Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : JIPMERTEST DATE : 28 - 05 - 2019

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

PRE-MEDICAL : TARGET 2019

)1//1CMD3/5418/54)Paper Code

(1001CMD305418054)Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies thecorrect seat only.

If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the

examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 2½ Hours and Questions Paper Contains 200 Questions. The Max. Marks are 800.

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answeris harmful.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

Important Instructions

JIPMER/28-05-2019

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BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKINGHAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS

1. If frequency (F), velocity (V) and density (D)are considered as fundamental units, thedimensional formula for momentum will be :-

(1) DV F2 (2) DV2 F–1

(3) D2V2F2 (4) DV4F–3

2. The error in measuring the mass and radius ofa solid sphere are ±1% and ± 0.5% respectively.The error in calculation of the moment of inertiaof the solid sphere will be about

(1) ± 1.5% (2) ± 2.5%

(3) ± 3% (4) ± 2%

3. A ball is thrown upward. It's height varies withtime as shown in figure. Then the value ofheight 'h' is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

t=2t=1 t=5 t=6 time (sec)

Height (m)

h

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m

(3) 15 m (4) 25 m

4. A particle is moving along a straight line whosevelocity-displacement graph is shown. Theacceleration of particle when displacement is 3m:-

v(m/s)

s(m)60°

3O

4

(1) 24 3 m/s- (2) 23 3 m/s-

(3) 23 m/s- (4) 24 / 3 m/s-

5. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigidsupport at A as shown in figure. Another ropeis tied at the end B and it is pulled horizontallywith a force F. If the rope AB makes an angleq with the vertical, then the tension in the stringAB is :

M

FBqA

(1) F sin q (2) F/sin q(3) F cos q (4) F/cos q

6. The value of mass m for which 100 kg blockremains in static equilibrium is :-

100

m

37°m =0.3

(1) 35 kg (2) 37 kg (3) 88 kg (4) 85 kg

7. Force acting on a particle is +ˆ ˆ(2i 3 j)N . Work

done by this force is zero, when a particle ismoved on the line 3y + Kx = 5. The value ofK is(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4

8. A mass M is allowed to fall on a pedestal fixedon the top of a vertical spring. If the height ofthe mass was H from the pedestal and thecompression of the spring is d then the spring'sforce factor is given by :-

H

M

(1) 2

(H d)Mg

d

+(2) 2

(H d)2Mg

d

-

(3) 2

Mg H2 d

(4) 2

(H d)2Mg

d

+

1001CMD305418054E-2/20

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019

9. A rotating rod covers 2 revolutions in 10 sstarting from rest, then find angular velocityafter 1 minute of its start :-(1) 2.4 p (2) 4.8 p(3) 1.2 p (4) 8 p

10. Centre of mass of three particles of mass 1kg,2kg and 3kg lies at the origin of a coordinatesystem. The position vector of a fourth particleof mass 4kg such that centre of mass of fourparticle system lies at the point (3, 2, 1) is

ˆ ˆ ˆ(3i 2 j k)a + + , where a is a constant. The value

of a is :-

(1) 12

(2) 32

(3) 52

(4) 103

11. A bullet of mass m and velocity v is fired intoa block of mass M and sticks to it. The finalvelocity of the system equals :-

(1)M

.vm M+

(2) m

.vm M+

(3)m M

.vm+

(4) None of these

12. A particle of mass m moves with velocityu1 = 20 m/s towards a heavy wall that is movingwith velocity v2 = 5 m/s as shown :

u2

u1

If the particle collides with the wall withoutlosing its energy, find the speed of the particlejust after the collision :(1) 30 m/s(2) 5 m/s(3) 20 m/s(4) 25 m/s

13. A belt moves over two pulleys A and B asshown in the figure. The pulleys are mountedon two fixed Horizontal axis. Raddi of thepulleys A and B are 50 cm and 80 cmrespectively. Pulley A is driven at constantangular acceleration 0.8 rad/s2. How long after thepulley B achieve angular velocity of10 rad/s.

A BC

(1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 1014. A thin uniform rod AB of mass m = 1.0 kg

moves transitionally with acceleration a = 2.0 m/s2

due to two antiparallel forces F1 and F2. Thedistance between the points at which theseforces are applied is equal to d = 20 cm.Besides, it is known that F2 = 5.0 N. Find thelength of the rod.

F1

F2

d

A

B

(1) 3

m2

(2) 1

m2

(3) 5

m2

(4) 1 m

15. A ball is thrown down a lawn with puretranslational velocity V0. If friction is sufficientto perform rolling, then speed of ball when purerolling starts

(1) 02

V7

(2) 02

V5

(3) 05

V7

(4) 03

V5

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16. If earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R,i f g30 is value of acceleration due to gravity atthe latitude of 30° and g at the equator, thenthe value of g – g30° is :-

(1) 21R

4w (2) 23

R4

w

(3) w2 R (4) 21R

2w

17. A space station is set up in space at a distance

equal to the earth's radius from the surface of

the earth. Suppose a satellite can be launched

from the space station. Let v1 and v2 be the

escape velocities of the satellite from the earth's

surface and space station, respectively. Then(1) v2 = v1

(2) v2 < v1

(3) v2 > v1

(4) (1), (2) and (3) are valid depending on the

mass of satellite

18. A rope of 1 cm diameter breaks if the tension in

it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension that may

be given to a similar rope of diameter 2 cm is -

(1) 500 N (2) 250 N

(3) 1000 N (4) 2000 N

19. The cylindrical vessel is kept on horizontal

surface as shown in figure. The speed of water

coming out through small hole :-

h=10m

M=45kg

4m

Piston: m=5kgA=1m2

(1) 6 m/s (2) 0.6 m/s(3) 11 m/s (4) 1.1 m/s

20. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made ofa material of density r1. It is falling through aliquid of density r2(r2 < r1). Assume that theliquid applies a viscous force on the ball that isproportional to the square of its speed vi.e. F = – Kv2 ( K > 0) then how the terminalvelocity (vT) depends on volume :-(1) vT µ V (2) vT µ V1/2

