polity important mcqs

POLITY IMPORTANT

MCQs

by-

SHIVANI SONI

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. 25 years to be the minimum age of contesting election to panchayats.

2. Reservation of one-third of seats (both members and Chairpersons) for SC/ST in panchayats at all the three levels.

3. The Legislature of a State can make provisions for reservation of seats in any Panchayat or offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at any level in favor of backward class of citizens.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 3 only

Explanation:

3 only is correct. The minimum age for contesting the elections to the Panchayats is 21 years. Also, the reservation of seats for SC/ST in Panchayats is according to the proportion of their population.


1. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament falls under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme court.

2. A lame duck session is conducted after the election of new members but before they are installed.

Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament falls under the Original Jurisdiction of the High Court of the respective state.

Q. Consider the following statements about Electronic Voting Machine (EVM):

1. EVMs were first used in Tamil Nadu in the year 1982.

2. EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates including NOTA.

3. EVMs and VVPAT require electricity.

Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1 and 3 only are incorrect. EVMs were first used in Kerala. EVMs and VVPATs do not need electricity.


1. Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) and the then Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA) in rural and urban areas respectively.

2. The Govt does not enumerate caste wise population other than SCs and STs.

3. The Census exercise is carried out every 10 years on the basis of the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1 and 2 only are correct. The Census exercise is carried out every 10 years on the basis of the Census Act, 1948.


1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) conducts elections to both the State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils.

2. The appointment and removal of the Chief Election Commissioner shall be made by the President.

3. The right to vote is a constitutional right.

Options:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1 and 3 only are correct. The removal of the CEC is not by the President.

Q. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to defamation?

1. In India, defamation is both a civil and a criminal offence.

2. The Supreme Court has upheld the constitutional validity of the criminal provisions of defamation in the Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India case.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Both statements are correct.

• Sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deal with defamation in India.

• The Supreme Court in the Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India case has ruled that the criminal provisions of defamation are constitutionally valid and are not in conflict with the right to free speech.

• The Court held that Section 499 is not an excessive restriction under Article 19(2). It held that society is a collection of individuals, and what affects individuals also affects society as a whole. Hence, it held that it is valid to treat defamation as a public wrong. It held that criminal defamation is not a disproportionate restriction on free speech, because the protection of reputation is a fundamental right as well as a human right.

• The Court reaffirmed the right to reputation as a part of the right to life under Article 21. Using the principle of ‘balancing of fundamental rights’, the court held that the right to freedom and speech and expression cannot be “allowed so much room that even reputation of an individual which is a constituent of Article 21 would have no entry into that area”.

Q. Which of the following is/are correct about the Central Bureau Of Investigation (CBI)?

1. It is a statutory body.

2. It is India’s representative for correspondence with the INTERPOL.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

2 only is correct. CBI is not a statutory body.


1. Supplementary, additional or excess grants are not mentioned in the Constitution of India.

2. Supplementary grants are presented and passed by the Parliament before the end of the financial year.

3. The Demand for Excess Grants must be presented to the Parliament before the end of the financial year in which the expenses were made.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2 only

Explanation:

2 only is correct.

• Supplementary, additional or excess grants and votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants are mentioned in the Constitution of India.

• Supplementary grants are presented and passed by the Parliament before the end of the financial year.

• The Demand for Excess Grants is made after the actual expenditure is incurred and is presented to the Parliament after the end of the financial year in which the expenses were made.

Q. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The system of Lokpal and Lokayukta provides for an anti-corruption ombudsman institution at the national and state level respectively.

2. States do not have the power to set up the Lokayukta and have to strictly abide by the guidelines of the Centre.

Options

a) 2 only

b) 1 only

c) Both

d) None

Explanation:

1 only is correct. States have the authority to set up Lokayuktas.

Q. What does sine die represent for a legislative body?

Options

a) Call to vote on an amendment bill following a discussion

b) Interim approval for a part of the budget to keep the government functioning

c) Indicates the final adjournment of an annual session or meeting of a legislative house

d) Loss of confidence of the house in the Council of Ministers

Explanation:

Sine die indicates the final adjournment of an annual session or meeting of a legislative house.

Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Options

a) Indian Judiciary is overburdened with pending cases and the backlog of cases stands at over 3.5 crore cases.

b) The highest percentage of pendency is at High Courts followed by the Supreme Court and Subordinate Courts.

c) To help clear the backlog the Supreme Court has pushed for the appointment of retired judges to battle the pendency of cases in High Courts.

d) Such appointment of ad-hoc judges has been provided for in the Constitution under Article 224A.

Explanation:

Statement 2 – The highest percentage of pendency is at High Courts followed by the Supreme Court and Subordinate Courts – is incorrect. The highest percentage of pendency is at the Subordinate Courts.

Q. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Backward Classes is incorrect?

Options

a) It was initially constituted as a statutory body in 1993.

b) It functions under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

c) Presently, it has been accorded constitutional status through the 102nd Amendment Act, which has inserted Article 338B for the purpose.

d) The Commission consists of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other Members appointed by the President.

Explanation:

It functions under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Q. Which of the following is correct regarding ‘The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act 1991’?

1. The Act prohibits conversion of any place of worship and to provide for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 26th of January 1950.

