pmi.braindump

CAPM

Number: CA0-001Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 1.0

Exam A

QUESTION 1A scope management plan in which of the following scope management processes is the scope managementplan prepared

A. Initiation

B. Colllect requirements

C. Define Scope

D. Verify Scope

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule

C. Actual project cost and schedule

D. Revised Project cost and schedule

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangiblecomponents of each deliverable are all part of which of the following

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Organizational breakdown structure

C. Resource breakdown structure

D. Bill of materials



QUESTION 4What is the definition of project plan execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities

B. Performing the activities included in the plan

C. Developing and maintaining the plan

D. Execution of deliverables



QUESTION 5what is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan

B. External feedback

C. Performance reports

D. Co-location

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 6Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product

B. Cost benefit

C. Stakeholder

D. Research

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 7Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stackholders in a timelymanner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis

C. Project records

D. Peformance reviews



QUESTION 8which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improvingor deterioring?

A. Control chart

B. Earned Value

C. Variance

D. Trend



QUESTION 9You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective andcurrent?

A. Perform periodic project performance review

B. Identify quality project standards

C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards

D. Complete the quality control checklist



QUESTION 10Which of the following is an example of risk symptom?

A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B. Force of nature, such as a flood

C. Risk threshold target

D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking



QUESTION 11During what process is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Controlling



QUESTION 12What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

A. Responsibility assignment matrix

B. Work breakdown structure

C. Project network diagram

D. Mandatory dependencies list



QUESTION 13Scope verification is PRIMARLY concerned with which of the following?

A. Acceptance of the work deliverables

B. Accuracy of the work deliverables

C. Approval of the scope statement

D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure



QUESTION 14Which of the following is an example of contract administration?

A. Negociating the ontract

B. Authorizing contractor work

C. Developing the statement of work

D. Establishing evaluation criteria



QUESTION 15Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers

B. Project sponsor

C. Project management team

D. Insurance claims department



QUESTION 16A work package has been scheduled to cost $1.000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of today,the actual expenditure is $1.200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.Was is the cost variance?

A. -$700

B. -$200

C. +$200

D. +$500



QUESTION 17How is quality control performed?

A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determing how to satisfy them.

B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determiningcorrective actions as needed

C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance prosesses

D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformanceto quality standards.



QUESTION 18As part of mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost.You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?

A. BAC

B. EAC

C. ETC

D. WBS



QUESTION 19How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A. EV less AC

B. AC less PV

C. EV less PV

D. EV less PV



QUESTION 20The project management processes in the PMBOK Guide should

A. Always be applied uniformly

B. Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor

C. Be selected as appropriate by project team

D. Be applied based on ISO guidelines



QUESTION 21Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who willbe performing them?

A. Project sponsor and project manager

B. Project sponsor and functional manager

C. Project manager and project team

D. Project team and functional manager



QUESTION 22Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all prosses needed to meetits requirements

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Policy

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Quality Planning



QUESTION 23Which process occurs within the monitoring and controlling Process Group?

A. Cost Control

B. Quality Planning

C. Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Cost Budgeting



QUESTION 24The Define Scope Process is in which of the following process groups ?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Monitoring & controlling

D. Executing

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 25Which activity is an input to select sellers process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability

C. Change control process

D. Team Performance assessment



QUESTION 26What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check –Act-Cycle?

A. Pareto

B. Ishikawa

C. Shewart – Deming

D. Delphi



QUESTION 27Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

A. Flowcharting

B. Earned Value

C. Cost-benefit analysis

D. Pareto Analysis



QUESTION 28While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay theproduct delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A. Utilize the change control process

B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect

C. Leave the detect in and work around it.

D. Fast-track the remaining development.



QUESTION 29which tool is used to develop technical details within the project managemet plan?

A. Expert Judgment

B. Project Management Methodology

C. Project Management Information

D. Project Selection Methods



QUESTION 30Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Requested changes, forecast, recommended corrective actions

B. Forecast, resources plan, bottom up estimating

C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts.

D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 31Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through projectclosure?

A. Resource leveling

B. Parametric measuring

C. Pareto chart

D. Earned Value



QUESTION 32 An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A. Organizational structure

B. Organizational Process Assets

C. Organizational matrix

D. Organizational Breakdown Structures



QUESTION 33The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholder ‘s support for the project

B. Document the characteristics of the project

C. Describe the project in great detail

D. Formally authorize the project.



QUESTION 34What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C. Disqualification of sellers an non-productive management efforts

D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources



QUESTION 35Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-Benefit Analysis

B. Variance Analysis

C. Reserve Analysis

D. Stakeholder Analysis



QUESTION 36Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?

A. WBS

B. CPI

C. OBS

D. BOM



QUESTION 37Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

A. Project Quality Plan

B. Project Schedule Network

C. Project Schedule Network

D. Project Scope Management Plan



QUESTION 38Which of the following are inputs to activity Definition?

A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure

B. Activity List and Arrow Diagram

C. Change Requests list and organizational Process assets

D. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability



QUESTION 39Activity resource requirement and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project TimeManagement Process?

A. Schedule Control

B. Activity Definition

C. Schedule Development

D. Activity Resources Estimating



QUESTION 40Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management process?

A. Activity Sequencing

B. Activity Resource Estimating

C. Schedule Development

D. Schedule Control

Correct Answer: C



QUESTION 41Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

A. Critical path

B. Rolling wave

C. PDM

D. Parametric



QUESTION 42Which activity duration estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

A. Analogous Estimating

B. Expert Judgment

C. Optimistic Estimates

D. Reserve Analysis



QUESTION 43Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculationhas been completed and resources availability is critical?

A. Applying calendars

B. Resource Leveling

C. Resource Planning

D. Resource Conflict Management



QUESTION 44Which of the following outputs from the schedule control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or anyperformance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations

B. Schedule baselines

C. Performance measurements

D. Change requests



QUESTION 45Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control Process?

A. Performance Measure

B. Baseline Schedule

C. Schedule Comparison

D. Variance Analysis



QUESTION 46Cost Baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Cost Control

B. Cost Budgeting

C. Cost Estimating

D. Cost Planning



QUESTION 47Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert Judgment

B. Project Management Software

C. Vendor Bid Analysis

D. Reserve Analysis



QUESTION 48The project budget is set at $150,000. The project Duration is planned be one year. At the completion of week16 of the project, the following information is collectedActual cost $50,000Plan cost $45,000Earned Value $40,000What is the cost performance index

A. 0.80

B. 0.89

C. 1.13

D. 1.25



QUESTION 49The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI

A. 1.33

B. 2.00

C. 0.75

D. 0.5



QUESTION 50At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV

A. Positive

B. Zero

C. Negative

D. Greater than one



QUESTION 51Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

A. EV

B. SPI

C. PV

D. ETC



QUESTION 52Based on the following metrics EV $20,000, AC $22,000 and PV $ 28,000 what is the project CV.

A. -$8,000

B. -$2,000

C. $2,000

D. $8,000



QUESTION 53What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate

A. Cost right at the estimated value

B. Cost under the estimated value

C. Cost right at the actual value

D. Cost over the estimated value



QUESTION 54Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

A. Schedule Analysis

B. Checklist Analysis

C. Assumption Analysis

D. Cost Benefit Anaysis



QUESTION 55Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control Chart

C. Flowchart

D. Histogram



QUESTION 56Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance

A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control Charts

C. Pareto Chart

D. Histogram



QUESTION 57Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle.

A. Ishikawa diagram

B. Control Chart

C. Run Chart

D. Pareto Chart



QUESTION 58Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessment

B. Roles and responsabilities

C. Staffing management plan

D. Enterprise environments factors



QUESTION 59Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis Process?

A. Risk Register

B. Risk data quality assessment

C. Risk Categorization

D. Risk Urgency



QUESTION 60Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

A. Brainstorming

B. Strategies for opportunities

C. Decision Tree Analysis

D. Risk Data Quality Assesmet



QUESTION 61Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risk that may have a negative impact on projectobjectives?

A. Exploit

B. Share

C. Enhance

D. Transfer



QUESTION 62Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A. Mitigate

B. Transfer

C. Exploit

D. Avoid



QUESTION 63A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

A. Plan contracting

B. Request Seller responses

C. Select sellers

D. Plan purchase and acquisition



QUESTION 64Projects contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price cost reimbursable, time and materials

B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed price

C. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed price

D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus –incentive



QUESTION 65Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

A. Contract plan

B. Procurement plan

C. Clousure process

D. Procurement audits



QUESTION 66Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent sataff turnover is expected

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge

C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment

D. The product is needed in 250 days.



QUESTION 67A project Management office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific projectobjectives, organization opportunity assessment

C. Assigns projects resources to best meet project objectives

D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects.



QUESTION 68Which of the following correctly explains the term (Progressive elaboration) ?

A. Changing project specifications continuosly

B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses



QUESTION 69What is a function of the project managemet office (PMO) ?

A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tiedto the parent organizations or the clients overall business objectives.

B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organizations businessobjectives and to administer the project charters accordingly

C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handleany personnel and payroll issues.

D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost and quality of thework packages.



QUESTION 70A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?

A. Methodology

B. Standards

C. Constraints

D. Interdependencies



QUESTION 71Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projectsof design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.Resource B s roles is that of a

A. Project manager

B. Portfolio manager

C. Work breakdown manager

D. Program manager



QUESTION 72Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?

A. Repetitive

B. Unique

C. No outcome

D. Permanent



QUESTION 73Initiating, planning, executing. Monitoring and controlling and closing are called:

A. Process groups

B. Phase gates

C. Knowledge areas

D. Project phases



QUESTION 74Which of the following is the definition of a project?

A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product

B. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product service or result.

C. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

D. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs



QUESTION 75The project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as

A. Guide to project management processes tools and techniques

B. Methodology for managing projects.

C. Guide for project, portfolio and program management

D. Standard for project, portfolio and program management.



QUESTION 76Which of the following is a Process Group?

A. Scoping

B. Budgeting

C. Closing

D. Quality



QUESTION 77In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. Functional

B. Projectized

C. Matrix

D. Balanced



QUESTION 78Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes asproject time advances?

A. The influence of stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases

B. The influence of stakeholders decreases the cost of changes increases

C. The influence of stakeholders increases the cost of changes decreases

D. The influence of stakeholders decreases the cost of changes decreases



QUESTION 79Projects can be divides into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phasesknown as?

A. Complete project phase

B. Project life

C. The project life cycle

D. Project Cycle



QUESTION 80In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A. Functional manager

B. Project manager

C. Program manager

D. Project management office



QUESTION 81At which of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A. Final phase of the project

B. Start of the project

C. End of the project

D. Midpoint of the project



QUESTION 82When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?

A. At the start of the project

B. At the end of the project

C. During execution

D. Stakeholders have constant influence



QUESTION 83Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuringits success?

A. Stakeholder management

B. Monitoring and controlling

C. Project governance

D. Project management methodology



QUESTION 84Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either oneafter other or at the same time.Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in the delivering the full product when productrequirements are subject to rapid change?

A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after other

B. Overlapping the delivery phases

C. Delivering the products iteratively

D. Delivering all of the products at the same time.



QUESTION 85In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource availability?

A. Functional

B. Weak

C. Balanced

D. Strong



QUESTION 86Which Stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?

A. Sponsor

B. Portfolio Manager

C. Program manager

D. Project manager



QUESTION 87In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project?

A. Functional

B. Strong Matrix

C. Balanced Matrix

D. Projectized



QUESTION 88What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?

A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non –Overlapping

B. Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping

C. Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative

D. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-Overlapping



QUESTION 89Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.

B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.

C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase

D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.



QUESTION 90A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?

A. Weak matrix

B. Functional

C. Balanced matrix

D. Projectized



QUESTION 91Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?

A. Requested changes

B. Approved preventive action

C. Work performance information

D. Implemented defect repair



QUESTION 92Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A. Project stakeholders

B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C. Project manager and project team

D. Project manager and project sponsor

Correct Answer: C



QUESTION 93A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?

A. Project manager is appointed

B. Stakeholders approve the project

C. Project charter is approved

D. Project sponsor approves the project.



QUESTION 94How is the process of collecting requirement defined?

A. Defining and documenting project sponsors needs to meet the project objectives

B. Defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet the project objectives

C. Defining and documenting the project teams needs to meet the project objectives

D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives



QUESTION 95Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?

A. Project risk management.

B. Project scope management

C. Project time management

D. Project integration management



QUESTION 96Which process group can be performed outside the projects scope of control?

A. Planning

B. Monitoring and control

C. Closing

D. Initiating



QUESTION 97The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Develop Schedule

C. Identify Stakeholders

D. Determine Budget



QUESTION 98Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Identify Stakeholders

C. Plan Communications

D. Collect Requirements



QUESTION 99Which of the following is defined by a projects life cycle and varies by application area?

A. Product

B. Product oriented processes

C. Project management process groups

D. Project management process groups



QUESTION 100How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?

A. 5

B. 8

C. 9

D. 12



Exam B

QUESTION 1Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?

A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Monitoring and control

D. Closing


Explanation/Reference:Differences Between QA (Quality Assurance) & QC (Quality Control)

Suppose you are manufacturing Coke. QA would ensure that you have all the right processes in place tomanufacture and test the quality of the coke. Like the machines , people, recording mechanism etc. QC isdoing the actual testing on finished product. So when the coke bottle is out you do a sample test and it wouldeither pass or fail the Q standards.

So QC is to do with testing and verification after the deliverable is done and QA is before the deliverable ismade. Like giving trainings to people, Auditing the process, ensuring everyone understands the process etcare all QA activities.

QUESTION 2A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of themanagement process groups to formally complete the project?

A. Closing

B. Executing

C. Monitoring Controlling

D. Monitoring Controlling



QUESTION 3Which process groups defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project wasundertaken to achieve?

A. Initiating

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Monitoring and Controlling



QUESTION 4How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?

A. 5

B. 9

C. 10

D. 12



QUESTION 5The Monitoring and controlling process group contains which of the following processes?

A. Plan Quality

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Perform Quality Control

D. Identify Stakeholders


Explanation/Reference:Differences Between QA (Quality Assurance) & QC (Quality Control)

Suppose you are manufacturing Coke. QA would ensure that you have all the right processes in place tomanufacture and test the quality of the coke. Like the machines , people, recording mechanism etc. QC isdoing the actual testing on finished product. So when the coke bottle is out you do a sample test and it wouldeither pass or fail the Q standards.

So QC is to do with testing and verification after the deliverable is done and QA is before the deliverable ismade. Like giving trainings to people, Auditing the process, ensuring everyone understands the process etcare all QA activities.

QUESTION 6Which Process group establishes the total scope of a project?

A. Initiating

B. Planning

C. Monitoring and Controlling

D. Executing



QUESTION 7Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?

A. Project Team

B. Project manager

C. Project management office

D. Customer or sponsor



QUESTION 8Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?

A. Project Integration Management

B. Project Time Management

C. Project Procurement Management

D. Project Human Resource Management


Explanation/Reference:Project Human Resource Management includes the processes required to make the most effective use ofthe people involved with the project. It includes all the project stakeholders—sponsors, customers, individualcontributors, and others.

QUESTION 9Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

A. Product scope description

B. Project charter

C. Preliminary project scope statement

D. Communications management plan



QUESTION 10

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the projectsscope is managed?


B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. Project management processes

D. Project scope management plan


Explanation/Reference:The fourth edition PMBOK® defines Organizational Process Assets as “any or all process related assets,from any or all of the organizations involved in the project that can be used to influence the project’s success.”Examples include: plans, procedures, lessons learned, historical information, schedules, risk data and earnedvalue data. Organizational Process Assets fall into two broad categories—Processes and Procedures, andthe Corporate Knowledge Base. The key concept is that these are assets a project manager may use for thebenefit of the project. They work together with Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF’s) to bring those thingsoutside the project team into focus.

QUESTION 11Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?

A. Approved corrective actions

B. Approved contract documentation

C. Work Performance information

D. Rejected change requests



QUESTION 12Which of the following consists of the detailed project projects scope statement and its associated WBS andWBS dictionary?

A. Scope Plan

B. Product scope

C. Scope management plan

D. Scope baseline


Explanation/Reference:The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected,how are they documented, how are they verified, prioritised, updated, changed etc. But the scopemanagement plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. It is the other way round - The Scope Baseline ispart of the Scope Management Plan.

The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected,

how are they documented, how are they verified, prioritised, updated, changed etc. But the scopemanagement plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. It is the other way round - The Scope Baseline ispart of the Scope Management Plan.

QUESTION 13What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work ofthe project?

A. Build vs buy

B. Expert judgment

C. Alternatives Identification

D. Product analysis



QUESTION 14The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A. Schedule management plan

B. Project management plan

C. Quality management plan

D. Resource management plan


Explanation/Reference:The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected,how are they documented, how are they verified, prioritised, updated, changed etc. But the scopemanagement plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. It is the other way round - The Scope Baseline ispart of the Scope Management Plan.

The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected,how are they documented, how are they verified, prioritised, updated, changed etc. But the scopemanagement plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. It is the other way round - The Scope Baseline ispart of the Scope Management Plan.

