and Rs.30 per month for the third year.
• Place II:- Rajaji Nagar:-
• 40% of the employees are staying 10 kilometres radius and 60% of the
employees are staying 14 Kilometres radius. All employees prefer to take the
transport facilities. A cab is taken on a daily rental of Rs.900 per day irrespective
of the kilometres and Rs. 400 is charged per cab to drop the second shift
employees in their houses.
• The rent of the building is Rs. 15 per month per square feet for the first year,
Rs.20 Per month for the second year and Rs.25 per month for the third year.
• Other informations:
• The company has a fixed order of 5,54,400 accounts per month to be processed.
There are two shifts in 24 hours a day. The working hours are 9 hours duration
but effective working hours are 8 hours per day. Each account is estimated to be
processed in a 5 minutes duration.
• On an average there are 22 working days in a month.
• Irrespective of the place selected, the company makes a contract for three years
only. Each employee occupies on an average of 40 square feet including all other
facilities such as canteen, toilet etc.
. wage per hour is Rs.60. The company charges $4,$4.5 and $5 per account for the fist
year, second year and third year respectively. The expected currency value for three
years respectively $1=Rs39 in the first year $1=Rs.38 in the second year; and
$1=Rs35.0.
• Discounted rate is 12%.
• Required:-
• A) Choose the correct place to set up their business in Bangalore.
• B) Having chosen the place If the company expects Rs.20,00,000 per month as
profit. Calculate Break even employees per year and Margin of safety employees
to get a profit of Rs.20,00,000 and also calculate break even accounts per year and
margin of safety accounts to be processed.
• C) Should the company run in a single shift or double shift? Advice.
Rules of Merger
A LTD AMALGAMATES WITH B LTD
AS ON 2007
NO CAPITAL
GAIN TAX &
ACCUMULATED
LOSSES &
UNABSORBED
DEPERICIATION
CAN BE
CARRIED
FORWARD
DOES NOT
ATTRACT
CAPITAL GAIN
FOR A BUT NO
GAIN FOR B
NO BENEFIT
TO A & B
A MERGES WITH
B (A GOES OUT)
SATISFIES
BOTH 2(1B) & 72
A
SATISFIES 2(1B)
BUT DOES NOT
SATISFY 72 A
DOES NOT
SATISFY SEC
2(1B) & 72 A
PARTICULARS
CONDITIONS OF AMALGAMATION UNDER INCOME TAX ACT SEC 2 (1B)
1.ALL ASSETS AND LIABILITIES OF TRANSFEROR CO. TO BE THE
ASSETS OF THE TRANSFREE CO.
2.SHARE HOLDERS HOLDING NOT LESS THAN 3/4TH IN VALUE OF
SHARES OTHER THAN SHARES ALREADY HELD SHOULD BECOME
SHARE HOLDERS OF AMALGAMATED COMPANY
EX. NO. OF SHARES OF Altd CO. 1,00,000
NO. OF SHARES HELD BY Bltd IN Altd IS 20,000
NOMINAL VALUE OF SHARE IS RS.10
ASSUME Altd MERGE WITH Bltd THEN 75% OF 1,00,000- 20,000 = 60,000
TO BE THE SHARE HOLDES OF B CO.
NOTE:SHARE HOLDERS MAY BE EQUITY OR PREFERNCE SHARE
HOLDERS
Other conditions
•THE AMALGAMATED CO. IS AN INDIAN CO.
EXCEPTION
1.IF SHARES OF INDIAN CO.HELD BY FOREIGN BEFORE MERGER AND
SUCH FOREIGN CO. TAKEN OVER BY ANOTHER FOREIGN CO.
2.ATLEAST 25% OF THE FOREIGN CO. (BEFORE MERGER) TO BE SHARE
HOLDERS OF THE NEW FOREIGN CO.
? WHAT IS THE BENEFIT TO THE AMALGAMATED CO. AMALGAMATING
CO.(OLD CO.)