(3) vT µ V2/3 (4) vT µ V3/2

21. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACBof same heat conductivity k, it is conductingan amount of heat H. The ADB part is nowreplaced with another metal keeping thetemperatures T1 and T2 constant. The heatcarried increases to 2 H. What should be theheat conductivity of the new ADB part? Given

ACB3 :

ADB= -

A BT2T1 D

C

(1)7

k3

(2) 2 k

(3) 5

k2

(4) 3 k

22. A black body is heated from 7ºC to 287ºC. Theratio of radiation emitted is:-

(1) 1:256 (2) 1:27 (3) 1:16 (4) 1:64

23. When water is heated from 0ºC to 4ºC, then :-

(1) Cp = Cv (2) Cp > Cv

(3) Cp < Cv (4) Cp – Cv = R

24. Three samples of the same gas X, Y and Z

53

æ ög =ç ÷è ø

have initially equal volume. All the

three samples undergo expansion to doubletheir volume. the process is adiabatic for X,isobaric for Y and isothermal for Z. If finalpressures are equal for all three samples, theratio of their initial pressures is :-

(1) 2 8 : 2 : 1(2) 4 : 2 : 1

(3) 32 4 : 1 : 2

(4) 32 : 1 : 4

1001CMD305418054E-4/20

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25. If coefficient of performance of a refrigaratoris b and heat absorbed from refrigarated spaceis Q, then work done on the system is :-

(1) bQ (2) (1+b) Q

(3) Q

1+ b (4) Q

1b -

26. A body is executing a simple harmonic motionsuch that its potential energy is U1 at x and U2

at y displacement. When the displacement is x+ y, the potential energy will be :-

(1) U1 + U2 (2) 2 21 2U U+

(3) U1 + U2 + 1 22 U U (4) 1 2U U

27. In a spring block system shown, the block ofmass m moves over a smooth horizontalsurface and under goes SHM with time periodT and amplitude A. A constant horizontal forceF now begins act on the block. Motion of theblock will be :-

k Fm

(1) Periodic but not SHM

(2) SHM with time period = T

(3) SHM with time period = T + (F/mA)–1/2

(4) SHM with time period = T–(F/mA)–1/2

28. A wire of variable mass per unit length m = m0x,is hanging from the ceiling as shown in figure. Thelength of wire is l0. A small transverse disturbanceis produced at its lower end. Find the time afterwhich the disturbance will reach to the other ends.

x

(1) 08

gl

(2) 04

gl

(3) 02

gl

(4) None

29. Two open pipes of length L are vibratedsimultaneously. If length of one of the pipe isreduced by y, then the number of beats heardper second will be, if the velocity of sound isV and y < L.

(1) 2

Vy2L

(2) 2

VyL

(3) Vy2L

(4) 22L

Vy

30. A star is moving away from the earth with avelocity of 100 km/s. If the velocity of light is3 × 108 m/s, then the shift of its spectral line ofwavelength 5700 Å due to Doppler effect is :-

(1) 0.63 Å (2) 1.90 Å

(3) 3.80 Å (4) 5.70 Å

31. Find electric field intensity at point P due touniformly charge rod of length L.

PL

L

2l

(1) 04 L

lpÎ (2)

02 Ll

pÎ

(3) 0 L

lpÎ (4)

0

4L

lpÎ

32. Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –q areplaced at the corners of a square of side 2L.Theelectric potential at centre of square will be -

q – q

q –q2L

O

(1) kqL (1 5)+ (2) Zero

(3) 2kqL

(4) 4kqL

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33. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitance C

and 2C are connected in parallel and charged

to a potential difference V. The battery is then

disconnected and the region between the plates

of C is filled completely with a material of

dielectric constant K. The common potential

difference across the combination becomes :-

(1)2V

K 2+

(2) V

K 2+

(3) 3V

K 3+

(4) 3V

K 2+

34. For the circuit shown in figure, time constantis :

R

C3R

6R

+–

(1) t = RC (2) t = 2.1 RC

(3) t = 274

RC (4) t = 3RC

35.R 2R

B

R

A R R R

R

Find equivalent resistance between A and B :-

(1)6R5

(2)4R3

(3)R3

(4)5R3

36. The reading of Ammeter A1 connected asshown in the network is

A1

12W 40W 60W

A2

24V

(1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 3A (4) 4A37. A 1W voltmeter has a range of 1V. Find the new

range of voltmeter if a 99W resistance isconnected with it in series.(1) 10V (2) 100V(3) 1000V (4) 10,000V

38. A large straight current carrying conductor is

bent in the form of L shape. Find Br

at P :-

Pa

a

ii

(1) Zero (2) 0µ i ˆ(2 2) k4 a

+p

(3) 0µ i4 ap

(4) 02µ iap

39. A particle of charge (+q) and mass 'm' enters

with velocity ( )0ˆ ˆv v i k= +

r in a magnetic field

0ˆB B k=

r then :-

(1) it moves along a circular path of radius 0

0

mvqB

(2) it moves along helical path of pitch 0

0

2 mvqBp

(3) it moves along a helical path of pitch

00

2 2 m vqB

p

(4) it moves along straight line along +z axis

1001CMD305418054E-6/20

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019

40. The magnetic field existing in a region is given by

B = B0

x ˆ1 kæ ö+ç ÷è øl

A square loop of edge l and carrying current

I is placed with its edges parallel to the X and

Y-axes. The magnitude of the net magnetic

force experienced by the loop is :-

(1) 2B0Il (2) zero

(3) B0Il (4) 4B0Il

41. Magnetic susceptibility of the given paramagnetic

substance at room temperature is :-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

0.40.30.20.1

(in 10 K )–3 –11T

x

(1) 2.8×10–3 (2) 57(3) 0.19 (4) 0.57

42. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector oflength l = 1.0m is situated in a uniformmagnetic field B = 2T perpendicular to the planeof loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2W. Tworesistances of 6W and 3W are connected asshown in figure. The external force required tokeep the connector moving with a constantvelocity v = 2m/s is

l vB

3W6W

(1) 6N (2) 4N (3) 2N (4) 1N43. A lamp emits monochromatic green light

uniformly in all directions. The lamp is 3%efficient in converting electrical power toelectromagnetic waves and consume 100 Wof power. The amplitude of electric fieldassociated with the electromagnetic radiationat a distance 5m from lamp will be(1) 1.34 V/m (2) 2.68 V/m(3) 4.02 V/m (4) 5.36 V/m

