prestorming 2020 mock test i - explanation ......a series 4 prestormingtm 2020 mock test i -...

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PRESTORMINGTM 2020

MOCK TEST I - EXPLANATION

INDEX

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PRESTORMINGTM 2020

MOCK TEST I - EXPLANATION

1. Consider the following statements about the “Solar Orbiter (SolO) mission”:

1. It will make a closer visit to the sun than any other man-made space objects.

2. It will remain within the ecliptic plane to study about the Sun’s Polar Regions.

3. It will be the first solar orbiter mission to provide images of the Sun’s poles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Parker Solar Probe now holds the record for closest approach to the Sun by a human-made object.

So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Before SolO, all solar imaging instruments have been within the ecliptic plane, in which all planets

orbit and which is aligned with the sun’s equator. The new spacecraft will use the gravity of Venus

and Earth to swing itself out of the ecliptic plane, passing inside the orbit of Mercury, and will be

able to get a bird’s eye view of the sun’s poles for the first time.So, Statement 2 is not correct.

SolOwill be the first solar orbiter mission to provide images of the sun’s poles. So, Statement 3 is

correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Solar Orbiter

• Solar Orbiter is a collaborative mission between the European Space Agency and NASA to

study the Sun, took off from Cape Canaveral in Florida.

• The mission, which will take the first pictures of the top and bottom of the sun, was

launched on an Atlas V rocket.

• It carries four in situ instruments to measure the space environment immediately around the

spacecraft like the sense of touch and Six remote-sensing imagers, which see the sun from

afar.

• The Solar Orbiter (called SolO) will face the sun at approximately 42 million kilometers from

its surface.

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• The new spacecraft will use the gravity of Venus and Earth to swing itself out of the ecliptic

plane, passing inside the orbit of Mercury, and will be able to get a bird’s eye view of the

sun’s poles for the first time.

• In 1990, NASA and ESA had sent the Ulysses mission, which also passed over the sun’s

poles but at much farther distances, and did not carry a camera.

• Orbiter will take pictures using telescopes through a heat shield that is partly made of baked

animal bones, to help it withstand temperatures of up to 600 degree Celsius.

• The Orbiter will help scientists understand the sun’s dynamic behavior, and solve mysteries

such as the sunspot cycle, or why the star spews out high velocity charged particles through

the solar system.

• With more data on the global magnetic field of the star, scientists would be able to forecast

space weather events.

SOURCE:

https://www.nasa.gov/feature/goddard/2020/new-mission-will-take-first-peek-at-sun-s-poles/

https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Space_Science/Solar_Orbiter

2. Madhyamika and Yogachara Schools are related to which one of the following?

(a) Hinayana Buddhism

(b) Mahayana Buddhism

(c) Vajrayana Buddhism

(d) Zen Buddhism

EXPLANATION:

The Madhyamika and Yogachara Schools are related to Mahayana Buddhism.

Yogachara, (Sanskrit: “Practice of Yoga [Union]”) also called Vijnanavada (“Doctrine of

Consciousness”) or Vijnaptimatra (“Consciousness Only”), an influential idealistic school of

Mahayana Buddhism.

Mādhyamika, (Sanskrit: “Intermediate”), important school in the Mahāyāna (“Great Vehicle”)

Buddhist tradition. Its name derives from its having sought a middle position between the realism

of the Sarvāstivāda (“Doctrine That All Is Real”) school and the idealism of the Yogācāra (“Mind

Only”) school. The most renowned Mādhyamika thinker was Nāgārjuna (2nd century AD), who

developed the doctrine that all is void (śūnyavāda). So, Option (b) is correct.

https://www.nasa.gov/feature/goddard/2020/new-mission-will-take-first-peek-at-sun-s-poles/

https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Space_Science/Solar_Orbiter

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3. In 2012, Uttarakhand government decided to fill the public service posts without

reservation. Later, this was sued in the Uttrakhand High Court. In 2019, that High Court

directed the state government to implement the reservation. Which of the following

instrument best explains that High Court’s direction?

(a) Habeas Corpus

(b) Mandamus

(c) Prohibition

(d) Certiorari

EXPLANATION:

Mandamusliterally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official

asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be

issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the

same purpose. So, Option (b) is correct.


The writ of mandamus cannot be issued

(a) against a private individual or body;

(b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;

(c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;

(d) to enforce a contractual obligation;

(e) against the president of India or the state governors; and

(f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.

SOURCE:

Indian Polity by M Laxmikanth

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Bringing equality through wealth redistribution can be effectively achieved by

increased dependence on indirect taxes rather than direct taxes.

2. India uses proportionate policy for taxing the income of the individuals and the

companies.


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(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

The concept of wealth redistribution in bringing equality is done by increased dependence on

direct tax than the indirect tax. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

India uses progressive tax policy for taxing the income of the individuals and proportionate tax

policy for the companies. So, Statement 2 is not correct.


Methods of Taxation

There are three methods of taxation prevalentin economies with their individual merits anddemerits

Progressive taxation

• This method has increasing rates of tax forincreasing value or volume on which the tax is

beingimposed.Indian income tax is a typical exampleof it.

• The idea here is less tax on the people whoearn less and higher tax on the people who

earnmore—classifying income earners into differentslabs.

• This method is believed to discouragemore earnings by the individual to support lowgrowth

and development unintentionally.

• Beingpoor is rewarded while richness is punished.Tax payers also start evading tax by

showinglower unreal income. But from differentanglesthis tax is pro-poor and taxes people

accordingto their affordability/sustainability.

• This is themost popular taxation method in the world anda populist one, too.

Regressive taxation

• This is just opposite to the progressive method havingdecreasing rates of tax for increasing

value or volumeon which the tax is being imposed.

• There are notany permanent or specific sectors for such taxes. Asa provision of promotion,

some sectors might beimposed with regressive taxes.

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• As for example, topromote the growth and development of small scaleindustries, India at one

time had regressive exciseduty on their productions—with increasing slabs ofvolume they

produced, the burden of tax used to goon decreasing.

• This method while appreciated for rewarding thehigher producers or income-earners, is

criticised forbeing more taxing on the poor and low-producers.This is not a popular mode of

taxation and not as perthe spirit of modern democracies.

Proportionaltaxation

• In such a taxation method, there is neither progression nor regression from the point of

viewrate of taxes point of view.

• Such taxes have fixedrates for every level of income or production, theyare neutral from the

poor or rich point view orfrom the point of view of the levels of production.

• Usually, this is not used by the economies as anindependent method of taxation. Generally,

this mode is used as a complementary methodwith either progressive or regressive taxation.

• If not converted into proportional taxes, everyprogressive tax will go on increasing and

similarlyevery regressive tax will decrease to zero, becomingcompletely a futile tax methods.

That is why everytax, be it progressive or regressive in nature, mustbe converted into

proportional taxes after a certainlevel.

5. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following statements about

the Non-Cooperation Movement:

1. It was approved by the Indian National Congress in a special session at Calcutta under

the leadership of Veera Raghava Charulu.

2. Sardar Vallabhbai Patel founded 'Rashtriya Vidyapith' in Ahmedabad during this

movement.

3. The Indian merchants and mill owners enjoyed good profits during this movement.


(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Congress held a special session in Calcutta in September 1920 under the presidentship of Lala

Lajpat Rai. It met to pass the resolution of the Non-Cooperation Movement. So, Statement 1 is

not correct.

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Mahatma Gandhi founded ‘Rashtriya Vidyapith' in Ahmedabad during the movement in 1920. So,

Statement 2 is not correct.

The Indian merchants and mill owners enjoyed good profits during this period as a result of the

boycott of British goods. So, Statement 3 is correct.


The Non-Cooperation programme was to include—

• boycott of government schools and colleges;

• boycott of law courts and dispensation of justice through panchayats instead;

• boycott of legislative councils; (there were some differences over this as some leaders like C.R.

Das were not willing to include a boycott of councils, but bowed to Congress discipline; these

leaders boycotted elections held in November 1920 and the majority of the voters too stayed

away);

• boycott of foreign cloth and use of khadi instead; also practice of hand-spinning to be done;

• renunciation of government honours and titles; the second phase could include mass civil

disobedience including resignation from government service, and non-payment of taxes.

SOURCE:

A Brief History of Modern India by Spectrum

6. The term “Microgravity” associated with various space agency missions was frequently

reported in the news. Consider the following statements about the “Microgravity”:

1. It refers to the zero-gravity conditions present in the Outerspace.

2. International Space Station’s movement around the earth is determined by it.

3. It is easy to move heavier objects in a microgravity environment.

4. Microgravity conditions can be seen even in Earth.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) None of the above

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EXPLANATION:

"Micro-" means "very small," so microgravity refers to the condition where gravity seems to be

very small.Microgravity is sometimes called "zero gravity," but this is misleading. So, Statement

1 is not correct.

The ISS revolves around the Earth at about 17,500 mph (~28,000 km/h) resulting in it

completing one revolution in about 90 minutes, and about 16 revolutions per day.The ISS

rotates about its center of mass at a rate of about 4 degrees per minute so that it will complete a

full rotation once per orbit. This allows it to keep its belly towards the Earth not microgravity.


Microgravity is the condition in which people or objects appear to be weightless. Hence, it is easy

to move heavier objects in a microgravity environment. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Microgravity also can be experienced in amusement park free-fall rides. So, Statement 4 is

correct.


• Microgravity is the condition in which people or objects appear to be weightless.

• The effects of microgravity can be seen when astronauts and objects float in space.

• Microgravity can be experienced in other ways, as well. "Micro-" means "very small," so

microgravity refers to the condition where gravity seems to be very small.

• In microgravity, astronauts can float in their spacecraft - or outside, on a spacewalk. Heavy

objects move around easily.

• For example, astronauts can move equipment weighing hundreds of pounds with their

fingertips. Microgravity is sometimes called "zero gravity," but this is misleading.

SOURCE:

https://www.nasa.gov/audience/forstudents/5-8/features/nasa-knows/what-is-microgravity-

58.html

7. Consider the following characteristics in Plants:

1. Leaves are absent or reduced in size.

2. Leaves and Stem are succulent.

3. Even the stem may contain chlorophyll for photosynthesis.

The above-mentioned plant characteristics are found in which kind of Ecosystem?

(a) Tundra Ecosystem

https://www.nasa.gov/audience/forstudents/5-8/features/nasa-knows/what-is-microgravity-58.html

https://www.nasa.gov/audience/forstudents/5-8/features/nasa-knows/what-is-microgravity-58.html

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(b) Tropical Evergreen Forest Ecosystem

(c) Desert Ecosystem

(d) Temperate Forest Ecosystem

EXPLANATION:

In desert ecosystem, the plants conserve water by followingmethods:

• They are mostly shrubs.

• Leaves are absent or reduced in size.(statement 1)

• Leaves and stem are succulent and water storing.(statement 2)

• In some plants even the stem contains chlorophyll for photosynthesis.(statement 3)

• Root system is well developed and spread over large area.

So, Option (c) is correct.


TUNDRA

Tundra means a “barren land” since they are found whereenvironmental conditions are very severe.

There are twotypes of tundra- arctic and alpine.

Distribution:

Arctic tundra extends as a continuous beltbelow the polar ice cap and above the tree line in

thenorthern hemisphere. It occupies the northern fringe ofCanada, Alaska, European Russia, Siberia

and islandgroup of Arctic Ocean. On the south pole, tundra is verysmall since most of it is covered

by ocean .

Alpine tundra occurs at high mountains above the withrespect to Arctic mountains are found at all

latitudes thereforealpine tundra shows day and night temperature variations.

Flora and fauna:

Typical vegetation of arctic tundra iscotton grass, sedges, dwarf heath, willows, birches andlichens.

Animals of tundra are reindeer, musk ox, arctichare, caribous, lemmings and squirrel.Most of them

have long life e.g. arctic willow has a life spanof 150 to 300 years. They are protected from chillness

bythe presence of thick cuticle and epidermal hair. Mammalsof the tundra region have large body

size, small tail andsmall ear to avoid the loss of heat from the surface. Thebody is covered with fur

for insulation. Insects have shortlife cycles which are completed during favourable periodof the year.

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Temperate evergreen forest:

• Parts of the world that have Mediterranean type of climate are characterised by warm, dry

summers and cool, moist winters.

• These are commonly inhabitated by low broad leafed evergreen trees.

• Fire is an important hazardous factor in this ecosystem and the adaptation of the plants enable

them to regenerate quickly after being burnt.

Tropical Wet evergreen forests

Wet evergreen forests are found along the Western Ghats,the Nicobar and Andaman Islands andall

along the northeasternregion. It is characterized by tall, straight evergreentrees. The more common

trees that are found hereare the jackfruit, betel nut palm, jamun, mango, and hollock.The trees in

this forest form a tier pattern: shrubscover the layer closer to the ground, followed by the

shortstructured trees and then the tall variety. Beautiful fern ofvarious colours and different

varieties of orchids grow onthe trunks of the trees.

Tropical Semi-evergreen forests

Semi-evergreen forests are found in the Western Ghats,Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the

Eastern Himalayas.Such forests have a mixture of the wet evergreen trees andthe moist deciduous

trees. The forest is dense and is filledwith a large variety of trees of both types.

SOURCE:

Environment by Shankar IAS Academy

8. Consider the following Indian States:

1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Maharashtra

4. Karnataka

Arrange the states mentioned above in the increasing order of the percentage of their

Urban population.

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 2-1-3-4

(c) 1-2-4-3

(d) 2-1-4-3

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EXPLANATION:

The urban population of Bihar is 11.29 %. (2)

The urban population of Madhya Pradesh is 27.63 %. (1)

The urban population of Karnataka is38.67 % (4)

The urban population of Maharashtra is45.22 % (3)

So, Option (d) is correct.


• Among all the States and Union territories, the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the

Union territory of Chandigarh are most urbanized with 97.5 percent and 97.25 percent

urban population respectively, followed by Daman and Diu (75.2 percent) and Puducherry

(68.3 percent).

• Among States, Goa is now the most urbanised State with 62.2 percent urban population, a

significant increase since 2001 when urban population of Goa was 49.8%. Another

significant instance of rapid urbanisation is that of Kerala, its urban population is now 47.7

per cent, while a decade ago it was just 25.9 percent.

• Among the North-Eastern States, Mizoram is most urbanised with 51.5 per cent urban

population, though in terms of absolute contribution to total urban population in the

country, Mizoram’s contribution is just 0.1 percent. Similarly Sikkim, which was just 11.0

urbanised a decade ago became almost 25 percent urbanised in 2011.

• Among major states, Tamil Nadu continues to be the most urbanized state with 48.4 percent

of the population living in urban areas followed now by Kerala (47.7 per cent) upstaging

Maharashtra (45.2 percent).

• The proportion of urban population continues to be the lowest in Himachal Pradesh with

10.0 per cent followed by Bihar with 11.3 percent, Assam (14.1 percent) and Orissa (16.7

percent).

• In terms of absolute number of persons living in urban areas, Maharashtra continues to lead

with 50.8 million persons which comprises 13.5 percent of the total urban population of the

country. Uttar Pradesh accounts for about 44.4 million, followed by Tamil Nadu at 34.9

million.

SOURCE:

https://www.census2011.co.in/states.php

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/Census-2011-Tamil-Nadu-3rd-most-urbanised-

state/articleshow/9292380.cms

https://www.census2011.co.in/states.php

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/Census-2011-Tamil-Nadu-3rd-most-urbanised-state/articleshow/9292380.cms

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/Census-2011-Tamil-Nadu-3rd-most-urbanised-state/articleshow/9292380.cms

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9. Consider the following conditions:

1. High availability of low wage labour.

2. Lack of advanced skilled labour.

3. Per capita income more than USD 1000.

Which of the conditions mentioned above can be observed in middle income trapped

economies?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

According to the idea, a country in the middle-income trap has lost its competitive edge in the export

of manufactured goods because of rising wages. However, it is unable to keep up with more

developed economies in the high-value-added market. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The countries caught in the Middle Income Trap are unable to compete with low-income, low-wage

economies in manufactured exports and unable to compete with advanced economies in high-skill

innovations.

Hence, the middle income trapped economies are unable to Compete with Either Low-wage

Economies or Highly Skilled Advanced Economies. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The World Bank defines a middle-income country as one with a gross national income (GNI) per

capita of $1,000-12,000 in 2011 prices — a fairly wide range — broken down into lower and upper

middle-income at around $4,000. So, Statement 3 is correct.


Middle Income Trap

• The World Bank defines as the ‘middle-income range’ countries with gross national product

per capita that has remained between $1,000 to $12,000 at constant (2011) prices.

• According to the idea, a country in the middle income trap has lost its competitive edge in the

export of manufactured goods because of rising wages. However, it is unable to keep up with

more developed economies in the high-value-added market.

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• The countries caught in the Middle Income Trap are unable to compete with low-income, low-

wage economies in manufactured exports and unable to compete with advanced economies in

high-skill innovations.

• MIT is associated with a relatively sustained growth slowdown with both direct effects (e.g.

income losses) as well as indirect effects (e.g. social conflicts).

• Fuelled by the global slowdown, many countries, particularly in South East Asia (e.g.

Thailand, Vietnam, and Malaysia etc.), Africa (e.g. South Africa) and Latin America (e.g.

Brazil) currently face the predicament of MIT, which has impeded their transition from

middle income to high income.

• One of the most standard examples of an MIT country is Brazil where annual income growth

rate plummeted to an average rate of 0.58% between 1997 and 2011. It was accompanied by

one of the highest income inequalities worldwide (World Development Indicators, World

Bank, 2016), poor institutional quality in comparison to developed countries and a wave of

protests against the corruption and mismanagement in the country.

Why Do Countries Fall into the Middle Income Trap?

• Inability to shift growth strategies: If a country cannot make a timely transition from

resource-driven growth, with low-cost labor and capital, to productivity-driven growth, it

might find itself trapped in the middle income zone.

▪ Traditional exports cannot be as easily expanded as before because wages are higher

and cost competitiveness declines.

▪ Moreover, export growth depends on introducing new processes and finding new

markets. To do this, exporters must understand the quality, price, and consumer

preference points of the global economy, which is a demanding task.

• Skewed income distribution & stagnation in middle class population: Wealth inequality

and the hierarchical distribution of income in developing countries is a downward drag on

domestic demand, which results in stagnation. It slows down the upward mobility of families

that are at lower levels, into middle class that is prepared to pay more for quality and

differentiated products.

• Recurring boom-bust cycles & procyclical lending: Many middle-income countries in Latin

America have been through cycles of growth based on credit extended during commodity

booms, followed by crisis, and then recovery. This stop–go cycle has prevented them from

becoming advanced economies despite enjoying many periods of fast growth. This is in sharp

contrast with successful countries in East Asia—Japan, Hong Kong, Taiwan, Singapore, and

South Korea that have been able to sustain high growth over some 50 years.

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SOURCE:

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/view-india-neednt-worry-about-a-

middle-income-trap/articleshow/70283084.cms?from=mdr

10. Which one of the following capital cities of India is the farthest from the sea?

(a) Bhopal

(b) Aizawl

(c) Ranchi

(d) Hyderabad

EXPLANATION:

11. Which of the following is/are feature(s) of consumer-centric GDP calculation?

1. Inclusion of Direct taxes

2. Deduction of Subsidies

3. Adjusted to inequality

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/view-india-neednt-worry-about-a-middle-income-trap/articleshow/70283084.cms?from=mdr

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/view-india-neednt-worry-about-a-middle-income-trap/articleshow/70283084.cms?from=mdr

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Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) gives the economic output from the consumers’ side. It is the sum of

private consumption, gross investment in the economy, government investment, government

spending and net foreign trade (the difference between exports and imports).

GDP = private consumption + gross investment + government investment + government spending +

(exports-imports)

Since the GDP gives the picture from the consumers’ side or demand perspective, the GDP at

market price is taken for consumer centric GDP calculation.

GDP at market price = GDP at factor cost + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies



• In 2015, the Central Statistics Office (CSO) did away with GDP at factor cost and adopted the

international practice of GDP at market price and the Gross Value Addition (GVA) measure to

better estimate economic activity.

Gross Value Added (GVA)

• Gross Value Added (GVA) is a measure of total output and income in the economy. It

provides the rupee value for the number of goods and services produced in an economy after

deducting the cost of inputs and raw materials that have gone into the production of those

goods and services.

• It also gives sector-specific picture like what is the growth in an area, industry or sector of an

economy.

• At the macro level, from a national accounting perspective, GVA is the sum of a country’s

GDP and net of subsidies and taxes in the economy.

• Gross Value Added = GDP + subsidies on products - taxes on products

Comparison Between GVA and GDP

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• While GVA gives a picture of the state of economic activity from the producers’ side or supply

side, the GDP gives the picture from the consumers’ side or demand perspective.

• Both measures need not match because of the difference in treatment of net taxes.

• GVA is considered a better gauge of the economy. GDP fails to gauge real economic scenario

because a sharp increase in the output, only due to higher tax collections which could be on

account of better compliance or coverage, rather than the real output situation.

• A sector-wise breakdown provided by the GVA measure helps policymakers decide which

sectors need incentives or stimulus and accordingly formulate sector-specific policies.

• But GDP is a key measure when it comes to making cross-country analysis and comparing

the incomes of different economies.

SOURCE:

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/the-debate-over-the-use-of-gva-and-

gdp/articleshow/58905721.cms?from=mdr

12. Four new judges were appointed to the Supreme Court, taking its strength to the 34, the

highest-ever. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the

President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.

2. The number of judges in the Supreme Court can be increased and reduced by the

Parliament of India by enacting legislation.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the

President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Some articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a

simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and

voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not

deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.

Number of judges in SC can be increased (but cannot reduce) by Parliament using ordinary

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/the-debate-over-the-use-of-gva-and-gdp/articleshow/58905721.cms?from=mdr

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/the-debate-over-the-use-of-gva-and-gdp/articleshow/58905721.cms?from=mdr

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law which is not deemed as an amendment to the constitution. So, Statement 2 is not

correct.