•
•NO CAPITAL GAIN ON TRANSFER ON CAPITAL ASSETS BY THE
TRANSFEROR CO. UNDER SEC 47(VI) OF I.T ACT
? CAN NEW CO. CARRY FORWAD AND SET OF LOSS AND
DEPRECIATION
SEC 72 A of Income tax Act
1.ACCUMULATED LOSSES REMAIN UNABSORBED FOR 3 OR MORE
YEARS
2.75% OF BOOK VALUE TO BE HELD ATLEAST FOR 2 YEARS BEFORE
AMALGAMATION
3.THE AMALGAMATED CO. CONTINUES TO HOLD 3/4TH OF BOOK
VALUE ATLEAST FOR 5 YEARS
4.NEW CO. SHOULD CONTINUE FOR ANOTHER 5 YEARS
5.NEW CO. SHOULD ACHIEVE ATLEAST 50%OF INSTALLED CAPACITY
BEFORE END OF 5 YEARS AND SHOULD CONTINUE FOR 5 YEARS
THE NEW AMALGAMATED CO. SHOULD FURNISH TO ASSESSING
OFFICER ABOUT PARTICULARS OF PRODUCTION
BENEFIT
•THIS SCHEME IS ALSO APPLICABLE TO BANKING INSTITUTIONS
•?TATA VOLTAS & KELVINATOR HYDERABAD DIVISION vs. CBDT•
Rules of Merger
A LTD AMALGAMATES WITH B LTD
AS ON 2007
NO CAPITAL
GAIN TAX &
ACCUMULATED
LOSSES &
UNABSORBED
DEPERICIATION
CAN BE
CARRIED
FORWARD
DOES NOT
ATTRACT
CAPITAL GAIN
FOR A BUT NO
GAIN FOR B
NO BENEFIT
TO A & B
A MERGES WITH
B (A GOES OUT)
SATISFIES
BOTH 2(1B) & 72
A
SATISFIES 2(1B)
BUT DOES NOT
SATISFY 72 A
DOES NOT
SATISFY SEC
2(1B) & 72 A
PARTICULARS
EXERCISE
4070MARKET PRICE
810P/E RATIO
57EPS
7,50020,000NO. OF SHARES
37,5001,40,000EAT
CO. BCO. APARTICULARS
•
Co. A is acquiring co. B Exchanging one share for every 1.5 shares of B ltd & p/e ratio
will continue even after merger
? Are they better or worse of than they were before in merger
? Determine the range of minimum & maximum ratio between the two firms
? A is an Indian co.
? A is a foreign co.
? A merges with T & formed a new co. AT ltd
? What are the tax planning required before & after merger
•
EXAMPLE
7.58P/E RATIO(TIMES)
18,75,00050,00,000TOTAL MARKET
VALUE (N*MPS) OR
(EAT*P/E RATIO)
18.7525MARKET PRICE PER
SHARE(MPS)
2.53.125EPS
1,00,0002,00,000NO. OF SHARES
2,50,0006,25,000EAT
FIRM BFIRM APRE MERGER
SITUATION
•
? IF EXCHANGE RATIO IS 2.5:1 WHO GAINS WHO LOSES
? IF EXCHANGE RATIO IS 1:1 WHO GAINS WHO LOSES
? HOW TO CALCULATE TOLERABLE SHARE EXCHANGE RATIO
•
Answer:
7.58P/E RATIO
(ASSUMED TO BE THE
SAME)
21.8253.125*8=25MPS
65,47,50070,00,000TOTAL MARKET VALUE
8,75,000/3,00,000=2.91/8.75/2.8=3.125EPS
2,00,000+1,00,000=3,00,0
00
2.8 lakhsNO. OF SHARES
8,75,0006.25+2.5=8.75EAT(COMBINED FIRM)
1 : 12.5:3.125=.8EXCHANE RATIO/ SWAP
RATIO (ASSUMING)
SITUATION 2SITUATION 1
(BASED ON CURRENT
MARKET PRICE
POST MERGER
TOTAL MV
LESS: MINIMUM TO BE GIVEN TO B
75,00,000
10,00,000
NET BENEFIT TO A
65,00,000
NO. OF SHARES OF A TO A CO. SHARE HOLDERS
1,00,000
DESIRED POST MERGER MPS
65 PER SHARE
NO. OF EQUTY SHARES TO BE ISSUED BASED ON DESIRED MARKET PRICE
10,00,000/65 = 15,385 SHARES
TOLERANCE SHARE EXCHANGE RATIO
50,000/15385 = 3.25 SHARES OF FIRM B, 1 SHARE IN FIRM A
1:3.25
CONCLUSIONS-1
•EXCHANGE AT EPS – NO EFFECT ON EPS AFTER MERGER
•EXCHANGE MORE THAN EPS RATIO – COMPANY WITH LOWER EPS GAINS
•IF LESS THAN EPS RATIO – COMPANY WITH HIGHER EPS BEFORE MERGER
GAINS
Conclusion-2
•IF SHARES ARE EXCHANGED BASED ON CURRENT MARKET PRICE PER
SHARE , POST MARKET PRICE SHARE INCREASED AT HIGHER RATE THAN
EXCHANGED BELOW THIS RATIO