44. The reading of ammeter in the circuit shownwill be :-

V

A

X =5C W

X =5L W R=55W

110 V

(1) 2 A (2) 2.4 A (3) zero (4) 1.7 A45. The graph shows variation of I with f for a series

R-L-C network keeping L and C constant. If Rdecreases

I

ffr

Im

(a) maximum current increases(b) sharpness of graph increase(c) quality factor increases(d) band width increases(1) a,b,c (2) b,c,d (3) c,d,a (4) All

46. A point source S is located on a wall. A planemirror M having length l is moving parallel tothe wall with constant velocity v. The brightpatch formed on the wall by reflected light will

(1) move with uniform velocity v and will havea length 2l.

(2) move with uniform velocity 2v and willhave a length l.

(3) move with uniform velocity 2v and willhave a length 2l.

(4) move with uniform velocity but will havea changing length.

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47. A given ray of light suffers minimumdeviation in an equilateral prism P. Additionalprisms Q and R of identical shape and materialare now added to P as shown in figure. Theray will suffer :-

PQ

R

(1) Greater deviation(2) Same deviation(3) No deviation(4) Total internal reflection

48. A compound microscope is used to enlarge anobject kept at a distance 0.03 m from its objectivewhich consists of several convex lenses in contactand has focal length 0.02 m. If a lens of focal length0.1 m is removed from the objective, find out thedistance by which the eye piece of the microscopemust be moved to refocus the image?(1) 9 cm (2) 18 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 12 cm

49. Certain plane wavefronts are shown in figure.Then refractive index of medium is :-

2m

1mA'

A''

medium

vaccum

(1) 2 (2) 4(3) 1.5 (4) can not be determine

50. Two ideal slits S1 and S2 are at a distance dapart and illuminated by light of wavelength lpassing through an ideal source slit S placedon the line through S2 as shown. The distancebetween the planes of slits and source slit is D.A screen is held at a distance D from the planeof the slits. The minimum value of d for whichthere is a darkness at O.

S1

S2O

D DS

(1)3 D

2l

(2) Dl (3) D2

l (4) 3 Dl

51. Wave equation of light used in PEE at a givenpoint is given by E = E0[sin5wt + cos15wt] heret is time. If work function of e– emitter is f thenvalue of stopping potential will be :

(1) hn – f

(2) h 15e 2 e

w fæ ö -ç ÷pè ø

(3) h 5e 2 e

w fæ ö -ç ÷pè ø

(4) 15

h2

wæ ö - fç ÷pè ø

52. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 keV whichis equal to that of a photon. The wavelength ofphoton is l2 and that of proton is l1. The ratioof l1 / l2 is proportional to :-

(1) E2 (2) E1/2

(3) E–1 (4) E –1/2

53. The following diagram indicates the energylevels of a certain atom when the system movesfrom 4E level to E. A photon of wavelength l1

is emitted. The wavelength of photon produced

during it's transition from 73

E level to E is l2.

The ratio 1

2

ll

will be :-

4E

E

E

73

(1) 94

(2) 49

(3) 32

(4) 73

1001CMD305418054E-8/20

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019

54. The intensity distribution of X-rays from twocoolidge tubes operated on different voltagesV1 and V2 using different target materials ofatomic numbers Z1 & Z2 as shown in figure :-

I

l1 l2

12

Ka

Ka

l

Which one of the following inequalities is true-(1) V1 > V2, Z1 < Z2 (2) V1 > V2, Z1 > Z2

(3) V1 < V2, Z1 > Z2 (4) V1 = V2, Z1 < Z2

55. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass

number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure.

W, X, Y and Z are four nuclei indicated on the

curve. The process that would release energy

is :-

5.0

7.5

8.0

8.5

30 60 90 120

Z

Y

X

W

Mass number of nuclei(1) Y ® 2Z (2) W ® X + Y(3) W ® 2Y (4) X ® Y + Z

56. A radioactive substance X decays into another

radioactive substance Y. Initially, only X was

present. lx and ly are the disintegration

constants of X and Y, Ny will be maximum

when :

(1) l

=- l - l

y y

x y x y

N

N N (2) x x

x y x y

NN N

l=

- l - l

(3) lyNy = lxNx (4) lyNx = lxNy

57. A diode is connected to 220 V (rms) ac in serieswith a capacitor as shown in figure. The voltageacross the capacitor is

ac

220 V C

(1) 220 V(2) 110 V(3) 311.1 V

(4) 220

V2

58. In the circuit shown below, the knee current ofideal zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 voltsacross the load RL, the minimum value of RL is:-

ILoad10V

100W

RLV = 5Vz

(1) 125 W (2) 100 W(3) 200 W (4) 250 W

59. An npn transistor in a common emitter modeis used as a simple voltage amplifier with acollector current of 4 mA. The terminal of 8Vbattery is connected to the collector through aload resistance RL and to the base through aresistance RB. The collector-emitter voltageVCE= 4V, base emitter voltage VBE = 0.6 V andbase current amplification factor bdc = 100.Calculate the values of RL and RB.(1) 1 kW and 185 kW(2) 100 W and 2 kW(3) 10 kW and 150 kW(4) 100 kW and 185 W

60. 'Output is LOW if and only if all the inputs are HIGH'Indicate the logic gate for which the abovestatement in ture :–(1) AND (2) OR(3) NOR (4) NAND

JIPMER/28-05-2019

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61. What is the product of the following reaction ?