A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses

of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.

These provisions include:

• Admission or establishment of new states.

• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.

• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

• Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the

governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.

• Quorum in Parliament.

• Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.

• Rules of procedure in Parliament.

• Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.

• Use of English language in Parliament.

• Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.

• Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.

• Use of official language.

• Citizenship—acquisition and termination.

• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.

• Delimitation of constituencies.

• Union territories.

• Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

• Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.

SOURCE:

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13. Recently, ISRO had unveiled their first Artificial Intelligence based Humanoid robot

named as “Vyommitra” to support the crew in operations of Environmental Control and

Life Support System (ECLSS) during their Gaganyaan mission. Which one of the following

statements best describes the term “Environment Control and Life Support System”?

(a) It is a natural way of providing clean air and water to the crew members

(b) Irrespective of the number of crew members, oxygen supply is ensured

(c) It uses double-walled crew module to avoid depressurization

(d) It filters particulates, microorganisms and CO2 in the cabin air and separates the oxygen

from the trapped CO2

EXPLANATION:

The planning of the ECLSS system is closely linked to the number of astronauts in a mission

and duration of the mission in the Space. The oxygen to be carried, carbon dioxide scrubbing

subsystems, the heat exchangers, and the waste disposal system are to be primarily

designed for easy and reliable operation. The increasing threat of Space debris in the LEOs

dictates the use of double walled crew modules to avoid depressurization of the cabin in case

of collision with small debris. So, Option (c) is correct.


• The Environmental Control and Life Support System (ECLSS) is a system of regenerative life

support hardware that provides clean air and water to the International Space Station (ISS)

crew and laboratory animals through artificial means.

• The creation of the ECLSS allows for the accommodation of more crew on the Space Station,

extends the time crew can stay in space, and significantly reduces the cost of operating the

Space Station.

• The ECLSS consists of two key components, the Water Recovery System (WRS) and the

Oxygen Generation System (OGS).

• The WRS provides clean water by recycling crewmember urine, cabin humidity condensate,

and Extra Vehicular Activity (EVA) wastes. The reclaimed water must meet stringent purity

standards before it can be utilized to support the crew, laboratory animals, EVA, and payload

activities. The WRS consists of a Urine Processor Assembly (UPA) and a Water Processor

Assembly (WPA).

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• The OGS produces oxygen for breathing air, as well as replaces oxygen lost as a result of

experiment use, airlock depressurization, module leakage, and carbon dioxide venting. The

OGS primarily consists of the Oxygen Generation Assembly (OGA) and a Power Supply

Module. Oxygen is generated at a selectable rate and is capable of operating continuously

and cyclically.

SOURCE:

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=148271

https://www.nasa.gov/centers/marshall/history/eclss.html

14. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is

not correct about the “early nationalists” who lived during the latter half of the

nineteenth century?

(a) They supported import duties on items used by the rich and the middle classes in India

(b) They had faith in the British sense of justice, honesty and integrity

(c) They opposed holding of the Imperial Civil Services examination in England and India

simultaneously

(d) They advocated for the separation of judiciary from the executive in India

EXPLANATION:

Industrial growth through trade protection. That meant that a heavy tax should be imposed on

imported goods and the government should give loans for the development of iron, coal, paper and

sugar industries in India. So, Option (a) is correct.

The moderate phase of the national movement had a narrowsocial base and the masses played a

passive role. This wasbecause the early nationalists lacked political faith in themasses; they felt

that there were numerous divisions and subdivisionsin the Indian society, and the masses were

generallyignorant and had conservative ideas and thoughts. Hence, they did not Involve the

Common people in the freedom struggle. So, Option (b) is correct.

Early nationalists demand for simultaneous Indian Civil Service examinations in England and

India. So, Option (c) is not correct.

Complete separation of the executive and the judiciary. They made this demand to protect Indians

from arbitrary acts by the police and the bureaucracy. So, Option (d) is correct.



https://www.nasa.gov/centers/marshall/history/eclss.html

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The Early Nationalists wanted certain political and economic reforms with the view to unify the

people of India.

Constitutional reforms

Believing that India should eventually move towards democratic self-government, the Early

Nationalists wanted a larger share in the governing of India. They did not seek immediate attainment

of their goal as they feared that the government would suppress their activities. Instead they aimed

at winning freedom through a gradual process.

Their constitutional demands were:

• Abolition of the India Council Act.

• Expansion of the legislative council and Legislative Assemblies, both Central and Provincial.

• Increase in the membership of Indians by including some members elected by local bodies

like chambers of commerce, universities, etc. in these councils and by giving greater powers

to them. They demanded Indian control over the public purse and raised the slogan "No

taxation without representation".

• By the beginning of the 20th century, they demanded for Swaraj (self-rule) within the British

Empire similar to the self-governing colonies in Canada and Australia.

• Adequate representation of Indians in the executive council of the Viceroy and those of the

governors.

Economic reforms

The economic issues raised by the Early Nationalists were:

• Reduction in land revenue and protection of peasants against unjust demands of the

zamindars (hereditary land owners).

• Reduction in expenditure on the army, and the money thus saved to be spent on welfare

activities such as health and education.

• An enquiry into India's growing poverty and famines.

• Availability of cheap credit to peasants through agricultural banks.

• Development of banking, irrigation, medical and health facilities for the people.

• Industrial growth through trade protection. That meant that a heavy tax should be imposed

on imported goods and the government should give loans for the development of iron, coal,

paper and sugar industries in India.

• Total abolition of the salt tax and the duty on sugar.

Administrative reforms

The Moderates made the following demands in the administrative sphere:

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• Demand for simultaneous Indian Civil Service examinations in England and India.

• Complete separation of the executive and the judiciary. They made this demand to protect

Indians from arbitrary acts by the police and the bureaucracy.

• Increase in the powers of the municipal bodies and reduction of official control over them.

• Repeal of the Arms Act and License Act.

• Wider employment of Indians in the higher grades of administrative services.

• Spread of primary education among the masses.

• Improvement of the police system to make it honest, efficient and popular.

Defence of civil rights

• The Early Nationalists defended civil rights whenever the British government tried to curtail

them. Their struggle for freedom became an integral part of the national movement from the

very beginning. In 1897, Tilak and many other leaders were arrested and tried for making

provocative speeches.The Early Nationalists demanded the Abolition of the Preventive

Detention Act and restoration of individual liberties and right to assemble and to form

associations. They also wanted the Removal of the restrictions imposed by the British

Government on the freedom of speech, and the freedom of the press.

SOURCE:

A Brief Historyof Modern India by Spectrum

15. Consider the following statements about the Ordinance making powers of the Governors of

Indian States:

1. It is not a discretionary power of the Governor of a state but must be exercised with

the aid and advice of the respective state’s Council of Ministers.

2. The Governor himself/herself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance promulgated by

him/her at any time.

3. The scope of the Ordinance making power of the Governor is coextensive with the

legislative powers of the State Legislature.


(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

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An ordinance-making power power of the Governor is not a discretionary power. This means that

he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed

by the chief minister. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Governor himself shall be competent to withdraw the Ordinance any time. So, Statement 2 is

correct.

His ordinance-making power is coextensive with the legislative power of the state legislature. This

means that he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which the state legislature can

make laws. So, Statement 3 is correct.


• He can promulgate an ordinance only when the legislative assembly (in case of a unicameral

legislature) is not in session or (in case of a bi-cameral legislature) when both the Houses of

the state legislature are not in session or when either of the two Houses of the state

legislature is not in session. The last provision implies that an ordinance can be promulgated

by the governor when only one House (in case of a bicameral legislature) is in session

because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.

• He can promulgate an ordinance only when he is satisfied that circumstances exist which

render it necessary for him to take immediate action.

• His ordinance-making power is coextensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.

This means that he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which the state

legislature can make laws.

• An ordinance issued by him has the same force and effect as an act of the state legislature.

• An ordinance issued by him is subject to the same limitations as an act of the state

legislature. This means that an ordinance issued by him will be invalid to the extent it makes

any provision which the state legislature cannot make.

• He can withdraw an ordinance at any time.

• His ordinance-making power is not a discretionary power. This means that he can

promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed

by the chief minister.

• An ordinance issued by him should be laid before the legislative assembly or both the Houses

of the state legislature (in case of a bicameral legislature) when it reassembles.

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• An ordinance issued by him ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly

of the state legislature. It may cease to operate even earlier than the prescribed six weeks, if a

resolution disapproving it is passed by the legislative assembly and is agreed to by the

legislative council (in case of a bicameral legislature).

• He cannot make an ordinance without the instructions from the President in three cases:

o If a bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanction of

the President for its introduction into the state legislature.

o If he would have deemed it necessary to reserve a bill containing the same provisions

for the consideration of the President.

o If an act of the state legislature containing the same provisions would have been

invalid without receiving the President’s assent.

SOURCE:


16. Consider the following statements about “Total Factor Productivity” (TFP):

1. It is a measure of relative change in GDP due to the change in labour and capital.

2. It is one of the realistic measures in calculating a countries performance.

3. For the past five years, India has been experiencing negative TFP.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Total factor productivity (TFP) is derived as a ratio of the total production and weighted average of

inputs such as labour and capital. TFP is calculated by dividing output (GDP) by the weighted

average of labour and capital input, with the standard weighting of 0.7 for labour and 0.3 for

capital. Hence, it is a measure of relative change GDP due to change in labor and capital. So,

Statement 1 is correct.

The measure gives us the growth in real output, which is in addition to the growth in inputs such

as labour or capital employed for productive purposes. So TFP gives us the relationship between

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the quantity of factors employed and the output in an economy. A higher TFP implies higher

growth with the same set of labour and capital employed. Hence, it is one of the realistic

measures in calculating a countries performance. So, Statement 2 is correct.

As per the Total Economy Database (TED), India’s adjusted GDP growth in 2016 India’s TFP

growth was 3.5%, in 2017 it was 1.6% and in 2018 it was 2.4%. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

SOURCE:

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/productivity-has-big-role-in-india-s-5-tn-gdp-dream-

11578424261604.html

17. Consider the following pairs:

(Ancient text) (Author)

1. Ratnavali - Kalidasa

2. Saundarananda - Ashvaghosha

3. Devichandraguptam - Vishakhadatta

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Harshavardhana wrote three plays in Sanskrit namely Ratnavali, Priyadarsika and Nagananda.

So, pair 1 is not correct.

Ashvaghosha was a Buddhist philosopher, dramatist, poet and orator. He wrote an epic life of

the Buddha called Buddhacharita. He also wrote Saundarananda, a kavya poem with the theme

of conversion of Nanda, Buddha's half-brother, so that he might reach salvation. So, pair 2 is

correct.

Vishakhadatta was one of the famous Sanskrit poet and play writer. He wrote magnum opus two

plays, the Mudraraksasa and the Devichandraguptam. Devichandraguptam is the story between

Devi and Chandragupta. So, pair 3 is correct.

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/productivity-has-big-role-in-india-s-5-tn-gdp-dream-11578424261604.html

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/productivity-has-big-role-in-india-s-5-tn-gdp-dream-11578424261604.html

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SOURCE:

Old Ancient NCERT by R S Sharma

18. “International Intellectual Property (IP) Index”, sometimes seen in the news recently, is

released by

(a) World Intellectual Property Organization

(b) Global Innovation Policy Center

(c) European Patent Office

(d) World Trade Organization

EXPLANATION:

International Intellectual Property (IP) Indexis released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global

Innovation Policy Center. So, Option (b) is correct.


International Intellectual Property Index

• The index was prepared by the US Chamber of Commerce's Global Innovation Policy Center

(GIPC).

• It ranks countries based on 45 indicators that are critical to an innovation-led economy

supported by robust patent, trademark, copyright, and trade secrets protection.

• The Index analyses the IP climate in 50 global economies.

• The US, the UK, Sweden, France and Germany remained the top five economies on the

intellectual property index in 2019.

• India ranks 36 in the IP Index

• India's has jumped from 44th position in 2018.

• According to the index report, the key problems in India include

o barriers to licensing and technology transfer

o strict registration requirements

o limited framework for the protection of bio-pharmaceutical IP right

o patentability requirements outside international standards

SOURCE:

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/india-jumps-8-places-to-36th-

on-international-ip-index/articleshow/67884700.cms?from=mdr

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/india-jumps-8-places-to-36th-on-international-ip-index/articleshow/67884700.cms?from=mdr

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/india-jumps-8-places-to-36th-on-international-ip-index/articleshow/67884700.cms?from=mdr

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19. Under which of the following conditions, does soil become more acidic?

1. High annual rainfall

2. Overuse of nitrogen fertilisers

3. Cultivation of leguminous crops


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Rain leaches alkaline elements including calcium, magnesium and potassium from the soil into

runoff water, leaving acidic elements like hydrogen, aluminum and manganese to replace the

bases. This means that areas with high annual rainfall amounts generally have more acidic soil.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Applying the Nitrogen Fertilizers to soil increases soil acidity. The greater the nitrogen fertilization

rate, the greater the soil acidification. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Cultivation of leguminous crops also increases soil acidity. So, Statement 3 is correct.


• Soil acidity is a natural and induced chemical condition of soils that can:

o decrease the availability of essential nutrients;

o increase the impact of toxic elements;

o decrease plant production and water use;

o affect essential soil biological functions like nitrogenfixation; and

o make soil more vulnerable to soil structure decline and erosion.

• The process of soil acidification is a potentially serious land degradation issue. Without

treatment, soil acidification will have a major impact on agricultural productivity and

sustainable farming systems and acidification can also extend into subsoil layers posing

serious problems for plant root development and remedial action.

• Soil acidity occurs naturally in higher rainfall areas and can vary according to the landscape

geology, clay mineralogy, soil texture and buffering capacity.

• Soil acidification is a natural process, accelerated by some agricultural practices.

• When plant material is removed from the paddock, alkalinity is also removed. This increases

soil acidity. When grain, pasture and animal products are harvested from a paddock, the soil

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is left more acid. Hay removal is particularly acidifying because large amounts of product are

removed.

• More significantly, soil acidification is most often a result of nitrate leaching. Nitrogen is

added to the soil in a number of ways:

o nitrogen fixed by legume-based plants;

o as nitrogen based fertilisers;

o from breakdown of organic matter; and

o dung and urine.

• Acidification occurs in agricultural soils as a result of the:

o removal of plant and animal products;

o leaching of excess nitrate;

o addition of some nitrogen based fertilisers; and

o build-up in mostly plant-based organic matter.

20. Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) had declared COVID-19 as an international

emergency and pandemic disease. Which of the following is/are the implication(s) of such

declaration?

1. WHO will send its expert doctors to every member states to draft containment and

prevention plans.

2. WHO immediately bans all modes of international travels across the countries.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

WHO does not have doctors team. They only send Doctors from other countries in case of any disease

breakouts. Moreover, only in the areas of high concern, WHO sends docors (not to every member

countries). So, Statement 1 is not correct.

WHO does not immediately ban all modes of international travels across the countries (respective

countries must decide it whether to close International borders or not). So, Statement 2 is not

correct.


Coronavirus Pandemic

• WHO made the assessment that #COVID19 can be characterized as a pandemic.

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• This decision has been taken after the alarming levels of spread and severity and by the

alarming levels of inaction of the disease.

• According to the WHO, a pandemic is the worldwide spread of a new disease.

• The US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention defines a pandemic as “an epidemic that

has spread over several countries or continents, usually affecting a large number of people.”

• The same body defines an epidemic as “an increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of

a disease above what is normally expected in that population in that area.”

• Thus, the ‘pandemic’ status has to do more with the spread of the disease, than its severity.

• Declaring the disease a pandemic won’t mean the WHO gets more funds or more powers to

fight it.

• However, the declaration is a formal announcement that the WHO assesses the impact of

COVID 19 to have reached a new level.

• Describing the situation as a pandemic does not change WHO’s assessment of the threat

posed by this #coronavirus.

• It doesn’t change what WHO is doing, and it doesn’t change what countries should do.

SOURCE:

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/upsc-daily-current-affairs-prelim-bits-12-03-2020

21. He was a mathematician turned astronomer, historian, journalist, philosopher and

political leader of India. He wrote a book on the origin of Aryanic People. He was one of

the founders of the Deccan Education Society. He was

(a) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar

(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

EXPLANATION:

The Arctic Home in the Vedas is a seminal work on the origin of Aryans presented by Lokmanya

Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a mathematician turned astronomer, historian, journalist, philosopher and

political leader of India during 1880 to 1920.

It propounded the theory that North Pole was the original home of Aryans during pre-glacial period

which they had to leave due to the ice deluge around 8000 B.C. and had to migrate to the

Northern parts of Europe and Asia in search of lands for new settlements.

In support to his theory Tilak has presented certain Vedic hymns, Avestic passages, Vedic

chronology and Vedic calendars with interpretations of the contents in detail. The book was

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/upsc-daily-current-affairs-prelim-bits-12-03-2020

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written at the end of 1898 but was first published in March 1903 in Pune.

So, Option (b) is correct.

22. Which one of the following can induce “Crowding out effect” in the economy?

(a) Consolidation of Public Sector Banks

(b) The underperformance of Primary Sector

(c) Fiscal consolidation in an economy

(d) Higher Government borrowing

EXPLANATION:

The concept of crowding out effect indicates one such negative effects of high level of government

borrowing.

The crowding out effect refers to a situation of high government expenditure supported by high

borrowing causes decrease in private expenditure. Or in other words, when the government is

increasing its expenditure, private expenditure comes down. So, Option (d) is correct.


• The crowding out effect refers to a situation of high government expenditure supported by

high borrowing causes decrease in private expenditure. Or in other words, when the

government is increasing its expenditure, private expenditure comes down.

• Increased government expenditure and its causality with decreased private expenditure are

connected through borrowing.

• If the government is raising its expenditure, it will be indicated by a higher deficit in the

budget. For example, in India such rising government expenditure raises fiscal deficit.

• This increased fiscal deficit will be met through borrowing. Government’s borrowing is

different individual/business borrowing in terms of size and impact. This is because

government is a big entity and its borrowing will be huge. In effect, high level of government

borrowing causes an increase in the market interest rate. Similarly, availability of funds for

the private sector will be less due to high level of government borrowing.

• Increased interest rate and reduced availability of funds discourages private spending. Or in

other words, high government expenditure crowd outs private expenditure.

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23. You are on a trip to visit UNESCO world heritage sites. The itinerary includes Kaziranga

National Park, Konark Sun Temple, Darjeeling Mountain Railway and Hampi. If you are

starting from Bengaluru, how many Indian States would you travel, including the source

and destination states, taking the shortest distance by road?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

EXPLANATION:

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24. Consider the following statements about the constitution of the High Court in India:

1. The President of India has the power to appoint additional judges to any High Court in

India for a temporary period of not exceeding two years.

2. The President of India can appoint an acting judge to a High Court when a permanent

Judge of that High Court (other than a Chief Justice of that High Court) is temporarily

absent or unable to perform his/her duties.

3. Neither an additional nor an acting judge can hold office beyond the age of 62 years.


(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The President can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a

temporary period not exceeding two years when:

• there is a temporary increase in the business of the high court; or

• there are arrears of work in the high court.


The President can also appoint a duly qualified person as an acting judge of a high court when a

judge of that high court (other than the chief justice) is:

• unable to perform the duties of his office due to absence or any other reason; or

• appointed to act temporarily as chief justice of that high court.


An acting judge holds office until the permanent judge resumes his office. However, both the

additional or acting judge cannot hold office after attaining the age of 62 years. So, Statement 3

is correct.

SOURCE:


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25. Succession is a process of directional change in vegetation on an ecological time scale. In

this regard consider the following statements:

1. The first plant to colonize an area is called a pioneer community and the final stage

of succession is known as the climax community with states leading to it as

successional stages.

2. Succession can be primary or secondary based on the development of communities

over new sites or well-developed soil.

3. It can be Allogeneic or Autogenic based upon the succession brought about by living

inhabitants of the same or different communities.

4. It can be Autotrophic or Heterotrophic based upon the abundance of green plants or

the abundance of consumers in a community.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

The first plant to colonise an area is called the pioneercommunity. The final stage of

succession is called the climaxcommunity. The stage leading to the climax communityare

called successional stages or seres. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Succession is characterised by the following: increasedproductivity, the shift of nutrients

from’ the reservoirs, increased diversity of organisms with increased niche development,and

a gradual increase in the complexity of foodwebs. So, Statement 2 is correct.

It can be Allogeneic or Autogenic based upon the succession brought about by living

inhabitants of the same or different communities.When succession is brought about by living

inhabitants ofthat community itself, the process is called autogenic succession,while change

brought about by outside forces isknown as allogenic succession. So, Statement 3 is

correct.

It can be Autotrophic or Heterotrophic based upon the abundance of green plants or the

abundance of consumers in a community.Succession in which, initially the green plants are

muchgreater is quantity is known as autotrophic succession; andthe ones in which the

heterotrophs are greater in quantityis known as heterotrophic succession. So, Statement 4

is correct.


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ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION

• Succession is a universal process of directional change in vegetation, on an ecological time

scale.

• Succession occurs when a series of communities replace one another due to large scale

destruction either natural or manmade. This process continues - one community replacing

another community, until a stable, mature community develops.

• Succession is a progressive series of changes which leads to the establishment of a relatively

stable climax community.

• The first plant to colonise an area is called the pioneer community. The final stage of

succession is called the climax community. The stage leading to the climax communityare

called successional stages or seres.

• Succession is characterised by the following: increased productivity, the shift of nutrients

from’ the reservoirs, increased diversity of organisms with increased niche development, and

a gradual increase in the complexity of foodwebs.