•Boot strap effect
Conclusion-3
•FIRM WITH HIGHER P/E RATIO CAN ACQUIRE FIRM WITH LOWER P/E
RATIO WHICH WILL INVARIABLY INCREASES MARKET VALUE AFTER
MERGER
Conversion of sole proprietorship into a company
conditions
•All assets and Liabilities of the sole proprietarily concern leading to the business
immediately before the succession shall become the A/L of the company
•Sole proprietor should hold not less than 50% of the total voting power in the company
•The sole proprietor should continue for a minimum period of 5 years.
•The sole proprietor should receive the consideration only in the form of shares in the
company
Consequences if not fulfilled
•Withdrawal of exemption U/S 47A(3)
•The capital gain which wad not taxed earlier will become taxable in the hands of the
company
Conversion of Firm into a company
•Conditions:
•1. All assets and Liabilities of the firm leading to the business immediately before the
succession shall become the A/L of the company.
•2. All the partners of the firm become the shareholders of the company in the same
proportion of their capital account stood before the succession.
•3.Every thing should be received in Shares of the company by the partners.
•4.Not less than 50% of voting power in the company by all the partners and hold such
shareholdings for a period of 5 years from the date of succession.
Failed to fulfill the conditions
•Withdrawal of exemption U/S 47A(3)
•The capital gain which wad not taxed earlier will become taxable in the hands of the
company
•
•If Shareholder Y transfers his shares to Z on 5th
March 2011 what is the consequencesto
the firm and Company and partners(shareholders)?
•How do you compute capital gain tax?
•Suppose the firm has a land worth Rs. 50 crores and sells which attracts 8 crores
Income tax. Is there tax planning to avoid tax liability?
Exercise-1-Case study
Plant 80,000
House property 2,00,000
(acquired in 1982-83)
Stock in trade 40,000
Debtors 70,000
Bank 10,000
Capital
X 1,00,000
Y 2,00,000
Sundry credi 1,00,000
AssetsLiabilities
Balance Sheet as on 1st April 2008
•A Ltd. is incorporated on April 1st 2008 which takes over the assets and liabilities at the
agreed valuation of X Co. as follows:
•Plant-2,80,000, House property-10,00,000, stock-60,000, debtors-70,000,Bank –10,000.
???
•How is it treated as per IT?
•If firm sells the whole business at the agreed value what is the tax implication?
•Calculate the total consideration the company is willing to give the partners and also
find out the number of shares alloted to each partner?
•If Shareholder Y transfers his shares to Z on 5th
March 2011 what is the consequencesto
the firm and Company and partners(shareholders)?
•How do you compute capital gain tax?
•Suppose the firm has a land worth Rs. 50 crores and sells which attracts 8 crores
Income tax. Is there tax planning to avoid tax liability?
Answer
1.Short term capital gain on plant and Machinery as a depreciated asset=2,00,000
House property – Long term as no depreciation provided use index costof acquision
Stock in trade 60,000-40,000=20,000 is business income.