CH3 OH

CH CH2 3

H

TsCl¾¾¾® –Cl¾¾®

(1) CH3 Cl

CH CH2 3

H

(2) CH3 OTs

CH CH2 3

H

(3) Cl CH3

CH CH2 3

H

(4) TsO CH3

CH CH2 3

H

62. CHOCHO

conc.KOHD

¾¾¾¾® (A) HÅ

D¾¾®cyclicproduct

B

Structure of (B) is :-

(1) O

O

(2) COOHCH OH2

(3) O

O

(4) COOKCH OH2

63. Correct order of reactivity towards E.S.R forfollowing compound is :-

(I)

OCH3

(II) (III) (IV)

Cl NO2 CH3

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > IV > II > III

(3) II > I > III > IV

(4) III > I > II > IV

64.

OH

OHPCC A (i) OH OH / HÅ

(1 eq)(ii) CH –Mg–Br 3

B H O3Å

C

what is C ?

(1)

OHCH3

CH –OH2

(2)

OHCH3

C

O

H

(3)

OHCH3

O

(4) CH

O

OH

CH3

65.

H

H

OHOH

COOHCOOH

Absolute configuration of above molecule is :-(1) 2R, 3S (2) 2S, 3S (3) 2R, 3R (4)2S, 3R

66. Which of the following is most acidic :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) CH2=CH2

67. The compound C4H10O can show :-(1) Metamerism(2) Functional group isomerism(3) Positional Isomerism(4) All

68. Find no. of stereoisomersCH –CH=C=CH–CH–CH=CH–CH3 3

CH3

(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 10

69. The major product of the reaction is :-

NH2 OH

NaNO + HCl2 Major product

(1) (2) H OH

(3) O

(4) NH

1001CMD305418054E-10/20

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019

70. Match the column :

CH (CH ) COO(CH CH O)

3 2 16 2 2 n CH CH OH2 2

C H COO Na17 35– +

CH –(CH ) CH OSO Na3 2 10 2 3

CH (CH ) —N—CH Br3 2 15 3

CH3

CH3

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Column-IStructure

Column-IICleansing

agents

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Cationic detergentAnionic detergentNonionic detergent

Soap

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

71. The distillation technique most suited forseparating glycerol from spent-lye in the soapindustry is :

(1) Distillation under reduced pressure

(2) Simple distillation

(3) Fractional distillation

(4) Steam distillation

72. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect :-

(a) PHBV and Nylon 2 - nylon 6 arebiodegradable polymer.

(b) Bakelite is polymer of urea andformaldehyde.

(c) Novolac is linear product of phenol andformaldehyde and used in paints.

(d) Terylene and Nylon 6, 6 are the exampleof thermoplastic polymers.

(e) Teflon is an addition polymer.

(1) a, c, d (2) b, c, e

(3) c, d (4) b, d

73. C6H5–CºC–CH3

HgSO4

H SO2 4

A

Product (A) will be :-

(1)

O(2)

O

(3) C H – C = CH – CH6 5 3

OH (4) C H – CH = C – CH6 5 3

OH

74. The structure of D–(+)–Glucose is :

CHO

OH

OHH

HHO

CH OH2

OHHH

The structure of L–(–)–Glucose will be :

(1)

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

CHO

H

HOHH

HO

CH OH2

HHOHO

(2)

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

OH

OHHHO

H

CH OH2

HH

HO

(3)

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

CHO

H

OHHHO

HO

CH OH2

HH

HO

(4)

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

CHO

H

HHHO

HO

CH OH2

OHHHO

75. Which of the following correct set of namereaction :

(a)

CHO

COO–

+

CH –OH2

Cannizzaro reaction

(b) CH3–CH2–CHO NaOHD¾¾¾® CH –C=CH–CH –CH3 2 3

CHOAldol condensation reaction

(c) CH3–CH2–COOH 2ClRed P

¾¾¾® CH –CH–COOH3

ClHVZ reaction

(d)CO

NH2 2BrKOH¾¾¾®

NH2

Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction

(1) a, b (2) b, c

(3) a, b, c (4) All

JIPMER/28-05-2019

E-11/201001CMD305418054

76.CH CH3CH3

2 2 4O , dil. H SOcatalyst PD¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾® Q + Acetone

Q does not react with

(1) Na

(2) NaOH

(3) NaHCO3

(4) Zn, D

77.

CH3

Br

CH3

Br

PhPh Zn/ether

D¾¾¾¾® Major product :-

(1)

Ph Ph

CH3 CH3

(2)

Ph CH3

H C3 Ph

(3)

Ph CH3

Ph CH3

(4) Ph CH3

Ph CH2

78. Which has highest boiling point ?

(1) CH3 (CH )2 6 CH3 (2)

(3)

OH

(4) CH3–CHO

79. The appropriate reagent for given conversion is:-

C CH– 3 CH CH2 3–HO HOO

(1) Zn-Hg/HCl

(2) H2N–NH2/KOH

(3) redP/HI

(4) H2/Pd

80. Which reaction show correct major product?

(A)

OH

(i) CHCl OH3 +(ii) H

OHCHO

(B)

OH

(i) CO NaOH 140°C2 + +(ii) H

OHCOOH

(C) N NCl

OH

+ mild Basic medium

N N OH

(D)

NH2

3Br /H O2 2

BrNH2

Br

Br(1) A,B,C (2) A,C,D (3) A,B,C,D (4) B,C,D

81. Hydrogen gas produced by heating NaOH

with which metal :-

(1) Ag (2) Cu(3) Zn (4) Au

82. Main chemical change during roasting of CuFeS2-

(1) CuFeS2 + O2 D¾¾® Cu2O + FeO + SO2.

(2) CuFeS2 + O2 D¾¾® Cu2S + FeS + SO2.

+ FeO

(3) CuFeS2 + O2 D¾¾® Cu2S + FeO + SO2.

(4) CuFeS2 + O2 D¾¾® Cu2O + FeS + SO2.

