portfolio revision and evaluation

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  • 7/30/2019 Portfolio Revision and Evaluation

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    Portfolio revision, reconstruction and

    Evaluation

    Himanshu Puri

    Faculty

    DIAS

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    PORTFOLIO REVISIONAND

    RECONSTRUCTION

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    Why Portfolio Revision?

    To align the portfolio in accordance with the investment policy

    statement and investment strategy

    The needs of the beneficiary will change

    The relative merits of the portfolio components will change

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    Rebalancing

    Rebalancing can cause the portfolio manager to

    sell shares even if they are not doing poorly

    Profit taking with winners is a logical

    consequence of portfolio rebalancing

    4

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    Upgrading

    Investors should sell shares when their

    investment potential has deteriorated to the

    extent that they no longer merit a place in the

    portfolio

    It is difficult to take a loss, but it is worse to let

    the losses grow

    5

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    Change in Client Objectives

    The clients investment objectives may change

    occasionally:

    E.g., a church needs to generate funds for a

    renovation and changes the objective for the fund

    from growth of income to income

    Reduce the equity component of the portfolio

    6

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    Change in Market Conditions

    Many fund managers seek to actively time the

    market

    When a portfolio managers outlook becomes

    bearish, he may reduce his equity holdings

    7

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    Portfolio managers:

    Should be careful about making unnecessarytrades

    Must pay attention to their experience, intuition,and professional judgment

    An experienced portfolio manager worriedabout a particular holding should probablymake a change

    8

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    Risk-Adjusted Measures of Portfolio Performance

    Sharpes Ratio

    p

    FPp

    RRS

    Defined as the ratio of excess returns earned over the risk

    free rate to the risk of the portfolio.

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    Example

    Portfolio Return Risk

    Risk-free

    rate

    A 10% 3% 5%

    B 12% 7% 5%

    67.13

    510

    AS

    17

    512

    BS

    Thus based on Sharpe ratio portfolio A has performed better than

    portfolio B

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    So what it does it mean to an investor?

    For the investor it means that subject to the returns, variance,

    co-variances of the securities of the portfolios remaining

    constant, portfolio A is better then portfolio B

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    Treynors Ratio

    Defined as the ratio of excess returns of the portfolio over the

    risk free rate to the beta of the portfolio.

    P

    FPP

    RRT

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    Fund return SD beta

    A 14 6 1.5

    B 12 4 0.5

    C 16 3 1

    D 10 6 0.5

    E 20 10 2

    Given the risk free rate is 3%. Rank the performance using Sharpe and Treynors

    ratio. Assume C to be a market portfolio

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    Fund return SD beta Sharpe Rank Treynor Rank

    A 14 6 1.5 1.83 3 7.3 5

    B 12 4 0.5 2.25 2 18.0 1

    C 16 3 1 4.33 1 13.0 3

    D 10 6 0.5 1.17 5 14.0 2

    E 20 10 2 1.70 4 8.5 4

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    Jensens Alpha

    )(( FMFp RRRR

    Average return of the portfolio over and above that predicted by CAPM

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    Fund return SD beta

    A 14 6 1.5

    B 12 4 0.5

    C 16 3 1

    D 10 6 0.5

    E 20 10 2

    Given the risk free rate is 5% and RM= 10%. Rank the performance Jensens alpha.

    Assume C to be a market portfolio

    A = .14 {.05+1.5(.10-.05)} = 1.5%

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    The above measures help in measuring and comparing the performance on risk adjusted

    basis between portfolio managers.

    Fama went a step further to break the performance into smaller components.

    Assume a fund manager has given a return of 14% with a total risk of 15(%)2. The beta of

    fund managers portfolio is 0.5. Given the risk free-rate is 5% and the market risk

    premium is 6%.

    So obviously this portfolio would lie above the SML.

    However a security with a beta of 0.5 should be giving a return of 8%. So the portfolio

    manager has given an excess return of 6%.

    Famas Decomposition

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    Now if the fund manager is getting higher return than the expected return, then it can

    only be earned by taking higher risk.

    Now since the beta is same so the risk that the manager takes is the unsystematic risk.

    Thus the excess return is due to higher unsystematic risk assumed by the fund manager.

    Now this only gives us the information that that he has taken a higher risk to get higher

    return and tells us nothing about his skill.

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    Now we compare this portfolio with a portfolio which has similar total risk as this

    portfolio and lies on the SML.

    Since on SML the only risk that would be present would be the systematic risk so its

    total risk would be equal to systematic risk.

    If total risk of the market portfolio is 10(%)2 , then the beta for a portfolio which has

    similar total risk as the fund managers portfolio is

    1510*2 22.1

    The return for this portfolio is =5+1.22*6=12.34%

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    Thus the return being earned by the fund manager bearing the same total risk is 14%

    as compared to a return of 12.34% on the SML

    The difference i.e. 14%-12.34%=1.66% is due to fund managers skill.

    So out of 6% excess return over the similar beta portfolio, 1.66% is due to fund managers

    skill and the rest (4.34%) is the return since he is bearing a taking a higher unsystematic

    risk.

    1.66% return earned here is the return due to selection skills of the portfolio manager

    and is called return due to net selectivity while the total 6% earned is called the return

    from total selectivity. The difference between the two is called the return from

    diversification.