•If all the conditions fulfilled as per 47(xiii)
•No capital gain tax.However business income arises on stock which attracts tax as
business income and to be paid by the firm.
•Stock is a current asset which is used as a stock in trade does not amount to capital asset.
•If Y transfers his shares to Z the capital gain earlier exempted will be taxed as it was
originally calculated.Long term capital gain on house property and short term capital gain
on plant and machinery.
Bond valuation
C M
Bond valuation ———— + ——————
t =1 (1+i)t (1+i) n
Where:
C1.. Cn = period coupon payment from year 1 to n
i = market interest rates, prevailing
n = period to maturity
M = Principal with / without redemption premium
Yield to maturity
This term popularly known as YTM connotes redemption yield and is very useful for
Treasury Managers whose investment horizon is long term. YTM can be interpreted as
the bond’s average compounded rate of return if the bond is bought at the current asked
price and held until it matures and the face value is repaid. That is, YTM can be defined
as the discount rate that equates present value of all cash flows to the present market price
of the Bond. Future cash flows includes interest and capital gain/loss. This can be
algebraically expressed as follows: Let the Bond with a face value of ‘A’ of coupon ‘C’
with a term to maturity of ‘n’ years is quoted/traded at a market price of P, then
C C C (C + A)
P = ———— + ———— + ————+ ———— + ————
(1+y)1 (1+y)2 (1+y)3 (1+y)n
Where ‘y’ is the discount rate (to be found by trial & error method ) at which the cash
flows are discounted so that the right hand side of the above equation tallies/equates with
the Price P (left hand side) of the Bond.
The 'y' so derived would be the Yield to maturity (YTM) of the bond. It implies that, if
the Bond is held till maturity and the Coupons/Cash flows received are reinvested at the
'y' rate itself, the overall yield on the Bond will be 'y', which is its YTM.
An example would further help to understand the mechanics of the YTM. Suppose the
market value of Rs 100 (face value) bond carrying coupon of 13 per cent p.a. maturing
after 7 years is quoted Rs 109.45 in the market. The YTM of the bond is found by
discounting the yearly coupon flows of Rs 13 in the next 6 years and Rs 113 (Principal of
Rs 100 + coupon of Rs 13) at the end of 7 year at a rate (to be found by trial & error
method), say ‘r’ so that the Present value of such cash flows sums to Rs 109.45 Rs 13
(PVIFA) + Rs 100 (PVIF) = Rs 109.45 PVIFA being the Price Value Interest Factor for
the 7 year Annuity and PVIF the Price Value Interest Factor for 7 years to be taken from
the PVIFA table and PVIF table (available in all standard Finance Text Books) for a 7
year term, by trial and error method.
Accordingly for 7 years (PVIFA) at 11% = 4.712
and for 7 years (PVIF) at 11% = 0.482
Then LHS of the equation becomes 13 x (4.712) + 100 x (0.482) = Rs 109.45
Then 11 per cent is said to be the YTM of the bond, also described as the Internal Rate of
Return, (IRR). In other words, in the above example, if the above bond is held by the
buyer till maturity the overall return from the Bond will be 11 per cent. However as the
above process will be time consuming, YTM can be found by approximation as follows.
C + (A – P)/n
YTM = ————————— X 100
(A + P) /2
Where C = coupon
A = Face Value/maturity Value
P = Price paid for the Bond
n = term to maturity
Applying this in the above example,
13 + (100 –109.45)/ 7 13 + (– 9.45/7)
YTM = ————————————— = —————————
(100 + 109.45)/ 2 104.725
13 – 1.35
= —————— X 100 = 11.12%
104.725
However underlying assumption in the YTM concept is that the coupons/cash flows
received during the tenure of the bond is reinvested at YTM rate, which may not be true
since the market interest rates will always be changing from time to time.