2. The Act shall not apply to the place or place of worship commonly known as Ram Janma Bhumi-Babri Masjid situated in Ayodhya.

3. The Act shall not apply to ancient and historical monuments or archaeological sites.

Options

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Only 2 and 3 are correct.

The Act prohibits conversion of any place of worship and to provide for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th of August 1947.

Q. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Political parties are allowed to have star campaigners for seeking votes in elections.

2. They are nominated by the Election Commission of India specifying their constituencies and duration of the stay and expenses incurred.

3. The Election Commission has issued guidelines under the Model Code of Conduct regulating poll campaign by them.

4. A recognised political party can have 40 star campaigners and a registered unrecognised political party can have 20.

Options

a) 1, 3 and 4 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

1, 3 and 4 only are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Star campaigners are not nominated by the EC but by the political parties.

Q. Which institution is responsible for implementing the ‘Foreign Trade Policy’?

Options

a) Department of Economic Affairs

b) Confederation of Indian Industry

c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

d) Directorate General of Foreign Trade

Explanation:

Directorate General of Foreign Trade is responsible for implementing the foreign trade policy.

Q. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 4 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

1 and 4 only are correct. Abolition of untouchability is covered under Article 17 under the right to equality. Protection of the interests of minorities is covered under articles 29 and 30 under cultural and educational rights.

Q. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram only.

2. The tribal areas listed under the sixth Schedule are constituted as Scheduled Areas.

3. Governors can direct the manner in which acts of the State Legislature and Parliament apply to the sixth Schedule areas.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1 only is correct.

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Explanation:

• The tribal areas listed under the sixth Schedule are constituted as autonomous districts with each such autonomous district provided with a district council consisting of 30 members, partly elected and partly nominated.

• Governors can direct the manner in which acts of the state legislature apply to the sixth Schedule areas, while in respect of acts of the Parliament, such power rests with the President.

✓Governors can direct the manner in which acts of the state legislature apply to the sixth Schedule areas, while in respect of acts of the Parliament, such power rests with the President, except in the case of the state of Assam where the Governor enjoys such powers both with respect to state and central laws.


1. Article 23 of the Indian Constitution provides for the right against forced labour.

2. Article 42 of the Indian Constitution that deals with ensuring just human conditions of work is legally enforceable by law.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is only correct.

• Article 23 of the Indian Constitution provides for the right against forced labour.

• Article 42 of the Indian Constitution deals with ensuring just human conditions of work and maternity leaves.

• It is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy and is not legally enforceable by law.

Q. Which of the below-given statements is/are correct?

1. India derives the provision of criminal contempt from the English system.

2. Interfering or obstructing the administration of justice in any manner would amount to civil contempt.

3. Criminal contempt is the wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 3 only

Explanation:

1 only is correct.

• Civil Contempt: As per the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, civil contempt has been defined as wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.

• Criminal Contempt: As per the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, criminal contempt has been defined as the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which:

✓Scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or

✓Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding, or

✓Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the Animal Welfare Board of India:

1. The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body.

2. It was started under the stewardship of Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale.

3. The Board is within the jurisdiction of the Government of India’s Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Board is within the jurisdiction of the Government of India’s Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying).

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF):

1. The initial purpose of the fund was to help people displaced due to the partition of India and Pakistan.

2. The resources of the PMNRF are utilized primarily to render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities.

3. PMNRF has not been constituted by the Parliament.

4. Home Minister is the Chairman of PMNRF.


a) 3 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

1, 2 and 3 only are correct. PMNRF was established in 1948 by Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru. The initial purpose of the fund was to help people displaced due to the partition of India and Pakistan. The resources of the PMNRF are now utilized primarily to render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities like floods, cyclones and earthquakes, etc. and to the victims of major accidents and riots. Assistance from PMNRF is also rendered, to partially defray the expenses for medical treatment like heart surgeries, kidney transplantation, cancer treatment and acid attack, etc. The fund consists entirely of public contributions and does not get any budgetary support. The corpus of the fund is invested in various forms with scheduled commercial banks and other agencies. Disbursements are made with the approval of the Prime Minister. PMNRF has not been constituted by the Parliament. Prime Minister is the Chairman of PMNRF.


1. Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) issues statutory licences to cultivate opium.

2. India is the only country which legally produces opium gum.

3. India is a signatory to the UN Convention on Narcotic Drugs 1961.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) All of the Above

d) None of the above

Explanation:

All the statements are correct.

• Licitopium poppy cultivation is permitted by the Government of India.

• The cultivation is carried out in India in selected tracts notified by the Central Government annually in the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

• Licences are issued by the Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) to eligible cultivators.

• India is one of the few countries that legally grow opium poppy and the only country which legally produces opium gum.

• As a signatory to the United Nations Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961 and as a licit producer of opium, India is required to adhere to the regulations under the said convention.

Q. Consider the following statements about the NIA:

1. It is the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in the country.

2. It is a statutory body headquartered in New Delhi.

3. It does not have the authority to investigate offences that are committed outside Indian territory.

4. The NIA can investigate terror cases across the country without having to get permission from the states.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 3 only is incorrect.

• The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008. It is a statutory body.