SOURCE:


26. Which one the following city is the first to receive South-West monsoon winds?

(a) Panaji

(b) Patna

(c) Raipur

(d) Surat

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EXPLANATION:

27. Consider the following statements:

1. Both Buddhist texts and Jaina texts criticise the Brahmanas.

2. Jaina texts reflect the idea of the superiority of the Kshatriya varna over others.

3. People from any social backgrounds could enter the Jaina Sangha.


(a) 3 only

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(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Like Buddhist texts, Jaina texts criticise the Brahmanas, their practice of animal sacrifices, and

ritual authority giving preference to Brahmanas. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Both Jainism and Buddhism focus on the superiority of the Kshatriya varna over all other

varnas including Brahmanas. So, Statement 2 is correct.

People of all varnas and social backgrounds could enter the Jainasangha. So, Statement 3 is

correct.


Buddhism and Jainism

• Both rejected the authority of Vedas, emphasised on renunciation and human effort as the

means of obtaining salvation, and established a monastic order for both men and women.

Like Buddhism, Jainism is fundamentally atheistic; though it recognizes the existence of

gods, yet it refuses to give them importance in the universal scheme of themes and places the

gods lower than Jina (the conqueror).

• Like Buddhist texts, Jaina texts criticise the Brahmanas, their practice of animal sacrifices,

and ritual authority giving preference to Brahmanas.

• Both Jainism and Buddhism focus on the superiority of the Kshatriya varna over all other

varnas including Brahmanas.

• They both attempted to give a new connotation to the meaning of Brahmana, shifting the

emphasis from an ascribed status to one achieved by good deeds.

28. Recently, World’s oldest carbon with the age of 8000 years old had been found inside the

deepest Blue Hole. Which one of the following statements best describes the term “Blue

Hole”?

(a) It’s the last stage of a massive star which holds more amounts of carbon particles with

gravitational force

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(b) It’s a marine cavern that gets isolated from the ocean and doesn’t receive fresh

rainwater

(c) It’s an ancient fossil that got extracted from Adichanallur site which naturally holds

radioactive Carbon-14

(d) It’s an exploded galaxy which emits the microwaves and remains to be the farthest discovered

object in space

EXPLANATION:

Blue holes are marine caverns filled with water and are formed following dissolution of carbonate

rocks, usually under the influence of global sea level rise or fall.Its waters are mostly isolated

from the surrounding ocean and receive little fresh water from rainfall, making it a rare spot to

study the chemistry of oxygen-deprived marine ecosystems.

What distinguishes them from other aquatic caverns is that they are isolated from the ocean and

don’t receive fresh rainwater.They are generally circular, steep-walled and open to surface. So,

Option (b) is correct.


Blue hole

• Blue holes are roughly circular marine cavern or sinkhole, which is open to the surface.

• It has developed in a bank or island composed of a carbonate bedrock (limestone or coral

reef).

• The deep blue color is caused by the high transparency of water and bright white carbonate

sand.

• Their water circulation is poor and they are commonly anoxic below a certain depth, this

environment is unfavorable for most sea life, but nonetheless can support large numbers of

bacteria.

• Some of the significant blue holes are

o Dragon Hole - South China Sea

o Great Blue Hole - Belize

o Dean’s Blue Hole - Bahamas

• Blue holes are distinguished from cenotes in that the latter are inland voids usually

containing fresh groundwater rather than seawater.

SOURCE:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/carbon-as-old-as-8-000-years-found-in-deepest-blue-

hole-69425

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/carbon-as-old-as-8-000-years-found-in-deepest-blue-hole-69425

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/carbon-as-old-as-8-000-years-found-in-deepest-blue-hole-69425

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29. Consider the following statements about the Fast Track Courts in India:

1. They were actualized through an executive scheme as opposed to a statute of the

legislature in case of Special Courts.

2. They are meant to be set up by the State governments in consultation with the

respective High Courts.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Fast Track Courts in India were actualised through an executive scheme as opposed to a

statute of the legislature in case of special courts. So, Statement 1 is correct.

They are meant to be set up by the State governments in consultation with the respective

high courts. So, Statement 2 is correct.


• As per the National Judicial Data Grid, more than 3 crore civil and criminal cases are

pending (as of Feb 2019) in the lower courts across the country. This delayed delivery of

justice, especially in sexual assault cases leads to frequent large scale protests, by various

groups demanding stricter punishment and speedier trial in such cases.

• In this backdrop, the Fast Track Courts (FTCs) were established in Indian in the year 2000

with an aim to clear the long-pending Sessions and other lower judicial cases.

• These are special kind of courts which have exclusive jurisdiction over a particular category

of law i.e. case of sexual assault and children’s cases.

• The main objective of fast track courts is to provide speedy justice to a large number of

pending cases in a specified time.

• Judges are appointed on ad hoc basis and retired judges are eligible for selection.

• A total of 1734 FTCs were approved in 2000 following the report of the 11th Finance

Commission. Out of this, only 1192 were functional by 2011.

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• The central government constituted the Justice Verma Commission in 2012 to suggest

possible amendments in the criminal law to ensure speedier disposal of cases relating to

sexual assault.

• According to a recently released report by the Ministry of Law and Justice in June 2019,

currently, there are 581 fast track courts in the country that are functional.

• The government in December 2019 announced to set up 1,023 fast track special courts

(FTSCs) for expeditious trial and disposal of rape cases, including that of minors under

Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.

SOURCE:

https://doj.gov.in/other-programmes/fast-track-courts

30. With reference to Governors-General during Colonial rule in India, consider the following

statements:

1. Lord Hardinge-I brought social reforms like abolition of female infanticide and the

practice of human sacrifice.

2. Lord Mayo established the Statistical Survey of India and state railways.

3. Lord Canning introduced Income Tax Act for the first time and created the Indian

Forest Department.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Lord Hardinge-I introduced social reforms including abolition of female infanticide and practice of

human sacrifice. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Lord Mayo established Statistical survey of India and introduction of state railways. So,


Lord Canning introduced Income Tax for the first time. But the Indian Forest Department is not

created during his period. Lord John Lawrence created the Indian Forest Department. So,


https://doj.gov.in/other-programmes/fast-track-courts

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SOURCE:


31. Which of the following will be a possible impact(s) of implementing the “Capital

Conservation Buffer” in India?

1. Increase in the Goods and Services Tax compliance.

2. Reduction in the bank’s Pro-cyclical lending.

3. Increase in Corporate Social Responsibility spending.

4. Increase in Non-Banking Financial Companies risk absorption capacity.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The Capital conservation buffer (CCB) is the capital buffer that banks have to accumulate

in normal times to be used for offsetting losses during periods of stress. It was introduced

after the 2008 global financial crisis to improve the ability of banks to withstand adverse

economic conditions.

In the period of stress, the possible impact of the bank is to reduce bank’s Pro-cyclical

lending.

Increases the GST compliance, Increases the CSR spending and Increases NBFC’s risk

absorption capacity does not have any relation with CCB. So, Option (b) is correct.


• CCB is a relatively new concept, introduced under the international Basel III norms.

• The concept says that during good times, banks must build up a capital buffer that can be

drawn from when there is stress.

• In India, the minimum capital requirement is 9 per cent.

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• The CCB would be 2.5 percentage points over and above the minimum capital requirement

• In simple terms, this is savings for the future as this capital can be drawn when a bank is

incurring losses.

• Since it is a buffer, or extra capital, banks’ minimum capital is not violated.

SOURCE:

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/rbi-defers-capital-buffer-norms-by-a-

year/articleshow/67476064.cms?from=mdr

32. Consider the following climatic regions:

1. Cool Temperate Western Margin

2. Warm Temperate Eastern Margin

3. Warm Temperate Western Margin

Which of the climatic regions mentioned above experiences rainfall throughout the year?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

British Type Climate or Cool Temperate Western Margin Climate or North-West European

Maritime Climateare under the influence of the Westerlies all-round the year.They are the

regions of frontal cyclonic activity [Temperate Cyclones].The British type of climate has

adequate rainfall throughout the year with a tendency towards a slight winter maximum

(due to frontal cyclones). So, Statement 1 is correct.

In Warm temperate Eastern Margin (China Type Climate, Gulf Type Climate & Natal Type

Climate), there is fairly uniform distribution of rainfall throughout the year.Rain comes

either from convectional sources or as orographic rain in summer, or from depressions in

prolonged showers in winter.In summer, the regions are under the influence of moist,

maritime airflow from the subtropical anticyclonic cells.Local storms, e.g. typhoons (tropical

cyclones), and hurricanes, also occur. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Mediterranean Climate or Warm Temperate Western Margin Climate or Warm Temperate

West Coast Climatereceives most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift

equator wards. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

SOURCE:

Certificate Physical and Human Geography by gohchengleong

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/rbi-defers-capital-buffer-norms-by-a-year/articleshow/67476064.cms?from=mdr

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/rbi-defers-capital-buffer-norms-by-a-year/articleshow/67476064.cms?from=mdr

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33. Consider the following statements about Corporate Environment Responsibility (CER) in

India:

1. Every corporate seeking green clearance must set aside up to 2 percent of its capital

investment for CER.

2. CER activities will include pollution control, compensatory afforestation and

rehabilitation and resettlement of displaced persons.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Under this,every corporate seeking green clearance to set aside up to 2% of its capital investment

for Corporate Environment Responsibility (CER). So, Statement 1 is correct.

CER activities will include measures like pollution control, wildlife and forest conservation,

compensatory afforestation and rehabilitation and resettlement of displaced persons. So,



• The environment ministry has firmed up guidelines that will require every corporate seeking

green clearance to set aside up to 2% of its capital investment for Corporate Environment

Responsibility (CER).

• The guidelines make it mandatory for companies to set aside funds for CER over and above

what is required for executing the environment management plan in a projectaffected area.

• While brownfield (expansion) projects would be required to earmark 0.125% to 1% of

additional capital investment for CER purposes, the slab for greenfield projects ranges from

0.25% to 2% of the capital investment.

• The exact quantumwill be decided for every project by the Expert Appraisal Committee when

it comes up for green clearance.

• CER activities will include measures like pollution control, wildlife and forest conservation,

compensatory afforestation and rehabilitation and resettlement of displaced persons.

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• Funds can be used for creating drinking water supply infrastructure, sanitation, health,

education and skill development, among others.

SOURCE:

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/pay-2-of-capital-investment-for-

green-clearance-environment-ministry-to-corporates/articleshow/64008830.cms?from=mdr


(Person) (Organisation involved)

1. Margaret

Cousin

- All India Women's

Conference

2. Swarnakumari

Devi

- Sakhi Samiti

3. Pandita

Ramabai

- Arya Mahila Samaj


(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC), foundedby Margaret Cousins in 1927, was perhaps

the first women’sSocio-Religious Reform Movementsorganisation with an egalitarian approach.

So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Sakhi Samiti (Society of Friends) was started by Swarnakumari in 1896. The objective of the

society was to assist helpless orphans and widows.So, pair 2 is correctly matched.

PanditaRamabaiSaraswati founded the Arya MahilaSamaj to serve the cause of women.So,

pair 3 is correctly matched.

SOURCE:


https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/pay-2-of-capital-investment-for-green-clearance-environment-ministry-to-corporates/articleshow/64008830.cms?from=mdr

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/pay-2-of-capital-investment-for-green-clearance-environment-ministry-to-corporates/articleshow/64008830.cms?from=mdr

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35. Consider the following statements about the “Mac-Binding” technology which was

introduced recently in the Jammu and Kashmir to provide Internet connection:

1. It’s a software identification done by binding MAC address with IP address.

2. It is used to trace the specific system that was used for a particular online activity.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Mac-binding essentially means binding together the MAC and IP addresses, so that all

requests from that IP address are served only by the computer having that particular MAC

address.It is not a software identification. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

It is used to trace the specific system that got used for a particular online activity since the

content from the particular IP address can be easily identifiable. So, Statement 2 is

correct.


• Every device has a Media Access Control (MAC) address, a hardware identification number

that is unique to it. While accessing the Internet, every device is assigned an IP address

• Mac-binding essentially means binding together the MAC and IP addresses, so that all

requests from that IP address are served only by the computer having that particular MAC

address.

• In effect, it means that if the IP address or the MAC address changes, the device can no

longer access the Internet. Also, monitoring authorities can trace the specific system from

which a particular online activity was carried out.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-mac-binding-the-condition-

specified-for-using-the-internet-in-jk-6299406/

36. Consider the following statements about the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF):

1. It is the primary fund available with states for the responses to the notified disasters.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-mac-binding-the-condition-specified-for-using-the-internet-in-jk-6299406/

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-mac-binding-the-condition-specified-for-using-the-internet-in-jk-6299406/

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2. It is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

3. It is funded predominantly by the respective state government.

4. It shall be used only for meeting the expenditure for providing immediate relief to the

victims.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) is the primary fund available with states for the responses

to the notified disasters. So, Statement 1 is correct.

SDRF has been constituted by each state under the provisions of Disaster Management act

2005. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The government of India contributes 75% and 90% of the total yearly allocation of SDRF to

general states and special category states respectively. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

The SDRF is used for meeting expenditures for providing immediate relief to the victims of

cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloud burst,

pest attack, and frost and cold wave. So, Statement 4 is correct.


State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF):

• SDRF has been constituted by each state under the provisions of Disaster Management act

2005.

• It was constituted based on the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission.

• Funding: The government of India contributes 75% and 90% of the total yearly allocation of

SDRF to general states and special category states respectively.

• Heads: The state executive committee headed by the Chief Secretary is authorized to decide

on all matters relating to the financing of the relief expenditure from the SDRF.

• Disaster (s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami,

hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves.

• Local Disaster: A State Government may use up to 10 percent of the funds available under

the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters that they consider

to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State and which are not included in the

notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs subject to the condition that the State

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Government has listed the State specific natural disasters and notified clear and transparent

norms and guidelines for such disasters with the approval of the State Authority, i.e., the

State Executive Authority (SEC).

SOURCE:

https://www.ndmindia.nic.in/response-fund

37. Consider the following statements about the “Somatic Cell Gene Therapy”:

1. It involves transferring of the therapeutic gene to a diseased somatic cell either within

the body or outside the body.

2. In the case of weaker patients, this therapy is done in an Ex-Vivo method.

3. It can cure an individual and their entire generations.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only


EXPLANATION:

Somatic cell gene therapy involves the transfer of gene to a diseased somatic cell either

within the body or outside the body. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Somatic gene therapy can be broadly split in to two categories: ex vivo, which means exterior

(where cells are modified outside the body and then transplanted back in again) and in vivo,

which means interior (where genes are changed in cells still in the body). So, Statement 2 is

not correct.

In this method, therapeutic genes are transferred in to the somatic cells or the stem cells of

the human body.It can cure an individual but not their entire generations. So, Statement 3

is not correct.


• Gene therapy is a technique which involves the replacement of defective genes with healthy

ones in order to treat genetic disorders. It is an artificial method that introduces DNA into the

cells of human body.

• Basically, there are two types of gene therapy

https://www.ndmindia.nic.in/response-fund

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Somatic Gene Therapy

• This type usually occurs in the somatic cells of human body. This is related to a single

person and the only person who has the damaged cells will be replaced with healthy cells.In

this method, therapeutic genes are transferred in to the somatic cells or the stem cells of the

human body. This technique is considered as the best and safest method of gene therapy.

Germline Gene Therapy

• It occurs in the germline cells of the human body. Generally, this method is adopted to treat

the genetic, disease causing-variations of genes which are passed from from the parents to

their children. The process involves introducing a healthy DNA into the cells responsible for

producing reproductive cells, eggs or sperms. Germline gene therapy is not legal in many

places as the risks outweigh the rewards.

SOURCE:

https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/gene_therapy.htm

38. Which of the following Union Territory is the closest to the Indian Standard Meridian?

(a) Delhi

(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(c) Ladakh

(d) Puducherry

https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/gene_therapy.htm

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EXPLANATION:

39. The architectural design of the double dome and octagonal tomb appeared in India for the

first time during the period of

(a) Khalji dynasty

(b) Tughlaq dynasty

(c) Lodi dynasty

(d) Mughal dynasty

EXPLANATION:

Under the Lodi dynasty there was a large proliferation of tomb building, with octagonal

plans reserved for royalty and square plans used for others of high rank, and the first

double dome was introduced to India in this period. So, Option (c) is correct.

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• While numerous square-plan mausoleums were built in Delhi, the new form of octagonal

plan with a surrounding colonnade was developed from the last stage of the Sayyid through

the Lodi rule.

• This is the best represented by Muhammad Shah’s Tomb (1443) and Sikandar Lodi’s Tomb

(1517/8) in Lodi Gardens. The tomb of Sikandar Lodi was the first example with a double

dome, lifting its height in order to get a more attractive outward appearance.

Double Dome

• A double dome is built of two layers. There is one layer inside which provides ceiling to the

interior of the building. The other layer is the outer one which crowns the buildings.

• The devices of double dome enable the ceiling inside to be placed lower and In better relation

to the Interior space it covers.

• This is done without disturbing the proportions and the effect of elevation of the exterior.

• The method of making double dome was practisedIn east Asia for quite sometime before it

was imported into India.

• It was a problem for the early Muslim builders to place a dome over an edifice effectively. If

they erected it high, it left a deep void of darkness in the ceiling of the building it cover-ed. In

case they kept it low. in proportion with the dimensions of the room. it diminished the

monumental effect of the structure.

• The solution was invented as double dome. In this innovation, the dome instead of consisting

of one thickness of masonry was composed of two separate shells–one Outer and the other

inner-with ample space between them.

• The attempts in the direction of Double Dome started with tomb of Taj Khan (1501 ) and the

tomb of Sikandar Lodi (1518), both in Delhi. However, the fully mature form of the double

dome is seen, for the first time in India in the tomb of Humayun.

40. With reference to the Biomes, consider the following statements:

1. Only terrestrial part of the biosphere is called a biome.

2. Vegetation consisting of Pine, spruce and Firs are features of Tundra biome.

3. Epiphytic plants are associated with Tropical Rain Forest.

4. Temperate Deciduous Forest consists of tallest trees in the world and hence is famous

for lumbering and logging.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

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(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

Not just terrestrial biome, but aquatic biome is also present. So, Statement 1 is not

correct.

Devoid of trees except stunted shrubs in the southernpart of tundra biome, ground flora

includes lichen, mosses and sedges.

The dominating vegetation in coniferous evergreen mostly spruce, with some pine and firs.


Epiphytic plants are associated with Tropical rain forest. Epiphytes - plant growing on the

host plant but notnourished by the host plant. They do not draw foodfrom the host plant.

They only take the help of the hostplant in getting access to light. Their roots performtwo

functions. While changing roots establish theplant on the branches of the host plant, aerial

rootsdraw moisture from the air. Eg. Vanda. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Equatorial forest generally has tallest tress. Temperate deciduous forest is generally the most

productive agricultural areas of the earth. Coniferous forests are famous for lumbering and

logging. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

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SOURCE:


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41. Consider the following statements about the Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRIs):

1. Even for Union Territories, the Constitution of India has described the structure and

function of PRI.

2. According to the Indian Constitution, states with a population more than 10 crores

shall use 4-tier PRI.

3. PRI in the Indian Constitution does not extend to Tribal areas.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the Above

EXPLANATION:

The president of India may direct that the provisions of 73rd amendment act of 1992 shall

apply to any union territory subject to such exceptions and modifications as he may specify.


73rd amendment act of 1992 provides for a three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state,

that is, panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. There is no provision for 4

tier PRI. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The act does not apply to the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Meghalaya and

Mizoram and certain other areas. These areas include, (a) the scheduled areas and the tribal

areas in the states; (b) the hill area of Manipur for which a district council exists; and (c)

Darjeeling district of West Bengal for which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists.

However, the Parliament may extend the provisions of this Part to the scheduled areas and

tribal areas subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. So, Statement 3

is correct.

SOURCE:


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42. With reference to the emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, which of

the following statements is not correct about the suspension of Habeas Corpus in India?

(a) The privilege of the writ of Habeas corpus shall not be suspended, unless when in cases of

rebellion or invasion the public safety may require it

(b) The suspension of this writ was provided in the Constitution of India

(c) Suspension of this writ means the suspension of any other proceeding to enforce the

right to personal liberty conferred by Article 21 of the Indian Constitution

(d) This means the custodian of the right to life and liberty, had handed over its duty to the

Central government

EXPLANATION:

The suspension of this writ was provided in the constitution. The writ, on the other hand, is not

issued where the

(a) detention is lawful,

(b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court,

(c) detention is by a competent court, and

(d) detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court. So, Option (b) is correct.

Suspension of this writ does not involve the suspension of any other proceeding to enforce the

right to personal liberty conferred by Article 21. So, Option (c) is not correct.


Habeas Corpus

It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a

person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then

examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the detention is

found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.

The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private

individuals. The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the (a) detention is lawful, (b) the

proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d)

detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.

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Mandamus

It literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him

to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against

any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.

The writ of mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a private individual or body; (b) to enforce

departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary

and not mandatory; (d) to enforce a contractual obligation; (e) against the president of India or the

state governors; and (f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.

Prohibition

Literally, it means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the

latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike

mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity.

The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasijudicial authorities. It is not

available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.

Certiorari

In the literal sense, it means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is issued by a higher court to a

lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the

order of the latter in a case. It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of

jurisdiction or error of law. Thus, unlike prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both

preventive as well as curative.

Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities

and not against administrative authories.

However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against

administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is also not

available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.

Quo-Warranto

In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into

the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office

by a person.

The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created

by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private

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office.Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by

the aggrieved person.

SOURCE:


43. Consider the following statements about the “Harmonized System” code:

1. It is similar to Geographical Indicators that gets used for trading.

2. Codes were given both for natural and for the manufactured goods.

3. It follows the universal economic language which uses 6 digits for all the global

countries.


(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The Harmonized System is an international nomenclature for the classification of products.

It allows participating countries to classify traded goods on a common basis for customs

purposes.So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Codes were given both for natural and for the manufactured goods.So, Statement 2 is

correct.

The Harmonised System, or simply ‘HS’, is a six-digit identification code. Of the six digits,

the first two denote the HS Chapter, the next two give the HS heading, and the last two give

the HS subheading. Hence, it is called the “universal economic language” for goods.So,



• The Harmonized System, or simply ‘HS’, is a six-digit identification code developed by the

World Customs Organization (WCO).