83. Which of the following is not correctly matched:-

(1) ZnCO3 ® Zn Calcination followed bysmelting

(2) Al(OH)3 ® Al Calcination followed byelectrolytic reduction

(3) PbS ® Pb Partial roasting followedby self reduction

(4) Cu2S ® Cu Roasting followed bycarbon reduction

1001CMD305418054E-12/20

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019

84. IUPAC nomenclature of the complexcompound Na3[Cr(O)2(O2)(O2)2(NH3)] wherehalf of the coordination number are occupiedby neutral ligands with magnetic moment

m = 15 B.M. must be

(1) Sodiumamminedioxidodioxygensuperoxidochromate(III)

(2) Sodiumamminedioxygendioxidodisuperoxidochromate(III)

(3) Sodium amminebis-(dioxygen)dioxidoperoxidochromate (III)

(4) Sodium amminebis-(dioxygen)dioxidoperoxidochromium (II)

85. N2O cant be prepared by

(1) 4 3NH NO D¾¾®

(2) 3Zn dil HNO+ ¾¾®

(3) 3 4NaNO NH C D+ ¾¾®l

(4) 3Cu dil.HNO+ ¾¾®

86. Number of stereo isomers shown by[Pt(en)(NH3)2Cl2] Cl2 :-

(1) 2 (2) 3(3) 4 (4) 5

87. Compound Total stereoisomers

(A)[Co(en)2Br2]+ (M) 2

(B) K3[Co(OX)3] (N) 3

(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (O) 4

(D)[Pt(NH3)3Br3]+ (P) 5

Correct is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) O M O O

(2) N M M M

(3) M O M M

(4) N N M M

88. A complex has magnetic moment 1.73 B.M.

Which of the following configuration of metal

ion is not possible ?

(1) d7 octahydral, lowspin

(2) d5 octahydral, lowspin

(3) d8 square planar

(4) d9 tetrahydral

89. Na2S2O3.5H2O is used in photography to :-

(1) Reduce AgBr to metallic Ag(2) Remove reduced Ag

(3) Remove undecomposed AgBr as a solublecomplex

(4) Convert metallic Ag to silver salt

90. Plaster of paris is hardened by :-

(1) Liberating CO2

(2) Giving out water

(3) Combining with water(4) Changing into CaCO3

91. A compound 'x' on heating gives a colourlessgas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain'y', excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueoussolution of y and z is formed. 'z' on gentleheating gives back x. The 'x' is :-

(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(HCO3)2

(3) NaHCO3 (4) NaOH

92. Select the correct option for melting point ?

(1) SnCl4 < SnCl2 (2) ZnO > ZnS

(3) PbCl4 < PbCl2 (4) All

93. In the crystal lattice of diamond, carbon atomsadopt :-

(1) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of50% tetrahedral holes

(2) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of25% tetrahedral holes

(3) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of25% octahedral holes

(4) bcc arrangement

JIPMER/28-05-2019

E-13/201001CMD305418054

94. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?(1) During N+

2 formation, one electron is removedfrom the bonding molecular orbital of N2.

(2) During O+2 formation, one electron is removed

from the antibonding molecular orbital of O2.(3) During O–

2 formation, one electron is addedto the bonding molecular orbital of O2.

(4) During CN– formation, one electron is addedto the bonding molecular orbital of CN.

95. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is not operative, theparamagnetic species among the following is :-(1) Be2 (2) B2

+2

(3) C2+ (4) O2

–2

96. Which of the following molecular orbital hastwo nodal planes :-(1) p 2Py (2) s 2S(3) p* 2Py (4) s* 2Pz

97. Which of the following order is not correct

(1) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 (Ionic character)

(2) PO4–3 > CO3

–2 > SO4–2 (avg. Formal charge

on terminal oxygen)

(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (Bond energy)

(4) Cl2 < Br2 < F2 < I2 (Bond length)

98. Which of the following is correct statement ?

(a) AlCl3 is conducting in fused state

(b) Mobility of Li+ ion in water is greater than Cs+ ion

(c) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4

(d) BeSO4 is more soluble in water than BaSO4

(1) a, b (2) b, c, d(3) b, d (4) Only d

99. Select the reaction, which is not disproportionationreaction :-

(1) NH4NO3 D¾¾® ? (2) Cl2 + NaOH —®

(3) P4 + NaOH D¾¾® ? (4) H3PO3 D¾¾® ?

100. S2O82– have :-

(1) S–S bond

(2) S–O bridge

(3) O–O bridge

(4) All S–O bond length same

101. Hydrolysis of XeF6 can't give :-

(1) XeOF2 (2) XeO2F2

(3) XeOF4 (4) XeO3

102. The Vapour density of a mixture containingNO2 and N2O4 is 38.3 at 27°C, Calculate thedegree of dissociation of N2O4 :-

(1) 0.537 (2) 0.20 (3) 0.837 (4) 0.337

103. Ka for the acid HA is 1 × 10–6. The value of Kfor the reaction A– + H3O

+ � HA + H2O is :-(1) 1 × 10–6 (2) 1 × 1012

(3) 1 × 10–12 (4) 1 × 106

104. A person living in Manali observed that

cooking food without using pressure cooker

takes more time. The reason for this

observation is that at high altitude:(1) pressure increases

(2) temperature decreases

(3) pressure decreases

(4) temperature increases

105. Which of following is Incorrect?

(1) 'Aerosol' is solid dispersed in gas

(2) 'Foam' is gas dispersed in liquid

(3) 'Gel' is liquid dispersed in solid

(4) 'Gel' is liquid dispersed in liquid

106. The reaction :

X 2Y�

goes to 50% completion. If the initialconcentration of X be 0.5 mol in 0.5 L, the ratioof the active masses of Y and X at equilibriumis(1) 1.0 (2) 0.5(3) 0.2 (4) 2.0

107. consider the plots for a reaction nA ® B+CThese plots respectively correspond to thereaction order

[A]

t1/2 [A]

t1/2 1/[A]®

t1/2

(I) (II) (III)(1) 0, 1, 2 (2) 1, 2, 3(3) 1, 0, 2 (4) None of these

108. A compound is formed by two elements Y andZ. The element Z forms ccp and atoms Yoccupy 1/3 rd of tetrahedral voids. The formulaof the compound is :(1) Y2Z3 (2) YZ (3) YZ3 (4) Y2Z

1001CMD305418054E-14/20

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019

109. Calculate Ecell of the reactionMg(s) + 2Ag+ ® Mg+2 + 2Ag(s) (0.0001M) (0.100M)If E0

cell = 3.17 V(1) –2.96 V (2) +2.96V(3) 3.38 V (4) – 3.38 V

110. Which of the following statements is correct foran electrolytic cell?

(1) electrons flow from cathode to anodethrough external battery

(2) electrons flow from cathode to anode withinthe electrolytic solution

(3) Migration of ions along with oxidationreaction at cathode and reduction reactionat anode

(4) migration of ions along with reductionreaction at cathode and oxidation reactionat anode

111. 0.004 M Na2SO4 is isotonic with 0.01 Mglucose. Degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is :-

(1) 75% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) 85%

112. 4g CH4 and 2g He are mixed under NTP. Whatis the partial pressure of He?