• It is headquartered in New Delhi.

• It is the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in the country.

• The NIA can investigate terror cases across the country without having to get permission from the states.

• It has the authority to investigate offences that are committed outside Indian territory subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other nations.


1. Both money bills and financial bills can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

2. There is no provision for a joint sitting, in case of a deadlock over the provisions in a money bill.

3. A money bill is defined by Article 110 of the Constitution.


a) 3 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 1 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

2 and 3 only are correct.

• While a money bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only, financial bills under Article 117 (1) can be introduced in Lok Sabha only and financial bills under Article 117 (3) can be introduced in both the houses.

• There is no provision for a joint sitting, in case of a deadlock over the provisions in a money bill.

• A money bill is defined by Article 110 of the Constitution.


1. It is a very significant pronouncement of the Supreme Court on the question of reservation of posts for backward classes.

2. It set a 50% limit on quota for reservations.

3. The concept of a creamy layer was laid down and it was directed that such a creamy layer be excluded while identifying backward classes.

The judgment being talked about is of:

a) Puttaswamy Case

b) Indra Sawhney Case

c) Maneka Gandhi Case

d) Kesavananda Bharati Case

Explanation:

• A nine-judge Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court had in the Indira Sawhney case capped the reservation at 50%.

• It is a very significant pronouncement of the Supreme Court on the question of reservation of posts for backward classes.

• The concept of a creamy layer was laid down and it was directed that such a creamy layer be excluded while identifying backward classes.


1. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

2. The power to decide whether any central or state legislation implies over the state having scheduled areas lies in the hands of the Governor.

3. Governor can also repeal or amend any regulations w.r.t to the state having scheduled areas but only with the assent of the President of India.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• The power to decide whether any central or state legislation implies over the state having scheduled areas, lies in the hands of the Governor.

• Governor can also repeal or amend any regulations w.r.t to the state having scheduled areas but only with the assent of the President of India.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT):

1. It was constituted under the Companies Act, 2013.

2. It hears appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).

3. It is the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued by the Competition Commission of India (CCI).


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only


Explanation:

All the statements are correct. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) was constituted under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013. It hears appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). It is also the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI).

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the Bar Council of India:

1. It is a constitutional body.

2. The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are its ex officio members.

3. It sets standards for legal education and grants recognition to Universities whose degree in law will serve as a qualification for enrolment as an advocate.


a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only


Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body created by Parliament to regulate and represent the Indian bar. It was established by Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961. It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar. It also sets standards for legal education and grants recognition to Universities whose degree in law will serve as a qualification for enrolment as an advocate. Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are ex officio members of the Bar Council of India.


1. The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 245 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President.

2. Elections to the Rajya Sabha are conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

3. The Third Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.


a) 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 2 is only correct. The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President. Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect; members representing States are elected by elected members of legislative assemblies of the States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.


1. Only 6 states in India have a Legislative Council.

2. The number of members in the Legislative Council should not be less than 40.

3. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state must not exceed two-thirds of the members in the Legislative Assembly of that state.

Which of the given statement is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 3 is incorrect. As per Article 171 clause (1) of the Indian Constitution, the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall not exceed one-third of the total number of the members in the Legislative Assembly of that state and the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall in no case be less than 40. Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh have a Legislative Council.


1. An Election Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

2. An Election Commissioner is removed in the like manner and on the like grounds as the judge of the Supreme Court.

3. An Election Commissioner, after his/her term is over, is ineligible to become a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

All the statements are incorrect. Under Article 324(2) of the Constitution of India, the President of India (on the recommendation from the incumbent Government of India) is empowered to appoint the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. However, the Constitution is silent about the procedure for removal of the two Election Commissioners. It only provides that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. An Election Commissioner, after his/her term is over, can become a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Q. Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha

2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha

3. speak in the Lok Sabha

4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Attorney General of India can take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha. He/she can be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha. He/she can speak in the Lok Sabha. The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which s/he may be named a member but without a right to vote.


1. According to the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and who are between the ages of 15-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system.

2. “Heinous Offences” include the offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force is imprisonment for five years or more

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Both are incorrect. According to the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, juveniles charged with heinous crimes and who are between the ages of 16-18 years would be tried as adults and processed through the adult justice system. Juvenile justice procedure has categorized the offence into 3 types, petty, serious and heinous. “Heinous Offences” include the offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force is imprisonment for seven years or more.

Q. Which of the following provisions can be amended by a simple majority of the Indian Parliament?

1. Admission or establishment of new states

2. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament

3. Citizenship-acquisition and termination

4. Election of the President

Options:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

1, 2 and 3 only can be brought about by a simple majority. For the election of the President and its manner, a special majority of Parliament and consent of the states are required.

Q. With respect to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1. Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

2. Article 29: Protection of interests of minorities

3. Article 28: Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion

Options:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion pertains to Article 27.

Q. Which of the following is/are correct about the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)?

1. It is the nodal authority in India for only the inter-country adoption of Indian children.


3. It functions under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Options:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

2 and 3 only are correct. CARA deals with both inter-country and in-country adoption of Indian children.


1. The origin of sedition law in India is linked to the Wahabi Movement of the 19th century.

2. The Sedition Act was first invoked against Jogendra Chandra Bose.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


Explanation:

Statement 2 is only correct. The origin of sedition law in India is linked to the Wahabi Movement of the 19th century. It is accepted that the first time, the act was invoked, was against Jogendra Chandra Bose, the editor of Bangobasi, for voicing against the Age of Consent Bill, 1891.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the Attorney General (AG) of India:

1. AG enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament.

2. AG’s remuneration is fixed by the Parliament.

3. AG has the right to take part in a meeting of any committee of the Parliament of which he is named as a member, but without a right to vote.

4. The Indian Constitution mentions the procedure and grounds for the removal of the Attorney General.


a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

1 and 3 only are correct. President of India appoints Attorney General for a term which is decided by President. He can be removed by the president at any time. There is no procedure or ground mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. AG has the right to take part in a meeting of any committee of the Parliament of which he is named as a member, but without a right to vote.

Q. Birbal Nath committee recommendations are associated with which of the following?

Options:

a) Formation of Special Protection Group (SPG).

b) Allowing private train operators in Indian Railways.

c) Establishment of Central Zoo Authority.

d) Launch of Special Liquidity Scheme to help low rated finance companies to raise debt.

Explanation:

SPG was formed in 1985 after the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi as an executive body on the recommendation of the Birbal Nath committee. The SPG Act was enacted by Parliament in 1988.


1. The ‘Nodal Ministry’ in the central government for the management of natural disasters is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

2. Disaster Management Act, 2005 calls for the establishment of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Home Minister as chairperson.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect. The ‘Nodal Ministry’ in the central government for the management of natural disasters is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Disaster Management Act, 2005 calls for the establishment of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Prime Minister as chairperson.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The 44th Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part which deals with tribunals.

2. Tribunals under Article 323 A can be established by any ‘Appropriate Legislature’ by passing a law.

3. The chairman and members of the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are appointed by the Governor after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.

Options:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None

Explanation:

All the statements are incorrect.• The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to

tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part which deals with tribunals.

• Parliament alone, by passing a law can establish tribunals under Article 323A.

✓ Article 323-A of the Constitution provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals by a parliament law for the adjudication or trial of disputes and complaints relating to the recruitment and conditions of service of government servants under the central government and the state government including the employee of any local or other authority within the territory of India or under the control of the government of India or of a corporation owned or controlled by the government.

• The chairman and members of the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) are appointed by the President after consultation with the Governor of the state concerned.

Q. The chairman and members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a committee consisting of

1. Prime Minister

2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

3. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

4. Leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament

5. Central Home Minister

Options:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

All five are correct. The chairman and members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a committee consisting of:

• Prime Minister

• Speaker of the Lok Sabha

• Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

• Leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament

• Central Home Minister

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to Fundamental Duties:

1. The concept of Fundamental Duties has been borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

2. Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

3. While the 42nd Amendment added 8 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution, the rest were added through the 86th Amendment.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 2 only is correct. The concept of Fundamental Duties has been borrowed from the Russian Constitution. The 42nd Amendment added 10 fundamental duties. The 11th was added by the 86th Amendment.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. The Seventh Schedule was inserted in the Constitution of India by the 73rd Amendment.

2. Constitutional status was accorded to Panchayati Raj Institutions through the 73rd Amendment Act.

3. It provided that one-third of the seats in all Panchayat councils, as well as one-third of the Pradhan (chairperson) positions, be reserved for women.

4. It fixed the minimum age for contesting in elections to Panchayat at 25 years.


a) 1 and 4 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 4 are incorrect. The Eleventh Schedule was inserted in the Constitution of India by the 73rd Amendment. Constitutional status was accorded to Panchayati Raj Institutions through the 73rd Amendment Act. It provided that one-third of the seats in all Panchayat councils, as well as one-third of the Pradhan (chairperson) positions, be reserved for women. It fixed the minimum age for contesting in elections to Panchayat at 21 years.

Q. Which of the following committees or commissions dealt with Centre-State relations?

1. Sarkaria Commission

2. Puncchi Commission

3. Rajamannar Committee

Choose the correct option:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

All three are correct.Sarkaria Commission, Puncchi Commission and Rajmannar Committee dealt with centre-state relations.✓In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission

on Centre-state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court.

✓In April 2007, the Government of India constituted a Commission on Centre-State Relations under the chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi to look into the new issues of Centre-State relations keeping in view the changes that have taken place in the polity and economy of India since the Sarkaria Commission had last looked at the issue of Centre-State relations over two decades ago.

✓In 1969, the Tamil Nadu Government appointed a three-member committee under the chairmanship of Dr P V Rajamannar to examine the entire question of Centre-state relations and to suggest amendments to the Constitution so as to secure utmost autonomy to the states.

Q. Which of the following committees is/are associated with the National Education Policy?

1. T.S.R. Subramanian Committee

2. K. Kasturirangan Committee

3. Madhav Gadgil Committee

4. Bibek Debroy Committee

Choose the correct option:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1 and 2 only are correct. ‘Committee for Evolution of the New Education Policy’ under the Chairmanship of Shri T.S.R. Subramanian, submitted its report in May 2016. In 2017 a ‘Committee for the Draft National Education Policy’ was constituted under the Chairmanship of Dr. K. Kasturirangan. Kasturirangan Committee submitted the Draft National Education Policy, 2019.


1. The governor has to always act as per the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

2. The constitution has a provision for reservation of state bills by Governors for President’s consideration.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Explanation:

Statement 2 only is correct. Article 163(1): There shall be a council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. Articles 200 and 201 of the Indian constitution provides for reservation of bills by Governors for President’s consideration.

Q. Consider the following statements about Additional Judges:

1. The Governor can appoint duly qualified persons as additional Judges of a high court for a period not exceeding two years.

2. The additional Judge cannot hold office after attaining the age of 65 years.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Explanation:

All the statements are incorrect.• Article 224 deals with the appointment of additional and acting Judges.• Duly qualified persons can be appointed by the President of India as

additional Judges of a high court for a maximum period of two years.✓The President may appoint additional judges for the time being when there

is a temporary increase in the business of the High Court or arrears of work.

✓Also, when a Judge of a High Court other than the Chief Justice is by reason of absence or for any other reason unable to perform the duties of his office or is appointed to act temporarily as Chief Justice, the President can appoint a duly qualified person to act as a Judge of that Court until the permanent Judge has resumed his duties.

• An acting judge/additional judge holds office until the permanent judge resumes his office.

• However, the additional Judge cannot hold office after attaining the age of 62 years.

Q. Under ‘The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013’ which of the following circumstances may amount to sexual harassment?

1. implied or explicit promise of preferential treatment in her employment.

2. humiliating treatment likely to affect her health or safety.

3. implied or explicit threat about her present or future employment status.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

All of the above are correct. Under ‘The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013, the following circumstances, among other circumstances, if it occurs or is present in relation to or connected with any act or behaviour of sexual harassment may amount to sexual harassment:

• implied or explicit promise of preferential treatment in her employment; or

• implied or explicit threat of detrimental treatment in her employment; or

• implied or explicit threat about her present or future employment status; or

• interference with her work or creating an intimidating or offensive or hostile work environment for her; or

• humiliating treatment likely to affect her health or safety.


1. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is a Public Sector entity under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

2. IREDA reported an all-time high annual Profit Before Tax (PBT) in 2020-21.

3. IREDA has been notified as a “Public Financial Institution” as well as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

All the statements are correct. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is a Public Sector entity under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

IREDA reported an all-time high annual Profit Before Tax (PBT) in 2020-21. IREDA has been notified as a “Public Financial Institution” as well as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC). A public financial institution takes funds from customers and places them in financial assets. The most common financial assets include deposits, loans and bonds issued by or made by the public financial institution.

Q. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

Only statements 1 and 3 are correct. President’s rule is the suspension of state government and imposition of direct Union government rule in a state. When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President removes/dismisses the council of ministers in the state headed by the chief minister. The governor of the state carries on the administration of the state. The President can either suspend or dissolve the Legislative assembly. Therefore, the dissolution of the state legislative assembly is not necessarily the consequence of the proclamation. The President’s rule does not lead to the dissolution of local bodies.

Q. With reference to the Attorney General (AG) of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The term of AG is not fixed by the Constitution.

2. AG is barred from private legal practice.

Options

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 only is correct. The Attorney-General of India is the first law officer of the Government of India. The tenure of the AG of India is not fixed by the Constitution. The Attorney-General is appointed by the President and he holds office during the pleasure of the President. The Attorney General represents the government but is allowed to take up private practice provided the other party is not the state.


1. Persons with Disabilities (PwD) have the right to reservation in promotions.

2. Reservation to promotion can be given to a PwD even if the person was not originally appointed in the PwD quota.

Options

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Explanation:

Both are correct. The Supreme Court has said that a disabled person can avail the benefit of reservation for promotion even if he/she was recruited in the regular category or developed the disability after gaining employment. The important thing is the employee should be a ‘person with disability’ (PwD) at the time of the promotion to avail of the disabled quota. The Persons with Disabilities Act of 1995 does not make a distinction between a person who may have entered service on account of disability and a person who may have acquired a disability after having entered the service. The Supreme Court has said that the mode of entry in service cannot be a ground to make out a case of discriminatory promotion.


1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Chief Minister.

2. The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister in the council of ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the legislative assembly of that State.

3. A person who is not a member of either house of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister.


a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All of the above

Explanation:

Only 2 and 3 are correct.

• The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.

✓ The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.• The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister in the council of

ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the legislative assembly of that State. Provided that the number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister in a State, shall not be less than twelve.

✓ This provision was introduced through the 91st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003.

• A person who is not a member of either house of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister. However, he must be elected or appointed to either of the houses within 6 months of such appointment, failing which he ceases to be a minister.


1. Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution of India define who would be Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes with respect to any State or Union Territory.

2. The Central List of Scheduled Castes and Tribes is notified by the President.

3. The consent of the Parliament is required to exclude or include castes in the List.


a) 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only


Explanation:

None of the above is incorrect. Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution of India define who would be Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes with respect to any State or Union Territory. The Central List of Scheduled Castes and Tribes is notified by the President under Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution. The consent of the Parliament is required to exclude or include castes in the List. States cannot unilaterally add or pull out castes from the List.