• Called the “universal economic language” for goods, it is a multipurpose international

product nomenclature.

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• Over 200 countries use the system as a basis for their customs tariffs, gathering

international trade statistics, making trade policies, and for monitoring goods.

• The system helps in harmonizing of customs and trade procedures, thus reducing costs in

international trade.

• A unique six-digit code has numbers arranged in a legal and logical structure, with well-

defined rules to achieve uniform classification.

• Of the six digits, the first two denote the HS Chapter, the next two give the HS heading, and

the last two give the HS subheading.

• The HS code for pineapple, for example, is 0804.30, which means it belongs to Chapter 08

(Edible fruit & nuts, peel of citrus/melons), Heading 04 (Dates, figs, pineapples, avocados,

etc. fresh or dried), and Subheading 30 (Pineapples).

SOURCE:

https://unstats.un.org/unsd/tradekb/Knowledgebase/50018/Harmonized-Commodity-Description-

and-Coding-Systems-HS

44. Which among the following natural regions in India can be termed as geothermal provinces

with a potential to produce geothermal energy?

1. Damodar Valley

2. Naga-Lushai Province

3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

4. Cambay basin


(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

Orogenic regions:

• Himalayan geothermal province

• Naga-Lushai geothermal province(2)

• Andaman-Nicobar Islands geothermal province(3)

Non-orogenic regions:

• Cambay graben,(4)

• Son-Narmada-Tapigraben,

https://unstats.un.org/unsd/tradekb/Knowledgebase/50018/Harmonized-Commodity-Description-and-Coding-Systems-HS

https://unstats.un.org/unsd/tradekb/Knowledgebase/50018/Harmonized-Commodity-Description-and-Coding-Systems-HS

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• West coast,

• Damodar valley,(1)

• Mahanadi valley,

• Godavari valley etc

Potential Sites:

• Puga Valley (J&K)

• Tattapani (Chhattisgarh)

• Godavari Basin Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh)

• Bakreshwar (West Bengal)

• Tuwa (Gujarat)

• Unai (Maharashtra)

• Jalgaon (Maharashtra)



GEOTHERMAL ENERGY

Geothermal generation refers to harnessing of the geothermalenergy or the vast reservoir of heat

stored in theearth’s inner core. Below the earth’s crust, there is a layerof hot and molten rock called

‘magma’. Heat is continuallyproduced there, mostly from the decay of naturally radioactivematerials

such as uranium and potassium.

How is it captured

Geothermal systems can be found in regions with a normalor slightly above normal geothermal

gradient (gradualchange in temperature is known as the geothermal gradient,which expresses the

increase in temperature withdepth in the earth’s crust. The average geothermal gradientis about 2.5-

3 °C/100 m.) and especially in regions aroundplate margins where the geothermal gradients may be

significantlyhigher than the average value.The most common current way of capturing the

energyfrom geothermal sources is to tap into naturally occurring“hydrothermal convection” systems

where cooler waterseeps into the earth’s crust, is heated up and then rises tothe surface. When

heated water is forced to the surface, itis a relatively easy to capture that steam and use it to

driveelectric generators.

Potential in India

India has a potential for producing around 10,600 MW ofpower from geothermal resources. Although

India wasamongthe earliest countries to begin geothermal projectssince the 1970’s, at present there

are no operational geothermalplants in India. 340 hot springs were identifiedacross India.These have

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been grouped together and termedas different geothermal provinces based on their occurrencein

specific geotectonic regions, geological and structuralregions such as occurrence in orogenic belt

regions,structural grabens, deep fault zones, active volcanic regionsetc.

Challenges

High generation costs

Most costs relating to geothermal power plants are incurreddue to resource exploration and plant

construction.

Drilling costs

Although the cost of generating geothermal electricity hasdecreased by 25 percent during the last

two decades, explorationand drilling remain expensive and risky. It isbecause rocks in geothermal

areas are extremely hard andhot, developers must frequently replace drilling equipment.

Transmission barrier

Geothermal power plants must be located near specificareas near a reservoir because it is not

practical to transportsteam or hot water over distances greater than twomiles. Since many of the

best geothermal resources arelocated in rural areas, developers may be limited by theirability to

supply electricity to the grid. New power lines areexpensive to construct and difficult to site. Many

existingtransmission lines are operating near capacity and maynot be able to transmit electricity

without significant upgrades.Consequently, any significant increase in the numberof geothermal

power plants will be limited by theplants ability to connect, upgrade or build new lines toaccess the

power grid and whether the grid is able to deliveradditional power to the market.

Accessibility

Some areas may have sufficient hot rocks to supply hotwater to a power station, but many of these

areas are locatedin harsh areas or high up in mountains. This curbsthe accessibility of geothermal

resources adding on to thecosts of development.

Execution challenges

Harmful radioactive gases can escape from deep withinthe earth through the holes drilled by the

constructors.The plant must be able to contain any leaked gases andensure safe disposal of the

same.

SOURCE:


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45. With reference to the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the

following statements:

1. Except for Nidhi Companies and Chit funds, all other NBFCs are regulated by Reserve

Bank of India.

2. NBFCs do not form the part of the Payment and Settlement System.

3. Only the Reserve Bank of India regulated NBFCs’ deposits are insured by the Deposit

Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Venture Capital Fund/Merchant Banking companies/Stock broking companies registered with

SEBI, Insurance Company holding a valid Certificate of Registration issued by IRDA, Nidhi

companies as notified under Section 620A of the Companies Act, 1956, Chit companies as

defined in the Chit Funds Act, 1982,Housing Finance Companies regulated by National Housing

Bank, Stock Exchange or a Mutual Benefit company are not regulated by RBI. So, Statement 1

is not correct.

NBFCs lend and make investments and hence their activities are akin to that of banks; however

there are a few differences as given below:

• NBFC cannot accept demand deposits;

• NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue

cheques drawn on itself; (So, Statement 2 is correct.)

• deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not

available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks.(So, Statement 3 is not

correct.)


• NBFCs or Non Banking Financial Companies are those companies which provide banking

services without meeting the legal definition of a bank.

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• A NBFC is incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 and desirous of commencing

business of non-banking financial institution as defined under Section 45 I(a) of the RBI Act,

1934.

• The NBFCs do the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares, stock, bonds,

debentures, securities issued by Government.

• They also deal in other securities of like marketable nature, leasing, hire-purchase,

insurance business, chit business.

• However, the companies cannot be NBFCs if their primary business is related to agriculture

activity, industrial activity, sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.

• Usually, the 50-50 test is used as an anchor to register an NBFC with RBI. 50-50 Test means

that the companies at least 50% assets are financial assets and its income from financial

assets is more than 50% of the gross income.

• Non-Banking Financial Companies are regulated by different regulators in India such as RBI,

Irda, SEBI, National Housing Bank and Department of Company Affairs.

• RBI regulates the companies which deal in lending, accepting deposits, financial leasing, hire

purchase and acquisition of shares / stocks etc.

• The companies that take up activities like stock broking, merchant banking etc. are regulated

by SEBI while the Nidhi and Chitfund companies are regulated by Department of Company

Affairs. Housing finance companies are regulated by National Housing Bank.

SOURCE:

https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=92

46. Arrange the following cities in the decreasing order based on the amount of the rainfall

they receive throughout the year:

1. Manila

2. Madrid

3. Tokyo

4. Male


(a) 4-1-2-3

(b) 3-1-2-4

(c) 4-1-3-2

(d) 3-2-1-4

https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=92

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EXPLANATION:

The average rainfall in Male is 1949.3mm. (4)

The average rainfall in Manila is 2061 mm. (1)

The average rainfall in Tokyo is 1530 mm. (3)

The average rainfall in Madrid is less than 436 mm. (2)


47. “Dung beetles in cow dung” is an example of which one of the following Biotic

interactions?

(a) Mutualism

(b) Commensalism

(c) Competition

(d) Amensalism

EXPLANATION:

Commensalism: one species benefits and the other is unaffected.Example: cow dung

provides food and shelter to dungbeetles. The beetles have no effect on the cows. So, Option

(b) is correct.


BIOTIC INTERACTION

• Organisms living in this earth are interlinked to each other in one way or other. The

interaction between the organisms is fundamental for its survival and functioningof

ecosystem as a whole.

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Types of biotic interaction

Mutualism: both species benefit.

• Example: in pollination mutualisms, the pollinator gets food (pollen, nectar), and the plant

has its pollen transferredto other flowers for cross-fertilization (reproduction).

Commensalism: one species benefits, the other is unaffected.

• Example: cow dung provides food and shelter to dungbeetles. The beetles have no effect on

the cows.

Competition: both species are harmed by the interaction.

• Example: if two species eat the same food, and there isn’t enough for both, both may have

access to less food than they would if alone. They both suffer a shortageof food

Predation and parasitism: one species benefits, theother is harmed.

• Example: predation—one fish kills and eats parasitism: tick gains benefit by sucking blood;

host is harmed bylosing blood.

Amensalism: One species is harmed, the other is unaffected.

• Example: A large tree shades a small plant, retarding the growth of the small plant. The

small plant has noeffect on the large tree.

Neutralism: There is no net benefit or harm to eitherspecies.

• Perhaps in some interspecific interactions, the costs and benefits experienced by each

partner are exactly the same so that they sum to zero. It is not clear how often this happens

in nature. Neutralism is also sometimes described as the relationship between two species

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inhabiting the same space and using the same resources, but that have no effect on each

other. In this case, one could argue that they aren’t interactingat all.

SOURCE:



Traditional/Folk Art Practicing State

1. Bhaona - Kerala

2. Yaksha Gana - Karnataka

3. Lavani - Maharashtra

4. Chholiya - Uttarakhand

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

Bhaonais a traditional form of entertainment, with religious messages, prevalent is

Assam. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka.It is a temple art form that depicts

mythological stories and Puranas.So, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Lavani is a popular folk form of Maharashtra. Traditionally, the songs are sung by female

artists, but male artists may occasionally sing Lavanis. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Chholiya is a dance form practised in the Kumaun region of Uttarakhand. So, pair 4 is

correctly matched.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/assamese-bhaona-to-make-an-english-debut-in-abu-

dhabi/article29826079.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/assamese-bhaona-to-make-an-english-debut-in-abu-dhabi/article29826079.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/assamese-bhaona-to-make-an-english-debut-in-abu-dhabi/article29826079.ece

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49. With reference to Economic Survey 2019-2020, consider the following statements:

1. In India, the share of agriculture and allied sectors in the total GVA has been

continuously declining for the past 5 years.

2. Currently, Industrial Sector accounted for nearly two-thirds of total FDI inflows into

India.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

The share of agriculture and allied sectors in the total Gross Value Added (GVA) of the

country has been continuously declining on account of relatively higher growth

performance of non-agricultural sectors, a natural outcome of development process. So,


As per the Survey, India’s services sector has grown in its significance and accounted for

about 55% of the economy and Gross Value Added (GVA) growth, two-thirds of total

foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows into India and about 38% of the total exports. So,


SOURCE:


https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/focus-on-service-exports-in-

bilateral-trade-talks-to-curb-deficits-eco-survey/articleshow/73798620.cms?from=mdr

50. India is moving towards from Bharat Stage IV (BS-IV) to Bharat Stage VI (BS-VI) fuel in the

automobile sector. In this context, consider the following statements about the “BS-VI

fuel” and “BS-IV fuel”:

1. BS-VI fuel has a sulphur content of 10 parts per million against 50 parts per million in

BS-IV fuel.

2. BS-VI grade petrol and BS-IV grade petrol have very similar chemical composition but

the chemical composition significantly differs in the case of Diesel.


https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/focus-on-service-exports-in-bilateral-trade-talks-to-curb-deficits-eco-survey/articleshow/73798620.cms?from=mdr

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/focus-on-service-exports-in-bilateral-trade-talks-to-curb-deficits-eco-survey/articleshow/73798620.cms?from=mdr

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3. BS-VI fuel can be used in passenger and heavy commercial vehicles while BS-IV fuel is

compatible only for passenger vehicles.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The major difference between the existing BS-IV and forthcoming BS-VI norms is the presence of

sulphur in the fuel. While the BS-IV fuels contain 50 parts per million (ppm) sulphur, the BS-VI

grade fuel only has 10 ppm sulphur content. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Chemical composition in case of Petrol and Diesel differs for both BS-IV and BS-VI. So, Statement

2 is not correct.

Both BS-IV and BS-VI can be used in passenger and commercial vehicles. So, Statement 3 is not

correct.


Bharat Stage Emission Standards

▪ The Bharat Stage (BS) are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to

regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles.

▪ The Environment Ministry is responsible for deciding the fuel standard in the country. The

Central Pollution Control Board implements these standards.

▪ The BS regulations are based on the European emission standards.

▪ Companies can come up with new vehicles with BS VI fuel standards even before the April

2020 deadline. But after the deadline, vehicles that do not comply with BS VI standards will

not be registered.

▪ With the implementation of new norms, pollution levels are expected to come down

significantly as the particulate matter (PM) will decrease. About one-third of the air pollution

is caused by cars and motor vehicles.

Advantages of BS-VI fuel Over BS-IV Fuel

▪ In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from 20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre

whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120 micrograms per cubic metre.

▪ BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels. It has

10 ppm of sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.

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▪ Sulphur in the fuel contributes to fine particulate matter emissions. High sulphur content in

the fuel also leads to corrosion and wear of the automobile engine.

▪ With BS-VI fuel, for every one kilometre, a car will emit 80% less particulate matter and

nearly 70% less nitrogen oxide.

▪ Air pollutants in BS-VI fuel are much less as compared to BS-IV fuel.

▪ BS-VI norms also seek to reduce the level of certain harmful hydrocarbons in the emissions

that are produced due to incomplete combustion of fuel.

Shift from BS-IV to BS-VI Norms

▪ The shift from BS-IV to BS-VI compliant vehicles, in less than a year’s time poses a challenge

for India’s automotive sector

▪ This will be the first time that the auto industry will follow a sales bound rather than the

production-bound deadline.

▪ In all previous instances, manufacturers were allowed to exhaust their stock of older

generation inventory after the onset of new emission standards.

▪ The refineries have also been undergoing major upgradation to produce BS VI fuel.

▪ Car makers will have to start producing BS VI fuel compliant engines as quickly as possible

to avail benefits of the cleaner fuel.

▪ The shift makes on-board diagnostics (OBD) mandatory for all automobiles.

▪ The OBD unit will be able to identify likely areas of malfunction by means of fault codes

stored on a computer ensuring that sophisticated emission control device which is fitted in a

BS-VI vehicle runs at optimum efficiency throughout the life of the vehicle.

▪ Apart from engine calibration, there will be various after treatment additions such as

selective catalytic reduction and diesel particulate filters to meet carbon monoxide,

hydrocarbons, nitrous oxide and particulate matter limit of BS VI norms.

▪ Migration to BS VI norms necessitates the use of oxygen sensors, a complex coding of the

electronic control unit and ignition control.

▪ The cost of producing BS VI grade fuels will be higher compared to BS IV fuels.

▪ The two-wheelers predominantly used carbureted engines (air and fuel for internal

combustion are mixed in the proper air–fuel ratio) and they have to now move to fuel

injection engine systems (an injector is used to introduce the fuel for internal combustion).

▪ So, the after sales and service network and manpower will need to be upgraded for the skills

and troubleshooting of this new technology.

▪ Diesel hydro-treating units that will ensure the reduction of sulphur concentration to

stipulated limits are being created or their capacity is being augmented.

▪ For meeting gasoline fuel quality, desulphurisation technologies along with octane boosting

units are being installed.

Impact of the Shift

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▪ Making automobiles BS VI compatible will increase the cost of production for the

manufacturing companies which in turn will make the vehicles costlier for the buyers.

▪ This includes making changes to their production line to turn out BS VI fuel friendly engines

that will become mandatory by the year 2020.

▪ Some companies may even have to import engines and other parts but in the end it will be

the car buyer’s burden because vehicles with BS VI engines will cost more than the BS IV

vehicle.

▪ Diesel vehicles and economy segment motor cycles will also see a sharp increase in their

prices.

▪ Using a pre BS IV car using BS VI fuel can be detrimental to the engine life. There may be

trouble with injection pumps, oil seals and injectors leading to higher wear and tear,

consequently higher emissions.

▪ It is said that by 2020, all vehicles that will be seen on Indian roads would have BS VI

engines, however, the government has not announced any new rule for old vehicles a scrap

policy for outdated automobiles.

Advantages of the Shift

▪ By reducing toxic substances in the air, BS-VI will help reduce air pollution.

▪ BS-VI will reduce NOx drastically, thus improving air quality.

▪ NOx is the primary cause of a lot of health issues, especially respiratory issues.

▪ The lower sulphur in BS VI will help reduce harmful exhaust emissions like NO2, CO, SO2.

▪ Vehicles that have emission control systems will perform even better with BS-VI.

▪ For old vehicles, BS-VI standards open up an option of retrofitting.

▪ Oil companies are making significant changes in their oil refining technique. The new

standard requires that the use of sulphur in diesel should come down to 10 PPM, whereas

according to the BS -II, it was up to 500 PPM. This change will affect the density of diesel oil.

The usual density of BS IV fuel diesel ranges from 820 to 845 kg/ cubic metre but now it has

to be increased to 860 kg/ cubic metre.

▪ The change in density will help improve the quality of oil as well as help reduce air pollution.

▪ The Auto Fuel Vision Policy, 2025 in June 2014 had recommended a 75 paise cess to recoup

additional investments projected for producing cleaner fuels.

SOURCE:

https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/get-ready-to-pay-more-for-bs-vi-fuel-

11582892655560.html

https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/get-ready-to-pay-more-for-bs-vi-fuel-11582892655560.html

https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/get-ready-to-pay-more-for-bs-vi-fuel-11582892655560.html

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51. Which of the following biome has the lowest Albedo?

(a) Tundra

(b) Desert

(c) Rainforest

(d) Grassland

EXPLANATION:

Highest albedo biome is Tundra.

Lowest albedo biome is Rainforest (Equatorial forest).So, Option (c) is correct.

52. Consider the following statements about the “Genome India Project”:

1. It is a gene-mapping project involving 20 leading institutions.

2. This project is implemented by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Genome India Projectis a gene-mapping project involving 20 leading institutions including the

Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in Bengaluru and a few Indian Institute of Technology (IITs).


The project is implemented by the Department of Biotechnology under the Ministry of Science

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and Technology. So, Statement 2 is not correct.


• The Department of Biotechnology under the Ministry of Science and Technology has cleared

the Genome India Project.

• It is a gene-mapping project involving 20 leading institutions including the Indian Institute of

Science (IISc) in Bengaluru and a few Indian Institute of Technology (IITs).

• The project is said to be among the most significant of its kind in the world because of its

scale and the diversity it would bring to genetic studies.

• The first stage of the project will look at samples of 10,000 persons from all over the country

to form a grid that will enable the development of a reference genome.

• The Centre for Brain Research, which is an autonomous institute in the IISc, Bengaluru, will

serve as the nodal point of the project.

Significance:

• The diverse genetic pool of India will be mapped and it will help in making personalised

medicine. Today, the goal of personalized medicine is to utilize information about a person's

genes, including his or her nucleotide sequence, to make drugs better and safer.

• It will be a hard task considering the population diversity and the disease burden of complex

disorders like diabetes, mental health, etc but once the genetic basis is ready it will be

possible and easy to take action before the onset of a disease.

• Mapping of India’s genetic landscape is critical for next-generation medicine, agriculture and

for biodiversity management.

SOURCE:

https://m.economictimes.com/news/science/india-to-launch-its-1st-human-genome-cataloguing-

project/articleshow/70323116.cms

53. Consider the following statements about the National Innovation Foundation (NIF) of

India:

1. It is an autonomous body of the NITI Aayog.

2. It is the national initiative to strengthen grassroots technological innovations and

outstanding traditional knowledge.


https://m.economictimes.com/news/science/india-to-launch-its-1st-human-genome-cataloguing-project/articleshow/70323116.cms

https://m.economictimes.com/news/science/india-to-launch-its-1st-human-genome-cataloguing-project/articleshow/70323116.cms

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(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:-

It is an autonomous body of department of science and technology. So, Statement 1 is not

correct.

The National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India, is India's national initiative to strengthen the

grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. Its mission is to

help India become a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding policy and

institutional space for grassroots technological innovators. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:-

The National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India, is India's national initiative to strengthen the

grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. Its mission is to help

India become a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding policy and institutional space for

grassroots technological innovators. It was set up with the support of Honey Bee Network.

NIF scouts, supports and spawns' grassroots innovations developed by individuals and local

communities in any technological field, helping in human survival without any help from formal

sector. It also tries to ensure that such innovations diffuse widely through commercial and/or non-

commercial channels, generating material or non-material incentives for them and others involved in

the value chain.

NIF has pooled a database of over 310,000 technological ideas, innovations and traditional

knowledge practices (not all unique, not all distinct) from over 608 districts of the country. NIF has

till date recognised 992 grassroots innovators and school students at the national level in its various

National Biennial Grassroots Innovation Award Functions and annual Dr A P J Abdul Kalam Ignite

Children Award functions. In collaboration with various research & development (R&D) and

academic institutions, agricultural & veterinary universities and others institutions, NIF has helped

in getting several hundred grassroots technologies validated and/or value added.

NIF has also set up an augmented Fabrication Laboratory (Fab Lab) for product development and

strengthening in-house research. Pro bono arrangement with intellectual property firms has helped

NIF file over 1200 patents, including eight filed in the USA and 28 Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT)

applications, on behalf of the innovators and outstanding traditional knowledge holders. Of these,

143 patents have been granted in India and 5 in the USA. In the same time period NIF has filed 21

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Design registrations for innovations of the grassroots and student innovators.In addition to this 10

trade mark applications have also been filed.