QUESTION 15What type of project structure is hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A. What type of project structure is hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

B. Resource Breakdown structure (RBS)

C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)



A Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used to create an hierarchical list of the resources. There areorganizational and geographical RBS. Activity lists, resource calendar, and resource estimating are the majorRBS tools.Resource Breakdown Structure or RBS is an integral part of any effective project management in geneal andresource management in particular. Managing any project means organizing project resources and projectcomponents, such as the project team members, to ensure that they are strategically productive throughoutthe lifecycle of the project.

RBS ToolsActivity List — creating a list of all the project-based activities and every conceivable information about them.This includes the usual resources employed by the listed activities.Resource Calendar — making a list of diverse resources regarding their availability over a period of time toascertain whether they can be assigned for particular projects.Resource Estimating — making estimates regarding the variety/volumes of resources that would beemployed for each defined activity in the most cost-effective and productive manner.

QUESTION 16What cause replanning of the project scope?

A. Requested changes

B. Project scope statement changes

C. Variance analysis

D. Approved change requests



QUESTION 17which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A. WBS directory

B. Activity list

C. WBS

D. Project schedule


Explanation/Reference:Work breakdown structure, WBS, is a project management technique initially developed by the US DefenseEstablishment, which deconstructs a project with the intent to identify the deliverables required to complete theproject. The project management work breakdown structure, WBS, is utilized at the beginning of the project todefine the scope, estimate costs and organize Gantt schedules.Work breakdown structure, WBS, captures all the elements of a project in an organized fashion. Breakingdown large, complex projects into smaller project pieces provides a better framework for organizing andmanaging the project. WBS can facilitate resource allocation, task assignment, responsibilities, measurementand control of the project.

QUESTION 18What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the projectobjectives and create the required deliverables?

A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

B. Work Performance information

C. Work Package

D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)


Explanation/Reference:Work breakdown structure, WBS, is a project management technique initially developed by the US DefenseEstablishment, which deconstructs a project with the intent to identify the deliverables required to complete theproject. The project management work breakdown structure, WBS, is utilized at the beginning of the project todefine the scope, estimate costs and organize Gantt schedules.Work breakdown structure, WBS, captures all the elements of a project in an organized fashion. Breakingdown large, complex projects into smaller project pieces provides a better framework for organizing andmanaging the project. WBS can facilitate resource allocation, task assignment, responsibilities, measurementand control of the project.

QUESTION 19What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

A. Project boundaries

B. Project constraints

C. Project assumptions

D. Project objectives


Explanation/Reference:The boundaries of a project are measurable and auditable characteristics that define what belongs to theproject and what doesn’t belong to it. Project boundaries are closely linked to project objectives, they create aholistic perception of project work, and they define the content of the project in terms of expected results. Aclear boundary statement helps direct the things that are applicable to those areas within the project scope.

EXAMPLE An organization is going to sell office equipment within The United States. It makes an agreement with adomestic US distributor. This agreement actually states a project for selling office equipment. The boundariesof this project will affect US operations only. All other locations are out of scope (that is out of the definedboundaries).

QUESTION 20What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and productacceptance criteria?

A. Decompositions

B. Benchmarking

C. Inspection

D. Checklist analysis


Explanation/Reference:The term inspection refers to one of the most critical elements of the entire process that surrounds theexecution and successful completion of a given project. The term inspection refers specifically to the act inwhich the project management team, project management team leader, or other interested and significantparties take the effort to go review the entirety of the project in meticulous detail to determine whether or notthe project meets certain predetermined requirements for completion.

QUESTION 21Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project document updates


C. Scope baseline

D. Product analysis


Explanation/Reference:The Define Scope process involves defining detailed description of the project and major deliverables. TheInput, Tools and Techniques and Output of the Define Scope process are:

QUESTION 22What is an output of Control Scope?

A. Accepted deliverables

B. Work performance measurements

C. Requirements documentation

D. Work performance information


Explanation/Reference:Control Scope process involves monitoring the status of project and managing scope changes. The Inputs,Tools and Techniques and Outputs of Control Scope process are:

QUESTION 23The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?

A. Subdivide the estimated cost of individual activities

B. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components

C. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units.

D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed.



QUESTION 24A project manager needs the project team to make group decision. Which of the following is a method thatcan be used to reach a group decision?

A. Expert judgment

B. Majority

C. SWOT analysis

D. Brainstorming



QUESTION 25Decompositions is a tool and technique used in which of the following?

A. Define Scope and Define Activities

B. Collect Requirements and Estimates Activity Resources

C. Create WBS and Define Activities

D. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration



QUESTION 26Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requieremets process?

A. Group decision making techniques

B. Project management information system

C. Alternative identification

D. Communication requirement analysis



QUESTION 27Which of the following is an input to collect Requirements?

A. Stakeholder register

B. Requirements documentation

C. Prototypes

D. Organizational process assets


Explanation/Reference:Collect Requirements process involves documenting stakeholders needs to meet project objectives. TheInputs, Tools and Techniques, and Outputs of Collect Requirements process are given below.

QUESTION 28The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes?

A. Plan quality

B. Collect Requirements

C. Define Scope

D. Perform Quality Control



QUESTION 29Which is an input of the collect Requirements process?

A. Requirement documentation

B. Organizational process assets

C. Requirements management plan

D. Stakeholder register

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 30Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Scope management plan

C. Project charter

D. Work breakdown structure


Explanation/Reference:Requirements Traceability Matrix

Defining the RTMThe Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM) is a tool to help ensure that the project’s scope, requirements,and deliverables remain “as is” when compared to the baseline. Thus, it “traces” the deliverables byestablishing a thread for each requirement- from the project’s initiation to the final implementation.

The diagram shows that the RTM can be used during all phases of a project to:· Track all requirements and whether or not they are being met by the current process and design· Assist in the creation of the RFP, Project Plan Tasks, Deliverable Documents, and Test Scripts

· Help ensure that all system requirements have been met during the Verification process.The Matrix should be created at the very beginning of a project because it forms the basis of the project’sscope and incorporates the specific requirements and deliverables that will be produced.

How do you create an RTM? In each of the steps shown above, each requirement must be unique and clearly defined. The requirement isthen part of each critical component of the project. The references throughout the entire process must beconsistent and unique. In order to insure that this occurs, the Matrix traces each requirement and creates arelationship between each of the processes

Req#: Requirement Number; for each project requirement, begin to list them on the RTM in a numerical orderand group them by function.Name: Enter the name and brief description of the requirementRFP #: Request For Proposal (RFP); specify the identification number of the requirement as listed in the RFP.DDD #: Deliverable Definition Document (Also referred to as the Deliverable Expectation Document- DED);use the RFP requirement number as areference for the DDD that is created for the requirement. PPT #: List the MS Project Subtask and Task numbers that are associated with the requirement.TS #: Test scripts should be prepared for the actual testing process.Verification: Use this field to record completion of the signoff process

QUESTION 31Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?

A. Delphi technique

B. Unanimity

C. Observation

D. Presentation Technique


Explanation/Reference:The Delphi Method is an information gathering technique that was created in the 1950s by the RANDCorporation. The Delphi Method is based on surveys and makes use of the information of the participants, whoare mainly experts. By using this method, you can get qualitative and quantitative results. The expert surveysare conducted over multiple rounds until a consensus is reached. After each round, feedback is provided,which encourages convergence of thought. A key point to note about the Delphi Technique is that whilegathering thoughts, the participants do not know who the other participants are. Hence, participants are notinfluenced by others taking part in the process.

Uses of the Delphi Method in Project ManagementAs you might already suspect, the Delphi Method has many uses in project management. You can use theDelphi Method for any activity that requires the convergence of expert thought, such as in:

Risk Management: For identifying risks and quantifying risks.Time Management: For estimating stories or work activities.

QUESTION 32Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?

A. Collect Requirements

B. Plan communications

C. Develop Project Team

D. Report Performance



QUESTION 33Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?

A. Product analisys

B. Ishikawa diagram

C. Inspection

D. Requirements Traceability Matrix



QUESTION 34Inspection is a tool and technique for wich of the following processes?

A. Create WBS

B. Define Scope

C. Control scope

D. Verify Scope



QUESTION 35What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliablyestimated and managed?

A. Work Product

B. Work Package

C. Project deliverable

D. Scope Baseline


Explanation/Reference:A work package is a portion of the work breakdown structure that allows project management to define thesteps necessary for completion of the work package. A work package can be thought of as a mini project, thatwhen combined with other work package units, form the completed project. An individual work packagecontains essential steps involved in completion of the work package along with a deadline by which each of thesteps must be completed in order for project management to stay on track. A work package may in itself bethought of as a deliverable. Work packages allow for simultaneous work on many different components of aproject at the same time by multiple teams. Each team follows the steps defined in the work package andcompletes them by the specified deadline. When all teams have finished their individual work packages, thewhole project comes together with seamless integration. Completion of a work package is most often overseenby a specific person whether it is a manager, supervisor, team leader, or a designated team member. A workpackage is usually the bottom tier of the project management process. Related term: control account.

QUESTION 36Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories

A. Project and product

B. Staffingand Budget

C. Stakeholder and Customer

D. Business and Technical



QUESTION 37

Plurality is a type of which of the following?

A. Group creativity techniques

B. Group decision making techniques

C. Facilitated workshops

D. Prototypes



QUESTION 38Which of the followings events would result in a baseline update?

A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion

B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget

C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.

D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available



QUESTION 39Which Schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have

been done sequentially

A. Crashing

B. Fast Tracking

C. Leads and lags adjustment

D. Parallel task development


Explanation/Reference:Fast tracking means that you look at activities that are normally done in sequence and assign them insteadpartially in parallel. If you were fast-tracking, you would start constructing the solution in areas where you feltthe design was pretty solid without waiting for the entire design to be completed.

"Crashing" the schedule means to throw additional resources to the critical path without necessarily gettingthe highest level of efficiency. For instance, let’s say one person was working on a ten-day activity on thecritical path. If you were really desperate to shorten this timeframe, you might add a second resource to thisactivity.

Similarities are:1) Both the approaches are aimed at reducing the schedule2) Both the approaches require addition of resources to achieve the goal3) Even though fast tracking doesn't mention the term Critical Path, it's obvious that the Critical Path tasksneed to be done in parallel to reduce the schedule. So, both the approaches involve changes to Critical Pathactivities schedule.

QUESTION 40Wich Schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A. Human resource planning

B. Fast Tracking

C. Critical Chain method

D. Rolling Wave planning


Explanation/Reference:Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM): According to PMBOK Critical chain method is a schedule network analysis technique that modifies the projectschedule to account for limited resources. It mixes deterministic and probabilistic approaches to schedulenetwork analysis. The critical chain concept was coined by Eliyahu Goldratt. Following few sections brieflydescribe the concepts Critical Chain depends on and are useful to understand the example that will followshortly after that.

QUESTION 41Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date late start date?

A. Critical Path method

B. Variance analysis

C. Schedule comprenssion

D. Schedule Comparison bar chart


Explanation/Reference:Critical Path Method (CPM): The Critical Path Method (CPM) is a schedule network analysis technique. CPM was developed by the DuPontCorporation in 1957.Critical path determines the shortest time to complete the project and it is the longestduration path through a network of tasks. Critical tasks (activities) are tasks (activities) on the critical path. To understand CPM further let's first understand nature of the task. According to PMBOK every scheduled taskcan be defined by the following four parameters. • Early Start (ES): Earliest possible point in time on which a task can start. • Early Finish (EF): Earliest possible point in time on which a task can finish. • Late Start (ES): Latest possible point in time on which a task can start. • Late Finish (EF): Latest possible point in time on which a task can finish.

Early Start and finish dates are calculated by means of Forward Pass and Late Start and Late Finish dates arecalculated by means of Backward Pass. Many Tasks have some amount of buffer added to them referred asSlack Time or Float. Float time is amount of time a task can slip before it delays project schedule. There aretwo common types of floats.

• Free Float: Amount of time a single task can be delayed without delaying the early start of any successortask. • Total Float: Amount of time a single task can be delayed without delaying project completion.

Mathematically Float is defined as: Float = LS - ES or LF - EF.

Critical path has zero or negative Total Float. A project can have several critical paths

QUESTION 42What is the minimum a project schedule must include?

A. Variance analysis

B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity

C. A critical path diagram

D. Critical chain analysis



QUESTION 43What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expectedperformance?

A. Cost aggregation

B. Trend Analysis

C. Forecasting

D. Variance analysis

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Earned value is the Actual Amount of Work Accomplished whereas Variance Analysis is the Differencebeween the Amount of Work Planned and the Work actually accomplished. Variance Analysis is applicable(computed) to the triple constrains in the project i.e. you have 3 Variance Analyses: For A) Scope B) ScheduleC) Cost where as Earned Value is generally calculated for Cost. That is why you see variance Analysis as anoutput on all 3 KAs where as You see EV Analysis as an output only in the Cost Management

QUESTION 44Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?EV= $500PV=$750AC=$1000BAC=$1200

A. 0.67

B. 1.50

C. 0.75

D. 0.50


Explanation/Reference:Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time (SPI = 1) or behindthe schedule(<1).

Cost performance Index (CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than(CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1)

QUESTION 45Which enterprise enviromental factors are considered during cost estimating?

A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

B. Marketplace conditions and company structure

C. Commercial databases and company structure

D. Existing human resources and market place conditions



QUESTION 46Which process involves aggregating the estimated cost of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Cost baseline

B. Cost forecasting

C. Cost variance

D. Cost budgeting

Correct Answer: D



QUESTION 47What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?BAC=$ 100,000PV=$50,000AC=$80,000EV=$40,000

A. 1.00

B. 0.40

C. 0.50

D. 0.80




QUESTION 48The project manager calculated a schedule performance index 0.80 and a cost performance index 1.1 for theproject. What is the actual status of this project?

A. Behind the schedule and over budget

B. Behind the schedule and under budget

C. Ahead of schedule and under budget

D. Ahead of schedule and over budget




QUESTION 49EAC (Estimate and complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus and ETC(Estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating EAC?

A. EAC= AC + [(BAC-EV)/(CUMULATIVE CPI* CUMULATIVE SPI)]

B. EAC= BAC - AC

C. EAC= 1-CPI

D. EAC =EV + [1-(CUMULATIVE CPI* CUMULATIVE SPI)/BAC]


Explanation/Reference:There are 4 types of EAC forecast calculation formulas available, but confused when to use each type.

EAC = BAC / CPIEAC = ETC + ACEAC = (BAC-EV) + ACEAC = [BAC-EV / spi * cpi] + AC

ExplanationEAC = AC + Bottom up ETC -- Used when original estimate is fundamentally flawedEAC = BAC / Cumulative CPI - Used if no variances have occured and same rate of spending will continueEAC = AC + (BAC- EV) - Used when variances are atypical /irregularEAC = AC + ( BAC-EV / Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) - Used when variances are typical(regular).Assumes poor cost performance

QUESTION 50Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?

A. EV/PV

B. PV/EV

C. EV-PV

D. PV-EV


Explanation/Reference:Schedule Variance Formula Schedule Variance is calculated as follows:

Schedule Variance = Earned Value – Planned Value

Earned Value is also known as Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP). And Planned Value is also knownas Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS). So you may see the formula written as: Schedule Variance = BCWP - BCWS

What does Schedule Variance mean?The result of the Schedule Variance formula is a number. So what does this number mean? A value of less than zero means the project is behind schedule.And a value greater than zero means the project is ahead of schedule.(A value of zero means the project is exactly on schedule but this is very rare).

Exam C

QUESTION 1Which tool and technique uses a statical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculateestimates?

A. Analogous estimating

B. Three-poit estimates

C. Parametric estimating

D. Bottom-up estimating


Explanation/Reference:Parametric Estimating: Refers, primarily, to an estimation technique which utilizes the statistical relationshipthat exists between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables. Someexamples of these variables include square footage in a contraction project, the number of lines or code thatexist in a software application, and other similar variables. This information is them implemented for thepurposes of calculating and demonstrating an estimate for the entity of activity parameters. One valuableaspect of parametric estimating is the higher levels of accuracy that can be built into it depending on howsophisticated the original data that was built into the estimate turns out to have been.

Analogous Estimating It is also known as "Top Down" Estimation.It uses estimations from previous activities to estimate future durations. The validity of duration estimatesderived using this method depends on:- historical information- similarity of the historical projects- expert judgement

Three Point Estimation: is a technique used to estimate the time required for a project based on historicalinformation. This includes:Most Optimistic:Best case scenario in which nothing goes wrong and all conditions are optimal.Most Likely:The most likely duration and there may be some problem but a lot will go right.Most Pessimistic: The worst case scenario which everything goes wrong.

Bottom-Up Cost Estimation Is *An estimating the cost for each work package in the WBS.*The most accurate method but it is also the most challenging, costly and time consuming.

QUESTION 2Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?