1. The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is termed as Question Hour and is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the House.

2. Zero Hour is an informal device, not mentioned in any rules of the Parliament.

3. The time immediately following the Question Hour is known as “Zero Hour”.

Which of the given statements is/are INCORRECT?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation:

None of the statements is incorrect. The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is termed as Question Hour. It is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the House. The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as “Zero Hour”. Members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Unlike the Question Hour, the Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus it is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice.

Q. Which of the following are NOT constitutional bodies?

1. Central Board of Direct Taxes

2. GST Council

3. National Human Rights Commission

4. Finance Commission

5. National Commission for Backward Classes

Options:

a) 1, 3 and 5 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

d) 2, 4 and 5 only

Explanation:

1 and 3 are not constitutional bodies. Central Board of Direct Taxes and the National Human Rights Commission are statutory bodies. The GST Council, Finance Commission and National Commission for Backward Classes are Constitutional bodies.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. The Election Commission of India forbids publishing results of opinion polls from the date of notification of elections until the end of polling.

2. In the case of a multi-phase election, results of exit polls can be published only after the voting is over in each phase.

Select the option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Explanation:

Both statements are incorrect. There are no restrictions on publishing the results of opinion polls. However, it cannot be published during the period of Election silence, i.e, 48 hours before the close of voting. In the case of a multi-phase election, results of exit polls can be published only after the voting is over in the last phase.


1. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram only.

2. The tribal areas listed under the sixth Schedule are constituted as Scheduled Areas.

3. Governors can direct the manner in which acts of the State Legislature and Parliament apply to the sixth Schedule areas.

Select the option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 only is correct.

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Explanation:

• The tribal areas listed under the sixth Schedule are constituted as autonomous districts with each such autonomous district provided with a district council consisting of 30 members, partly elected and partly nominated.

• Governors can direct the manner in which acts of the state legislature apply to the sixth Schedule areas, while in respect of acts of the Parliament, such power rests with the President.

✓ Governors can direct the manner in which acts of the state legislature apply to the sixth Schedule areas, while in respect of acts of the Parliament, such power rests with the President, except in the case of the state of Assam where the Governor enjoys such powers both with respect to state and central laws.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to Central Information Commission (CIC):

1. Central Information Commission is an executive body.

2. Chief Information Commissioner is not eligible for reappointment.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Explanation:

Statement 2 only is correct. Central Information Commission is a statutory body under the Right to Information Act of 2005.

Q. Which of the following statements with respect to National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED) is/are correct?

1. It functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

2. It is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under “Operation Greens”.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Explanation:

Statement 2 only is correct. NAFED functions under the Ministry of Agriculture.

Q. Consider the following statements about the Inner Line Permit (ILP):

1. The Inner Line Permit (ILP) has its genesis in the State Reorganization Act 1956.

2. All the states in the northeast have the Inner Line Permit.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Explanation:

Both statements are incorrect. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram are protected by the Inner Line, and lately, Manipur was added (in December last year). The concept originates from the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act (BEFR), 1873.

Q. Consider the following statements about Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System:

1. Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System is jointly developed by ECI and DRDO.

2. Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System is currently restricted to ‘Service voters’.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Explanation:

Statement 2 only is correct. Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) is the one-way electronic transmission of the postal ballots to the Service Voters. It has been developed by ECI and C-DAC. Though recommendations have been made to extend it to overseas voters, currently it is restricted to only service voters.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):

1. It is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry.

2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.

3. It was formed in 2001 after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’.


a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 only

d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is chaired by the Defence Minister.

Q. Birbal Nath committee recommendations are associated with which of the following?

Options:

a) Formation of Special Protection Group (SPG)

b) Allowing private train operators in Indian Railways

c) Establishment of Central Zoo Authority

d) Launch of Special Liquidity Scheme to help low rated finance companies to raise debt

Explanation:

SPG was formed in 1985 after the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi as an executive body on the recommendation of the Birbal Nath committee. The SPG Act was enacted by Parliament in 1988.

Q. The Swachh Survekshan is commissioned by which of the following ministries?

Options:

a) Ministry of Urban Development

b) Ministry of Rural Development

c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Explanation:

Swachh Survekshan is meant to monitor the performance of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. The extensive sanitation survey is commissioned by the Ministry of Urban Development and carried out annually by the Quality Council of India. The survey was introduced by the government with the objective of generating large-scale participation in Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.

Q. Which of the following are autonomous councils listed under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

1. Karbi Anglong

2. Chakma

3. Lai

4. Mara

5. Bodoland

6. Dima Hasao

Options:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

c) 1, 2 and 6 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation:

All six are correct. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India allows for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions which have been given autonomy within their respective states. The list contains 10 Autonomous Councils in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura. Karbi Anglong, Dima Hasao and Bodoland are from Assam. Chakma, Lai and Mara are from Mizoram.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to PM-CARES Fund:

1. Both Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) and PM CARES fund are chaired by the Prime Minister.

2. PM-CARES Fund does not get any budgetary support and consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals or organizations.