(1) 3

atm4

(2) 1

atm4

(3) 2

atm3

(4) 1

atm3

113. A 100 mL portion of water is added to each ofthe following two solutions :-

(i) 100 mL of 0.02 M HCOOK

(ii) 100 mL of 0.02 M AgCN

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) There will be no change in pH of solution(i) and (ii)

(2) The pH of solution (i) will remain the samebut pH of solution (ii) will increase

(3) The pH of solution (i) will increase butof solution (ii) will remain same

(4) The pH of solution (ii) will remain same butof solution (i) will decrease

114. Consider the reaction at 300 K

C6H6(l) + 215

O (g)2

¾® 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(l);

DH = –3271 KJ.What is DU for the combustion of 1.5 mol ofBenzene at 27°C ?(1) –3267.25 KJ (2) –4906.5 KJ(3) –4900.88 KJ (4) –3274.75 KJ

115. Consider the reaction

380K2 21atmH O( ) H O(g)¾¾¾®l

Sign of DS & DG will be :-

(1) –, + (2) +, +

(3) –, – (4) +, –116. The potential energy of electron in fourth shell

of He+ ion is :-

(1)RCh

4- (2)

RCh2

- (3) RCh

2 (4)

RCh8

-

117. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen werefilled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amountof water produced in this reaction will be :-(1) 2 mol (2) 3 mol(3) 4 mol (4) 1 mol

118. Predict the total spin in Ni+2 ion :-

(1)52

± (2) 12

±

(3) 32

± (4) ±1

119. Which reaction does not representdisproportionation reaction :-(1) Cl2 + OH– ¾® Cl– + ClO3

– + H2O(2) 2H2O2 ¾® H2O+O2

(3) 2Cu+ ¾® Cu2+ + Cu(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ¾® N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O

120. Incorrect option(s) about a CCP structureis/are?

(A)First layer and fourth layer are repeated

(B) First and third layer repeated

(C) Second and fourth layers are repeated

(D)First, third and six layers are repeated

(1) A, B, D (2) B, C, D

(3) B, C (4) Only A

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121. Read the following statements regardingbryophytes and do as ask next to them :-(A) All cells of sporophyte undergo reduction

division to produce haploid spores.(B) They play an important role in plant

succession on barren rocks.(C) Plant body is thallus like and prostate or

errect and attached to the substratum byunicellular or multicellular rhizoids.

(D) They prevent soil erosion.(E) Sex organs are multicellular. Male and

female sex organs are called archegoniumand antheridium respectively.

How many of the above statements is/are notcorrect?(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4

122. Read the following paragraph and fill in theblanks with appropriate words :-In pteridophytes the main plant body is__(A)__which bears sporangia that are subtendedby leaf-like appendages called__(B)__. Thesporangia produce spores by__(C)__ and aftergermination of spores, they give rise tophotosynthetic gametophytes called__(D)__.choose the correct option:-

A B C D (1) Sporophyte Sporangia Meiosis Protonema (2) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Sporophyte (3) Sporophyte Sporophylls Meiosis Prothallus (4) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Protonema

123. In the members of green algae the cell wall isdouble layered, inner cell wall is cellulosicwhile outer cell wall is composed of :-(1) Cutin (2) Pectose(3) Algin (4) Lignin

124. The needle like leaves, reduced surface area, thickcuticle sunken stomata are the characteristicfeature of the which group of plants :-(1) Pteridophyte(2) All bryophytes(3) Gymnosperm (Conifers)(4) Angiosperm

125. The processes include separation & purification,which are collectively refered to as-(1) Upstream processing(2) Down stream processing(3) Biosynthetic phase(4) Biofortification

126. In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid,the bacterial cells must be made :-(1) recombinant (2) transformant(3) Competent (4) Non recombinant

127. Which restriction site is found in ampR gene inpBR322–(1) EcoR I, Cla-I (2) BamH I, Sal-I(3) Pvu I, Pst I (4) Hind III, Cla I

128. Photosystem concerned with photolysis ofwater and reduction of NADP in C3 plants arerespectively :-(1) PSI, PSI (2) PS II, PS II(3) PS I, PS II (4) PS II, PS I

129. TCA cycle is amphibolic because the intermediatesuccinyl-CoA is used as raw material for :-(1) Gibberellins (2) Pyrimidines(3) Carotenoids (4) Cytochromes

130. Zn++ is required for the precursor of :-(1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin(3) Auxin (4) ABA

131. Cells controlling the quantity and type ofsolutes reaching protoxylem belong to :-(1) Cortex (2) Pericycle(3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis

132. All of the following are viral STI except :-(1) Genital herpes (2) Genital warts(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Hepatitis-B

133. According to the 2011 census Indianpopulation growth rate (annual%) is around:-(1) 16.4% (2) 6.41%(3) 1.64% (4) 1.46%

134. Find the incorrect statement related to humanreproduction.(1) Endocrine activity in the ovaries is not essential

for sexual differention during fetal life.(2) Most ovarian germ cells die before puberty

in female(3) Ovarian inhibin controls FSH secretion by

negative feedback action in posteriar pituitary(4) Spermatozoa require a period of epididymal

maturation.135. During embryonic development human brain

is from which layer?(1) Trophoblast (2) Hypoblast(3) Epiblast (4) Cytotrophoblast