A. EV-AC

B. AC-EV

C. AC+EV

D. AC/EV


Explanation/Reference:Cost Variance (CV) Is very important factor to measure project performance. Cost Variance (CV) indicateshow much over or under budget the project is.Cost Variance can be calculated as using the following formula

Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC)

OR

Cost Variance (CV) = BCWP - ACWP

The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of cost which will indicate how less or more cost hasbeen to complete the work as of date.

Positive Cost Variance Indicates the project is under budgetNegative Cost Variance Indicates the project is over budget

Cost Variance %Cost Variance % indicates how much over or under budget the project is in terms of percentage.Cost Variance % can be calculated as using the following formula

CV % = Cost Variance (CV) / Earned Value (EV)

OR

CV % = CV / BCWP

The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of percentage which will indicate how much less ormore money has been used to complete the work as planned in terms of percentage.

Positive Variance % indicates % under Budget.Negative Variance % indicates % over Budget.

QUESTION 3Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT?CO= $7,000CM= $10,500CP= $11,000

A. $4,750

B. $9,500

C. $10,000

D. $11,500


Explanation/Reference:CE = (CO + 4CM + CP)/6

QUESTION 4What is the expected activity cost for a projecct having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of$115, and a worst case scenario of $165?

A. $115

B. $138

C. $140

D. $165


Explanation/Reference:EC=(140+115+165)/3

QUESTION 5What does a SPI value greather than 1.0 indicates?

A. Most work was completed than planned

B. Less work was completed than planned

C. Cost overrun for completed work has occurred

D. Cost underrun for completed work has occurred


Explanation/Reference:Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time (SPI = 1) or behindthe schedule(<1)

QUESTION 6Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:

A. Funding limit reconciliation

B. Scope baseline

C. Activity cost estimates

D. Cost baseline



QUESTION 7What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?

A. Under budge and ahead of schedule

B. Over budget and behind schedule

C. Over budget and ahead of schedule

D. Under budget and behind schedule



QUESTION 8In the earned Value EV is $1000, actual cost AC is $800, and planned Value PV is $1500, what would be thecost performance index CPI

A. 0.66

B. 0.8

C. 1.25

D. 1.5


Explanation/Reference:Cost performance Index(CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than(CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1)the budget allotted at that stage.

QUESTION 9Control, charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of whatprocess?

A. Perform Quality Control


C. Quality planning

D. Performance Reporting



QUESTION 10Which Tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures?

A. scope audits

B. Scope reviews

C. Quality Audits

D. Contro Chart


Explanation/Reference:A quality Audit is an independent evaluation, inspection or review of a project's quality assurance system toimprove quality performance of a project.

The audits can take place at scheduled or random intervals.The result of a quality audit (eg lesson learned) are important for the current project as well as for later projectsor other parts of the organisation.

QUESTION 11What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart

B. Flowchart

C. Run Chart

D. Pareto Chart


Explanation/Reference:Flowchart shows the sequence of events and flow of inputs and outputs. It also shows the elements between aprocess or system.

It gets a definite beginning and end along with decision points clearly called out. This can be done with theactions to take based on the result of each decision.

QUESTION 12Which tool and technique of quality planning involves caomparing actual or planned practices to those of otherprojects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A. Histogram

B. Quality audits

C. Benchmarking

D. Performance measurements analysis



Benchmarking is a tool used in Quality Planning. It Addresses the evaluation of a group's business or projectpractices- In comparison to those of other groups. - Identify best practics- In order to meet them

QUESTION 13In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. Scope Management

B. Time Management

C. Communications Management

D. Quality Management


Explanation/Reference:A Pareto diagram/chart helps focus attention on the most critical issues.

It prioritises potential "causes" of the problems.

It is referred to as 80/20 rule that 80% of problems or defects are most often due to 20% of the causes.

QUESTION 14What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality Metrics

B. Less rework

C. Quality control measurements

D. Benchmarking



QUESTION 15What is the ame of the statiscal method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of aproduct or process under development or in production?

A. Failure modes and effects analysis

B. Design of experiments

C. Quality Checklist

D. Risk analysis


Explanation/Reference:Design of Experiment (DOE) is:a technique to systematically identify varying levels of independent variables.It determines:

*which variable has the greatest effect.*what is the relationship between each variable and the quality specifications (with customer focused).*What is the best value for each variable, ensuring optimal quality or value.

QUESTION 16What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technicalcharacteristics?

A. Scope

B. Quality

C. Specification

D. Grade


Explanation/Reference:Grade is “a category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use (e.g., “hammer”), butdo not share the same requirements for quality (e.g., different hammers may need to withstand differentamounts of force)”.

QUESTION 17Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance?

A. Profitability and impact matrix

B. Expert Judgment

C. Benchmarking

D. Risk Categorization


Explanation/Reference:Benchmarking is a tool used in Quality Planning. It Addresses the evaluation of a group's business or projectpractices- In comparison to those of other groups.

- Identify best practics- In order to meet them

QUESTION 18Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?

A. Actions, decision points, and process drivers

B. Activities, decision points, and the order of processing

C. Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing

D. Actions, decision points, and activities


Explanation/Reference:Flowchart shows the sequence of events and flow of inputs and outputs. It also shows the elements between aprocess or system.

It gets a definite beginning and end along with decision points clearly called out. This can be done with theactions to take based on the result of each decision.

QUESTION 19Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests,corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?

A. Quality checklists

B. Quality Metrics

C. Quality audits

D. Process analysis


Explanation/Reference:A quality Audit is an independent evaluation, inspection or review of a project's quality assurance system toimprove quality performance of a projectThe audits can take place at scheduled or random intervals.

The result of a quality audit (eg lesson learned) are important for the current project as well as for later projectsor other parts of the organisation.

QUESTION 20Which tool technique uses the 80/20 principle?

A. Pareto Chart

B. Cause and effect diagrams

C. Control Charts

D. Flowcharting



A Pareto diagram/chart helps focus attention on the most critical issues.

It prioritises potential "causes" of the problems.

It is referred to as 80/20 rule that 80% of problems or defects are most often due to 20% of the causes.

QUESTION 21What is cost of nonconformance?

A. Rework

B. Inspections

C. Trainings

D. Testings


Explanation/Reference:Cost of Non-Conformance

>>However, if there is a choice made not to conduct quality activities, there is a potential for costs associatedwith any resulting problems. These costs are referred to as the costs of non-conformance. This is money spentbecause of failures.>>Costs of non-conformance can include things such as payments made out on warranties, re-work or scrap,and/or damage to reputation.

QUESTION 22What is included in a control chart?

A. Baselines

B. Planned Value

C. Upper specification limit

D. Expenditure


Explanation/Reference:Control Charts are graphs used to analyse and communicate the variability of a process (or project activity)over time.

The components include the process mean the Upper Control Limit (UCL) and the Lower Control Limit (LCL).Data points within this range are generally though of as "In Control".

QUESTION 23What tool and technique includes all cost incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventingnonconformance to requirements?

A. Cost of quality

B. Measure of design

C. Satatical control

D. Systematic analysis


Explanation/Reference:COST OF QUALITY: CoQ can be defined as the costs associated with not creating a quality product. Inproject management, CoQ needs to be consider while estimating costs and performing Life-Cycle Costing(LCC).

Total Cost of Quality = External Failure + Internal Failure + Appraisal + Prevention Costs

External Failure Costs. These are associated with problems found in the product or service after the customerhas received it. For example, technical support calls, investigation of customer complaints, product refunds and recalls, lostcustomer goodwill, warranty costs, and liability costs.

Internal Failure Costs. These are associated with defects that have been found before giving the product orservice to the customer. For example, bug fixes, regression testing, wasted resource time, and rework.

Appraisal Costs. These are associated with finding quality problems. For example, inspection, testing, andaudits.

Prevention Cost. These are activities that are performed to prevent poor quality. For example, processreviews, quality improvement team, training, usability analysis, and collecting requirements.

QUESTION 24In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entireprocess, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:

A. Is under control

B. Is out of control

C. Has increasing trend

D. Has decreasing trend



QUESTION 25In which tool and technique is possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables?

A. Fishbone diagram

B. Control chart

C. Run chart

D. Scatter diagram


Explanation/Reference:This is one of the Tools and Techniques of the Perform Quality Control.

Scatter diagrams use two variables, one called an independent variable, which is an input, and one called adependent variable, which is an output. Scatter diagrams display the relationship between these two elementsas points on a graph.

The important thing to remember about scatter diagrams is that they plot the dependent and independentvariables and the closer the points resemble a diagonal line, the closer these variables are related.

QUESTION 26A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under which categorydoes this cost fall?

A. Appraisal

B. Internal failure

C. External failure

D. Prevention



QUESTION 27Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

A. To identify quality requirements of the project

B. To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them

C. To assess performance and recommend necessary changes

D. To ensure quality standards are used



QUESTION 28What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B. Ground rules for interaction

C. Enhanced resource availability

D. Functional managers become more involved



QUESTION 29Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

A. Negotiation

B. Roles and responsabilities

C. Recognition and rewards

D. Prizing and promoting



QUESTION 30When managing a project team, what helps to reduce amount of conflict?

A. Clear role definition

B. Negotiation

C. Risk response planning

D. Team member replacement



QUESTION 31Conflicts should be best addressed in which manner?

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B. Early, in plublic, using a indirect, collaborative approach

C. Early, in private, using a indirect, cooperative approach

D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach



QUESTION 32What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart

B. Reporting flow diagram

C. Project organization chart

D. Project team structure diagram


Explanation/Reference:Organization Chart : A project organization chart is a graphic display of project team members and theirreporting relationships.

QUESTION 33Whitin a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsiblefor managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

A. Functional manager

B. Project Manager

C. Functional manager supported by the project manager

D. Project management office


Explanation/Reference:Manage Project TeamManage Project Team involves tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, andcoordinating changes to enhance project performance. The project management team observes teambehavior, manages conflict, resolves issues, and appraises team member performance. As a result ofmanaging the project team, the staffing management plan is updated, change requests are submitted, issuesare resolved, input is given to organizational performance appraisals, and lessons learned are added to theorganization's database.

Management of the project team is complicated when team members are accountable to both a functionalmanager and the project manager within a matrix organization (Section 2.3.3). Effective management of thisdual reporting relationship is often a critical success factor for the project, and is generally the responsibilityof the project manager.

QUESTION 34What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A. rganizational chart

B. Organizational theory

C. Organizational Structure

D. Organizational Behavior


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Refers to all the theories that attempt to explain what makes people, teams and work units perform the waythey do. I'll talk more motivation techniques (which are a type of organizational theory). "Developing theproject Team." Organizational theory improves the probability that planning will be effective and helps shortenthe amount of time it takes to produce the Develop Human Resource Plan outputs.

QUESTION 35In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project an theirformal roles and responsibilities?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing



QUESTION 36Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?

A. Collaboration

B. Issue log

C. Leadership

D. Motivation


Explanation/Reference:CONFLICT RESOLUTION TECHNIQUES

Withdrawing or Avoiding: Here, the project manager simply chooses to avoid the conflict, and allows thepersons involved in conflict to find their own solution. No action is taken by the project manager.Smoothing or Accommodating: Here, the project manager is involved in the conflict, tries to avoid areas ofdisagreements, and focuses on commonalities. Smoothing is a way to avoid tough discussions.Compromising: It is a mid-way approach. Here, everybody loses and gain something. All parties get somesort of satisfaction. It is a lose-lose approach.Forcing: Here, decision is taken in favor of one’s viewpoint at the expense of others. It can demoralize theteam member and may cause to increase the conflicts. It is a win-lose approach.Collaborating: This is an example of win-win approach. Here, the project manager will work with all parties tofind a resolution that involves multiple viewpoints and negotiate for the best solution. This technique reinforcesmutual trust and commitment.Problem Solving or Confronting: Here, a conflict will be treated as a problem for which project manager hasto find a solution. The project manager will conduct an in-depth root cause analysis of the reason for theoccurrence of the conflict, encourage open discussions to allow parties to express their areas of disagreement,and then arrives at a solution.

QUESTION 37Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areasof difference?

A. Withdrawing/ Avoiding

B. Forcing

C. Collaborating

D. Smoothing/acommodating



Withdrawing or Avoiding: Here, the project manager simply chooses to avoid the conflict, and allows thepersons involved in conflict to find their own solution. No action is taken by the project manager.Smoothing or Accommodating: Here, the project manager is involved in the conflict, tries to avoid areas ofdisagreements, and focuses on commonalities. Smoothing is a way to avoid tough discussions.Compromising: It is a mid-way approach. Here, everybody loses and gain something. All parties get somesort of satisfaction. It is a lose-lose approach.Forcing: Here, decision is taken in favor of one’s viewpoint at the expense of others. It can demoralize theteam member and may cause to increase the conflicts. It is a win-lose approach.Collaborating: This is an example of win-win approach. Here, the project manager will work with all parties tofind a resolution that involves multiple viewpoints and negotiate for the best solution. This technique reinforcesmutual trust and commitment.Problem Solving or Confronting: Here, a conflict will be treated as a problem for which project manager hasto find a solution. The project manager will conduct an in-depth root cause analysis of the reason for theoccurrence of the conflict, encourage open discussions to allow parties to express their areas of disagreement,and then arrives at a solution.

QUESTION 38In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues smoothly andeffectively?

A. Norming

B. Forming

C. Storming

D. Performing



QUESTION 39The resource calendars document is an output of which process?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Acquire Project Team

C. Develop Schedule

D. Develop Project Team



QUESTION 40In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together, develop trust, andadjust the work habits and behavior?

A. Norming

B. Forming

C. Storming

D. Performing



QUESTION 41Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decissions. The project team is inwhich of the following stages of team development?

A. Storming

B. Forming

C. Norming

D. Performing



QUESTION 42Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance theirability to perform as a team is called which of the following?

A. Team training

B. Co-location

C. Team location

D. Organizatin training


Explanation/Reference:co-location represents an organizational technique in which the location of team members is determined in astrategic way to maximize productivity

QUESTION 43Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following conflictmanagement techniques?

A. Smoothing

B. Compromising

C. Avoiding

D. Forcing

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 44Which knowledge area is concerned with the process required to ensure timely and appropriate generation,collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project integration management

B. Project communications management

C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D. Project scope Management



QUESTION 45Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner

A. Contract management

B. Performance reporting

C. Project status reports

D. Information Distribution



QUESTION 46Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updatesare all outputs of which process?

A. Risk response planning

B. Risk monitoring and controlling

C. Performance reporting

D. Manage stakeholders


Explanation/Reference:Performance Reporting is:The process of gathering and communicating information regarding the current status of a project as well asprojections for progress over time.Durng performance reporting:

Information regarding the work being accomplishedresources being used is collected, analysed and displayed in various report formats.

QUESTION 47Which of the folowing is contained within the communications management plan

A. An organizational chart

B. Glossary of common terminology

C. Organizational Process assets

D. Enterprise enviromental factors



QUESTION 48Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation,collection, distribution, storage, retieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project Risk Management

B. Project Integration Management

C. Project Communications Management

D. Project Quality Management



QUESTION 49Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are alloutputs of which project management process?

A. Risk response planning

B. Manage stakeholders

C. Scope definition

D. Performance reporting



QUESTION 50What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

A. Expert Judgement

B. Project Management methodology

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Status review meetings



Exam D

QUESTION 1What is the number of stakeholders, if the project 28 potential communication channels?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 14

D. 16


Explanation/Reference:Number of communication channels with “n” members = n*(n-1)/2

QUESTION 2What information does the stakeholder register contain?

A. Communication model

B. Identification information

C. Communication Method

D. Identification Plan



QUESTION 3Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and realtes it to the purpose of the project?

A. Requirements, influence, and functional department

B. Interest, requirements, and functional role.

C. Requirements, expectations, and influence

D. Interest, expectations, and influence



QUESTION 4Which of the following is a tool or technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations Process?

A. Issue log

B. Change register

C. Stakeholder register

D. Interpersonal skills



QUESTION 5When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is being used?

A. Time series method

B. Casual method

C. Econometric method

D. Judgment method



QUESTION 6Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?

A. Push

B. Decode

C. Pull

D. Duration


Explanation/Reference:The elements in this model are:

• Encode: To translate thoughts or ideas into a form of language that can be understood by the receiver; eg,written English, spoken French or a drawn diagram.• Message: What is sent: the output of encoding• Medium: The method used for sending the message (face-to-face, telephone, email)• Noise: Something that interferes with the sending or understanding of the message (distance, culture,language differences)• Decode: The translation of the message by the receiver from the medium into their thoughts.

A single communication is complete once the feedback-message has been decoded by the sender andchecked for accuracy against the original idea. Once this loop has been closed both people have a commonunderstanding of the idea. This does not require agreement or concurrence, but if there is to be adisagreement, it helps if everyone has the same basic understanding of the issue or idea in dispute.

Effective communication requires both the sender and the receiver to be engaged.

QUESTION 7Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?

A. Project management plan

B. Report performance

C. Communications requirements analysis

D. Communication methods



QUESTION 8A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product accordingspecifications has increased from one day to three days over the past months. Which tool or technique is usedin this case?