Yield on Discounted instruments:
The issue price of a discounted instrument is calculated as follows:
F
D = ———————————————
1 + {( r x n)/36500}
where,
D = Discounted value of the instrument
F = Maturity Value
r = Effective rate of interest per annum
n = Tenure of the instrument ( in days)
Conversely to find out the yield from a discounted instrument, the following formula can
be derived from the above one,
(F –D) 365
r = —————— X ——————— X 100
D n
where,
D = Discounted value of the instrument
F = Maturity Value
r = Effective rate of interest per annum
n = Tenure of the instrument ( in days)
REPO Transactions—calculations:
Assume Bank ‘A’ borrows from Bank ‘B’ an amount of Rs 10 crores for a period of 14
days from 10.10.2005 to 24.10.2005, at an interest rate of 8 per cent against its holding of
11.50 per cent GOI 2007 (Interest Payment dates of this stock are 5th April and 5th
October of the year). As already stated earlier, the transaction involves 2 legs—First
leg/Ready leg and Second leg/Forward leg. The calculation for both legs are explained
below:
Working
(Note: While calculating interest accrued on Government securities, 360 days are
considered for an year.)
FIRST LEG/READY LEG on 10.10.2005: (Bank A sold 11.50 per cent GOI 2007 to
Bank B)
Calculation for first leg is as if Bank A is selling the security (11.5 per cent GOI 2007)
outright to Bank B at the market price of Rs 100. This is as follows:
Principal (Rs 10 crs. @ 100.00) = Rs 10,00,00,000.00
Accrued int.on the stock
= (10 crs x 11.5% x 5/360) = Rs 1,59,722.22
First/Ready leg settlement amount...(1) = Rs 10,01,59,722.22
(It may be understood from the above transaction, that Bank A borrowed Rs
10,01,59,722.22 from Bank B)
FORWARD/SECOND LEG on 24.10.2005: (Bank A bought back the stock from Bank
B)
Though the second leg transaction is to be calculated as if Bank A is buying outright the
security from Bank B, to arrive at the buying rate/price, the calculation has to be done on
the reverse way, as follows:
1. Calculate the settlement amount Bank A has to pay Bank B which is = Amount
borrowed + interest @ 8% for 14 days (Repo rate)
= Rs 10,01,59,722.22 + Rs 3,07,339.42
Settlement amount = Rs 10,04,67,061.64
2. From this subtract accrued interest on the stock till date.
Accrued interest on the stock
= 10,00,00,000 x 11.5% x 19
---------
360
= Rs 6,06,944.44
Settlement amt. – Accrued interest = 10,04,67,061.64
6,06,944.44
Rs 9,98,60,117.20
3. Resulting amount of Rs 9,98,60,117.20 is the principal amount for the Rs 10 crore
value stock. Hence to get rate of repurchase, divide this value by nominal value
i.e. 9,98,60,117.20
------------------ = 99.860117
10,00,00,000
Now based on this rate, the accounting is done as follows:
Principal (Rs 10 crs. @99.860117) = Rs 9,98,60,117.20
Accrued int. on the stock
= (10 crs x 11.5% x19/360) = Rs 6,06,944.44
Forward/second leg settlement amt
= (1) + int @ 8% for 14 days = (2) = Rs 10,04,67,061.64
3.Dilip Company currently produces two products. The cost per unit of Product are as
follows:
Product Y Product Z
Selling price 110
Less : Variable Cost
Material ( 8 units at Rs.4) 32
Labour ( 6 hrs at Rs.10) 60
Variable Overheads ( 4 Machine hrs at Rs.1) 4
96
Contribution 14
Selling price 118
Less : Variable Cost
Material ( 4 units at Rs.4) 16
Labour ( 8 hrs at Rs.10) 80
Variable Overheads ( 6 Machine hrs at
Rs.1) 6
102
Contribution 16
During the 4th
coming accounting period the availability of labour hrs will be restricted to
2880 hrs.Material availability is limited to 3440 units . the machine has the capacity to
produce 2760 units . The marketing manager expects the maximum sales potential for y
is 420 units with respect to Product z there is no sales Limitations
Required
Formulate Linear Programing Model and solve by simplex and interpret the final /matrix
and also from the final /matrix find shadow price or opportunity cost
Solution
Maximise C = 14y+16z subject to
8y + 4Z < 3440 ( Material Constraint)
6Y + 8Z < 2880 ( Labour Constraint)
4Y + 6Z < 420 ( maximum and minimum sales limitation)
Z > 0
First Matrix
Quantity Y Z
S1 = 3440 -8 -4 (1) Material Constraint
S2 = 2880 -6 -8 (2) Labour constraint
S3 = 2760 -4 -6 (3) Machine hours constraint
S4 = 420 -1 0 (4) Sales Constraint
C = 0 +14 +16 (5) Contribution
Note that the quantity column in the matrix indicates the resources available or the slack
that is not taken up when production is zero. For example, the S1 row of the matrix
indicates that 3440 units of materials are available when production is zero. Column Y
indicates that 8 units of materials, 6 labour hours and 4 machine hours are required to
produce 1 unit of product Y, and this will reduce the potential sales of y by 1. You will
also see from column Y that the production of 1 unit of Y will yield Rs.14 contribution.