The INSPIRE Award - MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspiration and Knowledge) is

being revamped and executed by Department of Science & Technology and National Innovation

Foundation-India to align it with the action plan for "Start-up India" initiative launched by the

Hon'ble Prime Minister of India. The scheme aims to help build a critical human resource pool for

strengthening, expand science and technology system and increase the research & development base

on the same by inviting students from all government and private schools throughout the country

and enabling them to send their original & creative technological ideas/innovations on the same

SOURCE:-

http://nif.org.in/

54. Consider the following statements about the National Integration Council in India:

1. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

2. It aims to address the problems of Communalism, Regionalism and Casteism.

3. It is an executive body and an advisory body to the Government of India.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

National Integration Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. So, Statement 1 is

correct.

The council was directed to examine the problem of national integration in all its aspects and

make necessary recommendations to deal with it. The problems of Communalism, Casteism

and regionalism are considered as the problem of national integration. So, Statement 2 is

correct.

It consisted of the prime minister as chairman, central home minister, chief ministers of

states, seven leaders of political parties, the chairman of the UGC, two educationists, the

Commissioner for SCs and STs and seven other persons nominated by the prime minister.

http://nif.org.in/

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The council can make various recommendations for national integration. However, the

recommendations are advisory in nature and not binding on the government. So, Statement

3 is correct.


National Integration Council

• It is an extra-constitutional body.

• Chaired by: Prime Minister of India.

• Composition: Council members include Cabinet ministers, Chief Ministers of states, political

leaders, Chairman of the University Grants Commission, Commissioner for Scheduled Castes

and Scheduled Tribes, representatives of industry, business and trade unions.

• Background: The NIC was constituted to combat the evils of communalism, casteism,

regionalism, and linguism as a follow up of National Integration Conference held under the

chairmanship of the then Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru in 1961.

• The main task of the council is to examine the problem of national integration in all its

aspects and make necessary recommendations to deal with it.

• Meetings: Sixteen meetings of NIC have been held till 2019.

o First meeting of NIC took place in 1962.

o The last meeting of the NIC took place in September 2013 which passed resolution on

maintaining communal harmony and ending discrimination by condemning atrocities

on Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

SOURCE:


55. Consider the following statements about the Viruses:

1. Viruses are non-cellular, microscopic infectious agents that can only replicate inside a

host cell.

2. Viruses can invade and reproduce within the living cells of bacteria.

3. Viruses can be crystallized like a non-living organism.


(a) 1 only

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(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Viruses are non-cellular, microscopic infectious agents that can only replicate inside a host

cell. Therefore cannot reproduce on their own. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Viruses can invade and reproduce within the living cells of bacteria. It is known as a

bacteriophage. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Viruses can be crystallized like a non-living organism. Even in their crystalline form, they

retain their infectivity. This showed the non living nature of the virus. So, Statement 3 is

correct.


• A virus is a microscopic particle that can infect the cells of a biological organism.

• Viruses can only replicate themselves by infecting a host cell and therefore cannot reproduce

on their own.

• At the most basic level, viruses consist of genetic material contained within a protective

protein coat called a capsid; the existence of both genetic material and protein distinguishes

them from other virus-like particles such as prions and viroids.

• They infect a wide variety of organisms: both eukaryotes (animals, fungi and plants) and

prokaryotes (bacteria).

• A virus that infects bacteria is known as a bacteriophage, often shortened to phage.

• The study of viruses is known as virology, and those who study viruses are known as

virologists.

• It has been argued extensively whether viruses are living organisms.

• Most virologists consider them non-living, as they do not meet all the criteria of the generally

accepted definition of life.

• They are similar to obligate intracellular parasites as they lack the means for self-

reproduction outside a host cell, but unlike parasites, viruses are generally not considered to

be true living organisms.

• A primary reason is that viruses do not possess a cell membrane or metabolise on their own -

characteristics of all living organisms.

• Examples of common human diseases caused by viruses include the common cold, the flu,

chickenpox and cold sores.

• Serious diseases such as Ebola, AIDS, bird flu and SARS are all also caused by viruses.

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SOURCE:

https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/virus.htm

56. Which of the following is/are the benefits of “crop rotation”?

1. Improvement in the pest control

2. An assured rise in farmers’ income

3. Increase in the soil fertility


(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Advantages of Crop Rotation

• Increases soil fertility(statement 3)

• Increases crop yield

• Increase in soil nutrients

• Reduces soil erosion

• Limits concentration of pests and diseases(statement 1)

• Reduces the stress of weeds

• Improves the soil structure

• Reduces pollution

So, option (c) is correct.


Crop Rotation

• Growing of different crops on a piece of land is a preplannedsuccession. The principle of crop

rotation is toutilise the available resources to the fullest extent inorder to harvest the

maximum in a unit land withoutaffecting the soil health.

• Ex- Rice-Red Gram -Banana

Principles of crop rotation

https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/virus.htm

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• Leguminous crops should be grown before non-leguminouscrops because legumes fix

atmospheric N into thesoil and add organic matter to the soil.

• Crops with tap roots (deep rooted like cotton) shouldbe followed by those which have fibrous

(shallowrooted crops like sorghum or maize) root system. Thisfacilitates proper and uniform

use of nutrients fromthe soil.

• More exhaustive crops should be followed by less exhaustivecrops because crops like potato,

sugarcane,maize etc. need more inputs such as better tillage, morefertilizers, greater number

of irrigation etc.

• Selection of crop should be based on need or demand

• Crops of same family should not be grown in successionbecause they act as alternate hosts

for insect pests anddiseases

• The selection of crops should suit farmers financial conditions

• The crop selected should also suit to the soil and climaticcondition

SOURCE:


57. Consider the following statements about the 104th Amendment to the Indian Constitution:

1. This Amendment bill has been given assent by the President of India after the

ratification of half of Indian States.

2. This Amendment seeks to extend the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled

Tribes, in Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of states, by another 10 years.

3. This Amendment seeks to extend the reservation for the representation of the Anglo-

Indian community by nomination, in Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of states,

by another 10 years.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:-

104th Amendment has been given assent by the President after the half States’ ratification

because this amendments makes changes in state legislative assembly. So, Statement 1 is

correct.

This Amendment seeks to extend the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in

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Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of statesby another 10 years. So, Statement 2 is

correct.

This Amendment removes the reservation for the representation of the Anglo-Indian community

by nomination, in Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of states. So, Statement 3 is not

correct.


Parliament passed the Constitution (126th Amendment) Bill, extending reservation for SC/STs but

doing away with the provision for nomination of Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha and some state

Assemblies.

Who are Anglo-Indians?

• Origin - The Anglo-Indian community in India traces its origins to an official policy of the

British East India Company to encourage marriages of its officers with local women.

• The term Anglo-Indian first appeared in the Govt. of India Act, 1935.

• Article 366(2) - According to this article of the Indian Constitution, an Anglo-Indian means a

person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of

European descent.

• This person is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory

of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary purposes only.

What is the Anglo-Indian population?

• The number of people who identified themselves as Anglo-Indian was 296, according to the

2011 Census.

• The All India Anglo-Indian Association, on the other hand, has objected to Law Minister’s

claim that the community has just 296 members.

• Its president-in-chief, Barry O’Brien, has written to both the Prime Minister and the Law

Minister.

• He stated the following points to them,

o According to the 2011 census, there are only nine Anglo-Indians in West Bengal. But

this data didn’t even touch the actual population size there.

o Also it shows zero in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand yet those Assemblies right now

have sitting members from the community.

o The truth is nobody knows how many Anglo-Indians are there in the country.

• All we know is it’s not just a few thousand, neither or it in crores. It’s probably somewhere in

the lakhs.

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Under what provisions was reservation in legislature granted?

• Article 331 of the Constitution provides for nomination of two Anglo-Indians to the House of

the people by the President when in his opinion the community is not adequately represented

in the House.

• The idea of such nominations is traced to Frank Anthony, who headed the All India Anglo-

Indian Association.

• Article 331 was added in the Constitution following his suggestion to Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Article 333 of the Constitution provides for nomination of one Anglo-Indian to the Legislative

Assembly of the State by the President when in his opinion the community is not adequately

represented in the House.

• Currently 14 Assemblies have one Anglo-Indian member each: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,

Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, etc.

• The 126th Amendment does away with this as well.

• 10th Schedule of the Constitution - Anglo-Indian members of the House of the people and

State Assemblies can take the membership of any party within six months of their

nomination.

• But, once they do so, they are bound by their party whip.

• The Anglo-Indian members enjoy the same powers as others, but they cannot vote in the

Presidential election because they are nominated by the President

SOURCE:-

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/constitution-126th-amendment-bill-2019

https://www.financialexpress.com/india-news/explained-why-modi-govts-bill-to-extend-quota-for-

sc-sts-in-lok-sabha-assemblies-does-not-need-ratification-by-states/1790180/

58. Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the signing of the United Nations Convention on

International Settlement Agreements (UNISA). Consider the following statements about the

UNISA:

1. The signing of this Convention will boost the confidence of the investors and shall

provide a positive signal to foreign investors about India's commitment to adhere to

international practice on Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR).

2. To encourage international commercial arbitration in India, to evolve a comprehensive

ecosystem of arbitration, the Government of India is establishing the New Delhi

International Arbitration Centre (NDIAC) as a statutory body.


https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/constitution-126th-amendment-bill-2019

https://www.financialexpress.com/india-news/explained-why-modi-govts-bill-to-extend-quota-for-sc-sts-in-lok-sabha-assemblies-does-not-need-ratification-by-states/1790180/

https://www.financialexpress.com/india-news/explained-why-modi-govts-bill-to-extend-quota-for-sc-sts-in-lok-sabha-assemblies-does-not-need-ratification-by-states/1790180/

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(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Signing of the Convention will boost the confidence of the investors and shall provide a positive

signal to foreign investors about India's commitment to adhere to international practice on

Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). So, Statement 1 is correct.

In order to encourage international commercial arbitration in India, to evolve a comprehensive

ecosystem of arbitration the Government is establishing the New Delhi International

Arbitration Centre (NDIAC) as a statutory body. So, Statement 2 is correct.


Singapore Convention on Mediation

• The Singapore Convention on Mediation is a United Nations (UN) treaty named after the

country, will come into force on Sept 12 this year.

• It is also known as the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements

Resulting from Mediation.

• Qatar has ratified the international treaty, it is the third country to do so, following Singapore

and Fiji.

• According to the convention's provisions, the treaty comes into force when at least three

countries have ratified it.

• The convention makes it easier for commercial parties in a dispute to seek enforcement of

international mediated settlement agreements by applying directly to the courts of countries

that have ratified the treaty.

• Through mediation, parties in a cross-border dispute can attempt to negotiate a new deal,

facilitated by a neutral third-party mediator, to salvage a commercial relationship which

would otherwise disintegrate if the litigation or arbitration routes are taken.

• Presently, because a settlement agreement made in one country has no legal force in another,

a party seeking to enforce a mediated settlement agreement in another country or multiple

countries will have to commence legal proceedings in each country.

• This can potentially be costly and time-consuming, especially for international settlement

agreements.

• Under the convention, a party seeking enforcement of a mediated settlement agreement can

apply directly to the courts of countries that have signed and ratified the treaty.

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• This allows businesses to easily enforce such settlement agreements across borders.

• As of now 52 countries has signed the convention, including economic heavyweights the

United States and China.

• In recent years, Singapore plans to establish as an international dispute resolution center,

including setting up the Singapore International Arbitration Centre and the Singapore

International Commercial Court.

SOURCE:

iasparliament.com/current-affairs/upsc-daily-current-affairs-prelim-bits-06-04-2020

59. Which one of the following statements is correct about the Zonal Councils in India?

(a) It is a Constitutional Body created in 1956 under Article 261 of the Indian Constitution

(b) Currently, there are 4 Zonal Councils in the Country

(c) Decision taken by this Council is binding on all the parties

(d) All the Zonal Councils will be headed by a Union Minister nominated by the President

of India

EXPLANATION:

All the Zonal Councils will be headed by a Union Minister nominated by the President of India.

Curretly, President nominated Union Home Minister as the Chairman of each of these

Councils. So, Option (d) is correct.


ZONAL COUNCIL

The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit

Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-

organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped

into four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative working”

among these States. This suggestion was made by Pandit Nehru at a time when linguistic hostilities

and bitterness as a result of re-organisation of the States on linguistic pattern were threatening the

very fabric of our nation. As an antidote to this situation, it was suggested that a high level advisory

forum should be set up to minimise the impact of these hostilities and to create healthy inter-State

and Centre-State environment with a view to solving inter-State problems and fostering balanced

socio economic development of the respective zones.

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MEETINGS OF ZONAL COUNCILS

COMPOSITION OF ZONAL COUNCILS

In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States

Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:

• The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu &

Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of

Chandigarh;

• The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh

and Madhya Pradesh;

• The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West

Bengal;

• The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union

Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;

• The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil

Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram

(vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems

are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.

The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide North Eastern Council

(Amendment) Act, 2002 notified on 23rd December 2002. Consequently, action for exclusion of

Sikkim as member of Eastern Zonal Council has been initiated by Ministry of Home Affairs.

COMMITTIEES OF ZONAL COUNCILS

Each Zonal Council has set up a Standing Committee consisting of Chief Secretaries of the member

States of their respective Zonal Councils. These Standing Committees meet from time to time to

resolve the issues or to do necessary ground work for further meetings of the Zonal Councils. Senior

Officers of the Planning Commission and other Central Ministries are also associated with the

meetings depending upon necessity. :

ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE OF ZONAL COUNCILS

• Chairman - The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.

• Vice Chairman - The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of

the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.

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• Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the

States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.

• Advisers- One person nominated by the Planning Commission for each of the Zonal Councils,

Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the

States included in the Zone

Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon

necessity.

ROLE AND OBJECTIVES OF THE ZONAL COUNCILS

The Zonal Councils provide an excellent forum where irritants between Centre and States and

amongst States can be resolved through free and frank discussions and consultations. Being

advisory bodies, there is full scope for free and frank exchange of views in their meetings. Though

there are a large number of other fora like the National Development Council, Inter State Council,

Governor’s/Chief Minister’s Conferences and other periodical high level conferences held under the

auspices of the Union Government, the Zonal Councils are different, both in content and character.

They are regional fora of cooperative endeavour for States linked with each other economically,

politically and culturally. Being compact high level bodies, specially meant for looking after the

interests of respective zones, they are capable of focusing attention on specific issues taking into

account regional factors, while keeping the national perspective in view.

The main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils are as under :

• Bringing out national integration;

• Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic

tendencies;

• Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences;

• Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of

development projects.

FUNCTIONS OF THE COUNCILS

Each Zonal Council is an advisory body and may discuss any matter in which some or all of the

States represented in that Council, or the Union and one or more of the States represented in that

Council, have a common interest and advise the Central Government and the Government of each

State concerned as to the action to be taken on any such matter.

In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to:

• any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning;

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• any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-State transport;

• any matter connected with or arising out of, the re-organization of the States under the States

Reorganisation Act

SOURCE:

https://www.mha.gov.in/zonal-council

60. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Lok Adalat in India?

(a) It is a kind of Alternative Dispute Resolution Mechanism in India

(b) It has been given statutory status in India

(c) Nominal court fee is payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat

(d) Every award made by a Lok Adalat shall be final and binding on all the parties to the dispute

EXPLANATION:

Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms. So, Option (a) is correct.

The institution of Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services

Authorities Act, 1987. So, Option (b) is correct.

There is no court fee and if court fee is already paid the amount will be refunded if the

dispute is settled at Lok Adalat. So, Option (c) is not correct.

An award of a Lok Adalat shall be deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court or an order of any

other court. Every award made by a Lok Adalat shall be final and binding on all the parties

to the dispute. No appeal shall lie to any court against the award of the Lok Adalat. So,

Option (d) is correct.


Lok adalats

• Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which

are at pre-litigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an

amicable manner.

• the institution of Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services

Authorities Act, 1987.

https://www.mha.gov.in/zonal-council

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The Act makes the following provisions relating to the organization and functioning of the Lok

Adalats:

• The State Legal Services Authority or the District Legal Services Authority or the Supreme

Court Legal Services Committee or the High Court Legal Services Committee or the Taluk

Legal Services Committee may organize Lok Adalats at such intervals and places and for

exercising such jurisdiction and for such areas as it thinks fit.

• Every Lok Adalat organized for an area shall consist of such number of serving or retired

judicial officers and other persons of the area as may be specified by the agency organizing

such Lok Adalat. Generally, a Lok Adalat consists of a judicial officer as the chairman and a

lawyer (advocate) and a social worker as members.

• A Lok Adalat shall have jurisdiction to determine and to arrive at a compromise or settlement

between the parties to a dispute in respect of :

(i) any case pending before any court; or

(ii) any matter which is falling within the jurisdiction of any court and is not

brought before such court.

o Thus, the Lok Adalat can deal with not only the cases pending before a court but also

with the disputes at pre-litigation stage.

o Matters such as Matrimonial / Family Disputes, Criminal (Compoundable Offences)

cases, Land Acquisition cases, Labour disputes, Workmen’s compensation cases,

Bank Recovery cases, Pension cases, Housing Board and Slum Clearance cases,

Housing Finance cases, Consumer Grievance cases, Electricity matters, Disputes

relating to Telephone Bills, Municipal matters including House Tax cases, Disputes

with Cellular Companies etc. are being taken up in Lok Adalats

o But, the Lok Adalat shall have no jurisdiction in respect of any case or matter relating

to an offence not compoundable under any law. In other words, the offences which

are non-compoundable under any law fall outside the purview of the Lok Adalat.

• Any case pending before the court can be referred to the Lok Adalat for settlement if :

i. the parties thereof agree to settle the dispute in the Lok Adalat; or

ii. one of the parties thereof makes an application to the court, for referring the

case to the Lok Adalat; or

iii. the court is satisfied that the matter is an appropriate one to be taken

cognizance of by the Lok Adalat.

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o In the case of a pre-litigation dispute, the matter can be referred to the Lok Adalat for

settlement by the agency organizing the Lok Adalat, on receipt of an application from

any one of the parties to the dispute.

• The Lok Adalat shall have the same powers as are vested in a Civil Court under the Code of

Civil Procedure (1908), while trying a suit in respect of the following matters:

i. the summoning and enforcing the attendance of any witness examining him

on oath;

ii. the discovery and production of any document;

iii. the reception of evidence on affidavits;

iv. the requisitioning of any public record or document from any court or office;

and

v. such other matters as may be prescribed.

o Further, a Lok Adalat shall have the requisite powers to specify its own procedure for

the determination of any dispute coming before it. Also, all proceedings before a Lok

Adalat shall be deemed to be judicial proceedings within the meaning of the Indian

Penal Code (1860) and every Lok Adalat shall be deemed to be a Civil Court for the

purpose of the Code of Criminal Procedure (1973).

• An award of a Lok Adalat shall be deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court or an order of any

other court. Every award made by a Lok Adalat shall be final and binding on all the parties to

the dispute. No appeal shall lie to any court against the award of the Lok Adalat.

SOURCE:


61. With the global population is set to reach nearly ten billion by 2050, the food production

must increase by 70 per cent, estimates the United Nations. In this context, consider the

following statements about the “Vertical Farming”:

1. It is a practice of growing crops in vertically stacked layers in a controlled

environment.

2. This practice requires less water and increases the yield of the crops cultivated.

3. It facilitates the cultivation of crops even those that are not suitable to the local

climatic conditions.

4. In this farming, Plants can be grown indoors, with or without soil.

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(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

Vertical farming is the practice of growing crops in vertically stacked layers. It often

incorporates controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant growth, and

soilless farming techniques such as hydroponics, aquaponics, and aeroponics. So,


Vertical farming uses significantly less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural

methods. And it increases yield. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Being indoors, the crops aren't subject to seasons, it facilitates the cultivation of all crops

even those that are not suitable to the local climatic conditions. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Plants can be grown indoors, with or without soil. It uses soil-less methods such as

hydroponics, aquaponics and aeroponics. So, Statement 4 is correct.


• In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and

temperature.

• Crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. It aims at

higher productivity in smaller spaces. It uses soil-less methods such as hydroponics,

aquaponics and aeroponics.

• Vertical farming uses significantly less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural

methods. Being indoors, the crops aren't subject to seasons and hence give high productivity

year-round. Lettuces, tomatoes and green crops can be produced through this practice.

• Japan has been one of the early pioneers in vertical farming. It holds the largest share in the

global vertical farming market. In Japan, vertical farming is born out of necessity where

traditional farming is losing it's face due to ageing population and rural migration.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/vertical-farming-explained/article30522508.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/vertical-farming-explained/article30522508.ece

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62. With reference to “Central Zoo Authority” (CZA) in India, consider the following

statements:

1. The CZA was constituted as an executive body under the Union Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change to complement and strengthen the national

effort in conservation of the rich biodiversity of the country.

2. Every zoo in the country is required to obtain recognition from the CZA for their

operation.

3. CZA regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category, listed under Schedule I

and II of Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, among Zoos located in India.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The CZA was constituted as a statutory body under the M/o EF&CC by the Government to

complement and strengthen the national effort in conservation of the rich biodiversity of the

country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Every zoo in the country is required to obtain recognition from the Authority for its operation.


CZA also regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category listed under Schedule I and

II of WPA 1972 among zoos. So, Statement 3 is correct.


The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is the body of the government of India responsible for oversight

of zoos. It is an affiliate member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA).

The CZA was formed to bring Indian zoos up to international standards. Before the CZA was formed,

many zoos were poorly managed, with unsuitable animal enclosures and little or no breeding records

of animals, which caused inbreeding and hybridization (genetic pollution, as in one case where

an Asiatic lion were cross-bred with an African lion).