A. Expert judgment

B. Quality assurance

C. Quality control

D. Variance analysis



QUESTION 9There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor. How manycommunication channels are there?

A. 21

B. 28

C. 36

D. 42


Explanation/Reference:Number of communication channels with “n” members = n*(n-1)/2

QUESTION 10ABC project is a risk for failling to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues.Team member morale is low.Who is primrily responsible for the project being a risk?

A. Team members who have low morale

B. Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project

C. Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations

D. Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations



QUESTION 11When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most effectively?

A. Push

B. Interactive

C. Parallel

D. Pull


Explanation/Reference:Interactive Communication Interactive communication is the most efficient method of communication toensure a common understanding as it is real time.Interactive communication should be used when an immediate response is required and when thecommunication is sensitive or likely to be misinterpreted.

Push Communication Push communication is communication that is delivered by the sender to the

recipients. While the communication can be confirmed that it was sent, it does not necessarily mean it wasreceived and understood. Push communication should be used when the recipients need the information but itdoes not require animmediate response and the communication is non-urgent or sensitive in nature.

Pull Communication Pull communication is a communication method that provides access to the informationhowever the receiver must proactively retrieve the information.Pull communication should be used when the communication is informational only. If the recipients don’t readit, it will not affect the project.

QUESTION 12What are assigned risk ratings based upon?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Assessed probability and impact

C. Expert judgment

D. Risk identification



QUESTION 13Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action byassessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Quantitative risk analysis

C. Risk management planning

D. Risk response planning


Explanation/Reference:Qualitative Risk AnalysisA qualitative risk analysis prioritizes the identified project risks using a pre-defined rating scale. Risks will bescored based on their probability or likelihood of occurring and the impact on project objectives should theyoccur.Probability/likelihood is commonly ranked on a zero to one scale (for example, .3 equating to a 30% probabilityof the risk event occurring).The impact scale is organizationally defined (for example, a one to five scale, with five being the highestimpact on project objectives - such as budget, schedule, or quality).A qualitative risk analysis will also include the appropriate categorization of the risks, either source-based oreffect-based.

Quantitative Risk AnalysisA quantitative risk analysis is a further analysis of the highest priority risks during a which a numerical orquantitative rating is assigned in order to develop a probabilistic analysis of the project.A quantitative analysis:- quantifies the possible outcomes for the project and assesses the probability of achieving specific project

objectives- provides a quantitative approach to making decisions when there is uncertainty- creates realistic and achievable cost, schedule or scope targetsIn order to conduct a quantitative risk analysis, you will need high-quality data, a well-developed project model,and a prioritized lists of project risks (usually from performing a qualitative risk analysis)

QUESTION 14Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may required near termaction?

A. Probability and impact matrix

B. Contingency analysis report

C. Risk urgency assessment

D. Rolling wave plan



QUESTION 15Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

A. sensitivity analysis

B. Probability and impact matrix

C. Risk data quality assessment

D. Risk categorization


Explanation/Reference:Sensitivity AnalysisSensitivity analysis seeks to place a value on the effect of change of a single variable within a project byanalyzing that effect on the project plan. It is the simplest form of risk analysis. Uncertainty and risk arereflected by defining a likely range of variation for each component of the original base case estimate. Inpractice such an analysis is only done for those variables which have a high impact on cost, time or economicreturn, and to which the project is most sensitive.

QUESTION 16When does risk monitoring and control occur?

A. At project initiation

B. During work performance analysis

C. Throughout the life of the project

D. At project milestones



QUESTION 17A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A. Risk monitoring and controlling

B. Risk response planning

C. Qualitative risk analysis

D. Quantitative risk analysis



QUESTION 18Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis prosess requires that different levels of the risk'sprobabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

A. Risk breakdown Structure (RBS)

B. Risk probability and impact

C. Qualitative risk analysis




QUESTION 19What is one of the objectives of project risk management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on the project objectives

B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issues so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events

D. Removal of project risk



QUESTION 20Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A. Mitigate

B. Transfer

C. Share

D. Avoid



QUESTION 21Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A. Transference

B. Avoidance

C. Exploring

D. Mitigation



QUESTION 22What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risk on project objectives?

A. Expert judgment

B. Risk Registry


D. Interviewing


Explanation/Reference:Interviewing. Interviewing techniques are used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on projectobjectives. The information needed depends upon the type of probability distributions that will be used. Forinstance, information would be gathered on the optimistic (low), pessimistic (high), and most likely scenariosfor some commonly used distributions, and the mean and standard deviation for others. Documenting therationale of the risk ranges is an important component of the risk interview, because it can provide informationon reliability and credibility of the analysis.

Probability distributions. Continuous probability distributions represent the uncertainty in values, such asdurations of schedule activities and costs of project components. Discrete distributions can be used torepresent uncertain events, such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree.

Expert judgment. Subject matter experts internal or external to the organizations such as engineering orstatistical experts, validate data and techniques.

QUESTION 23What defines a portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management plan

B. Evaluation Criteria

C. Work Break Structure (WBS)

D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)


Explanation/Reference:Contract Statement of Work (SOW)

Design: Details what is required in terms of physical characteristics.

Performance:Specifies measurable capabilities the end product must achieve in terms of operationalcharacteristics.

Functional: Defines what the deliverable is required to do but not necessarily how to do it. This allows theprospective sellers to offer different possible solutions for archiving the same end-use function.

QUESTION 24Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A. Purchase requisition

B. Purchase order

C. Verbal Agreegment

D. Request for quote



QUESTION 25Which of the following list contain processs

A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers.

B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control

C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers

D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers



QUESTION 26Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process?

A. Risk assesment analysis

B. Make or buy analysis

C. Contract value analysis

D. Cost impact analysis


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Make-or-Buy Analysis:Is a technique used to determine whether it would be more cost effective to produce a prudct or service in-house or from an outside vendor.Can significantly impact project time, cost, quality, scope, etc.

QUESTION 27A purchase order for a specific item to be delivered by specified date for a specified price is the simplest formof what type of contract?

A. Cost-reimbursable

B. Time and material

C. Fixed Price or lump - sum

D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee



QUESTION 28What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

A. Procurement documents

B. Expert judgment

C. Bidder conferences

D. Contract Types


Explanation/Reference:Bidder conference (also called a contractor or vendor conference)A meeting with prospective sellers to ensure all sellers have a clear understanding of the product or service tobe procured. Bidder conferences allow sellers to query the buyer on the details of the product to help ensurethat the proposal the seller creates is adequate and appropriate for the proposed agreement.

QUESTION 29A contract change control system defines which of the following?

A. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied

B. Process by which the procurement can be modified

C. Process by which the procurement can be obtained

D. Process by which the procurement can be disposed



QUESTION 30In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable cost for performing the contract work andreceives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in thecontract?

A. Cost -plus-fixed-fee

B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee

C. Firm-fixed-price

D. Fixed-price-incentive-fee


Explanation/Reference:Contract Types in ProcurementProcurement can generally be categorized between Fixed Price and Cost Reimbursable.

Fixed PriceFixed Price Plus Incentive Fee (FPIF) – 10000$ is paid plus for every month the work finished earlier thanschedule 1000$ will be paidFixed Price plus Award fee (FPAF) – 10000$ plus every month performance exceeds planned value 1000$ isawarded with the max award of 10000$Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment – 10000$/ year plus a price will increase based on Consumer PriceIndex.Purchase Order – generally used for commodities

Time and Material –100$ /hr plus cost

Cost ReimbursableCost Contract – Seller receives no profit. Used by non profit organizationCost Plus Fees (CPF) or Cost plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) – Cost plus 10% as feesCost Plus Fixed fee (CPFF) – Cost plus 10000$ in feesCost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) – Cost plus variable fee. Original estimate is done (target cost) and target feeis determined. The seller gets percentage of saving if actual cost is less than target cost based on Seller/Buyerratio.Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) – Cost plus fee plus award based on performance.

QUESTION 31Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement?

A. Executive management

B. Project members

C. Project manager

D. Contract administrator



QUESTION 32

In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional cost above the price ceilingbecomes the responsability of performing organization?

A. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP)

B. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)

C. Cost-Reimbursable Contractors

D. Time and Material Contracts (T&M)






QUESTION 33The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. Contract Type

B. Sponsors

C. Project Manager

D. Stakeholders



QUESTION 34Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total priceplus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?

A. Fixed-Price_Incentive_fee contracts (FPIF)

B. Firm-fixed-price-Contracts (FFP)

C. Fixed-Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

D. Time and Material Contract (T&M)






QUESTION 35Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement ManagementProcess?

A. Plan Procurements

B. Conduct Procurements

C. Administer Procurements

D. Close Procurements



QUESTION 36Which procurement management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement requirementsand that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract?

A. Plan procurements



D. Conduct Procurements



QUESTION 37Which contract is tipically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period ofyears?

A. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)

B. Fixed Price with Economics Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)

C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee Contracts (CPFF)

D. Time and Material Contracts (T&M)






QUESTION 38The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the followingprocesses?

A. Develop Project Charter

B. Develop Project Management Plan

C. Direct and Manage Project Execution

D. Monitor and control Project Work



QUESTION 39Final product transition is an output of which process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Close Project or Phase

C. Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Monitor and Control Project Work



QUESTION 40Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage approvedchanges and baselines within a project?

A. Project management information system

B. Configuration management System

C. Change control board

D. Project management plan



QUESTION 41The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project?

A. Procurement management plan


C. Project Scope document

D. Project charter



QUESTION 42Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board?

A. Describes how changes are managed?

B. Approves or rejects change requests

C. Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change.

D. Describes how changes are documented


Explanation/Reference:Change control board can be referred to as a board or committee or group of stakeholder’s, that analyze andreview the change requests that have been forwarded by the project management team and accordingly takedecision whether the change request needs to be accepted or rejected.

*Consists of stakeholder’s.*Approve or reject changes.*Decisions are often accepted and considered final.*Role clearly defined.*All change requests should go through it.

QUESTION 43Which document is a narrative description of products or serices to be delivered by the project?

A. Project charter

B. Contract

C. Business case

D. Project statement of work


Explanation/Reference:Project Statement of WorkThe project statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by theproject and is provided by the project initiator or customer for external projects or the sponsor or requestingorganization for internal projects. If the project is being done for an external customer, the SOW may bereceived from the customer as part of a bid document.The SOW details the business need for the project, the product scope description, the strategic plan, and thecharacteristics of the product the project will create.

Business CaseThe business case will confirm the business need and drivers for the project and will most likely includeinformation on a cost benefit analysis, so as to justify the funding of the project, such as: net present value(NPV), internal rate of return (IRR), and/or return on investment (ROI).The business case should also reference the driver behind the project, such as: market demand,organizational need, customer request, technological advance, legal requirement, or social need.The business case is generally completed by the sponsor of the project.

QUESTION 44Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the projectmanagement plan are part of which process?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Monitor and Control Risk

D. Perform Integrated Change Control



QUESTION 45Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders needs and expectations?

A. Project charter


C. Project statement of work

D. Project scope statement


Explanation/Reference:A Project Charter is a formal document that authorizes the start of a project. It names and appoints a projectmanager, assigns a summary budget, establishes a project time line, and documents key assumptions andconstraints. The project boundary, its key deliverables - the mission of the project are documented as much aspossible.

A Project management plan is the planning document, capturing the entire project end-to-end, covering allproject phases, from initiation through planning, execution and closure.

QUESTION 46The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes?

A. Perform integrated Change Control

B. Monitor and control Project work

C. Develop Project Management Plan

D. Direct and Management Project Execution



QUESTION 47Who authorizes a project?

A. Sponsor

B. Project Manager

C. Project Team

D. Buyer



QUESTION 48Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution

C. Monitor and Control Risks




QUESTION 49A business case is an input to which of the following processes?

A. Collect Requirements

B. Define Scope

C. Develop Project Charter

D. Develop Project Mangement Plan



QUESTION 50What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?

A. Functional requirement

B. Status report

C. Customer Need

D. Defect repair



Exam E

QUESTION 1What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?

A. Functional requirement

B. Status report

C. Customer need

D. Defect repair



QUESTION 2The project integration Management Knowledge area includes which of the following set of processes?

A. Develop project charter, direct and manage project Execution Perform integrated Change Control

B. Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase

C. Develop project charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Cost

D. Identify Stakeholders, plan communications, develop Project Management Plan.



QUESTION 3What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project clousure?

A. Customer acceptance

B. Statement of work

C. Product report

D. User Manual



QUESTION 4Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?

A. Parametric estimating

B. Monte Carlo Analysis

C. Top-down estimating

D. Bottom-up estimating


Explanation/Reference:Estimating techniques can be applied to resources, effort, duration, and costs. The following are differentmethods of estimating you can use, depending on the situation.

QUESTION 5Which process involves identifying and documentating the logical relationships among activities?

A. Schedule development

B. Activity sequencing

C. Create WBS

D. Applying leads and lags


Explanation/Reference:The Activity Sequencing process involves the identification and documentation of the logical relationshipsamong schedule activities. Schedule activities can be logically sequenced with appropriate precedencerelationships, leads and lags to enable a realistic, achievable project schedule. Sequencing may be performedusing project management software and/or manual techniques.

QUESTION 6What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whilework in the future is planned at a higher level?

A. Finish-to –start planning

B. Rolling wave planning

C. Short term planning

D. Dependency determination


Explanation/Reference:Rolling wave planning is a project management technique that involves progressive elaboration to add detailto the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) on an ongoing basis. At the beginning of the project, near termdeliverables are decomposed into individual components (work packages) and defined at the greatest level ofdetail. Deliverables and schedule activities that will take place several reporting periods in the future are morebroadly defined

QUESTION 7When would resource levelling be applied to a schedule model?

A. Before constraints have been identified

B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C. After it has analyzed by the critical path method

D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path



QUESTION 8Which is the duration of the project?

Task Duration Predecessor(s)

Start 0 NONE

A 6 START

B 4 START

C 7 A

D 10 A

E 8 B

F 9 D

G 11 C and E

END 0 F and G

A. 63

B. 65

C. 66

D. 70



QUESTION 9Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities?

A. Decomposition

B. Project management software

C. Applying leads and lags

D. Expert judgement


Explanation/Reference:Leads and Lags:Leads and Lags are types of float. Let's take an example to understand this.

In project management, there are four types of dependencies:

Finish to Start (FS) - Later task does not start until the previous task is finishedFinish to Finish (FF) - Later task does not finish until the previous task is finishedStart to Start (SS) - Later task does not start until the previous task startsStart to Finish (SF) - Latter task does not finish before previous task starts

Take the scenario of building two identical walls of the same house using the same material. Let's say, buildingthe first wall is task A and building the second one is task B. The engineer wants to delay task B for two days.This is due to the fact that the material used for both A and B are a new type, so the engineer wants to learnfrom A and then apply if there is anything to B. Therefore, the two tasks A and B have a SS relationship.

The time between the start dates of the two tasks can be defined as a lag (2 days in this case).

If the relationship between task A and B was Finish to Start (FS), then the 'lead' can be illustrated as:

Task B started prior to Task A with a 'lead'.

Conclusion For a project manager, the concepts of float, lead, and lag make a lot of meaning and sense.These aspects of tasks are important in order to calculate project timeline variations and eventually the projectcompletion time.

QUESTION 10What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight,and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for afuture project?

A. Bottom-up estimating

B. Analogous estimating

C. Parametric estimating

D. Three-point estimates



QUESTION 11Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and projects critical path scheduleactivities with activity date information?

A. Schedule Table

B. Schedule network diagram

C. Bar chart

D. Milestone chart



QUESTION 12Which is the total float for the activity G?

A. 0

B. 3

C. 5

D. 10



QUESTION 13Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?

A. End to end

B. Finish-to-end

C. Satrt-to-end

D. Start-to-start



FINISH -TO- START

START-TO-START

FINISH - TO - FINISH

START -TO- FINISH

QUESTION 14In three point estimating technique, if the most likely estimates for an activity to completes is 100 days, theoptimistic estimates is 60 days and the pessimistic estimates is 200 days, what is the expected duration inwhich the activity will be completed?

A. 90 days

B. 100 days

C. 110 days

D. 660 days


Explanation/Reference:Ed= (Mop + 4Mest + Mpes)/6

QUESTION 15Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration?

A. Three-point-estimating

B. Organizational process assets

C. Analogous estimating

D. Reserve analysis



QUESTION 16What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparasion with other cost estimate techniques?

A. Uses contingency reserves

B. Less costly and time consuming

C. Can be applied to segments of work

D. More accurate



QUESTION 17Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources Process?

A. Alternative analysis

B. Bottom-up-estimating

C. Resources breakdown structure

D. Enterprise environmental factors



QUESTION 18In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for the activities?

A. Finish-to-start

B. Applying leads and lags

C. Activity-on-node

D. Dependency determination


Explanation/Reference:When the work of Task 2 can start only after all the work of Task 1 is finished, the tasks have a Finish-to-Start(FS) dependency.Task 1 is the predecessor of Task 2, and Task 2 is the successor of Task 1.For example, you can start to print a manual only after it has been written.

QUESTION 19During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include?

A. Activity name, dependencies, assumptions

B. Activity ID WBS ID, activity name

C. Activity ID, assumptions, constraints

D. Activity name, WBS ID, activity description



QUESTION 20Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities Process?

A. Rolling wave planning

B. Dependency determination

C. Schedule network template

D. Applying leads and lags


Explanation/Reference:Rolling wave planning is the process of planning for a project in waves as the project becomes clearer andunfolds. It is important in such projects to at least highlight in the initial plan the key milestones for the project.

QUESTION 21Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule?

A. What-if scenario analysis?

B. Benchmarking

C. Variance analysis

D. SWOT analysis


Explanation/Reference:What-if scenario analysis Thinking through potential outcomes, the What-If Scenario Analysis is a tool andtechnique of the Develop Schedule process and the Control Schedule process, both described in the fourthedition PMBOK®. This technique is used to estimate impacts to the project schedule if potential scenariosoccur. This technique simply repeatedly asks “what if” a certain event should happen. It is useful to have morethan one person’s perspective and ideas for this analysis. For example, Katy has two hours to bake threedozen cookies. She and her family are doing a What-If Scenario Analysis for this cookie baking project. “Whatif you burn the first batch?” asks her husband. They estimate that will extend the schedule an hour. “What ifDad is eating the cookies as fast as you can make them?” asks her daughter. They estimate that he’ll becomefull at a certain point, so it’ll extend the schedule half an hour. In summary, What-If Scenario Analysis simplyestimates the effect that potential events may have.

QUESTION 22Rolling wave planning is used as tool and technique in which of the following processes?

A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Define Activities

C. Develop Schedule

D. Sequence Activities


Explanation/Reference:Rolling wave planning is the process of planning for a project in waves as the project becomes clearer andunfolds. It is important in such projects to at least highlight in the initial plan the key milestones for the project.

QUESTION 23Draw the precendence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. UseAON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 24

D. 25



QUESTION 24Draw the precendence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. UseAON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the total float on path BEG?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3



QUESTION 25If the schedule Variance (SV) = $55, and the Planned Value (PV) = $11, What is the earned Value (EV)?

A. $0.2

B. $5

C. $44

D. $66


Explanation/Reference:Earned Value (EV)

This is also referred to as Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP). Earned Value (EV) or BCWP is the totalcost of the work completed/performed as of a reproting date.This is calculated as:

EV or BCWP = Baselined Cost * % Complete Actual

Schedule Variance SV = EV - PV

QUESTION 26What is the status of the project if the cost Performance index is 1.25 and the schedule Performance Index is0.75?

A. Under budget and behind schedule

B. Over budget and ahead of schedule

C. Under budget and ahead of schedule

D. Over budget and behind schedule


Explanation/Reference:CPI = EV / AC

QUESTION 27Which of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis?

A. Activity list and activity attributes

B. Schedule network diagram and duration estimates

C. Schedule data and activity resource requirement

D. Milestone list and resource breakdown structure



QUESTION 28The risk register contains which of the following?

A. Identified risks and potential responses

B. Identified risk and updates to scope baseline

C. Risk management plan

D. Risk related contract decisions



QUESTION 29Which of the following is an input to identify risk?


B. Scope management plan

C. Communication management plan

D. Expert judgment



QUESTION 30Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project?

A. Expected monetary value analysis

B. Sensitivity analysis

C. Modeling and simulation

D. Expert judgment


Explanation/Reference: Sensitivity AnalysisSensitivity analysis seeks to place a value on the effect of change of a single variable within a project byanalyzing that effect on the project plan. It is the simplest form of risk analysis. Uncertainty and risk arereflected by defining a likely range of variation for each component of the original base case estimate. Inpractice such an analysis is only done for those variables which have a high impact on cost, time or economicreturn, and to which the project is most sensitive.

QUESTION 31Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?

A. Identify Risk

B. Monitor and control Risk

C. Plan Risk Management

D. Plan Risk Responses


Explanation/Reference:Brainstorming the ProjectBrainstorming is likely the most common approach to risk identification. It’s usually completed together as aproject team to identify the risks within the project. The risks are identified in broad terms and posted, and thenthe risks’ characteristics are detailed. The identified risks are categorized and will pass through qualitative andquantitative risk analysis later.

QUESTION 32Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?

A. Monitor and control Risk

B. Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Plan Risk Responses

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Reserve analysis: refers to a specific technique that is often implemented by the project management teamand/or the project management team leader or leaders for the purposes of helping to better maintain andmanage the projects that they may have under their guise at that respective time.Specifically speaking, the technique of reserve analysis is a particular analytical technique that is used for thepurposes of making a complete and thorough determination of the entirety of the specific and exact featuresand or in many cases relationships of all of the individual project related components that currently exist aspart of the previously determined project management plan. The purpose of the execution and implementationof a reserve analysis is the establishment of an estimated reserve that can be used for the purposes ofestablishing a schedule duration, any and all estimated costs, the budget, as well as the complete fundsassigned or allocated to the project.

QUESTION 33What is risk Tolerance?

A. Ability to manage risks

B. Willingness to accept varying degrees of risk

C. Ability to mitigate risks

D. Willingness to develop a risk management plan



QUESTION 34Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:

A. Probability distribution

B. Decision tree diagram

C. Sensitivity analysis

D. Modeling and simulation


Explanation/Reference:Decision trees are predictive models, used to graphically organize information about possible options,consequences and end value.

QUESTION 35Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:

A. Probability distribution

B. Decision tree diagram

C. Sensitivity analysis

D. Modeling and simulation


Explanation/Reference:Decision trees are predictive models, used to graphically organize information about possible options,consequences and end value.

QUESTION 36An Ishiwaka of fishbone diagram is used for which of the following?

A. Identifying causes of risks

B. Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks

C. Developing a resource plan

D. Developing schedule


Explanation/Reference:Fishbone Diagram:Also Called: Cause–and–Effect Diagram, Ishikawa DiagramVariations: cause enumeration diagram, process fishbone, time–delay fishbone, CEDAC (cause–and–effectdiagram with the addition of cards), desired–result fishbone, reverse fishbone diagramThe fishbone diagram identifies many possible causes for an effect or problem. It can be used to structure abrainstorming session. It immediately sorts ideas into useful categories.When to Use a Fishbone DiagramWhen identifying possible causes for a problem.Especially when a team’s thinking tends to fall into ruts.

QUESTION 37Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as tool and technique?

A. Quantitative risk analysis

B. Qualitative risk analysis

C. Perform quality assurance

D. Perform quality control



QUESTION 38What should a project manager do with low-priority risks?

A. Ignore low-priority risks

B. Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks

C. Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks

D. Increase the contingency reserve



QUESTION 39Which of the following is a technique for identify Risks?

A. Risk categorization

B. SWOT analysis

C. Risk register categorization

D. Risk Probability and impact assessment


Explanation/Reference:Analyzing SWOTSWOT means strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. SWOT analysis is the process of examiningthe project from each of the characteristic’s point of view. For example, a technology project may identifySWOT as

Strengths The technology to be installed in the project has been installed by other large companies in ourindustry.Weaknesses We have never installed this technology before.Opportunities The new technology will allow us to reduce our cycle time for time-to-market on new products.Opportunities are things, conditions, or events that allow an organization to differentiate itself from competitorsand improve its standing in the marketplace .Threats The time to complete the training and simulation may overlap with product updates, new versions, andexternal changes to our technology portfolio.

QUESTION 40The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has beenidentified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur.

This is an example of which type of risk response strategy?

A. Mitigate

B. Accept

C. Avoid

D. Transfer



QUESTION 41The project team reviews identified risks and the risks response strategy. For one of the risks, the teamrealizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk.

This new risk is which of the following types of risk?

A. This new risk is which of the following types of risk?

B. Primary

C. Residual

D. Tertiary



QUESTION 42What is the first step in preparing the risk register?


B. Quantitative risk analysis


D. Risk identification



QUESTION 43What is the Project Porfolio Management?

A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning,organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.

C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.

D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management andmeet strategic business objectives



QUESTION 44When is a project finished?

A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C. When the project objectives have been met

D. After resources have been released



QUESTION 45Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management knowledgearea?

A. Time management

B. Cost management

C. Scope management

D. Human resources management



QUESTION 46What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems

B. Constrained by limited resources

C. Repetitiveness

D. Uniqueness



QUESTION 47What are the components of the “Triple constraint”?

A. Scope, time, requirements

B. Resources, time, cost

C. Scope, management, cost

D. Scope, time, cost



QUESTION 48Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving

C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project



QUESTION 49What do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional and project managers

B. Functional managers only

C. Project managers only

D. Technical manager and project managers



QUESTION 50Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A. Staffing level is highest at the start

B. The stakeholders influence is highest at the start

C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start

D. The cost of changes is highest at the start



QUESTION 51What Happens to a stakeholder´s project influence over time?

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Stays the same

D. Has no bearing



Exam F

QUESTION 1To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Contract administration

B. Direction and management of project execution

C. Create WBS

D. Qualitative risk analysis



QUESTION 2Which of the following is an output of the information Distribution Process?

A. Project calendar

B. Communication management plan

C. Requested changes

D. Communication requirement plan



QUESTION 3Which process document the business needs of aproject and the new product, service or other result that isintended to satisfy those requirements?

A. Develop project management plan

B. Develop project charter

C. Develop preliminary projects scope statement

D. Scope planning



QUESTION 4Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project budgets?

A. Monotoring & Controlling

B. Executing

C. Planning

D. Initiating



QUESTION 5What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A. Qualitative risks

B. Identify risk

C. Plan risk Management




QUESTION 6Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

A. Develop preliminary project scope satatement

B. Close project or Phase

C. Develop project charter

D. Create WBS



QUESTION 7Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is knowas what?

A. Project management information system

B. Work performance information

C. Work breakdown structure

D. variance analysis



QUESTION 8Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management information system (PMIS)

C. Activity duration estimates

D. Schedule network analysis



QUESTION 9Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A. Performance Report

B. WBS

C. Requested changes

D. Project scope statement



QUESTION 10When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?

A. When the project is initiated

B. As an output of the scope verification process

C. When the project is closing

D. In the contract clousure process



QUESTION 11During what process would you obtain stakeholders formal acceptnce of the completed project scope?

A. Quality Control

B. Scope verification

C. Scope control

D. Close Project



QUESTION 12The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A. Alternatives identifiction

B. Scope decomposition

C. Expert judgement

D. Product analysis



QUESTION 13What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risk arranged by risk category?

A. Risk register

B. Risk Break Down Structure (RBS)

C. Risk management plan

D. Risk category



QUESTION 14Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

A. Templates, forms and standads

B. Change requests

C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Project Assumptions


Explanation/Reference:Stakeholder Analysis is done to prepare for the communication plan. Generally speaking, there are peoplewith various degrees of interest in projects who have similar authority in an organization. Communications tothese constituents needs to be respectful of their time. This is an optimal output from the Discovery team. The project may need services or support from individuals with:Q1 -- Low Authority and Low Interest, Monitor -- Do not bore with excessive communications Q2 -- High Authority and Low Interest, Satisfy -- Keep happy, do not bore Q3 -- High Authority and High Interest, Fully Engage Q4 – Low Authority and High Interest, Inform, Engage -- Often very helpful with detail of project, issues

All types need to be “properly” motivated to participate.

QUESTION 15what is the total float of the critical path?

A. Can be any number

B. Zero or positive

C. Zero or negative

D. Depends on the calendar



QUESTION 16Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?

A. Begin A-C-D-E- END -B-D

B. Begin A-B-C-D-E-END

C. Begin A-B-D-E- END -A-C-D

D. Begin A-C-D-E-END-B-C



QUESTION 17Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

A. Network reserve analysis

B. Critical chain method

C. Lead and lag adjustment

D. Critical path method



QUESTION 18Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changingproject scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased

B. The critical path will have ositive total float

C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment the project manager

D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity duration



QUESTION 19Which estimating technique uses the actual cost of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costof the current project?

A. Analogous

B. Parametric

C. Bottom-up

D. Top-down


Explanation/Reference:AnalogousOne of the estimation common used in project management is the "Analogous Estimation". What exactly isAnalogous Estimation?It is also known as "Top Down" Estimation.It uses estimations from previous activities to estimate future durations. The validity of duration estimatesderived using this method depends on:- historical information- similarity of the historical projects- expert judgement

QUESTION 20Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should beyour concern?

A. There is a cost under run

B. There is a cost overrun

C. May not meet deadline

D. The project is 20 days behind schedule



QUESTION 21Which ilustrate the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work Breakdown structure

B. Network diagrams


D. Responsibility matrix


Explanation/Reference:A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), also known as RACI matrix or Linear Responsibility Chart(LRC), describes the participation by various roles in completing tasks or deliverables for a project or businessprocess. It is especially useful in clarifying roles and responsibilities in cross-functional/departmental projectsand processes. RACI is an acronym derived from the four key responsibilities most typically used:

* Responsible: Those who do the work to achieve the task. There is typically one role with a participation typeof Responsible, although others can be delegated to assist in the work required.

* Accountable (also Approver or final Approving authority): The one ultimately accountable for the correct andthorough completion of the deliverable or task, and the one to whom Responsible is accountable. In otherwords, an Accountable must sign off (Approve) on work that Responsible provides. There must be only oneAccountable specified for each task or deliverable

* Consulted: Those whose opinions are sought; and with whom there is two-way communication.

* Informed: Those who are kept up-to-date on progress, often only on completion of the task or deliverable;and with whom there is just one-way communication.

QUESTION 22When can pre-assigmnet of the project team members occur?

A. Whe the project uses capital expenditures

B. When the required staff can be acquired from outsides sources

C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal



QUESTION 23Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to asses the priority of identifiedrisks?

A. Risk identification

B. Qualitative Risk analysis

C. Risk management planning




QUESTION 24In which process might you use risk reassesment as a tool and technique?


B. Risk monitoring and control

C. Monitoring and control project work




QUESTION 25A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?

A. Resource plan


C. Cost control plan

D. Expected monetary value plan



QUESTION 26A contract cannot contain ....

A. Illegal activities

B. Deadline for the completion of the work

C. Penalities and fines for disclousure of intellectual rights

D. All of the above



QUESTION 27Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

A. Scope statement

B. Quality plan

C. WBS

D. Development plan



QUESTION 28You are the project manager ofa project. During the process of selecting the seller, you reject one vendorbecause it does not have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?

A. Weigthing System

B. Screening system

C. Seller rating system

D. Expert judgement


Explanation/Reference:Screening System – Establish minimum performance requirement for one or more criteria.

QUESTION 29_________________ Provides detail about how the project scope may be changed

A. Control Scope system

B. Verify Scope

C. Scope Charter

D. Scope management plan



QUESTION 30Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of aproble and take steps to prevent furtheroccurences?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Quality audits

C. Project audits

D. Risk audits


Explanation/Reference:Root Cause Analysis The technique of root cause analysis refers to the act of analyzing a series ofvariances, risks, or defect that may exist in and around the project or any specific or particular component ofthat project and attempt to determine through careful review the actual root causes, or unique underlyingfactors, that may exist which is ultimately leading to this unfavorable result, and which would need to beaddressed and or compensated for if there is the goal to alter the outcome.One single root cause can actuallyhave a significant impact, and can in fact be the cause of a number of defects or risks.

QUESTION 31Which of the following Provides the least accurate in estimating?

A. Rough order of magnitude

B. Budget estimate

C. WBS estimate

D. Definitive estimate


Explanation/Reference:Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) Estimate

A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is the least accurate estimate. ROMs are -50% to +50% accurate,or potentially even larger. ROMs are used very early in the project when there is limited information from whichto develop an accurate estimate.

QUESTION 32Who has the responsability for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?

A. Project manager

B. Sponsor

C. Team lead

D. Management



QUESTION 33What is corrective action?

A. An action that brings future projects events into alignment with the project plan

B. An action to correct something in the project

C. An action to prevent something in the project

D. Corrective action is not related to project



QUESTION 34Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ____________

A. True, real or certain

B. True, real or uncertain

C. Real

D. Verbal



QUESTION 35A complete set of indexed project records is called_____________

A. Project archives

B. Index

C. Sow

D. Project History



QUESTION 36You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project teammembers have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You inmmediatelyset-up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional managerdiscuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?

A. Functional

B. Balanced Matrix

C. Projectized

D. Strong Matrix



QUESTION 37You have been with the organization, you constantly hear rumours about a certain. CAPM failing to live up tothe CAPMCode. What you should do?

A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding

B. Confront the person inmediately

C. Ignore the rumours

D. Ass the romours along



QUESTION 38Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?

A. The project manager

B. The project sponsor

C. The team lead

D. The nianagement



QUESTION 39In the PMBOK, the seller is ____________to the projecct team.

A. Integral

B. External

C. Outside

D. Assigned



QUESTION 40

Project quality Management includes:

A. Customer satisfaction

B. Prevention over inspection

C. Continuous improvement

D. All of the above



QUESTION 41You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200.000 andd is expected tolast 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC?

A. $-00,00

B. $200,00

C. $50,00

D. None of the above


Explanation/Reference:The BAC is the budget at completion (Total budget cost) which is $200,00

Budget At Completion (BAC)

Budget At Completion (BAC) is the total budget allocated to the project.Budget At Completion (BAC) is generally plotted over time. Say like periods of reporting ( Monthly, Weekly etc.)BAC is used to compute the Estimate At Completion ( EAC ), explained in next section.BAC is also used to compute the TCPI and TSPIBAC is calculated using the following formulaBAC = Baselined Effort-hours * Hourly Rate

QUESTION 42A risk register is a part of:

A. Project scope statement

B. Project manager plan

C. Project scheduling plan

D. Project charter



QUESTION 43A risk register is a part of:

A. Project scope

B. Project manager plan

C. Project Scheduling plan

D. Project charter



QUESTION 44Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?

A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B. Gant Chart diagram (GCD)

C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D. Arrow diagramming Method (ADM)


Explanation/Reference:Network DiagramsOne of the more important topics to understand when planning project activities is creating network diagrams.Network diagrams provide a graphical view of activities and how they are related to one another.

QUESTION 45Create procurement document is done in _____________________

A. Plan procurements

B. Conduct Procurements

C. Administer procurements

D. Close procurements



QUESTION 46Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of________________

A. Enterprise benefits measurements methods when selecting a project

B. Integral parts of the SOW

C. Ways to ensure stakeholders commitment

D. Project selection methods



QUESTION 47Most changes requests are a result of ___________

A. Value added change (Enhancements)

B. Schedule constraints

C. Regulatory constraints

D. Improvement to the project scope


Explanation/Reference:Most change requests (CRs) are a result of Value added change (Ennhancements)

QUESTION 48Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?

A. Project team

B. Project manager

C. QA manager

D. Validation engineer



QUESTION 49The end of the project comes after which of the following ?

A. Project charter

B. Final deliverable

C. Schedule

D. QA activities are done

Correct Answer: B



QUESTION 50The product description of aproject can help to create procurement details. Which one of the following bestdescribes product description?

A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project customer

B. The product description defines the contracted work

C. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work

D. All of the above



Exam G

QUESTION 1During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered aanother way tocomplete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for thecustomer. This is an example of ____________

A. Alternative selection

B. Assestment

C. Alternative identification

D. Product analysis



QUESTION 2What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

A. Project Task

B. Work packages

C. sow

D. None



QUESTION 3Administrative closure should occur ___________

A. At the end of each phase of the project

B. At the end of the whole project

C. At the end of 50% of the project

D. At the end of the 100% of the project



QUESTION 4In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?

A. During the planning stage

B. During the initiation stage

C. After approval of budget

D. After the project is proven feasible



QUESTION 5Who gives project acceptance?

A. Sponsor

B. Customer

C. Project manager

D. Team Lead



QUESTION 6A requirement document is an input of ____________ process?

A. Collect requirements

B. Define scope

C. Integrated Change Control




QUESTION 7Make-or-buy decisions measure the cost of both options. What are the two options ?

A. Direct and indirect

B. Tactical and Strategic

C. Management and Project

D. Only Tactical



QUESTION 8

Which of the following are the inputs od Define Scope?

A. Requirements documents created in collect requirements process

B. Project files from previous projects

C. Project charter

D. All of the above



QUESTION 9Which document is best suited for tracking the assigment of all resources to sepecific tasks in a project

A. RACI Matrix

B. SOW


D. CPI



QUESTION 10_____________Is the international organization that controls the standards for quality

A. ISO

B. CAPM

C. PMI

D. ISCN



QUESTION 11The Work Break Down Structure is _________________

A. Used to break down the project into manageable places

B. Set and does not change throughout the project

C. Needed as part of the project charter

D. Needed as part of the project Scope statement



QUESTION 12Is a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell ?

A. The project is runnig ahead of the schedule

B. The project is running behind of the schedule

C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D. None


Explanation/Reference:The SPI= EV/PV. A schedule performance Index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is aahead ofschedule.

QUESTION 13You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You are assigned theresources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her your decisions. Which type oforganizational structure are you working?

A. Projectized

B. Strong Matrix

C. Weak Matrix

D. Functional



QUESTION 14At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?

A. The begining of the project

B. Just before the end of the project

C. QA phase

D. Execution Phase



QUESTION 15From who do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project clousure?

A. The customer

B. The qualify director

C. Project management office

D. Project manager



QUESTION 16Which statement is true about Bottom-Up estimating?

A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total

B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project

C. Using the project characteristics (or parameters) in amathematical model to predict costs

D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate



QUESTION 17Which is no part of the project plan?

A. Project scope Management plan

B. Schedule Management plan

C. Cost management plan

D. Project charter


Explanation/Reference:All are part of Project Plan except Project charter

QUESTION 18Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the execution and controlphase?

A. Information management

B. Mantain scope statement

C. Maintain charter

D. Maintain closing document



QUESTION 19Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined bymultiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?


B. Funding limit reconciliation

C. Reserves analysis




QUESTION 20You are the project manager and now in the middle of creating RFP (Request for Proposal) RFTP (Request forproposal) is done in ______________________

A. Plan procurement

B. Conduct procurement


D. Close procurements



QUESTION 21Which of the following statements is true about Strategic Planning?

A. Strategic Planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals

B. Strategic Planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizations goals

C. Stratgic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded

D. All of the above



QUESTION 22The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, Control chart, and statical sampling are examples of____________________

A. Quality assurance

B. Quality control

C. Qulity rules

D. CMM



QUESTION 23Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?

A. Acceptance

B. Share

C. Mitigate

D. Transfer


Explanation/Reference:Acceptance is when NO change to the project is made for a risk. A contiengency can be set aside to offset theimpact of the risk

QUESTION 24Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?

A. Project justification

B. Project product

C. Project manager authority

D. Project objective



QUESTION 25What is acommunication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to 10?

A. 35

B. 5

C. 15

D. 75



Delta= n*(n-1)/2 - n1(n1-1)/2 where n= Individuals and n1= New individuals. No of communications channelsn*(n-1)/2

QUESTION 26Collect requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase ans uses the outputs of the ________________

A. Initiation Process

B. Project closer Process

C. Estimation Process

D. Closing Process



QUESTION 27You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project________________

A. Has ended before its started objective

B. Still cunning but missing resources

C. Will be closed due to lack of resources




QUESTION 28When you are developing the estimates for the project, you choose to add the individuals estimates for theactivities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?


B. Bottom-up estimating

C. Top-Down estimating

D. Analogous estimating



QUESTION 29Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?

A. Project Manager

B. Team Leader

C. Sponsor

D. Project Team



QUESTION 30Who has responsibility for Plan Quality?

A. Project manager

B. QA manager

C. Project Planner

D. Team Lead



QUESTION 31Assumptions in the project plan should be______________

A. Written down

B. Understandable

C. Not Understandable

D. No need to write



QUESTION 32Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project team

C. Project manager

D. Senior management



QUESTION 33Which of the following statement is true about project charter?

A. Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders

B. Announces who is the project enginner

C. Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end

D. Announces who is the project sponsor


Explanation/Reference:Project Charter: Formally authorizes the project, assign the project manager, and gives high-level definition ofthe project and its deliverables

QUESTION 34Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

A. project management plan

B. Contract documentation

C. Deliverables

D. WBS



QUESTION 35Which of the following is conflict resolution techniques?

A. Compromise

B. Smoothing

C. Formal

D. Coercive


Explanation/Reference:The rest are forms of leadership power exept Smoothing

QUESTION 36___________________ Is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using themost current information and revisting future activities when they near their starting dates

A. Rolling wave planning

B. Progresive elaboration

C. Milestone detail planning

D. Expert judgemnet



QUESTION 37Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?

A. Updating Risk register

B. Determining risk roles and responsabilities

C. Identifying risk categories

D. Developing a risk management plan


Explanation/Reference:Updating Risk register first happens in Identify Risk Phase. Determining risk roles and responsabilities,Identifying risk categories, and Developing a risk management plan are part of Plan Risk Management

QUESTION 38PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ___________ relationship

A. Buyer or seller

B. Vendor or Seller

C. Purchasing

D. Sellino



QUESTION 39Administrative closure is the process that _____________

A. Closes all activities pertaning to a specific project

B. Collect user acceptances of the project product or service

C. Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services

D. All of the above



QUESTION 40You are the project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsability?

A. Quality in the organization

B. Acquiring HR Resources for the project team

C. Overall responsability for risk on the project

D. All of the above


Explanation/Reference:Senior manager is responsible for Quality in the organization

QUESTION 41Project sucess can be achieved only if:

A. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the bussiness strategy

B. The project sponsor leads the initiatives

C. The project manager is an expert in managing resources

D. Team members like project manager



QUESTION 42You are a project manager of aproject and as part of the team acquisition process, you hire a new employeeand assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, what needs level he mostlikely is at?

A. Social need

B. Physical need

C. Safety and security

D. Security


Explanation/Reference:As anew to project he is most likely looking for acceptance and friendship. This comes under Social Need

QUESTION 43Which one of the following is not an output of contract clousure?

A. Close contracts

B. Lessons learned documentation

C. deliverable acceptance

D. Scope statement



QUESTION 44The intent of the risk management process group is to _____________

A. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project

B. Announce project risks

C. Not consider risks affecting the company

D. Announce project deliverables


Explanation/Reference: The risk management process groupserves as the road map used to reduce its impact on the project

QUESTION 45ISO satands for ____________________

A. International Organization for Standardization

B. International Standardized Organization

C. Standardized Organization

D. Indiana Standardized Organization



QUESTION 46The project Baseline is _________________

A. Original plans plus the approved changes

B. Important in the project initiation plans

C. Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D. Original plans and the approved major changes



QUESTION 47Which of the following is NOT a form a leadership power?

A. Compromise

B. Smoothing

C. Foimal

D. Coercive



QUESTION 48_____________________ Is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, orresults needed from outside the project team to perform the work

A. Procurement Management

B. Planning Management

C. Scope Management

D. Control Management



QUESTION 49You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original Scope, what you dowith the old original scope?

A. save the old version

B. No need to save the old version

C. Scrap the old version

D. Old version is not required


Explanation/Reference:All version you need to keep in version control System

QUESTION 50Which of the following subsidiary plan conatains the quality objectives for the project?

A. Quality baseline

B. Quality management plan

C. Process improvement plan

D. QA checklist



Exam H

QUESTION 1Function of the ________________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded andagreed to by the stakeholders

A. Sponsor

B. Project manager

C. Team Lead

D. Management



QUESTION 2Which of the following is an output of verify scope?

A. Formal Accepatance

B. WBS template

C. SOW acceptance

D. Rework



QUESTION 3Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the ______________________

A. SOW

B. WBS

C. Project charter

D. Project Scope Satatement


Explanation/Reference:A work breakdown structure (WBS) in project management and systems engineering, is a tool used to defineand group a project's discrete work packages in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope ofthe project. A work breakdown structure element may be a product, data, a service, or any combination. AWBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control along with providingguidance for schedule development and control. Additionally the WBS is a dynamic tool and can be revisedand updated as needed by the project manager.

QUESTION 4How many communication channels will be required in aproject in which 5 individuals are participating?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 4

D. 5


Explanation/Reference:n*(n-1)/2

QUESTION 5Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking cost of resources?

A. Psk Breakdown structure

B. WBS

C. Organizational Breakdown structure

D. Resource Breakdown structure



QUESTION 6If a project with CPI of 0.8 what you tell?

A. The project is falling behind

B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated

C. The project is consumed more resources than anticipated

D. The project is running ahead of schedule


Explanation/Reference:If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have cost that are less the estimated CPI =EV/AC (Earned Value/Actual Cost)

CPI greater than 1 is good (under budget):

< 1 means that the cost of completing the work is higher than planned (bad);= 1 means that the cost of completing the work is right on plan (good);> 1 means that the cost of completing the work is less than planned (good or sometimes bad).Having a CPI that is very high (in some cases, very high is only 1.2) may mean that the plan was tooconservative, and thus a very high number may in fact not be good, as the CPI is being measured against apoor baseline. Management or the customer may be upset with the planners as an overly conservativebaseline ties up available funds for other purposes, and the baseline is also used for manpower planning

QUESTION 7Which monitoring or controling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?

A. Control Scope

B. Manage project Team

C. Quality control

D. Manage Scope Statement


Explanation/Reference:Scope schedule and Control costs can all result in corrective action, but Not preventive action.

QUESTION 8_______________ Is the road map for the execution of the project

A. Strategic Planning

B. sow

C. WBS

D. Project Plan



QUESTION 9You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members thatexceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by chance to earn cash reward can mostaccurately be explained by which theory

A. Hierarchy of needs

B. Expectancy theory

C. Achievement theory

D. All of the above


Explanation/Reference:The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy Theory.

Expectany Theory is: Employees who believe their efforts will lead to effective performance and who expectgto be rewarded for their accomplishments remian productive as rewards meet their expectation.

Achievement Theory: It is one of the motivation theories used for the developing project team. In the latestinformation era, people/employees need to be motivated beyond food & money as modern era overcome thestarvation.

According to Achievement Theory, people/employees are motivated mainly by three things.

1. Achievement It motivates based on the need to achieve or succeed.2. Power This is drived based on influencing others and pride on it.3. Affiliation Affiliation is mainly relationship based and people wants to develop with others.

QUESTION 10Which of the following are input of close project process?

A. Project management plan

B. Contract documentation

C. Deliverables

D. All of the above



QUESTION 11The main purpose of project initiation is to ________________

A. Assign the project manager to the project

B. Formally describes the project

C. Produce the project charter

D. Formally authorize the project


Explanation/Reference:Output of project initiation is Formally authorize the project. Output of project scope initiation is: Project CharterPM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.

QUESTION 12Which documents formally authorizes a project?

A. The WBS

B. Project scope

C. The project charter

D. Project closing documnet



QUESTION 13Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project _______________

A. Has become part of the business processes

B. has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

C. Will be closed due to lack of resources




QUESTION 14Main purpose of project initiation is ______________

A. Assign project manager

B. Formally describes project

C. Do WBS

D. Formally authorize the project



QUESTION 15Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood

A. Project manager

B. Sender

C. Project coordinator

D. Sponsor


Explanation/Reference:Sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receip and message is understood, and thereceiver needs to ensure that the senser received the acknowledgement.

The sender-receiver model The sender-receiver model is the simplest communication model and underpins most others. The sender hasan idea or concept he/she wants the receiver to appreciate. Before any useful outcome can be achieved fromthe communication, the receiver has to accurately understand the sender’s idea! This means the message hasto be effective in the receiver’s space; if the message does not engage the receiver, the sender is wasting his/her time

The elements in this model are:

• Encode: To translate thoughts or ideas into a form of language that can be understood by the receiver; eg,written English, spoken French or a drawn diagram. • Message: What is sent: the output of encoding • Medium: The method used for sending the message (face-to-face, telephone, email) • Noise: Something that interferes with the sending or understanding of the message (distance, culture,language differences) • Decode: The translation of the message by the receiver from the medium into their thoughts.

A single communication is complete once the feedback-message has been decoded by the sender andchecked for accuracy against the original idea. Once this loop has been closed both people have a commonunderstanding of the idea. This does not require agreement or concurrence, but if there is to be adisagreement, it helps if everyone has the same basic understanding of the issue or idea in dispute. Effectivecommunication requires both the sender and the receiver to be engaged. The sender needs to check that the‘message’ has been received and validate the feedback

QUESTION 16_________________ Is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined

A. Purchase order

B. Fixed Price

C. Time and material

D. Cost plus incentive fee


Explanation/Reference:What is Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)?Pays all cost an agreed upon fee plus a bonus for beating the performance objective stated in the contract.

QUESTION 17With 5 participant how many channels are required?

A. 10

B. 5

C. 8

D. 20


Explanation/Reference:Communication Channels = (n)(n-1)/2, n= Numero de participantes.

QUESTION 18Acceptance of the product should be ___________

A. Verbal

B. Cosnsistent

C. Personal

D. Formal



QUESTION 19You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell when you aredone?

A. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimaterequired resources and duration

B. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBSbalanced

C. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one DAY

D. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one WEEK



QUESTION 20If a project with a SPI of 0.80 what you tell??

A. Project is running ahead of the schedule

B. Project is running behind of the schedule

C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D. None


Explanation/Reference:SPI stands for Schedule Performance Index.It is a very powerful measure of the amount of work actually completed on a project. It is part of the EarnedValue Management Techniques.To calculate SPI for any project, get the Planned Value and the Earned Value. The formula for SPI isSPI = EV / PV

As a rule of thumb, for Schedule performance index (SPI), EV/PV greater than 1 is good (ahead of schedule),and less than 1 is bad ( behind schedule).

QUESTION 21If aproject with a CPI of 1.2 what you tell?

A. The project is consumed fewer resources than anticipated

B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated

C. The project is falling behind




QUESTION 22What are the inputs for initiation process?

A. Product description and Startegic Plan

B. Selection Criteria

C. Historical Information

D. All of the above



QUESTION 23Which of the following are parts of project scope management?

A. Verify scope


C. Control Scope

D. All of the above


Explanation/Reference:There are following processes which are part of Project scope management: Collect Requirements, Definescope, create WBS, verify scope, control scope

QUESTION 24Project scope is________________

A. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service

B. The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature and function

C. Part of the project charter

D. Part of sow


Explanation/Reference:The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature and function or The featuresand functions that are to be included in aproduct or service

QUESTION 25You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5000 and is expected to last 5years in production, At the end of the 5 years the expected worth of the equipment is $2000. Using straight-linedepreciation, what is the amount that can be written off each year??

A. $600

B. $1200

C. $3000

D. Zero


Explanation/Reference:The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item, dividedby number of time periods. calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600

Depreciation is technique used to compute the estimated value of any object after few years. Straight line depreciation: The same amount is deprecated (reduced) from the cost each yearThe calculation of ‘straight line’ depreciation is very simple: ($purchase price – $disposal value)/years, where - Years = the expected life of the asset (actual or set by legislation*) - Disposal value = the likely sale price at the end of the assets useful life. *This is often standardised to a 5 year life and equates to 20% depreciation per annum

Double-declining balance - In the first year there is a higher deduction in the value - twice the amount ofstraight line. Each year after that the deduction is 40% less than the previous year.Accelerated depreciation Sum of year depreciation - Lets say the life of an object is five years. The total of oneto five is fifteen (The sum-of-the-years’-digits are: 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1, or 15.). The numerator of the fraction forthe first year is the highest digit – in this case 5/15. The second year’s numerator is the next highest digit – inthis case – 4/15 – and so on.

QUESTION 26Which of the following plans is not done during the writting of a project plan??

A. Executive communication

B. Risk management

C. Quality Management

D. Scope statement


Explanation/Reference:Executive communication may be a part of your communication process but not in project plan

QUESTION 27Stakeholders influence is greatest at the __________ of the project

A. Begining

B. Closing

C. Controlling

D. Executing



QUESTION 28Which of the following is not part of project scope management?

A. Verify scope

B. Collect requirements

C. Create WBS




QUESTION 29You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one year. This isan example of which of the following?

A. Schedule

B. Assumption

C. Constraint

D. Planning Process


Explanation/Reference:A project must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints.

QUESTION 30The project management plan:

A. Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated

B. Steps needed to complete a project task

C. Prepared at the begining and fixed throughout the execution of the project

D. Includes project charter


Explanation/Reference:The project management plan provides the overall plan for executing, monitoring, and controlling closing theproject

QUESTION 31Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams ?

A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

B. Gantt Chart Diagram (GCD)

C. Dependency diagrams methods (DDM)

D. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)


Explanation/Reference:Arrow diagramming method(ADM) is also referred to as Activity-on-Arrow (AOA) diagramming method.Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as Activity-on-Node (AON) diagramming method

QUESTION 32What are commons types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

A. CPF

B. CPFF

C. CPIF

D. All of the above


Explanation/Reference:The Advantages on Cost Reimbursable Contract are:

Simpler contract statement of workusually requires less work to work the scope that fixed priceGenerally lower cost than fixed price because the seller does not have add as much for risk.

QUESTION 33Information should be communicated to ________________

A. Everyone in the communication plan

B. Everyone on the team

C. Sponsor

D. Team lead



QUESTION 34You are a project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that yourproject _______________

A. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

B. Will be closed due to lack of resources

C. Resources are being assigned other areas of the bussiness




QUESTION 35You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of the costsinvolved with an upcoming project. Rather this CAPM is constructing a WBS that does not include all tasksnecessary to get the project done. What you should do?

A. Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the project

B. Confront the other project manager inmediately

C. Mail to the PM headquarters

D. Ignore IT



QUESTION 36Which document formally authorizes the project?

A. The project charter

B.

C.

D.



QUESTION 37You are the project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed afterthe contract is signed is _____________

A. Bad practice

B. Unprofessional practice

C. Bad for the buyer and seller

D. All of the above



QUESTION 38In PMBOK the buyer is ______________ to the project team

A. Internal

B. External

C. Outside

D. Assigned


Explanation/Reference:Internal to the project team

QUESTION 39Define scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable componentsto _______________________

A. Improve the accurancy of cost time and resource estimates

B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control

C. Facilitate clear responsibility assigments

D. All of the above



QUESTION 40Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics andfeatures of the new product line, you will have to perform ___________

A. Progressive elaboration

B. Stakeholders review

C. Plan project life cycle

D. Fast backing


Explanation/Reference:The process of determining the characteristics and featuresof the product of the project is called Progressiveelaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.

Progressive Elaboration means that over time we elaborate the work packages in greater detail. ProgressiveElaboration refers to the fact that as the weeks and months pass we have planned to provide that missing,more elaborated detail for the work packages as they now appear on the horizon

QUESTION 41You are the project manager of a project. You have just completed the collect Requirement and Define Scope.What should you do next?

A. Create WBS

B. Verify Scope

C. Value analysis

D. Control Scope


Explanation/Reference:Create WBS is the process that follows collect Requirement and Define Scope

QUESTION 42Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?

A. Collect requirements

B. Develop the project charter

C. Develop the project statement of work

D. Develop project closing document



QUESTION 43You are the project manager of a project. You have just complete the Define Activities, activity resourcesestimating and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which Process have you left out??

A. Control Schedule

B. Create WBS

C. Sequence activities

D. Operations


Explanation/Reference:The PMBOK places Sequence activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources.

QUESTION 44Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?

A. Earn Value Analysis

B. Scope Baseline

C. Risk Register

D. Human resources plan


Explanation/Reference:Earn Value Analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versusplanned

QUESTION 45Which of the following is NOT input of identify Risks?

A. Project Charter

B. Stakeholder Register

C. Risk Management plan

D. Activity Cost Estimates



QUESTION 46As a project manager of a project. You have just completed the Collect Requirement and define scope. Whatshould you do next?

A. Create WBS

B. Control scope

C. Value analysis

D. Verify scope



QUESTION 47If you are the project manager for a project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Ofthe following which is the best source of information for your project?

A. Historical information

B. WBS

C. Bussiness Plan

D. RBS



QUESTION 48Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?

A. Monitor implementation of approved changes

B. Validate deliverables

C. Staff, train, and manage the project team

D. Manage risks and implemant risk responses



QUESTION 49You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have____________

A. Offer and consideration

B. Start date and acceptance of start date

C. Signatures and stamp of a notary public

D. Signatures of all stakeholders



QUESTION 50If a project with a CPI of 1.6 what you tell?

A. The project is consumming fewer resources than anticipated

B. Is bad project

C. The project is falling behind


Exam I

QUESTION 1Which is a most risky phase of a project?

A. Planning

B. Closing

C. Execution

D. Control



QUESTION 2A lesson learned session should be held at what point in a project?

A. At the project conclusion

B. At key milestones

C. When risk event occur

D. When sponsor want


Explanation/Reference:Milestone is an event that receives special attention. It is often falsely put at the end of a stage to mark thecompletion of a work package or phase. But milestones are rather to be put before the end of a phase so thatcorrective actions in case of problems can still be met and the deliverable can be completed in time.In addition to signaling the completion of a key deliverable, a milestone may also signify an important decisionor the derivation of a critical piece of information, which outlines or affects the future of a project. In this sense,a milestone not only signifies distance traveled (key stages in a project) but also indicates direction of travelsince key decisions made at milestones may alter the route through the project plan.

QUESTION 3What are the outputs of initiation process?

A. Project charter and PM assigned

B. Constraints

C. Assumptions

D. All of the above



QUESTION 4Which process group is for detailed resource assigments and responsabilities?

A. Human resources management plan

B. Project charter

C. Aplan

D. Project management plan


Explanation/Reference:Develop Human Resource Plan: Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,responsabilities, and reporting relationships to individuals groups.

QUESTION 5You are the project manager for a project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US andsome are from India. Client says budgets should no cost more than $12 millions. Because of the globalconcerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Internationalization

B. Budget constraints

C. Management constraints

D. Quality constraints


Explanation/Reference:This is an example of Budget constraints. The budgets must not exceed $12 millions.

Budget constraint are anothe element of the classic Triple constraint (Cost, schedule, Scope). Budget limitthe project teams ability to obtain resources and might potentially limit the scope of the project. For exampleComponent X cannot be part of this project, because the budget does not support it.

QUESTION 6You are the project manager for a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project costand time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet therequirements like (Wooden Coated). This is an example of which of the following?

A. Risk

B. Assumption

C. Constraints

D. Budget


Explanation/Reference:A and C are incorrect because the scenario did NOT describes a risk or constraint.This is an example ofassumptions because estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (WoodenCoated)

QUESTION 7When you are developing the estimates for project. you choose in amathematical model to predict estimate.What type of estimation method are you using?


B. Bottom-up estimating

C. Top-down estimating

D. Analogous estimating


Explanation/Reference:Analogous Analogous estimating is also referred to as top-down estimating. This is one of the mostcommon estimating tools because it uses the actual costs of a previous project as the basis for cost estimatingthe new project. This method, though widely used, is simply a best-guess. The logic behind this estimate isthat if this project is twice as big as the previous project, it is likely to cost twice as much. Although thisestimate is based on expert judgment, it is also inaccurate unless projects are, in fact, the same

Parametric Parametric estimating is a method that uses statistical relationships between historical data and asmany other variables as possible. We see this method commonly used in construction, as in price per squarefoot; or in software development, as in cost per line of code written. Parametric estimating is still notsignificantly detailed but is an excellent tool when quick budget or planning numbers are available. Parametricestimating also requires that an up-to-date and populous historical database exists that includes details andcosts on many previous projects.

Bottom-up Bottom-up estimating is done when individual project tasks or work packages are cost estimated,and then the sums of all tasks are averaged to get a project total. This is the most sophisticated estimatingmethod of the three methods and is the only one that should be considered legally binding. To complete abottom-up project estimate, you need to have a fully developed and detailed scope of work. The scope of workwill include detailed drawings, specifications, vendor quotes and any other details necessary to complete anaccurate estimate.

QUESTION 8Purchasing insurance is an example of _________________

A. Transfer

B. Acceptances

C. Mitigation

D. Contingency


Explanation/Reference:It means transfer the risk to a third party

QUESTION 9How many communication channels exits in a team of 10 members?

A. 45

B. 10

C. 30

D. 20

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:(N)(N-1)/2

QUESTION 10The primary output of the project closing process _______________________

A. To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing

B. Lesson learned

C. To get customer and sponsor approval

D. Milestone list



QUESTION 11Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (Finish-to-start, finish-to-finsih,start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?

A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B. Gant Chart Diagram (GCD)

C. Dependencie Diagram Method (DDM)

D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)


Explanation/Reference:Precedence Diagramming Method The PDM shows nodes, representing activities, connected byarrows that represent dependencies. To represent that activity B is dependent on activity A. (in other words,activity A must be complete before activity B starts), simply draw an arrow from A to B. PDM diagrams are alsoreferred to as activityon-node (AON) diagrams because the nodes contain the activity duration information.(You don’t have enough information yet to complete all theinformation presented here. You’ll fill in the duration information during activity duration estimating.) In fact,nodes generally contain several pieces of information, including:

➤Early start—The earliest date the activity can start➤ Duration—The duration of the activity➤ Early finish—The earliest date the activity can finish➤ Late start—The latest date the activity can start➤ Late finish—The latest date the activity can finish➤ Slack—Difference between the early start and the late start dates

You can represent four types of dependencies with a PDM diagram:

➤ Finish-to-start (the most common dependency type)—The successor activity’s start depends on thecompletions of the successor activity.➤ Finish-to-finish—The completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the predecessoractivity. ➤ Start-to-start—The start of the successor activity depends on the start of the predecessor activity.

➤ Start-to-finish—The completion of the successor activity depends on the start of the predecessor activity

The PDM diagram in Figure shows eight activities, labeled A–H. The arrows show how some activities aredependent on other activities. For example, activity B cannot start until activities A and C are complete. Toshow this dual dependency, you draw an arrow from A to B and another arrow from C to B.

Arrow Diagramming Method The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is similar to the PDM, except thatall dependencies are finish-to-start. Also, durations are generally depicted on the arrows. For this reason, theADM diagram is also called the activity-onarrow (AOA) diagram. Figure shows an example of an ADMdiagram.

Dependencies are noted in a similar fashion to the PDM diagram, but there is another type of activity in ADMdiagrams. Look at the dependency between node 3 and node 2. The arrow has a dotted line, which means theactivity has no duration and is called a dummy activity. The purpose of dummy activities is simply to allow youto depict dependencies.

Gantt chart GCD is a type of bar chart, developed by Henry Gantt, that illustrates a project schedule. Ganttcharts illustrate the start and finish dates of the terminal elements and summary elements of a project.Terminal elements and summary elements comprise the work breakdown structure of the project. Some Ganttcharts also show the dependency (i.e., precedence network) relationships between activities

QUESTION 12Which of the following best describes project scope?

A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature an function

B. The description of the project deliverables

C. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assignresources to the tasks

D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project



QUESTION 13In which phase you define the final deliverable?

A. Closing

B. Execution

C. Planning

D. Initiation


Explanation/Reference:Project will close after the final deliverable. Final deliverables are defined in the closing phase.

QUESTION 14The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called ________________

A. Project time management

B. Control Schedule

C. Monitoring and controlling

D. All of the above



QUESTION 15Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contrator team in a fourth country.What tool would optimize communication?

A. Extranet-based electronic document repository

B. Manual filing system

C. War loom

D. Verbal



QUESTION 16Conformance to specifications document is one description of ____________________

A. Quality

B. Scope

C. Integration

D. Procurement


Explanation/Reference:Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you start the project

QUESTION 17Customer formally accepts the deliverable of each project phase. This process is know as___________________

A. Verify Scope

B. Quality Assurance

C. Quality control

D. Quality Measurement



QUESTION 18________________ Is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.

A. Cost plus incentive fee

B. Fixed price

C. Time and material

D. None


Explanation/Reference:Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is NOT well defined. Fixedprice and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.

QUESTION 19You are the project manager of a project and the project is aminth into the executing phase. There are somecliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow for best outcome?

A. Supporting

B. Delegating

C. Coaching

D. Directing


Explanation/Reference:Situational leadership style is coaching. Coaching is best for this example.

The leadership styles includes:

Directing: Telling others what to doFacilitating: Coordinating the input of othersCoaching: Instructing othersSupporting: Providing assistance along the wayAutocratic: Making decisions without inputLaissez Faire: Has a hands-off policy and the team is entirely self-led regarding the decision making processConsultative: Inviting ideas from othersConsensus: Problem solving in group with decision making based on group agreement

QUESTION 20Cost benefit analysis, score card modelling, paybacks periods, and internal rate of return are examples of:

A. Enterprise benefits measurements methods when selecting a project

B. Integarl parts of the SOW

C. Ways to ensure stakeholders commitment

D. Project selection methods


Explanation/Reference:Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or bussines need.

QUESTION 21When the version control numbers should change?

A. Any change occurs

B. Major changes are made

C. Any change related to scope only

D. Only if minor changes are made



QUESTION 22For 10 individuals how many communication channels exists?

A. 45

B. 12

C. 10

D. 5


Explanation/Reference:N0 Communication Channel = N*(N-1)/2, N= Numero de individuos

QUESTION 23Market conditions are part of ___________________

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Project management concerns

C. Organizational process assets

D. Cost factor


Explanation/Reference:Market conditions will influence all factors of procurement

QUESTION 24Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. PBS

B. Project scope statement

C. WBS Template

D. Constraints


Explanation/Reference:The project scope statement is the definition of the project—what needs to be accomplished. The DevelopPreliminary Project Scope Statement process addresses and documents the characteristics and boundaries ofthe project and its associated products and services, as well as the methods of acceptance and scope control.A project scope statement includes: · Project and product objectives· Product or service requirements and characteristics· Product acceptance criteria· Project boundaries· Project requirements and deliverables· Project constraints· Project assumptions· Initial project organization· Initial defined risks· Schedule milestones· Initial WBS· Order of magnitude cost estimate· Project configuration management requirements· Approval requirements

QUESTION 25The buyer and seller are bound by the ______________

A. Contract

B. Responsabilities

C. WBS

D. Identification



QUESTION 26Which is not the tool and techniques used in Contract Administration:

A. Contract change control System

B. Contract negotiation

C. Payment System

D. Performance rating



QUESTION 27Which describes how cost variances will be managed?

A. Cost management plan

B. Cost baseline

C. Cost estimate

D. Chart of accounts



QUESTION 28A _________________ Is a series of actions bringing about a result.

A. Project plan

B. Process

C. Schedule

D. Flowchart



QUESTION 29A project Cost Mangement plan is created as a part of:

A. Develop Project Management Plan process

B. Control Cost Process

C. Determine Budgets Process

D. Estimate Cost Process


Explanation/Reference:Ther is no separate process in the Project cost estimation Knowledge area to develop a cost managementplan. It is developed in Develop Project Management Plan process

QUESTION 30_____________________ Involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model

A. Analogous estimating

B. Life-cycle costing

C. Parametric Modelling

D. Bottom Up estimating


Explanation/Reference:Parametric Modelling. Using a mathematical model example (Price per square foot)

Analogous Analogous estimating is also referred to as top-down estimating. This is one of the mostcommon estimating tools because it uses the actual costs of a previous project as the basis for cost estimatingthe new project. This method, though widely used, is simply a best-guess. The logic behind this estimate isthat if this project is twice as big as the previous project, it is likely to cost twice as much. Although thisestimate is based on expert judgment, it is also inaccurate unless projects are, in fact, the same

Parametric Parametric estimating is a method that uses statistical relationships between historical data and asmany other variables as possible. We see this method commonly used in construction, as in price per squarefoot; or in software development, as in cost per line of code written. Parametric estimating is still notsignificantly detailed but is an excellent tool when quick budget or planning numbers are available. Parametricestimating also requires that an up-to-date and populous historical database exists that includes details andcosts on many previous projects.

Bottom-up Bottom-up estimating is done when individual project tasks or work packages are cost estimated,and then the sums of all tasks are averaged to get a project total. This is the most sophisticated estimatingmethod of the three methods and is the only one that should be considered legally binding. To complete abottom-up project estimate, you need to have a fully developed and detailed scope of work. The scope of workwill include detailed drawings, specifications, vendor quotes and any other details necessary to complete anaccurate estimate.

QUESTION 31Adjusting Leads and Lags is atechnique for:

A. Develop Schedule

B. Estimate Activity Durations

C. Estimate Activity resources




QUESTION 32Analogous Estimate Cost is ____________________

A. Generally Accurate

B. Generally less accurate

C. Bottom-Up estimating

D. None


Explanation/Reference:Analogous Estimate Cost is Generally less accurate. Analogous Estimate Cost Uses Expert Judgement. It isused when refernce projects are similar. It is useful in early phases of the project.

QUESTION 33With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is_________________

A. 30.0

B. 22.5

C. 25.0

D. 27.5


Explanation/Reference:mean= (20+30+40)/3

QUESTION 34what is the mean of PMBOK

A. Project Manager Book

B. Project manager Body of Knowledge

C. Project Manager Book of knowledge

D. None of above



QUESTION 35Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?

A. Formal acceptance

B. WBS template

C. SOW Acceptance

D. Rework



QUESTION 36What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.

A. Resource planning

B. Estimate costs

C. Determine Budget

D. Control Costs


Explanation/Reference:Resource planning. Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning projects roles, responsabilities, andreporting realtionships to individuals groups.

QUESTION 37Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

A. Gantt Chart

B. Milestone Chart

C. Fishbone Diagram

D. Network diagram


Explanation/Reference:Fishbone diagrams otherwise called as Ishikawa diagrams (or cause-and-effect diagrams) are diagrams thatshow the causes of a certain event. In project management, this tool is used in Quality Management & RiskManagement processes.

QUESTION 38A change control Board should be ___________?

A. Flexible

B. Include the Project manager

C. Appropriate authority

D. All of the above


Explanation/Reference:CCB should have all the mentionated characteristics

Change Control Board Change control board can be referred to as a board or committee or group ofstakeholder’s, that analyze and review the change requests that have been forwarded by the projectmanagement team and accordingly take decision whether the change request needs to be accepted orrejected.

Consists of stakeholder’s.Approve or reject changes.Decisions are often accepted and considered final.Role clearly defined.All change requests should go through it.

QUESTION 39Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _______________ which will adversely affectproject objectives.

A. Likely events

B. Complex activities

C. Complex schedules

D. Uncertain occurrences.



QUESTION 40Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source selection?

A. Contract negotiation

B. Weighting system

C. Payment system

D. Screening system



The Source Selection process uses several tools and techniques to select the final vendor. This is usually acomplicated process, except for the cases where price is the only determining factor. Let’s examine each ofthe tools and techniques of this process.

Contract NegotiationIn contract negotiation, both parties come to an agreement regarding the contract terms. Negotiation skills areput into practice here as the details of the contract are ironed out between the parties. At a minimum, contractlanguage should include price, responsibilities, regulations or laws that apply, and the overall approach to theproject.

Weighting SystemsWeighting systems assign numerical weights to evaluation criteria, then multiply this by the weight of eachcriteria factor to come up with total scores for each vendor. Weighting systems are useful when you havemultiple vendors to choose from, as they allow you to rank order the proposals to determine the sequence ofnegotiations. There is an example of a weighted scoring system in Chapter 3. These systems are commonly used toevaluate vendor proposals.

Screening Systems Screening systems use predetermined performance criteria to screen out vendors. Perhaps your projectrequires board-certified engineers. One of the screening criteria would be that vendors propose project teammembers who are board-certified engineers. If they don’t, they’re eliminated from the selection process.Weighting systems and screening systems are often used in combination to come up with a selection.

Independent EstimatesYour procurement department might conduct an independent estimate of the costs of the proposal and use thisto compare to the vendor prices. If there are large differences between the independent estimate and theproposed vendor cost, one of two things is happening: The SOW, or the terms of the contract, was not detailedenough to allow the vendor to come up with an accurate cost, or the vendor simply failed to respond to all therequirements laid out in the contract or in the SOW.

QUESTION 41Which of the following is ensuring that aall features and functions are included in a product or service

A. Project Scope

B. Project Verification

C. Project Control

D. Product Scope



QUESTION 42A major assumption of all network schedulling methods is that the activity duration must be________________

A. Statistically dependent

B. Variance distributed

C. Statistically independent

D. Deterministic



QUESTION 43Which of the following is not part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?

A. Management Contingency Reserve

B. Management Overheads

C. Project management Planing

D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve


Explanation/Reference:The diference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project competion is MnagementContingency Reserve Management Contingency Reserve is NOT part of aproject Baseline.

QUESTION 44In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:

A. Functional

B. Weak matrix

C. Projectized

D. Dedicated Project team



QUESTION 45Which of the following is not part of the Earned Value calculations?

A. Unknown Unknowns

B. Project Budgets

C. Knowns Unknowns

D. Amount of work completed



QUESTION 46What is the purpose of the WBS?

A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizationals units

B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework

C. To show the organizational structure of a program

D. All of the above



QUESTION 47A project scope Management includes:

A. Initiation

B. Project plan execution

C. Overall Change Control

D. Report Performance


Explanation/Reference:Project scope Management includes: initiation, Collect requirements, define Scope, verify scope and controlscope.

QUESTION 48At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?

A. Initial stage

B. Closing Stage

C. Execution stage




QUESTION 49An activity that consumes no time or resource and show only that a dependency exists between two activitiesis called:

A. A milestone

B. A hammock

C. A dummy activity

D. A and C



QUESTION 50A change request can occur due to:

A. An external event such as a change in govermment regulation

B. An error omission in defining the scope of the product

C. An error omission in defining the scope of the project

D. All of the above



Exam J

QUESTION 1Another term for top down estimating is:

A. Anallogous estimating

B. Life-cycle costing

C. Parametric modelling

D. Bottom up estimating


Explanation/Reference:Analogous Estimating, is one form of expert judgment and it also known as Top-down Estimating. Thistechnique is used to determine the duration of the project. After finalizing the high level scope/requirement, thePM will refer & compare the previously completed project’s similar activities with the current activities anddetermine the duration.

This estimation technique will be applied to determine the duration when the detailed information about theproject is not available, usually during the early stages of the project. This technique will look the scope/requirement as a whole single unit to estimate. This estimate will give a ball-park idea about the estimation andwill have bigger variance.

Eg : To estimate the time required to complete the project of upgrading XYZ application’s database version toa higher version, is to compare similar past projects and estimate the duration. This is done irrespective of thecomplexity, size and other factors.

QUESTION 2A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:


B. Estimate Activity Resources

C. Sequence Activities

D. Define Activities


Explanation/Reference:Reserve Analysis is one of the techniques used to determine a project budget. During Reserve Analysis, aproject is analyzed from a cost overruns point of view and buffers are placed in appropriate place. Thesebuffers are called Contingency and Management Reserves.It is also referred to as a “contingency reserve” or “buffer.” The concept is quite simple—we know to expect theunexpected, so we plan for it. Applicable to both time and cost, it is the technique of adding some extra timeto complete activities and extra funds to the budget.

QUESTION 3The scope management provides:

A. A basis for future decisions about the project

B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures

C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes

D. All of the above



QUESTION 4A project plan is:

A. A formal approved document used guide both project execution and project control

B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to applyorganizational resources to project activities

C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie

D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company



QUESTION 5Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

A. Start-To-Finish

B. Finish-to-Start

C. Start-to-Start

D. Finish-to-Finish


Explanation/Reference:An arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a network diagramming technique in which activities arerepresented by arrows. It is used for scheduling activities in a project plan.The precedence relation between activities is represented by circles connecting to one or more arrows. Thelength of the arrow represents the duration of the relevant activity.Sometimes a "dummy task" is added, to represent a dependency between tasks, which does not represent anyactivity.

The ADM is also known as the activity-on-arrow (AOA) method, it only show finish-to-start relationship. ADMnetwork drawing technique the start and end of each node or event is connected to an arrow.

The start of the arrow comes out of a node while the tip of the arrow goes into a node. Between the two nodeslies an arrow that represents the activity.

The event represented by the circular node consumes neither time nor resources.A node is a specific, definable achievement in the project.It has zero duration and consumes nil resources.All activities that lead into a node must be completed before the activity lies following this node can start.

QUESTION 6When should a project mnager be assigned to a project?

A. As early in the project as feasible

B. Preferably before much project planning has been done

C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution

D. All of the above



QUESTION 7Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Dfine Scope Process?

A. Product Analysis

B. Expert Judgement

C. Alternative Identification

D. All of the above



QUESTION 8Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to las for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenlyacross all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent$120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?

A. -50%

B. 50%

C. 40%

D. 20%


Explanation/Reference:Solution:Execute Percentage > 12 ---------- 100% 04 ---------- X

X= 0.333333%

EV Earned Value= Execute Percentage% * Budget of the projectEV=0.33333%*240.000EV= 80.000AC= Actual Cost = 120.000

CV= EV - AC CV= 80.000-120.000 = -40.000

CV% = CV/EV CV% = -40.000/80.000 = -0.5CV% = -50%

Cost Variance (CV) is very important factor to measure project performance. Cost Variance (CV) indicateshow much over or under budget the project is.Cost Variance can be calculated as using the following formula

Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC)

OR

Cost Variance (CV) = BCWP - ACWP

The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of cost which will indicate how less or more cost hasbeen to complete the work as of date.

Positive Cost Variance Indicates the project is under budgetNegative Cost Variance Indicates the project is over budget

Cost Variance %Cost Variance % indicates how much over or under budget the project is in terms of percentage.

Cost Variance % can be calculated as using the following formula

CV % = Cost Variance (CV) / Earned Value (EV)

OR

CV % = CV / BCWP

The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of percentage which will indicate how much less ormore money has been used to complete the work as planned in terms of percentage.

Positive Variance % indicates % under Budget.Negative Variance % indicates % over Budget.

QUESTION 9Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?

A. Cost and staffing are low at the start higher towards the end and drop rapidly as the project nearscompletion

B. The probability of succesfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project

C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project

D. A and B


Explanation/Reference:Project Life cycle : Cost and staffing Levels

QUESTION 10A project manager is at the project Kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for theproject. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:

A. Hierarchal

B. Authoritarian

C. Charismatic

D. Associative


Explanation/Reference:The leadership styles includes:

Directing: Telling others what to doFacilitating: Coordinating the input of othersCoaching: Instructing othersSupporting: Providing assistance along the wayAutocratic: Making decisions without inputLaissez Faire: Has a hands-off policy and the team is entirely self-led regarding the decision making processConsultative: Inviting ideas from othersConsensus: Problem solving in group with decision making based on group agreement

QUESTION 11Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

A. Stakeholder requirements

B. Project performance

C. Control schedule

D. Project Control



QUESTION 12Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:

A. Sequence Activities

B. Develop Schedule

C. Define Activities

D. Estimate Activity Durations


Explanation/Reference:Dependencies that are directly related to the nature of the work being performed. This is known as harddependency or hard logic. This is also referred as Mandatory Dependencies .

This dependencies will be used duing the Project Planning specifically on Activity Sequencing in TimeManagement.

Purchase the Server, Install Operating System, Install and configure Patches and finally install the RequiredSoftware are examples of mandatory dependencies. The nature of the work itself dictates the order in whichthe activities should be performed.

QUESTION 13Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is usefull in the Develop Humanresources Plan Process

A. Risk Manahgement activities

B. Activity Resources Requirements

C. Budget Control Activities

D. Quality Assurance Activities


Explanation/Reference:Activity resource requirements. This is normally a document that describes the number of resources foreach schedule activity, and the knowledge, skills and experience of each. The work effort may be described astotal hours, or as skills set per time period. An example for the latter might be three bricklayers for a period oftwo weeks. It is helpful to include assumptions and other detail in support of such estimates for each activity.

QUESTION 14In which type of organization a project manager is in complete control of the project?

A. Projectized organization

B. Balanced Matrix Organization

C. Strong Matrix

D. Weak Matrix organization



QUESTION 15In which type of organization a project manager is in complete control of the project?

A. Balanced matrix Organization

B. Projectized organization

C. Strong Matrix

D. Weak Matrix organization



QUESTION 16A trend Analysis is best described as:

A. Calculating Earned Value

B. Calculating Earned variance

C. Examining project performance over time

D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time


Explanation/Reference:In project management trend analysis is a mathematical technique that uses historical results to predict futureoutcome. This is achieved by tracking variances in cost and schedule performance. In this context, it is aproject management quality control tool

QUESTION 17To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks, you must do:

A. An analysis of the critical path

B. A forwards pass

C. A backwards pass

D. A and B


Explanation/Reference:Backward Pass A calculation method used to determine late start and late finish dates for activities in CriticalPath Method. Subtract the duration from the late finish date of the last activitiy and add one to get the late startdate. This calculation method is called as Backward Pass and this is quite opposite to Forward Pass.

Forward Pass is a calculation method used in Critical Path Method(CPM) to identify the early start date andearly finish date for the activities.Based on the relationship between current activity and preceeding/succeeding activity the PM will calculate theearly start date and early finish date of the activity. The PM will do this calculation from the starting point of theactivity list. This method is called as Forward Pass

QUESTION 18Which is NOT included in Performance Improvements:

A. Improvements in individual skills

B. Improvements in amount of overtime worked

C. Improvements in team behaviours

D. Improvements in team capabilities



QUESTION 19Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERTweighted average?

A. 4

B. 6.3

C. 6

D. 6.1


Explanation/Reference:Simple Average Duration Estimate = (O + M + P)/3

PERT Duration Estimate = (O + 4M + P)/6

QUESTION 20A scope management plan, in which of the following scope management processes is the scope managementplan prepared?

A. Initiation


C. Define Scope

D. Verify Scope


Explanation/Reference:Scope management plan is one of the major Scope communication documents. The Project ScopeManagement Plan documents how the project scope will be defined, managed, controlled, verified andcommunicated to the project team and stakeholders/customers. It also includes all work required to completethe project. The documents are used to control what is in and out of the scope of the project by the use of aChange Management system. Items deemed out of scope go directly through the change control process andare not automatically added to the project work items. The Project Scope Management plan is included in asone of the sections in the overall Project Management plan. It can be very detailed and formal or looselyframed and informal depending on the communication needs of the project.

QUESTION 21Project scope Is:

A. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service

B. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract

C. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

D. A and B


Explanation/Reference:Project Scope "The work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result with thespecified features and functions"Product Scope "The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result"

QUESTION 22The planning process are:

A. Inputs, control, status reports, Risk control

B. Define Scope, team development, Control schedule, budget control, contract administration

C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control

D. Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development, Define Activities



QUESTION 23A resource Leveling is a technique for:


B. Develop schedule

C. Estimate Activity resources



Explanation/Reference:Resource leveling

Helps in utilising resources consistently throughout the project. Ensures resources are not over allocated.Helps the project manager avoid delays caused by bad allocations. Helps the project manager identify andtake advantage of unused times by analysing task dependencies. MSP can automatically level resourcesbased on resource calendar, task types, dependencies, and constraints, however, I have yet to find a projectmanager that has felt comfortable with the way MSP does it. I level resources manually via the ResourceUsage view, but if you insist in using the automatic feature of MSP, save a copy first. If you find resourceconflicts (over or under allocations) you could:

Delay certain tasks.Assign a different resource.Change task dependencies.Remove tasks.Add tasks (instead of using the MSP's split task functionality, which is not supported by some projectmanagement systems i.e. Clarity).

QUESTION 24A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is

A. Identification

B. Solicitation

C. Quantification

D. Response Development



QUESTION 25An example of project is:

A. Billing Customers

B. Managing an organization

C. Providing a building

D. Contructing a Building



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