3. Spending from PMNRF requires approval from Parliament.

4. PM CARES Fund is barred from accepting donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.


a) 3 and 4 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect. Both Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) and PM CARES fund are chaired by the Prime Minister. PM-CARES Fund does not get any budgetary support and consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals or organizations. Spending from both the PM CARES Fund and the PMNRF does not require approval from Parliament. A separate account for receiving donations from foreign countries has been opened. This enables PM CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries. Foreign donations in the PM CARES Fund would also get exemption under the FCRA.

Q. Article 129 of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following provisions?

Options:

a) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

b) Contempt power of the Supreme Court

c) Judicial predominance in the appointment process

d) Provisions of judicial review.

Explanation:

Article 129 declares the Supreme Court a court of record and it further provides that the Supreme Court shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

Q. Right to privacy includes which of the following rights?

1. Right to be left alone

2. Right to be forgotten

3. Freedom of Silence

Options:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1 and 2 only are correct. The right to be left alone and the right to be forgotten are components of the right to privacy. The right to silence/freedom of silence is a legal principle that guarantees any individual the right to refuse to answer questions from law enforcement officers or court officials. This can be the right to avoid self-incrimination or the right to remain silent when questioned. Art 20(3) of the Indian Constitution provides the right against self-incrimination. It gives the accused the right to remain silent even during interrogation.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are right about Drone Rules 2021?

1. The total number of forms that were to be filled has been reduced.

2. The government has done away with the need for a security clearance prior to the issuance of a registration or licence.

3. Foreign ownership has been discontinued.

Options:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

• With a view to providing an impetus to the drone industry in India, the government has tried to simplify provisions related to drone manufacturing and operation in India. The recently published Drone Rules, 2021 introduces the following changes with the aim of facilitating a business-friendly regulatory regime.

✓ The total number of forms that were to be filled has been reduced.

✓ The need for a security clearance prior to issuance of a registration or licence has been done away with.

✓ Foreign ownership of Indian drone related firms has been allowed.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are right about Drone Rules 2021?

1. The total number of forms that were to be filled has been reduced.

2. The government has done away with the need for a security clearance prior to the issuance of a registration or licence.

3. Foreign ownership has been discontinued.


a) 1 only

b) 3 and 1 only

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Trafficking in Human Beings or Persons is prohibited under the Constitution of India under Article 23 (1).

• India has ratified the SAARC Convention on Preventing and Combating Trafficking in Women and Children for Prostitution.

• In May 2011, the Government of India ratified the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) and its three protocols.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the Attorney General of India:

1. The Attorney General of India (AGI) is appointed by the President of India under Article 76.

2. The AGI has the right of audience in all courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, including the right to vote.

3. The Attorney General’s remuneration is determined by the Parliament.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:


• The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76.

• The AGI has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.

• The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.

Q. Which of the following was/were the objectives of the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011?

1. To enable households to be ranked based on their Socio-Economic status.

2. To make available authentic information that will enable caste-wise population enumeration of the country.

3. To make available authentic information regarding the socio-economic condition, and education status of various castes and sections of the population.

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

All the above are correct.

• The Ministry of Rural Development commenced the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, in rural areas and in urban areas it was carried out by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Development.

• Its objectives were:

✓ To enable households to be ranked based on their Socio-Economic status.

✓ To make available authentic information that will enable caste-wise population enumeration of the country.

✓ To make available authentic information regarding the socio-economic condition, and education status of various castes and sections of the population.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act?

1. NDPS Act views drug offences very seriously and penalties are uniform irrespective of the quantity.

2. It is only the central government that can add or omit from the list of psychotropic substances.

Select the correct option from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:


• Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act views drug offences very seriously and penalties are stiff. The quantum of sentence and fine varies with the offence. For many offences, the penalty depends on the quantity of drugs involved – small quantity, more than small but less than commercial quantity or commercial quantity of drugs. Small and Commercial quantities are notified for each drug.

• Power to add to or omit from the list of psychotropic substances is available only with the Central Government.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the Environment Pollution Control Authority (EPCA):

1. EPCA is a Supreme Court-mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution in all the metropolitan cities across India.

2. The body is constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

3. It is mandated to enforce the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in the Delhi-NCR (National Capital Region).


a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:


• Environment Pollution Control Authority is a Supreme Court-mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution in the Delhi-NCR (National Capital Region).

• The body is constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• It is mandated to enforce the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in the Delhi-NCR (National Capital Region).

Q. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 25th Amendment: Empowered the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution

2. 91st Amendment: Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers

3. 52nd Amendment: Anti-defection law

4. 86th Amendment: Right to education for children between 6-14 years

Options:

a) 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

2, 3 and 4 only are correctly matched.

• 24th Amendment: Empowered the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution

• 91st Amendment: Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers

• 52nd Amendment: Anti-defection law

• 86th Amendment: Right to education for children between 6-14 years

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)?

1. It is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India, tasked with detecting and curbing drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items.

2. It works under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1 only is correct.

• The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India, working under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is tasked with detecting and curbing the smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of customs duty.

• DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 and over fifty other allied Acts including the Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act, etc. DRI undertakes collection, collation, analysis and dissemination of intelligence relating to smuggling, carries out investigations, adjudication of cases and prosecution of the arrested persons.

Q. Consider the following statements about the Deputy Speaker:

1. The Deputy Speaker must resign from the original party soon after his/her election to the post.

2. The Constitution of India states that the position of Deputy Speaker should be offered to the opposition party in India.

3. The Deputy Speaker can be removed from office by a resolution passed in the Lok Sabha by an absolute majority.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

All the statements are incorrect.

• Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.

• It is by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.

• The Deputy Speaker can be removed from office by a resolution passed in the Lok Sabha by an effective majority of its members.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to FCRA (Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act) 2010:

1. Foreign donations to all the NGOs in India are exempted from the provisions of FCRA.

2. No person who receives foreign contribution as per provisions of this Act shall transfer to another person unless that person is also authorized to receive foreign contribution under FCRA.

3. Any organisation of a political nature and any company engaged in the production and broadcast of audio or audiovisual news or current affairs programmes are prohibited from accepting foreign contributions.


a) 3 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:


• Foreign donations to only those NGOs that are registered under FCRA are exempted from the provisions of FCRA.

• No person who receives foreign contribution as per provisions of this Act shall transfer to another person unless that person is also authorized to receive foreign contribution under FCRA.

• Any organisation of a political nature and any company engaged in the production and broadcast of audio or audiovisual news or current affairs programmes are prohibited from accepting foreign contributions.

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG):

1. Among the duties performed by CAG is the audit of all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, contingency funds and Public Accounts.

2. The salary, allowances and other terms of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India are determined by the Parliament.

3. He/she is appointed by the President.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) All of the above


Q. Which of the following is/are correct about the zero hour?

1. It is the time when Members of Parliament (MPs) can raise Issues of Urgent Public Importance.

2. It has been in existence since 1992.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. Closure motion is a motion moved by a member to cut short the debate on a matter before the House.

2. Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers but not the entire council of ministers.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following feature of the Constitution and the source is/are correctly matched?

1. Concurrent list: Australia

2. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court: Canada

3. Directive Principles of State Policy: Ireland

4. Fundamental rights: UK

Options:

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. Which of the following is/are correct about Lok Adalats?

1. They have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

2. The decision made by the Lok Adalats is considered to be a verdict of a civil court and is ultimate and binding on all parties.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Election Commission of India?1. Currently, the Election Commission of India is a three-member body with one

Chief Election Commissioner and two election commissioners.2. In case of a difference of opinion in the Election Commission of India, the

matter is decided by the majority.3. The Chief Election Commissioner and the election commissioners have equal

powers and receive equal salaries.4. Election commissioners cannot be removed from office except on the

recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Options:a) 1, 2 and 3 onlyb) 1, 2 and 4 onlyc) All of the Aboved) None of the Above

Q. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. The corporate social responsibility (CSR) provision is based on India’s Companies Act, 2013.

2. India became the first country to legislate the need to undertake corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities and mandatorily report CSR initiatives.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the National Disaster Management Authority?


2. Its primary purpose is to coordinate the response to natural or man-made disasters and for capacity-building in disaster resiliency and crisis response.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are correct about the Banks Board Bureau?


2. It was a part of the seven-point strategy of the Indradhanush Mission aimed at revamping the Public Sector Banks.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 6th Schedule of Indian Constitution consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in which of the following states?

Options:

a) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura

b) Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura

c) Assam, Mizoram, Manipur and Tripura

d) Assam, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Manipur

Q. Which of the following statements with respect to National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED) is/are correct?

1. It functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

2. It is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under “Operation Greens”.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are correct statements?

1. The Sessions Court headed by the Sessions Judge is the highest Criminal Court in a district.

2. Divorce cases come under civil courts in India.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. The CBI director is to be appointed on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of

1. Prime Minister

2. Home Minister

3. Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha

4. Chief Justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court

5. Cabinet Secretary

Options:

a) 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


1. Model Code of Conduct comes into effect as soon as the election schedule is announced by the Election Commission (EC).

2. Kerala was the first state to adopt a code of conduct for elections.

3. Social media content by political parties falls under the Model Code of Conduct.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3 only

Q. With reference to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. It works under the aegis of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs.

2. BIS has its headquarters in New Delhi.

3. BIS certification scheme is compulsory in nature.

Options:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3


1. The No-Confidence motion can be moved against an individual minister as well as against the entire Council of Ministers.

2. The motion needs the support of 1/5th of the members of a Legislative Assembly in order to be admitted.

3. The motion, if passed by Simple Majority in the Rajya Sabha, leads to the resignation of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) All of the above


Q. Which of the following is/are correct about the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act?

1. The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so.

2. Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act?

1. All the offences under the NDPS Act are non-bailable.

2. Also, no relief can be sought by the drug convicts by termination, remission, and commutation of sentences passed.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are correct about the Narcotics Control Bureau?

1. It is a nodal agency that is responsible for coordination with various ministries, other offices & State/Central enforcement agencies with regard to drug law enforcement and also in respect of matters relating to drug abuse.

2. It is under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Which of the following is/are correct about the Central Bureau Of Investigation (CBI)?


2. It is India’s representative for correspondence with the INTERPOL.

Options:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

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