The Central Zoo Authority has been constituted under the section 38A of Wild Life (Protection) Act

1972,. The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary. The main

objective of the authority is to complement the national effort in conservation of wild life. Standards

and norms for housing, upkeep, health care and overall management of animals in zoos has been

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laid down under the Recognition of Zoo Rules, 1992. Every zoo in the country is required to obtain

recognition from the Authority for its operation. The Authority evaluates the zoos with reference to

the parameters prescribed under the Rules and grants recognition accordingly. Zoos which have no

potential to come up to the prescribed standards and norms may be refused recognition and asked

to close down.

SOURCE:-

http://cza.nic.in/page/en/introduction

63. “MOSAiC Expedition”, sometimes seen in the news recently, is an

(a) international research expedition to study the Arctic Climate

(b) international expedition to study the forest fire in Amazon

(c) international research to study the impact of the Ozone hole

(d) international expedition to study the responses of marine organisms to anthropogenic

Climate Change across Oceans

EXPLANATION:

The MOSAiC mission stands for Multidisciplinary drifting Observatory for the Study of Arctic

Climate is spearheaded by the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany. It is the largest ever Arctic

expedition in history. So, Option (a) is correct.


• The MOSAiC mission stands for Multidisciplinary drifting Observatory for the Study of Arctic

Climate is spearheaded by the Alfred Wegener Institute in Germany.

• It is the largest ever Arctic expedition in history.

• It will be the first to conduct a study of this scale at the North Pole for an entire year.

• Objectives - To parameterise the atmospheric, geophysical, oceanographic and all other

possible variables in the Arctic, and use it to more accurately forecast the changes in our

weather systems.

• It will help the researchers better understand the impact of climate change and aid in

improved weather projections.

• Hundreds of researchers from 19 countries take part in this exceptional endeavour.

• The 32-year-old polar researcher from Kerala will be the only Indian aboard the mission.

• First mission – In 1893-1896, Norwegian explorer Fridtj first managed to seal his wooden

expedition ship, Fram, into the North Pole.

SOURCE:

https://mosaic-expedition.org/

http://cza.nic.in/page/en/introduction

https://mosaic-expedition.org/

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64. What is the following is/are the objective(s) of having Reverse Charge Mechanism under

Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

1. To bring the unorganized sectors under the ambit of GST.

2. To increase the tax revenue of the Government.

3. To penalize the GST non-compliance.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The objective of Reverse Charge Mechanism is to widen the scope of levy of tax on

unorganized sectors and give exemption to specific class of supplier of goods/services and

import of services.

Therefore, under Reverse Charge Mechanism the liability to pay tax is fixed on the recipient

of supply of goods or services instead of the supplier or provider in respect of certain

categories of goods or services or both under Section 9(3) or Section 9(4) of the CGST Act,

2017 and under sub-section (3) or sub-section (4) of Section 5 of the IGST Act, 2017.So,

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.


Reverse Charge Mechanism

• In Normal Charge Mechanism, generally service tax is payable by the provider of Service.

• For eg:- When a service is provided by an Accountant to his client then in this case the

service provider i.e the Accountant is liable to pay Service tax

• The accountant collects the tax from the client and compensates. But nevertheless only the

accountant is liable to pay Service tax and comply with other general provisions of return

filing etc.

• Similarly the GST has to be typically paid by the supplier of goods and services.

• But in some cases, the liability to pay the tax falls on the buyer.

This reverse charge is applicable only under certain circumstances. Some are-

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• The most common instance is when a business buys goods or services from a supplier who is

not registered to pay GST.

o e.g Let’s assume that business A that buys goods worth Rs.100 from business B that

is not registered to pay GST.

o If the GST on the goods supplied is Rs.5, then business A, instead of business B, will

have to pay Rs.5 to the Government.

o Business A can, however, claim input tax credit of the GST payment of Rs.5, when it

sells the goods to its client.

• An importer is also liable to pay the GST under the reverse charge mechanism.

• Also government departments making payments to vendors above a specified limit (Rs.2.5

lakh under one contract) are required to deduct tax (TDS) and e-commerce operators are

required to collect tax (TCS) on the net value goods or services supplied through them.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/slate/all-you-wanted-to-know-about-

reverse-charge/article9730686.ece

65. The human journey to the outer atmospheric world and the underwater world at first

offers inexhaustible complexities. To bring those dreams from fiction to reality various

space agencies are carrying out the safety precautionary measures for their scientific

expeditions. Consider the following statements about the human safety measures taken by

the space agencies:

1. LESA is a pyramid structure used to rescue an injured astronaut.

2. NEEMO suit is used to support spacewalking activities.

3. PAD aborting safely ejects the humans on witnessing problems during launch.


(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The Lunar Evacuation System Assembly (LESA) is a pyramid-like structure that can be

operated by a single astronaut to help rescue an injured astronaut on the surface of the

moon. The device is meant to save incapacitated astronauts by lifting them onto a mobile

stretcher. So, Statement 1 is correct.

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/slate/all-you-wanted-to-know-about-reverse-charge/article9730686.ece

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/slate/all-you-wanted-to-know-about-reverse-charge/article9730686.ece

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NEEMO, an acronym for NASA Extreme Environment Mission Operations, is a NASA analog

mission that sends groups of astronauts, engineers and scientists to live in Aquarius

underwater laboratory, the world's only undersea research station, for up to three weeks at a

time in preparation for future space exploration. So, Statement 2 is correct.

A pad abort test is a test of a launch escape system to determine how well the system could

get the crew of a spacecraft to safety in an emergency on the launch pad. So, Statement 3

is correct.

SOURCE:

https://www.isro.gov.in/update/05-jul-2018/successful-flight-testing-of-crew-escape-system-

technology-demonstrator

https://www.nasa.gov/mission_pages/NEEMO/about_neemo.html

https://edition.cnn.com/2019/06/20/us/nasa-moon-space-lesa-trnd/index.html

66. Consider the following statements about Guru Nanak:

1. He contributed more than 900 hymns in the Guru Granth Sahib which was compiled by

Guru Arjan Dev.

2. Guru Nanak appointed Guru Amardas as his successor.

3. Guru Nanak was a contemporary of Madhvacharya.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Guru Nanak contributed more than 900 hymns in the Granth Sahib which was compiled

by Guru Arjan. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Guru Nanak appointed Guru Angadas his successor. Guru Angadhas chosen the third

Sikh Guru, Amar Das as his successor. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Madhvacharya lived during 13th century while Guru Nanak lived during 15th century. So,


https://www.isro.gov.in/update/05-jul-2018/successful-flight-testing-of-crew-escape-system-technology-demonstrator

https://www.isro.gov.in/update/05-jul-2018/successful-flight-testing-of-crew-escape-system-technology-demonstrator

https://www.nasa.gov/mission_pages/NEEMO/about_neemo.html

https://edition.cnn.com/2019/06/20/us/nasa-moon-space-lesa-trnd/index.html

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1 Guru Nanak (1469-

1539) Started Sikhism

2 Guru Angad( 1539-

1552) Created a new script, Gurumukhi

3 Guru Amar

Das(1552-1574) Made langar an integral part of Sikhism

4 Guru Ram

Das(1574-1581) Founded the city of Amritsar

5 Guru Arjan

Dev(1581-1606)

Built the Golden Temple in Amritsar and compiled the holy

Granth Sahib

6

Guru

Hargobind(1606-

1644)

Erected the Akal Takht

7 Guru Har

Rai(1644-1661) ---

8

Guru Har

Krishan(1656-

1664)

---

9

Guru

TeghBahadur(1664-

1675)

Was executed under Aurangzeb’s orders

10 Guru Govind Singh

(1675-1708)

Transferred the authority of the guru to the Adi Granth (Guru

Granth Sahib) and organized the Sikhs into a martial group

called the Khalsa. Also, assumed the title of Singh.

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67. Consider the following statements about Contract Farming and the Mechanism of

Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India:

1. While Contract farming will be an agreement between the buyer and farmers, the MSP

will be dealt between the Government and the farmer.

2. While MSP for commodities is determined by the Government of India, prices for the

Commodities under Contract Farming are determined by the respective state

governments only.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:-

Contract farming will be an agreement between the buyer and farmers, the MSP will be dealt

between the Government and the farmer. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Prices for the Commodities in Contract Farming are determined by the contract between

producer and the buyer and the MSP are determined by the Government alone. So, Statement

2 is not correct.


Salient features of Model Contract Farming Act, 2018

• The Act lays special emphasis on protecting the interests of the farmers, considering them as

weaker of the two parties entering into a contract.

• In addition to contract farming, services contracts all along the value chain including pre-

production, production and post-production have been included.

• "Registering and Agreement Recording Committee" or an "Officer" for the purpose at

district/block/ taluka level for online registration of sponsor and recording of agreement

provided.

• Contracted produce is to be covered under crop / livestock insurance in operation.

• Contract framing to be outside the ambit of APMC Act.

• No permanent structure can be developed on farmers’ land/premises

• No right, title of interest of the land shall vest in the sponsor.

• Promotion of Farmer Producer Organization (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs) to

mobilize small and marginal farmers has been provided.

• FPO/FPC can be a contracting party if so authorized by the farmers.

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• No rights, title ownership or possession to be transferred or alienated or vested in the

contract farming sponsor etc.

• Ensuring buying of entire pre-agreed quantity of one or more of agricultural produce,

livestock or its product of contract farming producer as per contract.

• Contract Farming Facilitation Group (CFFG) for promoting contract farming and services at

village / panchayat level provided.

• Accessible and simple dispute settlement mechanism at the lowest level possible provided for

quick disposal of disputes.

• It is a promotional and facilitative Act and not regulatory in its structure.

SOURCE:

https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/model-contract-farming-act-2018

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/draft-model-contract-farming-act-2018s

68. Consider the following statements about the “Dark Net” and the “Deep Web”:

1. Dark Net is part of the Internet that cannot be accessed through traditional search

engines.

2. Deep Web itself is only a part of the Dark Net, which includes sites that are protected

by passwords.

3. While the Deep Web is accessible, the Dark Net is deliberately hidden.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Dark Net is that part of the Internet that cannot be accessed through traditional search

engines. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Dark Net itself is only a part of the Deep Web that is a broader concept, which includes sites

that are protected by passwords.So, Statement 2 is not correct.

While the deep web is a reference to any site that cannot be accessed through a traditional

search engine, the dark web is a portion of the deep web that has been intentionally hidden

https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/model-contract-farming-act-2018

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/draft-model-contract-farming-act-2018

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and is inaccessible through standard browsers and methods. So, Statement 3 is correct.


• Dark Web is the virtual equivalent of a black market. Like Silk Road that marketed illegal

drugs through the Dark Web, entities which want to operate out of the arms of the law seek

refuge in the Dark Web.

Are Dark Web and Deep Web one and the same? And what is Darknet?

• Deep Web is the area of the Internet which is not accessible through search engines. What we

access through search engines is called Surface Web. To get into the Deep Web one should

know the right address. Dark Web is part of the Deep Web. While the Deep Web is accessible,

the Dark Web is deliberately hidden. Darknet is another name for Dark Web.

How does it work?

• Dark Web can be simply explained as a specialised form of browsing in incognito mode. While

incognito mode disables browsing history and web cache, the Dark Web is shielded by

specialised software such as Tor. As it is evident by the name, the USP of a Dark Web site is

the anonymity it offers and the near-impossibility of tracking it down.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/internet/what-is-dark-web/article18485139.ece

69. Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) Non-

Permanent Seat:

1. The seats are elected by United Nations General Assembly once in every 2 years.

2. A Country must receive at least two-thirds of all votes cast for the seat.

3. A retiring member state is eligible for immediate re-election.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/internet/what-is-dark-web/article18485139.ece

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EXPLANATION:

Ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly (with the end

of term year). So statement 1 is not correct.

A candidate must receive at least two-thirds of all votes cast for the seat. So statement 2 is

correct.

A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election. However they can be elected after a

gap one year term. So statement 3 is not correct.


United Nation Security Council

• The United Nations Charter established six main organs of the United Nations, including the

Security Council.

• It gives primary responsibility for maintaining international peace and security to the

Security Council, which may meet whenever peace is threatened.

• All members of the United Nations agree to accept and carry out the decisions of the Security

Council.

• While other organs of the United Nations make recommendations to member states, only the

Security Council has the power to make decisions that member states are then obligated to

implement under the Charter.

Permanent and Non-Permanent Members

• The Council is composed of 15 Members:

• Five permanent members: China, France, the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and

the United States.

• Ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly (with the

end of term year):

• Belgium (2020), Côte d’Ivoire (2019), Dominican Republic (2020), Equatorial Guinea (2019),

Germany (2020), Indonesia (2020), Kuwait (2019), Peru (2019), Poland (2019), South Africa

(2020).

Selection of non-permanent members of the Security Council

• Each year, the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members (out of ten in total) for

a two-year term. The ten non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis:

• five for African and Asian countries;

• one for Eastern European countries;

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• two for Latin American and Caribbean countries;

• two for Western European and other countries.

• Aspiring member needs the vote of two-thirds of the 193 UN General Assembly members to

win a non-permanent seat on the UNSC.

• Article 23 of the UN Charter concerns the composition of the Security Council.

United Nations Regional Groups

• The Regional Groups are the geopolitical regional groups of member states of the United

Nations. UN member states were unofficially grouped into five geopolitical regional groups.

• Many UN bodies are allocated on the basis of geographical representation. Top leadership

positions, including Secretary-General and President of the General Assembly, are rotated

among the regional groups.

• The groups also coordinate substantive policy and form common fronts for negotiations and

bloc voting.

SOURCE:

https://www.un.org/securitycouncil/content/current-members

70. Which one of the following Country shares its land border with the maximum number of

neighbouring countries?

(a) Afghanistan

(b) Myanmar

(c) Saudi Arabia

(d) India

EXPLANATION:

Afghanistan, a mountainous landlocked republic in Central Asia is bordered

by Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Iran in west, Pakistan in east and

south and it has a small stretch of border in north east with both China and India

Myanmar is bordered by a total of five countries. The western side of the country is bordered

by Bangladesh and India while Laos and Thailand border the eastern side. China forms the

border to the north and the northeast of Burma.

Saudi Arabia occupies most of the Arabian Peninsula, bounded by the Red Sea in the west and

the Persian Gulf in the east. Countries with international borders to Saudi Arabia are Bahrain

(by a causeway), Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, the UAE, and Yemen. So option (c) is

https://www.un.org/securitycouncil/content/current-members

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correct.

India shares land borders with seven neighbouring countries

viz. Pakistan, Bangladesh, China, Nepal, Myanmar, Bhutan and Afghanistan.

71. Citizen of India is defined, identified, verified and distinguished from infiltrators under

which of the following laws of India?

1. Citizenship Act of 1955

2. Foreigners Act of 1946

3. Passport Act of 1920


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

This citizen of India is defined, identified, verified and distinguished from infiltrators under a

set of three laws: the Citizenship Act of 1955 (amended many times; the latest version emerged

in the recent Winter Session of Parliament), the Foreigners Act of 1946 and the Passport Act of

1920. So option (d) is correct.


• The NRC, which was first undertaken in Assam in 1951 and was being updated since 2015,

is aimed at detecting and deleting so-called illegal immigrants from citizenship rolls.

• The register is meant to be a list of Indian citizens living in Assam. For decades, the presence

of migrants, often called “bahiragat” or outsiders, has been a loaded issue here. Assam saw

waves of migration, first as a colonial province and then as a border state in independent

India.

• The first National Register of Citizens was compiled in 1951, after the Census was completed

that year. The Partition of the subcontinent and communal riots had just triggered vast

population exchanges at the border.

• Since 2015, the state has been in the process of updating the 1951 register. One of the stated

aims of the exercise is to identify so-called “illegal immigrants” in the state, many of whom

are believed to have poured into Assam after the Bangladesh War of 1971.

• In 1979, about eight years after the war, the state saw an anti-foreigners’ agitation. Assamese

ethnic nationalists claimed illegal immigrants had entered electoral rolls and were taking

away the right of communities defined as indigenous to determine their political future.

• In 1985, the anti-foreigners’ agitation led by the All Assam Students’ Union came to an end

with the signing of the Assam Accord.

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Why is the NRC being updated now?

• The mechanism for detecting so-called foreigners had previously been delineated by the

Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act of 1983. This was struck down by the

Supreme Court in 2005, on a petition which argued that the provisions of the law were so

stringent; they made the “detection and deportation of illegal migrants almost impossible”.

• The court came into the picture after a non-governmental organisation called Assam Public

Works filed a petition asking that so-called illegal migrants be struck off the electoral rolls.

• In 2013, the Supreme Court asked the Centre to finalise the modalities to update the new

National Register of Citizens. The project was launched in earnest from 2015, monitored

directly by the Supreme Court.

How do the authorities establish citizenship?

• Most individuals applying for inclusion into the NRC had to prove not only that their

ancestors had lived in Assam pre-1971 but also their relationship with the ancestor.

• Then came the verification process. Documents were sent to the original issuing authorities

while NRC officials conducted field verification. Once the data was submitted, the applicant’s

blood relations were plotted on a family tree.

What happens to the people left out of the final list?

• Those who do not make it to the final list will have to appear before the Foreigners’ Tribunals

of Assam.

• These quasi-judicial bodies were originally set up under the Illegal Migrants (Determination

by Tribunal) Act of 1983.

• In anticipation of a fresh rush of cases after the final list, 1,000 more tribunals are being set

up across the state.

Phases of NRC:

The entire process of NRC Updating consists of following phases:

• Legacy Data Publication Phase

• Application Form Distribution & Receipt Phase

• Verification Phase

• Publication of NRC Part Draft

• Complete NRC Draft Publication & Receipt of Claims and Objections Phase

• Final NRC Publication.

SOURCE:

https://www.indiatoday.in/news-analysis/story/caa-npr-nrc-confusion-connection-explained-india-

1631534-2019-12-26

https://www.indiatoday.in/news-analysis/story/caa-npr-nrc-confusion-connection-explained-india-1631534-2019-12-26

https://www.indiatoday.in/news-analysis/story/caa-npr-nrc-confusion-connection-explained-india-1631534-2019-12-26

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72. Consider the following passage:

“This state is the birthplace of Raas Lila - a renowned form of classical dance which was

created by Maharaja Bhagyachandra. Modern Polo, locally known as ‘Sagol Kangjei’,

emerged from this state. It is a land of festivals and is known as ‘Jewel of Incredible India’.

Which one of the following Indian state is being described in the above passage?

(a) Assam

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Manipur

(d) Mizoram

EXPLANATION:

The state is the birthplace of Raas Lila- a renowned form of classical dance which was created by Maharaja Bhagyachandra. Also Modern Polo locally known as ‘Sagol Kangjei’ emerged from

this state. It is a land of festivals and is known as ‘Jewel of Incredible India’. The state

discussed above is Manipur. So option (c) is correct.


Manipur, described as the jewel of India lies south of Nagaland & north of Mizoram. It shares the

international boundary with Myanmar on the western & southern side. Legend has it, that the

discovery of Manipur was the result of the delight those gods took in dancing. Still practiced today,

is a classical dance form marked by graceful & restrained movements and delicate hand gestures,

known as Manipuri. Manipur is a mosaic of traditions and cultural patterns, best represented by its

dance forms. The Lai-Haraoba, a traditional stylized dance is a ritual dance for appeasing gods and

goddesses. The Lai-Haraoba festival is generally celebrated between April and May, after the harvest

season. The raas songs and dances express the Leelas (sports) of Lord Krishna as a child with the

Gopis (milkmaids) of Brindavan, and depict their yearning for communication with the Lord.

Surrounded by blue hills with an oval shaped valley at the centre, rich in art and tradition and

surcharged with nature’s pristine glory. Manipur lies on a melting pot of culture. It is birth place of

Polo. This is the place where Rajashree Bhagyachandra created the famous Ras Lila, the classical

dance of Manipur, out of his enchanting dream by the grace of Lord Krishna. Having a varied and

proud history from the earliest times, Manipur came under the British Rule as a Princely State after

the defeat in the Anglo-Manipuri War of 1891 After independence of India in 1947, the Princely State

of Manipur was merged in the Indian Union on October 15,1949 and became a full-fledged State of

India on the 21th January, 1972 with a Legislative Assembly of 60 seats of which 20 are reserved for

Scheduled Tribe and 1 reserved for Scheduled Caste. The State is represented in the Lok Sabha by

two members and by one member in the Rajya Sabha.

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SOURCE:

Nitin Singhania- Indian culture

73. Consider the following statements about the “Lithium-ion battery”:

1. These batteries use metallic lithium as one electrode material instead of an

intercalated lithium compound.

2. These batteries can store about 10 times as much energy as lead-acid batteries.

3. The energy density of the Lithium-ion battery is lesser than the Iron-ion battery.


(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Li-ion batteries use an intercalated lithium compound as the material at the positive

electrode and typically graphite at the negative electrode.So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Lithium-ion can store about 10 times as much energy as lead-acid or 5 times as much as

nickel-cadmium. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Lithium-ion battery has one of the highest energy densities of any battery technology

today. So, Statement 3 is not correct.


Advantages of lithium-ion battery

• High energy density - potential for yet higher capacities.

• Does not need prolonged priming when new. One regular charge is all that's needed.

• Relatively low self-discharge - self-discharge is less than half that of nickel-based batteries.

• Low Maintenance - no periodic discharge is needed; there is no memory.

• Specialty cells can provide very high current to applications such as power tools.

Limitations of lithium-ion battery

• Requires protection circuit to maintain voltage and current within safe limits.

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• Subject to ageing, even if not in use - storage in a cool place at 40% charge reduces the

ageing effect.

• Transportation restrictions - shipment of larger quantities may be subject to regulatory

control. This restriction does not apply to personal carry-on batteries.

• Expensive to manufacture - about 40 percent higher in cost than nickel-cadmium.

• Not fully mature - metals and chemicals are changing on a continuing basis.

74. In the context of Polity, which of the following elements are the embodiments of Rule of

Law?

1. Clear, publicized and stable laws.

2. Accountability of both Public and Private Actors under the Law.

3. Accessible process of legislation.

4. Accessible and Impartial Dispute Resolution.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

The following elements are the embodiments of Rule of Law which has aspects like Absence

of arbitrary power and Equality before the law.

• Clear, publicized and stable laws

• Accountability of both Public and Private Actors under the Law

• Accessible process of legislation

• Accessible and Impartial Dispute Resolution



Rule of Law

• The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded

by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. His concept has the following three elements or aspects:

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o Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of

law.

o Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or

low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the

ordinary law courts.

o The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the constitution is the result of the

rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the

constitution being the source of the individual rights.

• The first and the second elements are applicable to the Indian System and not the third one.

In the Indian System, the constitution is the source of the individual rights.

• The Supreme Court held that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 14 is a ‘basic feature’ of

the constitution. Hence, it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment.

SOURCE:


75. Consider the following statements about the Indus Valley Civilization:

1. They traded with other contemporary civilisations through maritime and land routes.

2. Human figures are the most common feature of the Harappan pottery.

3. There was no standardisation of crafts during this period.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

They traded with many different civilizations like Persia, Mesopotamia and China. They were

also known to trade in the Arabian Gulf region, central parts of Asia, portions of Afghanistan

and northern and western India. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The painted decorations consist of horizontal lines of varied thickness, scales, chequers, leaf

patterns, lattice work, palm and pipal trees. Additionally, Birds, fishes and animals are also

shown. Human figures are not the most common feature of pottery. So, Statement 2 is not

correct.

Indus Valley Civilization has high degree of standardization in crafts. Art and craft during

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the Indus Valley period were highly sophisticated. Their artefacts display a high level of

achievement in terms of aesthetic value and the technique used. Their ware includes

terracotta, bronze, copper and other metals. They were also experts in bead-making. So,



• Chanhudaro is a tiny settlement (less than 7 hectares) as compared to Mohenjodaro (125

hectares), almost exclusively devoted to craft production, including bead-making, shell-

cutting, metal-working, seal-making and weight-making.

• The variety of materials used to make beads is remarkable: stones like carnelian (of a

beautiful red colour), jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite; metals like copper, bronze and gold;

and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay.

• Some beads were made of two or more stones, cemented together, some of stone with gold

caps.

• The shapes were numerous – discshaped, cylindrical, spherical, barrel-shaped, segmented.

Some were decorated by incising or painting, and some had designs etched onto them.

• Techniques for making beads differed according to the material. Steatite, a very soft stone,

was easily worked. Some beads were moulded out of a paste made with steatite powder. This

permitted making a variety of shapes, unlike the geometrical forms made out of harder

stones.

• Archaeologists’ experiments have revealed that the red colour of carnelian was obtained by

firing the yellowish raw material and beads at various stages of production. Nodules were

chipped into rough shapes, and then finely flaked into the final form.

• Grinding, polishing and drilling completed the process. Specialised drills have been found at

Chanhudaro, Lothal and more recently at Dholavira. Nageshwar and Balakot are both

settlements are near the coast. These were specialised centres for making shell objects –

including bangles, ladles and inlay – which were taken to other settlements. Similarly, it is

likely that finished products (such as beads) from Chanhudaro and Lothal were taken to the

large urban centres such as Mohenjodaro and Harappa.

SOURCE:

Old NCERT Ancient India by R S Sharma

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76. With reference to the concept of Reserve Tranche Position (RTP), consider the following

statements:

1. A Reserve Tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country

must provide to the International Monetary Fund.

2. RTP is payable in Special Drawing Rights or widely accepted currencies.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must

provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes—

without a service fee or economic reform conditions. So, Statement 1 is correct.

RTP is payable in special drawing rights (SDRs) or specified usable currencies or reserve

assets. So, Statement 2 is correct.


What Is a Reserve Tranche?

A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide

to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes—without

a service fee or economic reform conditions.

Reserve Tranche Explained

The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is

basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to

conditions or paying a service fee. In other words, a portion of a member country’s quota can be

withdrawn free of charge at its own discretion.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

• The reserve tranche is a segment of an International Monetary Fund member country’s quota

that is accessible without fees or economic reform conditions.

• Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are 25% of their quota, but this position can

change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of the member’s

currency.

• The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first

resort, meaning they will tap into them before seeking a formal credit tranche that charges

interest.

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Reserve Tranche Requirements

In theory, members can borrow over 100% of their quota. However, if the amount being sought by

the member nation exceeds its reserve tranche position (RTP), then it becomes a credit tranche that

must be repaid in three years with interest. The first 25% reserve tranche portion charges no

interest. Anything beyond that could require permission and be subject to a service fee.

Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are 25% of their quota. However, their reserve tranche

position can change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of the member’s

currency

SOURCE:

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/r/reserve_tranche.asp

77. In the Indian Legislature, right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of

House should not

1. deal with any matter that is under adjudication by the court.

2. raise a question of privilege.

3. be restricted to a specific matter of a recent occurrence.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the

following restrictions:

• It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance;

• It should not cover more than one matter;

• It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed

in general terms; (statement 3 is not correct)

• It should not raise a question of privilege; (statement 2 is correct)

• It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session;

• It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court; and (statement 1

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/credit-tranche.asp

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/i/interest.asp

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/r/reserve_tranche.asp

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is correct)

• It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.


Adjournment Motion

• It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of

urgent public importance, and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

• As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device.

• It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not

permitted to make use of this device.

• The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty

minutes.

SOURCE:


78. Consider the following statements about 5G Network technology:

1. It is a wireless communication technology using microwaves.

2. It can transmit data at least 10 times faster than the 4G network.

3. It has high latency than the 4G network.


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

5G is a new digital system for transforming bytes - data units - over air. It uses a 5G New

Radio interface, along with other new technologies, that utilises much higher radio frequencies.


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According to Vodafone, 5G promises device speeds around 10 times faster than 4G, meaning

high-quality, ultra-high resolution 4K video calls - the standard used for commercial digital

cinema - downloads will be delivered even quicker to smartphones and tablets. So, Statement

2 is correct.

5G is a new digital system for transforming bytes - data units - over air. It uses a 5G New

Radio interface, along with other new technologies, that utilises much higher radio frequencies

(28 ghz compared to 700 mhz - 2500 mhz for 4G) to transfer exponentially more data over the

air for faster speeds, reduced congestion and lower latency, which is the delay before a transfer

of data begins following an instruction. So, Statement 3 is not correct.


How is 5G different to 4G?

Compared to third generation mobile networking, 4G enabled previously impossible quality video

streaming and calling on the go, meaning live TV is now routinely watched on the daily commute.

More video streaming, however, has increased congestion in the network.

“4G is reaching the technical limits of how much data it can quickly transfer across blocks of

spectrum,” explains Chris Mills head of industry analysis, at Tutela. “A major difference between 5G

and 4G is this congestion will be eliminated.” This mean no more five bars of networking signal at

rush hour but an inability to access a web browser.

But arguably, 5G’s biggest differentiator to 4G will be as a gateway for the Internet of Things-

connected world at scale. Later iterations of 5G networking are expected to be revolutionary for data-

driven industries, smart cities and infrastructure management because it will be possible to have

many more devices working, reliably, securely and uninterrupted in the same area. Overall, due to

the new technologies, spectrum and frequencies it uses, 5G has several benefits over 4G; higher

speeds, less latency, capacity for a larger number of connected devices, less interference and better

efficiency.

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How does 5G work in terms of bandwidth, latency and spectrum?

Each operator owns blocks of spectrum which is a range of electromagnetic radio frequencies used

to transmit sound, data, and video across a country. This spectrum is added together to create their

total network capacity which determines how fast they can transfer data.

“Today an operator might have 100 mhz of entire spectrum to use for all of its UK customers, but

eventually with 5G this will increase to around 1,000 mhz - that is the real change with 5G,”

explains Mr Mills.

This will also create much less latency in the system meaning data will be transferred in real time.

Latency for 4G is around 20-30 milliseconds, but for 5G it will reach well below 10 milliseconds, and

in best cases around 1 millisecond delays, according to Mats Norin, program manager at 5G For

Industries, Ericsson Research.

“For consumers this is not as important but will make things seem faster, however, for industry - for

long distance, remotely-controlled heavy machinery, for example - it will be critical,” he says

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/business/how-will-a-5g-network-power-the-future/article27698653.ece

79. “Middle East Peace Plan” sometimes seen in the news recently, is related

(a) To solve the issues between Iran and Turkey in middle east Asia

(b) To solve the issues between Israel and Palestine

(c) To solve the issues related to terrorism in middle east Asia

(d) To solve the oil price issue between Saudi Arabia and Russia

EXPLANATION:

The Israel-Palestine peace plan or the West Asia peace plan is the proposal unveiled by U.S.

President Donald Trump. So, Option (b) is correct.


Why in News?

• The Israel-Palestine peace plan or the West Asia peace plan is the proposal unveiled by U.S.

President Donald Trump.

What is Mr. Trump trying to do?

• This plan seeks to address most of the contentious issues in the conflict.

• The solutions, Mr. Trump has proposed to almost all of these issues, favour the Israeli

positions.

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• He seeks to give to the Israelis, Jerusalem and part of the West Bank.

• With his plan, he is actually pushing to revive the stalled two-state talks between the Israelis

and the Palestinians, but on his own terms.

What is the plan?

• The Palestinian refugees, who were forced out from their homes during the 1948 Arab-Israeli

war that followed the declaration of the state of Israel in the historic Palestine, would not be

allowed to return.

• Jerusalem would be the undivided capital of Israel, with the Palestine gaining its capital in

the east of the city.

• In return, Israel would freeze further settlement activities on the West Bank for 4 years (the

time for negotiations).

• During this period, the Palestinian Authority should dismiss its current complaints at the

International Criminal Court against Israel and refrain itself from taking further actions.

• It should crack down on certain terrorist groups like the Hamas.

What are the proposed land swaps?

• The plan proposes some land swap for the Israeli annexation of the Jewish settlements of the

West Bank as well as the Jordan Valley.

• It seeks to enlarge Gaza and connect the strip with the West Bank through a tunnel.

• The Arab towns in the southeast of Israel, which are close to Gaza, could become part of a

future Palestinian state.

SOURCE:

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/israel-palestine-peace-plan

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/world/whats-in-trumps-middle-east-peace-

plan/article30681250.ece

80. Consider the following statements about the International Court of Justice (ICJ):

1. It settles legal disputes between States and gives advisory opinions following

international laws.

2. The persons belonging to the Permanent Members of the United Nations Security

Council are not eligible to the Office of Judges in the ICJ.

3. It is the duty of all members of the United Nations to comply with the decisions of the

ICJ involving them.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/israel-palestine-peace-plan

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/world/whats-in-trumps-middle-east-peace-plan/article30681250.ece

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EXPLANATION:

It settles legal disputes between States and gives advisory opinions in accordance with

international law if referred by united nations and its specialized agencies. So, Statement 1 is

correct.

The persons belonging to the Permanent Members of the United Nations Security Council are

also eligible to the Office of Judges in the International Court of Justice. Example recently a

judge belong to UK who is a permanent member lost his election against a Indian judge. So,


It is the duty of all UN members to comply with the decisions of the court involving them. So,



How are judges elected to the ICJ?

• The ICJ has a bench of 15 judges to settle legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give

advisory opinions on legal questions.

• Elections are conducted triennially, and five among these 15 judges are elected every three

years for a nine-year term.

• This is to ensure a sense of continuity, especially in pending cases.

• A candidate needs to get an absolute majority in both the chambers i.e. the UNGA and the

UNSC, to get elected.

• Judges are eligible to stand for re-election.

• After the Court is in session, a President and Vice-President are elected by secret ballot to

hold office for three years.

• Of the 15 judges, it is mandated that -

1. three should be from Africa

2. two from Latin America and the Caribbean

3. three from Asia

4. five from Western Europe and other states

5. two from Eastern Europe

SOURCE:

iasparliament.com/article/indian-judge-at-the-icj

81. Consider the following statements about the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights)

Act, 2019:

1. This Act prohibits any discrimination against a transgender person including

discrimination against them in education and healthcare.

2. This Act does not have provisions for affirmative action against the discriminator in

employment or education.

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3. This Act provides for the establishment of National Council for Transgender Persons to

advice, monitor and evaluates measures for the protection of their rights.


(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The Act prohibits only eight types of discrimination against a transgender person, some of the

offences are forced or bonded labour (excluding compulsory government service for public

purposes), Denial of use of public places, Removal from household, and village, Physical,

sexual, verbal, emotional or economic abuse. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

It does not have provisions for affirmative action in employment or education. It does not

provide reservation for the community. So, Statement 2 is correct.

It provides for establishment of National Council for Transgender Persons. So, Statement 3 is

correct.


Why in News?

• The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by

the Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment.

What is the bill about?

• It provides for recognition of identity of transgender persons, prohibition against

discrimination, welfare measures by the Government, obligation of establishments and other

persons, education, social security and health of transgender persons.

• It also provides for setting up of National Council for transgender persons.

What is the definition?

As per the bill, a transgender person is one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at

birth.

• It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers,

and persons with socio-cultural identities.

• Intersex variations are defined to mean a person who at birth shows variation in his or her

primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes, or hormones from the

normative standard of male or female body.

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What are the provisions of the bill?

The Bill prohibits the discrimination against a transgender person, including denial of service or

unfair treatment in relation to:

1. Education: Educational institutions funded or recognised by the relevant government shall

provide inclusive education, sports and recreational facilities.

2. Employment: No government or private entity can discriminate in employment (recruitment

and promotion). Every establishment should have a complaint officer to deal with their

complaints.

3. Healthcare: The government must take steps to provide health facilities to them. It shall

review medical curriculum to address their health issues and provide medical insurance

schemes for them.

4. Access to or enjoyment of goods, facilities, opportunities available to the public.

5. Right to movement.

6. Right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property: If the immediate family is unable to care

for them, the person may be placed in a rehabilitation centre (on the orders of the court).

7. Opportunity to hold public or private office;

8. Access to a government or private establishment in whose care or custody a transgender

person is.

What are considered as Offences and their penalties?

• The offences against transgender persons include,

1. Forced or bonded labour (excluding compulsory government service for public

purposes),

2. Denial of use of public places,

3. Removal from household, and village,

4. Physical, sexual, verbal, emotional or economic abuse.

• The penalties vary between six months and two years, and a fine.

SOURCE:

https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/transgender-persons-protection-rights-bill-2019

82. “Biorock technology” has been used for the first time in the country by Gujarat state along

with Zoological Survey of India. It is associated with

(a) A Carbon sequestration technique to counter the effects of Climate Change

(b) A process to restore the coral reefs using mineral accretion technology

(c) A conservation technique to restore the wildlife habitat and national parks

(d) A climate-friendly technology initiative to clean up the beaches from the non-coastal debris

EXPLANATION:

The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s forest department, is

attempting for the first time a process to restore coral reefs using Biorock or Mineral

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Accretion Technology.So, Option (b) is correct.


• Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals

dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected

to a power source, in this case solar panels that float on the surface.

Working Principle

• The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in

the water.

• When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the sea floor,

with an electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and

adhere to the structure (cathode).

• This results in calcium carbonate formation.

• Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and grow quickly.

• Fragments of broken corals are tied to the biorock structure, where they are able to grow at

least four to six times faster than their actual growth as they need not spend their energy in

building their own calcium carbonate skeletons.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/india-begins-coral-restoration-in-gulf-of-

kachchh/article30645770.ece

83. Which of the following measures of Reserve Bank of India can be used to control the

Foreign Exchange Rate?

1. Changing domestic interest rate.

2. Offering a currency swap arrangement.

3. Easing External Commercial Borrowing norms.

4. Easing Masala bonds limits.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/india-begins-coral-restoration-in-gulf-of-kachchh/article30645770.ece

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EXPLANATION:

The following RBI measures can be used to control the Foreign exchange rate

• Changing domestic interest rate

• Offering currency swap arrangement

• Easing ECB norms

• Easing Masala bonds limits

• Foreign Investment

• Liberalised Remittance Scheme

• Currency Futures

• Exchange Rate Policy

• Foreign Exchange Reserves Management


SOURCE:

https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=5

84. Consider the following statements about the Surrogacy in India:

1. Indian surrogacy laws make it illegal for foreign intended parents to complete a

surrogacy in India.

2. Sex-selective abortions are prohibited for Surrogacy cases also.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

According to Indian surrogacy laws surrogacy can be done for Indians and also only for

altruistic purpose. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Based on ICMR guidelines 2005, Sex-selective abortions are prohibited for Surrogacy cases

also. So, Statement 2 is correct.

https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=5

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Provisions in the surogacy Bill?

• The Bill seeks to put an end to commercial surrogacy - payment to a surrogate mother is

punishable by up to 5 years imprisonment.

• The Bill allows only altruistic surrogacy (by relatives) for married couples.

• It allows surrogacy to intending infertile Indian married couples between the ages of 23-50

(female) and 26-55 (male).

• It limits the option to only legally married childless couples who have been trying for a child

for at least 5 years.

• The commissioning couple cannot have a surviving child, either biological or adopted.

• But this is except when they have a child who is mentally or physically challenged or suffers

from a life-threatening disorder with no permanent cure.

• The Bill also has safeguards built in against sex selection of the baby.

• The Bill requires all surrogacy clinics to be registered.

• Clinics can charge for these services but the surrogate mother cannot be paid.

• The national and state surrogacy boards will be the regulating authorities.

What are the changes made?

• The Surrogacy Bill was cleared by the Cabinet in 2016.

• It was subsequently referred to a Parliamentary Standing Committee (Health & Family

Welfare) before its passage.

• There are changes in the presently-passed Bill from the earlier version.

• The earlier version provided for a minimum jail term of 10 years for some offences; the

present one sets a maximum of 10 years.

• The present Bill -

• forbids the surrogate mother to use her own gametes (eggs)

• gives her the option to withdraw before the embryo is implanted

• puts a condition for obtaining a “certificate of essentiality” by the intending couple

• The couple must also provide a 16-month insurance coverage for the surrogate mother

including postpartum complications.

• The Bill did not make several changes sought by the Standing Committee.

SOURCE:

https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/surrogacy-regulation-bill-2019

85. Estuaries are water bodies where the freshwater carrying from the rivers is well mixed with

the saltwater of oceans. In the light of the estuarine ecosystem consider the following

statements.

1. They are brackish water ecosystems with salinity ranging from 5-35ppt.

2. Estuaries are homes to all kind of terrestrial plants and animals and also to unique

aquatic plants and animals.

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3. Estuaries are the most heavily populated regions throughout the world with a human

population of about 60% living along estuaries and the coast.

4. Only certain types of plants and animals specifically adapted to brackish waters

flourish in estuaries with salinity and flooding being important factors influencing the

growth and distribution of organism in an estuary.


(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

They are brackish water ecosystems with salinity ranging from 5-35pptis seenfrom the head

(river end) to the mouth (sea end) of anestuary. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Estuaries are homes to all kind of terrestrial or landbasedplants and animals, such as wood

storks, pelicans, coniferous and deciduous trees and butterflies.Estuaries are also homes to

unique aquatic plants andanimals, such as sea turtles and sea lions, sea catfish,saltworts,

eelgrass, saltgrasses, cordgrasses, sea grass,sedge and bulrush. So, Statement 2 is

correct.

Estuaries are most heavily populated areas throughoutthe world, with about 60% of the

world’s population living along estuaries and the coast. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Only certain types of plants and animals specifically adapted to brackish waters flourish in

estuaries with salinity and flooding being important factors influencing the growth and

distribution of organism in an estuary. So, Statement 4 is correct.


ESTUARY ECOSYSTEM

• Estuaries are located where river meets the sea. Estuaries are water bodies where the flow of

freshwater from river mixes with salt water transported, by tide, from the ocean. Estuaries

are the most productive water bodies in the world. They are located at the lowerend of a river

and are subject to tidal fluctuations.

• Estuaries are either once or twice, daily washed by theseawater.

Characters

• An Estuary is a semi enclosed coastal body of water with one or more rivers or streams

flowing into it.

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• It has a free connection with open sea.

• The complete salinity range from 0-35 ppt is seen from the head (river end) to the mouth (sea

end) of anestuary.

• An estuary has very little wave action, so it provides a calm refuge from the open sea. It

provides the shelter for some of the animals.

• It is the most productive region as it receives the highamount of nutrients from fresh and

marine water.

• Estuaries are most heavily populated areas throughout the world, with about 60% of the

world’s populationliving along estuaries and the coast.

• Estuaries are typically classified by their geomorphological features or by water circulation

patterns and can be referred to by many different names, such as bays,harbors, lagoons,

inlets, etc.

• The banks of estuarine channels form a favoured location for human settlements, which use

the estuaries for fishing and commerce, but nowadays also for dumping civic and industrial

waste.

• Estuaries are usually biologically highly productivezones.

• They also act as a filter for some dissolved constituents in river water; these precipitate in the

zone where riverwater meets seawater.

• More important is the trapping of suspended mud and sand carried by rivers which leads to

delta formationsaround estuaries.

SOURCE:


86. “Gender Social Norms Index”, captures how social beliefs can obstruct gender equality,

was recently released by

(a) World Bank

(b) World Economic Forum

(c) UN Women

(d) United Nations Development Programme

EXPLANATION:

The 1st edition of 'Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI 2020)' was released by United Nations

Development Programme (UNDP), in an attempt to tackle gender norms which eventually are a

broad contributor to gender inequalities. So, Option (d) is correct.

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• Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI) was released recently by United Nations Development

Programme

• It measures how social beliefs affect gender equality.

• According to the report, nearly 90 per cent of men and women hold some form of bias against

women.

• And it was found that people’s gendered beliefs do impact women’s rights and equality.

• The report commemorates the 25th anniversary of the adoption of the Beijing Declaration

and Platform for Action (Beijing+25).

• No country has yet achieved gender equality: Despite remarkable progress in some areas, no

country in the world— rich or poor— has achieved gender equality.

• According to the report, the world is not on track to achieve gender equality by 2030.

• Overall, progress in gender inequality has been slowing in recent years. Based on current

trends, it would take 257 years to close the gender gap in economic opportunity.