Similar reasoning applies to column Z. Note that the entry in the contribution row (i.e.
The C row) for the quantity column is zero because this first matrix is based on nil
production, which gives a contribution of zero.
Second Matrix
Quantity Y S2
S1 = 2000 -5 +1/2 (1) Material Constraint
Z = 360 -3/4 -1/8 (2)
S3 = 600 +1/2 +3/4 (3) Machine hours Constraint
S4 = 420 -1 0 (4) Sales Constraint
C = 5760 +2 -2 (5)
The substitution process obtained for the second matrix has become more complex, but
the logical basis still remains. For example, the quantity column of the second matrix
indicates that 2000 units of materials are unused,360 units of Z are to be made, 600
machine hours are still unused and sales of product Y can still be increased by another
420 units before the sales limitation is reached. The contribution row indicates that a
contribution of Rs. 5760 will be obtained from the production and sale of 360 units of
product Z. Column Y indicates that production of 1unit of product Y uses up 5 units of
the stock of materials,but, because no labour hours are available , ¾ units of product Z
must be released. This will release 3 units of materials (3/4 x 4), 6 labour hours ( ¾ x 8)
And 4 ½ machine hours ( ¾ x 6). From this substitution process we now have 8 units of
materials ( 5 units + 3 units ), 6 labour hours and 4 ½ machine hours.
From the standard cost details one unit of Y requires 8 units of materials, 6 labour hours
and 4 machine hours. This substitution process thus provides necessary resources for
producing 1 unit of product Y, as well as providing an additional half an hour of machine
capacity. This is because production of 1 unit of product Y requires that production of
item Z be reduced by ¾ units, which releases 4 ½ machine hours. However product Y
requires only 4 machine hours, so production of 1unit of Y will increase the available
machine capacity by half an hour. This agrees with the entry in column Y of the second
matrix for machine capacity . Column Y also indicates that production of 1 unit of Y
reduces the potential sales of product Y (S4) by 1 unit.
The optimum solution is achieved when the contribution row contains only negative or
zero values. Because row C contains a positive item, our current solution can be
improved by choosing the product with the highest positive contribution. Thus we should
choose to manufacture product Y, since this is the only positive item in the contribution
row. The second matrix indicates that the contribution can be increased by Rs. 2 by
substituting 1 unit of Y for ¾ units of Z. We therefore obtain an additional contribution
of Rs.14 from Y but lose at Rs.12 from Z ( ¾ x 16) by this substitution process. The
overall result is an increased contribution of Rs.2 by adopting this substitution process.