136. Basal part of diencephalon not regulates:-

(1) Temperature of human body

(2) Sympathetic activities of human body

(3) Biological clock of human body

(4) Voluntary muscles movements of human body

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137. Which one is not possible during depolarisation?(1) Working of Na+ gated channels(2) Working of pump(3) working of leaky channels(4) Working of leaky channels & Na+ gated

channels138. Which hormone promotes conversion of

vitamine-D into active form :-(1) Cortisol(2) ADH(3) PTH(4) TCT

139. Which one is a group antagonistic hormone?(1) MSH & Melanine (2) Calcitriole & ADH(3) PTH & calcitonine (4) Glucagon & cortisol

140. Melanine pigments & blood supply found in :-(1) Sclera(2) Choroid(3) Retinal sensory layer(4) Cornea

141. Which one is not a correct match:-(1) Saccule – perceives vertical movement(2) utricle – Perceives horizontal movement(3) Cerumen– Perceives removal of dust in

internal ear.(4) Semicircular canals – Perceives rotational

movement142. Simple cuboidal epithelium is not characterised by:-

(1) Centrally located spherical nuclei.(2) Secretion & absorption(3) Cilia found in germinal epithelium(4) Presence in PCT of nephron.

143. Earthworm does not show :-(1) Bilateral symmetry(2) Schizocoelom(3) Tube within tube plan(4) Radial symmetry

144.

(A) (B) (C)

In above given diagrams , which one hasmaximum arm ratio ?(1) A (2) B(3) B and C both (4) C

145. During karyokinesis, which one structure isdirectly helpfull for movement of chromosomesduring cell division ?(1) Cell membrane (2) Plastids(3) Cytoskelton (4) Cell wall

146.

Choose the correct statement for given figure:-(1) Centrosome which had undergone

duplication during interphase, begins tomove towards opposite poles of the cell.

(2) Spindle fibres attach to kiretochores ofchromosomes

(3) Centromere split and chromatids separate.(4) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.

147. Choose the correct match:-(1) M-phase – Non-apparent division(2) Interphase – Apparent division(3) Chromatid– Longitudinal half of a metaphase

chromosome(4) Haplopappus gracillis ® Chromosome

number in gamete (n) is 4148.

R –C–O–CH2

O CH –O–C–R2 1

O

CH –O–P–O–CH –CH2 2 2

NCH3 CH3CH3

OH

O

Choose the correct option for given structuralformula:-(1) Palmitic Acid(2) Triglyceride(3) Cholesterol(4) Phospholipid (Lecithin)

149. __A__ does not contains complex helices and

hence cannot hold __B___.

Choose the correct option for A and B

(1) A–starch, B– I2

(2) A-Glycogen, B-I2

(3) A–Homopolymer Cellulose, B-I2

(4) A– heteropolymer cellulose, B-I2

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150. In pheretima there are red coloured rounded bodiesin 4th, 5th and 6th segments above the alimentarycanal. They are believed to be involved in :-(1) Excretion(2) Digestion(3) Reproduction(4) Leucocytes production

151. In cockroach which pair is correctly matched:(1) Anal cerci ® From 10th sternum of abdomen(2) Anal style ® From 9th sternum of abdomen(3) Phonoreceptor ® 4th, 5th and 6th sternum

of abdomen(4) Labial palp® 5-segmented structure.

152. Among followings how many statement is/are

correct about food chain :-

(a) GFC is major conduit of energy flow in aquatic

ecosystem.

(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not

direct sunlight.

(c) DFC may be connected to GFC some where.

(d) In GFC size of organisms commonly decreases

at higher level.

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four153. If A represents angiosperm while D represent

fungi then C represents:-

E F

A

BC

D

(1) Fern and Alies (2) Algae(3) Lichen (4) Mosses

154. Sum total of biotic and abiotic factors which donot allow a population to achieve its bioticpotential is :-(1) Environmental resistance(2) Carrying capacity(3) Ecological amplitude(4) Ecological natality

155. Greater biological diversity of tropics thantemperate regions is due to the -(1) Presence of more seasonal environment(2) Frequent glaciations in the past(3) Highly variable climate and availability of

less solar energy in the past.(4) Availability of more solar energy which

contributes high productivity.

156. The cyclic seasonal morphological variationsamong certain organisms is called :-(1) Hibernation (2) Aestivation(3) Cyclomorphosis (4) Diapause

157. In thermal stratification of lake, identify a, b,c in given diagram-

a

bc

(1) a = Epilimnion b = Metalimnion c = Hypolimnion

(2) a = Hypolimnion b = Metalimnion c = Epilimnion

(3) a = Metalimnion b = Epilimnion c = Hypolimnion

(4) a = Hypolimnion b = Epilimnion c = Metalimnion

158. A Diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci.

How many types of gametes can it produce?

(1) 4 (2) 8

(3) 16 (4) 32

159. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is

caused by a mutation in :-

(1) BRCA1 (2) BRAF

(3) Dystrophin (4) FOXP2160. If following is the sequence of nucleotide in mRNA,

predict the number of amino acid coded by it :-CACAUG UUU CCC AAA GUG GGG UAA AAC

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7161. In Birds, Sex of the offspring will depend on:-

(1) Type of only sperm(2) Type of only ovum(3) Type of both sperm and ovum(4) Sex detrmination in birds, does not depend

on gametes162. Match the column I and ColumnII and find out

most correct option:-Column-I Column-II

A. Atlas-66 (i) Leaf and stripe rustB. Pusa gaurv (ii) Protein rich wheatC. Pusa Sawani (iii) MustardD. Pusa sem 3 (iv) BhindiE. Himgiri (v) Flat beam

(vi) Bacteria blight(vii) Shoot and fruit borer(viii) Black rot

A B C D E(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)(2) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv) (i)(3) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (i)(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

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163. Which process is crucial to the success of thebreeding objective and requires careful scientificevaluation of the progery :-(1) Evaluation and selection of parents(2) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents.(3) Selection and testing of superior recombinants(4) Testing, release and commercialisation of

new cultivars.164. Which of the following is example of the passive

immunity ?(1) Hepatities-B vaccine(2) Antigen administration(3) Colostrum(4) Infection

165. Which of the following statement is not correct?(1) Morphine is extracted from unriped fruit of

Papaver somniferum.(2) In ECG end of T wave represent end of systole(3) L.S.D is a cannabinoid and it causes hallucination(4) Psoriasis and Rheumatoid arthritis both are

autoimmune diseases.166. Reabsorption of HCO–

3 from glomerular filtrateoccur at which part of nephron?(1) PCT and descending limb of loop of

Henle(2) PCT, DCT and collecting duct.(3) PCT and DCT(4) Ascending limb of loop of henle and DCT.