• Social norms and biases are a major cause in strengthening gender inequalities. Social

norms held by individuals and their reference groups are values, beliefs, attitudes and

practices that assert preferred power dynamics for interactions between individuals and

institutions.

SOURCE:

http://hdr.undp.org/en/gsni

87. Consider the following statements about the DRDO’s indigenous Man-Portable Antitank

Guided Missile (MPATGM):

1. It is a heavyweight fire and forget type of missile.

2. It is a type of third-generation missile that uses HEAT explosive warhead.

3. It has been specifically designed to target Main battlefield tanks.

4. It will replace the existing NAG, Milan and Konkur anti-tank guided missiles.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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EXPLANATION:

It’s a low weight (not heavy) fire and forget type missile. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The MPATGM is a third-generation anti-tank guided missile (ATGM), which has been

developed by DRDO in partnership with Indian defense contractor VEM Technologies

Ltd.Fitted with a high-explosive anti-tank (HEAT) warhead, the MPATGM boasts a top attack

capability and has a maximum engagement range of about 2.5 kilometers.So, Statement 2

is correct.

It is designed to target light or medium battlefield tank. Not main battlefield tank like Arjun

which will have heavy protection. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

It is intended to be a replacement for second generation MILAN and Konkurs ATGMs in

service with Indian Army not NAG missile.So, Statement 4 is not correct.


• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully test fired indigenously

developed, low weight, fire and forget Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM).

• MPATGM is third-generation anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) indigenously developed by

DRDO.

• It has strike range of 2.5 km. It weighs around 14.5 kg to maintain man portability. It is

capable of being fired from shoulder and can be used during day and night. It has minimum

lateral centre and gravity offset.

• It works on fire and forget principle and is known for its top attack capabilities. It is effective

against both stationary and moving targets. It will be deployed in infantry and parachute

battalions of Indian Army.

SOURCE:

https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/drdo-testfires-man-portable-anti-tank-guided-missile-

system-1598150-2019-09-11

88. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the World Health Organization?

(a) It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health

(b) It receives contributions from the member states, Government agencies as well as from

Private agencies

(c) It regularly publishes the World Health Report

(d) It engages in the production of vaccines for a disease when it declares that disease as

‘Epidemic’

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EXPLANATION:-

It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.

It receives contributions from member states and Government agencies as well as from Private

agencies. For example bill and Melinda gates foundation was the 2nd largest contributor to

WHO.

World health report is published by WHO.

It does not engage in the production of Vaccines for the preventable diseases. It provides

funding for research to develop a vaccine. So, Option (d) is not correct.


• World Health Organization (WHO), the United Nations’ specialized agency for Health was

founded in 1948.

• Its headquarters are situated in Geneva, Switzerland.

• There are 194 Member States, 150 country offices, six regional offices.

• It is an inter-governmental organization and works in collaboration with its member states

usually through the Ministries of Health.

• The WHO provides leadership on global health matters, shaping the health research agenda,

setting norms and standards, articulating evidence-based policy options, providing technical

support to countries and monitoring and assessing health trends.

• It began functioning on April 7, 1948 – a date now being celebrated every year as World

Health Day.

Objectives

• To act as the directing and coordinating authority on international health work.

• To establish and maintain effective collaboration with the United Nations, specialized

agencies, governmental health administrations, professional groups and such other

organizations as may be deemed appropriate.

• To provide assistance to the Governments, upon request, in strengthening health services.

• To promote cooperation among scientific and professional groups which contribute to the

advancement of health.

Governance

World Health Assembly

• The Health Assembly is composed of delegates representing Members.

• Each Member is represented by not more than three delegates, one of whom is designated by

the Member as chief delegate.

• These delegates are chosen from among persons most qualified by their technical competence

in the field of health, preferably representing the national health administration of the

Member.

• The Health Assembly meets in regular annual session and sometimes in special sessions as

well.

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Functions

• The Health Assembly determines the policies of the Organization.

• It supervises the financial policies of the Organization and reviews and approves the budget.

• It reports to the Economic and Social Council in accordance with any agreement between the

Organization and the United Nations.

The Secretariat

• The Secretariat comprises of the Director-General and such technical and administrative

staff as the Organization may require.

• The Director-General is appointed by the Health Assembly on the nomination of the Board on

such terms as the Health Assembly may determine.

Membership and Associate Membership

• Members of the United Nations may become Members of the Organization.

• Territories or groups of territories which are not responsible for the conduct of their

international relations may be admitted as Associate Members by the Health Assembly.

SOURCE:

https://www.who.int/

89. Telemedicine is the use of information and communication technology to provide clinical

healthcare to vast distance areas. In this context, consider the following statements about

the Government of India’s “SEHAT” telemedicine initiative:

1. It is a telehealth project which provides clinical and non-clinical services.

2. Live video or image transmission is not mandatorily required.

3. Infrasonic and ultrasonic waves play a significant role in diagnosis.

4. Ayurvedic medical consultation to real-time cholesterol monitoring is done.


(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only


EXPLANATION:

The common service centres (CSC) will also provide diagnostic services and promote the sale

of generic drugs through collaboration with Ministry of Health, by setting up Jan Aasudhi

Stores. It will not provide non clinical services. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

https://www.who.int/

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Live video or image transmission is not mandatorily required. People can consult the doctors

online.So, Statement 2 is correct.

Under the Sehat initiative, people will be able to consult doctors through video link i.e. Vice

over Internet Protocol (VoIP) and also order generic drugs.It will use Common Service Centres

(CSCs) for delivering teleconsultation services with support from Medanta and Apollo

Hospitals in some areas.Infrasonic and ultrasonic waves are not used to provide

consultation.So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Similarly, Ayurvedic medical consultation to real time cholesterol monitoring is not done

under this initiative.So, Statement 4 is not correct.

SOURCE:

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=126318

90. With reference to trade relations of India during the Eighteenth century, consider the

following pairs:

(Region) (Items of Import to

India)

1. China - Tea, Sugar, Porcelain

and Silk

2. Europe - Gold, Musk and

Woollen cloth

3. Africa - Pearls, Raw Silk,

Dates and Dried

fruits


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Tea, Sugar, Porcelain and Silk are imported from China. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Gold, Musk and Woollen cloth are imported from Tibet. So, pair 2 is not correctly

matched.

Pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water are imported from Persian Gulf

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=126318

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Region. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.


• Items of Import

o From the Persian Gulf Region— pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose

water;

o from Arabia—coffee, gold, drugs, and honey;

o from China—tea, sugar, porcelain, and silk;

o from Tibet—gold, musk, and woollen cloth;

o from Africa—ivory and drugs;

o from Europe— woollen cloth, copper, iron, lead and paper.

• Items of Export from India Cotton textiles, raw silk and silk fabrics, hardware, indigo,

saltpetre, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper and other spices, precious stones, and drugs.

SOURCE:


91. Recently, the Government of India has constituted the task force to draw up the National

Infrastructure Pipeline for each of the years from the financial year 2019-20 to 2024-25.

Which one of the following is not correct about the National Infrastructure Pipeline?

(a) It includes both economic and social infrastructure

(b) Centre Government and State Government will invest an equal share in the capital

expenditure

(c) It also receives funding from private companies

(d) Urban development and Railways are given the highest share in fund allocation

EXPLANATION:

National infrastructure pipelineincludes economic and social infrastructure projects.So, option

(a) is correct.

The Centre, States and the private sector to share the capital expenditure in a 39:39:22

formula.State and centre contribute equally about 39%. The private sector contributes about

22% of the capital expenditure. So, option (b) and (c) is correct.

During the fiscals 2020 to 2025, sectors such as Energy (24%), Roads (19%), Urban (16%), and

Railways (13%) amount to around 70% of the projected capital expenditure in infrastructure in

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India. Hence, Energy (24%) and Roads (19%)attracts most of the funds. So, option (d) is not

correct.


National Infrastructure Pipeline

• Recently, the Government has released a report of the task force on the National

Infrastructure Pipeline for 2019-2025.

• Task Force was constituted to draw up the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) for each of

the years from financial years 2019-20 to 2024-25.

• NIP will enable a forward outlook on infrastructure projects, which will create jobs, improve

ease of living, and provide equitable access to infrastructure for all, thereby making growth

more inclusive.

• NIP includes economic and social infrastructure projects.

• During the fiscals 2020 to 2025, sectors such as Energy (24%), Roads (19%), Urban (16%),

and Railways (13%) amount to around 70% of the projected capital expenditure in

infrastructure in India.

• It has outlined plans to invest more than ₹102 lakh crore on infrastructure projects by 2024-

25, with the Centre, States and the private sector to share the capital expenditure in a

39:39:22 formula.

SOURCE:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1598055

92. Consider the following statements about the Charvaka School of Indian philosophy:

1. It rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Brahmanas.

2. It acknowledged the existence of a Supreme God.

3. Dhurtta Charvaka accepted the idea of a soul that was distinct from the body.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION:

The Charvaka school was a philosophical movement in India that rejected the traditional

religious order by challenging the authority of the Vedas as well as the hegemony the

Brahman priests. So, statement 1 is correct.

The members of this school did not believe in ideas such as the soul, reincarnation, spirits,

or gods. So, statement 2 is not correct.

DhurttaCharvaka considers the conscious body to be the soul. With that body the soul exists

and with it the soul perishes. Consciousness can be experienced only in the body. So,

consciousness has no separate existence of it own its outside the body. So, statement 3 is

not correct.


Charvaka School

• This system was originally called Lokayat or Brahaspatya. This school may be called one of

the oldest school of Indian materialism.

• It rejects Vedas, rejects ritualism of Vedas and does not believe in god or any other super

natural power.

• AjitaKesakambali is thought to be the first Caravaka while Brihaspati is called its founder.

• Being materialistic, the Cârvâkas do not believe in the existence of an invisible, unchangeable

and immortal soul.

• According to them soul is a product of matter. It is the quality of the body and does not exist

separately outside the body. The soul is simply the conscious living body. We donot perceive

any soul; we perceive only the body in a conscious state.

• A particular combination of the elements produces consciousness, though these elements

donot separately possess it. The actions attributed to the soul are really the actions of the

body. Consciousness is the result of an emergent and dialectical evolution. It is an

epiphenomenon, a by product of matter.

• According to Cârvâka, body with consciousness is the soul. Behind and beyond the material

body there is no eternal soul.

• There are two types of Cârvâkas – the Dhurta or cunning Cârvâkas and the Susikshit or

educated Cârvâkas.

• The former considers the conscious body to be the soul. With that body the soul exists and

with it the soul perishes. Consciousness can be experienced only in the body. So,

consciousness has no separate existence of it own its outside the body.

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• On the other-hand, the educated Cârvâkas maintain that the soul has eternal knowledge and

perishes with the body. The soul does not migrate from one body to another.

93. Recently, ISRO had launched the Bhuvan Panchayat version 3.0, for helping village

development planning process under the Ministry of Panchayat Raj. Which among the

following services are obtained from the “BHUVAN”?

1. Watershed Management

2. Geotagging

3. Pest surveillance

4. e-learning

5. Monitoring Gas pipelines


(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

EXPLANATION:

Bhuvanis an Indian web based utility which allows users to explore a set of map based

content prepared by Indian Space Research Organisation. The content includes thematic

maps related to disasters, agriculture, water resources, land cover and also processed

satellite data of ISROThe BhuvanWeb Geo portal can able to perform the following

• Database visualization,

• Data analytics,

• Generation of automatic reports,

• Model based products and services

Watershed Management, Geotagging, Pest surveillance, e-learning and Monitoring Gas

pipelinesservice is obtained from the “BHUVAN”. So, Option (d) is correct.


• Bhuvan Panchayat is a Web portal developed by ISRO.

• The Web Geo portal is developed for the benefit of Gram Panchayat members and other

stakeholders, able to perform the following

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o Database visualization,

o Data analytics,

o Generation of automatic reports,

o Model based products and services

• The targeted audience for this portal are Public, PRIs and different stakeholders belonging to the

gram panchayats.

• ISRO National Remote Sensing Centre, which is the national repository of earth imageries, aids

rural planners to plan and locate a healthcare unit, water harvesting, and rural communication

network even from the panchayat office.

• For better planning and monitoring of government projects, the Indian Space Research

Organisation (ISRO) launched the Bhuvan Panchayat web portal's version 3.0.

• In the project that will last for at least two years, ISRO will collaborate with the gram panchayat

members and stakeholders to understand their data requirements.

• The project is meant to provide geo-spatial services to aid gram panchayat development planning

process of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

• The targeted audience for this portal are Public, PRIs and different stakeholders belonging to the

gram panchayats.

• ISRO launched SISDP project to assist Gram Panchayats at grass root level with basic planning

inputs derived from satellite data for preparing developmental plans, its implementation and

monitoring the activities. SISDP phase I Project was successfully concluded in the year 2016-17.

• Based on the rich experience gained and encouraging feedback received from various

stakeholders on SIS-DP-I Project “SISDP-Update” was initiated with enhanced objectives of

providing value added geospatial products and services to aid Gram Panchayat development

planning process of MoPR.

• For the first time, thematic database on 1:10,000 scale for the entire country is available with

high integrated High Resolution satellite data for planning.

SOURCE:

https://bhuvan.nrsc.gov.in/bhuvan_links.php#

94. With reference to the Indian National Movement, consider the following events:

1. Formation of Indian Civil Liberties Union.

2. The first Indian National Congress Session in a rural area.

3. The arrival of Cabinet Mission to India.

4. Foundation of Provisional Government of Free India by Subhas Chandra Bose in

Singapore.

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Select the correct chronological order of the above events from the codes given below.

(a) 1-2-4-3

(b) 2-4-3-1

(c) 4-3-2-1

(d) 1-4-2-3

EXPLANATION:

Indian civil liberty union was established by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1931.

The Fiftieth (50th) Session of the Indian National Congress was held on 27 and 28 December

1936 at Faizpur, a village on the outskirts of Yawal Taluka of Jalgaon District of Bombay

Presidency (Maharashtra). It was, here, for the first time that Congress held its Annual

Session in a backward rural setting.

The Attlee government announced in February 1946 the decision to send a high-powered

mission of three British cabinet members (Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for India;

Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade; and A.V. Alexander, First Lord of Admiralty)

to India to find out ways and means for a negotiated, peaceful transfer of power to India.

(Pethick Lawrence was the chairman of the mission.)

On October 21, 1943, Subhash Bose formed the Provisional Government for Free India at

Singapore with H.C. Chatterjee (Finance portfolio), M.A. Aiyar (Broadcasting), Lakshmi

Swaminathan (Women Department), etc. The famous slogan—“Give me blood, I will give you

freedom” was given in Malaya. So, option (a) is correct.

SOURCE:


95. With reference to the Ecosystem, consider the following statements:

1. An Ecosystem is a structural and functional part of the biosphere consisting of living

beings and physical environment interacting with each other.

2. An Ecosystem is influenced by the latitude and altitude of a region.

3. Organic compounds such as Carbohydrates, Proteins, Lipids and Humic substances are

formed from inorganic compounds decomposition.

4. Phagotrophes obtain energy and nutrients by decomposing dead organic substances of

plant and animal origin.


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(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

An ecosystem is defined as a structural and functional unitof biosphere consisting of

community of living beings andthe physical environment, both interacting and

exchangingmaterials between them. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Ecosystem is influenced by the latitude and altitude of a region. Tropical ecosystems in the

equator to tundra in the polar regions are influenced by the latitude. Mountains may saw

tropical deciduous forests near to the ground to alpine forests in higher elevations. So,


Organic compound such as proteins, carbohydrates,lipids, humic substances are formed

from inorganic compound on decomposition.So, Statement 3 is correct.

Decomposers get nutrients and energy by breaking down dead organisms and animal

wastes.AnPhagotroph is an organism that acquires its major nutrients via phagocytosis, that

is, the engulfing by cells of chunks of food and/or other organisms, as seen especially among

protozoa though also sponges and slime molds.So, Statement 4 is not correct.


• An ecosystem is defined as a structural and functional unit of biosphere consisting of

community of living beings and the physical environment, both interacting and

exchangingmaterials between them.

• It includes plants, trees, animals, fish, birds, micro-organisms,water, soil, and people.

• Ecosystems vary greatly in size and elements but each is a functioning unit of nature.

Everything that lives in an ecosystem is dependent on the other species and elements that

are also part of that ecological community. If one part of an ecosystem is damaged or

disappears, it has an impacton everything else.

• When an ecosystem is healthy (i.e. sustainable) it means that all the elements live in balance

and are capable of reproducing themselves. Ecosystem can be as small as asingle tree or as

large as entire forest.

SOURCE:


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96. Which of the following best describes the term “underwriting of loans” by the banking

sector?

(a) It refers to the lower-than-market-value placed on an asset being used as collateral for a loan

(b) It refers to the critical operation of appraising the creditworthiness of a potential

customer

(c) It refers to the critical operation of loan waiver given to a potential customer

(d) It refers to the critical operation of initiating the insolvency process of a customer

EXPLANATION:

A haircut is the lower-than-market-value placed on an asset when it is being used as

collateral for a loan.The size of the haircut is largely based on the risk of the underlying

asset. Riskier assets receive larger haircuts.So, option (a) is not correct.

Loan underwriting is the process of a lender determining if a borrower's loan application is

an acceptable risk. Underwriters assess the borrower's ability to repay the loan based on an

analysis of their credit, capacity, and collateral. The underwriter can make a final decision

without giving equal weight to each consideration. Weaknesses in one area can be offset by

another. Hence, it is the process that leads to a final loan approval or denial, which is

determined by a professional underwriter.So, option (b) is correct.

A loan waiver is the waiving of the real or potential liability of the person or party who has

taken out a loan through the voluntary action of the person or party who has made the loan.

So, option (c) is not correct.

Insolvency And Bankruptcy Code gives flexibility to financial as well as operational creditors

to initiate an insolvency resolution process against those companies which have defaulted in

making payment of Rs. 1,00,000 (Rupees One Lakh) or more towards the legitimate dues of

the financial or operational creditors.So, option (d) is not correct.

SOURCE:

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/underwriting

97. Consider the following statements about “Edge Computing”:

1. It allows users to store and access data and programs over the Internet instead of

storing data on the computer's hard drive.

2. It provides quicker data processing and content delivery than cloud computing.


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(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

It stores and access data and programs in the edge of the network, in a localized storage (But

still internet is needed to store and access data in that localized storage). So, Statement 1 is

correct.

That data doesn’t need to be sent over a network as soon as it processed; only important data

is sent. Therefore, an edge computing network reduces the amount of data that travels over the

network. So It provides quicker data processing and content delivery than cloud computing.



what is Edge Computing?

• Edge computing enables data to be analysed, processed and transferred at the edge of a

network.

• The idea is to analyse data locally, closer to where it is stored, in real-time without latency,

rather than send it far away to a centralised data centre.

• So whether you are streaming a video or accessing a library of video games in the cloud, edge

computing allows for quicker data processing and content delivery.

How is edge computing different from cloud computing?

• The basic difference between edge computing and cloud computing lies in the place where

the data processing takes place.

• At the moment, the existing Internet of Things (IoT) systems performs all of their

computations in the cloud using data centres.

• Edge computing, on the other hand, essentially manages the massive amounts of data

generated by IoT devices by storing and processing data locally.

• That data doesn’t need to be sent over a network as soon as it processed; only important data

is sent.

• Therefore, an edge computing network reduces the amount of data that travels over the

network.

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SOURCE:

https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/edge-computing

98. With reference to the Indian National Movement, which one of the following is the main

aim of the Desai – Liaqat Pact?

(a) To form an interim government at the centre

(b) To defend the Indian National Army cadres against INA Trials

(c) Establishment of Constituent Assembly for drafting Constitution for independent India

(d) To collectively demand independence from the British

EXPLANATION:

Bhulabhai Desai, leader of the Congress Party in the Central Legislative Assembly, met

Liaqat Ali Khan, deputy leader of the Muslim League in that Assembly, and both of them

came up with the draft proposal for the formation of an interim government at the

centre, consisting of—

• an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the

central legislature.

• 20% reserved seats for minorities.

No settlement could be reached between the Congress and the League on these lines, but the

fact that a sort of parity between the Congress and the League was decided upon had far-

reaching consequences. So, option (a) is correct.

The INA Defence Committee was a committee established by the Indian National Congress in

1945 to defend those officers of the Indian National Army who were to be charged during the

INA trials. So, option (b) is not correct.

On 29 August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the

Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution for India. So, option (c)

is not correct.

The Purna Swaraj declaration, or Declaration of the Independence of India, was promulgated

by the Indian National Congress on 19 December 1929, resolving the Congress and Indian

nationalists to fight for Purna Swaraj, or complete self-rule independent of the British

Empire. So, option (d) is not correct.

SOURCE:


https://www.iasparliament.com/current-affairs/edge-computing

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99. Consider the following countries:

1. France

2. Turkey

3. Spain

4. Portugal

Which of the countries mentioned above shares its border with the Mediterranean Sea and

the Atlantic Ocean?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

100. In which of the following state in India, the Clouded Leopard is not found in its natural

habitat?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) West Bengal

(c) Mizoram

(d) Uttarakhand

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EXPLANATION:

In India, Clouded Leopard can be found in Sikkim, northern West Bengal, Meghalaya

subtropical forests, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Assam, Nagaland and Arunachal

Pradesh.So, option (d) is correct.


Clouded leopard:

• Named after cloud shaped pattern on its skin.

• It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.

• It is the State animal of Meghalaya.

• It has been added to India’s Recovery Programme for Critically Endangered Species to aid

more research and strengthen conservation efforts.

• Clouded Leopard prefers grassland, shrubs, subtropical and dense tropical forest up to a

height of 7,000 feet occurring from the Himalayan foothills through mainland Southeast Asia

into China.

• In India, it occurs in Sikkim, northern West Bengal, Meghalaya subtropical forests, Tripura,

Mizoram, Manipur, Assam, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.