The procedure is then repeated to formulate the third matrix. Column Y of
The second matrix indicates that we should use 5 units of materials and release ¾ units of
Z to obtain an additional unit of Y, but there are limitations in adopting this plan. The
unused materials are 2000 units, and each unit of y will require 5 units, giving a
maximum production of 400 units of Y. We have 360 units of Z allocated to production,
and each unit of Y requires us to release ¾ units of Z. A maximum production of 480
units of Y (360/ ¾ ) can therefore be obtained from this substitution process. There is no
limitaion on machine hours, since the second matrix indicates that the substitution
process increases machine hours by half an hour for each unit of Y produced. The sales
limitaion of Y indicates that a maximum of 420 units of Y can be produced. The
following is the summary of the limitations in producing product Y:
S1 (materials) = 400 units (2000 / 5)
Z ( substitution of product Z ) = 480 units ( 360/ ¾ )
S4 ( maximum sales of Y) = 420 units ( 420/1)
In other words, we merely divide the negative items in column Y into the quantity
column. The first limitation we reach is 400 units, and this indicates the maximum
production of Y because of the impact of the material constraint.
Third Matrix
Quantity S1 S2
Y = 400 -1/5 +1/10 (1)
Z = 60 +3/20 -1/5 (2)
S3 = 800 -1/10 +4/5 (3)
S4 = 20 +1/5 -1/10 (4)
C = 6560 -2/5 -1 4/5 (5)
The contribution row (equation 5) contains only negative items, which signifies that the
optimal solution has been reached. The quantity column for any products listed on the left
hand side of the matrix indicates the number of units of the product that should be
manufactured when the optimum solution is reached. 400 units of Y and 60 units of Z
Should therefore be produced, giving a total contribution of Rs.6560. This aggress with
the results we obtained using the graphical method. When an equation appears for slack
variable, this indicates that unused resources exist. The third matrix therefore indicates
that the optimal plan will result in 800 unused machine hours ( S3) and an unused sales
potential of 20 units for product Y (S4). The fact that there is no equation for S1 and S2
means that these are the inputs that are fully utilized and that limit further increases in
output and profit.
Interpreting the Final Matrix
The S1 column (materials) of the third matrix indicates that the materials are fully
utilized. (Whenever resources appear as column headings in the final matrix, this
indicates that they are fully utilized.) So, to obtain a unit of materials, the column for S1
Indicates that we must alter the optimum production programme by increasing production
of product Z by 3/20 of a unit and decreasing production of product Y by 1/5 of a unit.
If we increase production of product Z by 3/20 of a unit the more machine hours will be
required, leading to the available capacity being reduced by 9/10 of an hour. Each unit of
Product Z requires 6 machine hours, so 3/20 of a unit will require 9/10 of an hour (3/20 x
6). Deceasing production of product Y by 1/5 unit will release 4/5 of a machine hour,
given that 1 unit of product Y requires 4 machine hours. The overall effect of this process
is to reduce the available machine capacity by 1/10 of a machine hour.
The S1 column indicates that to release 1 unit of materials from the optimum production
programme we should increase the output of product Z by 3/20, and decrease product Y
by 1/5 of a unit. This substitution process will lead to the unused machine capacity being
reduced by 1/10of a machine hour, an increase in the unfulfilled sales demand of product
Y (S4) by 1/5 of a unit and a reduction in contribution of rs.2/5. All this information is
obtained from column S1 of the third matrix.
Opportunity Cost:
The contribution row of the final matrix contains some vital information for the
accountant. The figures in this row represent opportunity costs (also known as shadow
prices) for the scarce factors of materials and labour. For example the reduction in
contribution from the loss of 1 unit of materials is Rs.2/5 (Rs.0.40) and from the loss of
one labour hour is rs.1 4/5 (Rs.1.80). Our earlier studies have indicated that this
information is vital for decision-making, and we shall use this information again shortly
to establish the relevant costs of the resources.
S3 S4 S1 S2
Machine Sales of Materials Labour Contribution (Rs.)
Capacity Y
Increase
Product Z
By 3/20 of
A unit -9/10(3/20x6) ------ -3/5(3/20x4) -1 1/5(3/20x8)
+2 2/5(3/20x6)
Decrease
Product Y
By 1/5 of
A unit +4/5(1/5x4) +1/5 +1 3/5(1/5x8) +1 1/5(1/5x6) -
2 4/5(1/5x14)
Net Effect -1/10 +1/5 +1 Nil -2/5