167. Here are some statements about myosin proteinof muscle, select the incorrect one-(1) Each myosin molecule is a polymer

composed of monomers called meromyosin.(2) Head of myosin has ATP binding site and

actin binding site.(3) Myosin head is called HMM and tail is called

LMM(4) Tail of myosin run along with thick filament

and head project outward168. Cytoskeletal elements such as microfilaments

are involved in amoeboid movement. Theprotein used as motor in this movement is :-(1) Actin (2) Myosin(3) Dystrophin (4) Dynein

169. Which one of the following acts as 'universaltooth brush'?(1) Uvula (2) Tongue(3) Teeth (4) Palate

170. Functional Residual capacity is :-(1) TV + ERV (2) ERV + IRV(3) ERV + RV (4) TV + ERV + RV

171. Haemoglobin can act as a buffer at physiologicalpH because of its high quantity of :-(1) Lysine (2) Arginine(3) Histidine (4) Glutamate

172. 'Warfarin' Shows antagonistic effect to :-(1) Vit D (2) Vit K(3) Vit B (4) Vit E

173. Which of the following match is incorrect?(1) Pea – Marginal placentation(2) Tomato – Axile placentation(3) Sunflower – Parietal placentation(4) Marigold – Basal placentation

174. Fruit of fabaceae is :-(1) Legume (2) Capsule(3) Berry (4) Siliqua

175. Which of the following match is correct?(1) Banyan – Stilt root(2) Sugarcane – Stilt root(3) Twisted aestivation – Pea(4) Syncarpour condition – Rose

176. Which of following statement is incorrect?(1) Bark is a non technical term(2) Spring wood is lighter in colour(3) Pith is well developed in monocot root(4) In dicot stem, radial vascular bundles are present.

177. Phloem fibres are made up of(1) Parenchymatous cells(2) Sclerenchymatous cells(3) Collenchymatous cells(4) Meristematic cells

178. Which tissue forms the major component withinorgans :-(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma(3) Sclenenchyma (4) Xylem

179. Which of the following statement is correct?(1) Pollination by water is quite common in grasses.(2) Castor is a dioecious plants(3) Wheat is an example of endospermic seed(4) Strawberry is a type of true fruit

180. The portion of embryonal axis above the levelof attachement of scutellum is :-(1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl(3) Perisperm (4) Pericarp

One word substitution :181. Word for word reproduction.

(1) Copying (2) Mugging(3) Verbatim (4) Photostat

182. A person who collects coins.(1) Philatelist (2) Numismatist(3) Narcissist (4) Fatalist

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Directions : Choose the word which is most nearlythe same in meaning as the word given.183. Encourage

(1) Animate (2) Urge(3) Stimulate (4) Dissuade

184. Self-sufficient(1) Adequate (2) Dependent(3) Overflowing (4) Self-reliant

Pick out the most effective word/phase to make thesentance meaningfully complete.185. He knelt at his side and comforted him

with.......words.(1) Harsh (2) Silent(3) Kind (4) Cruel

186. We cannot.... ..... ....of life without suitableenvironment.(1) Live (2) Buy(3) Extract (4) Think

187. From the given alternative words, select the onewhich can be formed using the letters of thegiven word EXAMINATION.(1) ANIMAL (2) EXAMINER(3) NATIONAL (4) ANIMATION

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the givenword.188. CROWDED

(1) Deserted (2) Lonely(3) Empty (4) Barren

189. MAGNANIMOUS(1) Selfish (2) Naive(3) Generous (4) Small

190. FILTHY(1) Stainless (2) Shining(3) Sterilized (4) Clean

191. From the given alternatives, select the wordwhich cannot be formed using the letters ofthe given word.Contemptuous(1) Con (2) Tom(3) Pretty (4) Post

192. Which of the following terms follows the trendof the given list?BAAAAAAB, ABAAAAAB, AABAAAAB,AAABAAAB, AAAABAAB, _________(1) AAAAABAB (2) AAAAAABB(3) BAAAAAAB (4) ABAAAAAB

193. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that ofgirls, Ravita ranked 17th from the top. If thereare 9 boys ahead of Ravita, how many girlsare after her in the rank?(1) 26 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 33

194. In an examination Raj got more marks thanModi but not as many as Meena. Meena gotmore marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganeshgot less marks than Modi but his marks are notthe lowest in the group. Who is second in thedescending order of marks?(1) Meena (2) Rupali(3) Raj (4) Ganesh

195. Ayush was born two years after his father’smarriage. His mother is five years younger thanhis father but 20 years older than Ayush whois 10 years old. At what age did the father getmarried ?(1) 23 years (2) 25 years(3) 33 years (4) 35 years

196. Select the related letters from the givenalternatives: FJSP : DLQR :: GMIL : ?(1) EOGN (2) JNIO(3) HOGN (4) IONG

197. The following equation is incorrect. Which twosigns should be interchanged to correct theequation?

12 - 16 × 25 ÷ 80 + 10 = 7(1) ÷ and × (2) - and +(3) × and - (4) ÷ and -

198. Choose the correct alternative that will continuethe same pattern and replace the question markin the given series.

  120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?(1) 35 (2) 38 (3) 39 (4) 40

199. In a certain code language, “SLOPE” is writtenas “54973” and “CRAMP” is written as“18627”. How is “PROMO” written in that codelanguage?(1) 76828 (2) 96838(3) 76939 (4) 78929

200. A shopper in a mart loads his trolley and walks30 m through an alley which is going South,then he turns to his left and walks 10 m, thenhe turns North and walks another 10 m, thenhe turns West and walks 45 m and then he turnsNorth and walks 20 m. Where is he now withreference to his starting position?(1) 35 m West (2) 55 m West(3) 35 m East (4) 55 m East

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK