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QUESTIONS FOR UGC NET (PHYSICAL EDUCATION) SET I

51. Which of the following is a law of learning?(a) Law of readiness (b) Law of exercise(c) Law of effect (d) All the above.52. Mental development includes(a) External and internal organs (b) reasoning and thinking(c) Ethical and moral (d) emotional maturity.53. Through which of the following methods, desirable channels are provided for the release of emotional energy?(a) Inhibition (b) Sublimation(c) Catharsis (d) Repression.54. The rate of progress in learning slows down and reaches a limit beyond which further improvement seems impossible. It is known as(a) Plateau (b) loss of interest(c) Boredom (d) difficult stage.55. The therapy of psychoanalysis was developed by(a) Skinner (b) Sigmund Freud(c) Plato (d) Darwin.56. Sports performance is the bi-product of(a) Skill (b) conditional ability(c) Total personality (d) tactical ability.57. The first metamorphosis falls between the ages of(a) 7-10 years (b) 3-5 years(c) 11-14 years (d) 2-4 years.58. Which is the most effective method for encouraging self learning?(a) Demonstration method (b) Lecture method(c) Observation method (d) Task method.59. Which one is the simplest form of cognition?(a) Conception (b) Perception(c) Sensation (d) Affection.60. The functional division of spinal cord are(a) somatic-motor (b) somatic-sensory(c) visceral-motor (d) none of the above.61. The response defined as a result of training is called(a) Conditioned stimulus (b) unconditioned reflex(c) Conditioned reflex (d) conation.62. Which need is on top of the Maslow's hierarchy of needs?(a) Self-actualization (b) Esteem(c) Belongingness (d) Safety.63. ERG theory was given by(a) Maslow (b) Alderfer(c) Jung (d) Mcclellan.64. Alderfer's theory categorizes needs into three categories. The most important is(a) Growth needs (b) ralatedness need(c) Existence need (d) none of the above.65. Which of the following is an intrinsic motivator?(a) Pay (b) Promotion

(c) Feedback (d) Interest of play.66. The two factor theory of motivation is given by(a) Maslow (b) Jung(c) Alderfer (d) Harzberg.67. Reinforcement theory of motivation is given by(a) Jung (b) Herzberg(c) Skinner (d) Maslow.68. Achievement motivation relates to(a) Need of the person (b) Knowledge of the person(c) experience of the person (d) aptitude of the person.69. Terminal feedback is the information provided to the learner(a) Before the activity (b) During the activity(c) After the activity (d) none of the above.70. The initial steep rise in the learning graph is an indication of quick progress and is technically known as(a) 'End spurt' (b) 'Initial spurt'(c) Saturation point (d) None of the above.71. What type of motivation is not applicable to young children?(a) Intrinsic motivation (b) Extrinsic motivation(c) Achievement motivation (d) none of the above.72. The 'trial and error' theory of learning was propounded by(a) Newton (b) Pavlov(c) Thorndike (d) Homer.73. In the childhood, individual's behaviour is most influenced by(a) Community (b) School(c) Peer group (d) family.74. The cause of frustration among sports person is(a) Result of own performance (b) Normally due to mismatched level of aspiration and ability(c) Result of good performance (d) Natural outcome of competitive sports.75. Which is the description of the methods of personality measurement?(a) Rating scale (b) Interviews & observations(c) Paper & pencil test (d) All the above.76. Trial & Error learning is also known as(a) Conditioning (b) connectionism(c) Insight (d) none of the above.77. 'Exercise for the body and music for the soul, in which country the common adage was used?(a) Italy (b) France(c) Greece (d) Germany.78. What aspect of movement refers to body awareness?(a) To identify the parts of the body and the whole (b) To establish the relationship of the body parts(c) Able to identify the body parts (d) All the above.

Dr. Lalit M. Tiwari Assistant Professor (Department of Physical Education, Punjabi University Patiala Punjab)Mail add: [email protected] +91-9012761130 of 78

mailto:[email protected]

79. Law of effect in learning was started by(a) Pavlov (b) Thomdike(c) Skinner (d) Gestalt.

80. What is the population that psychologists usually study?(a) Cats & Dogs (b) Monkeys(c) People (d) Pigeons and rats.81. How is psychology defined today?(a) The science of behaviour and mental processes (b) The science of human behaviour and mental processes(c) The science of mind (d) The study of motivation, emotion, personality, adjustment and abnormality.82. Who is regarded as the 'father' of psychology?(a) Sigmund Freud (b) Ivan Pavlov(c) John B. Watson (d) Wundt.83. When catching a ball, your hand knows when to grasp because(a) Your parasympathetic nervous system is active (b) Alpha waves are being generated by your brain(c) participating muscles receive efferent signals from the brain (d) afferent signals inform your hand that the ball is about to make contact.84. Body mind relationship was first promulgated by(a) Socrates (b) Plato(c) Hitler (d) Homer.85. Who said, "I think therefore I am"?(a) Discartes (b) Plato(c) Aristotle (d) Rousseau.86. Who said, "sound mind in a sound body"?(a) Discartes (b) Rousseau(c) Aristotle (d) Plato.87. The hereditary factors of learning are(a) Height and weight (b) Physical structure(c) body composition (d) all the above.88. Autogenic training is a technique(a) To bring about relaxation in body (b) To increase anxiety level(c) to counter avoidance syndrome (d) none of the above.89. The stress condition is(a) Advantageous to the performer (b) Detrimental to the performer(c) Neither (d) helpful in the development of strength.90. Which law of learning states that things most often repeated are best retained?(a) Law of readiness (b) Law of exercise(c) Law of effect (d) Law of recency.91. The state of being first creates a strong almost unusable impression. This is(a) Law of primacy (b) Law of intensity(c) Law of recency (d) law of effect.92. That the things most recently learned are best remembered refers to

(a) Law of intensity (b) Law of effect(c) Law of primacy (d) Law of recency.93. Which is the lowest level of learning?(a) Rate learning(b) Understanding (c) Application (d) Correlation.94. Emotional stability, anxiety, sadness and built ability are attributes of which personality dimension?(a) Extroversion (b) Agreeableness(c) Bourgeoisies (d) Openness.95. Which of the following is not an attribute of agreeableness personality dimension?(a) Altruism (b) Complexity(c) Trust (d) Modesty.96. The leader who allows complete freedom in decision making and do not participate in the group activities is(a) Autocratic (b) Democratic(c) Lassez fair (d) none of the above.97. Stress is(a) Advantageous to the player (b) Detrimental to his abilities(c) Both advantageous and detrimental as per the situation (d) None of the above.98. Maslow places needs at the bottom of hierarchy.(a) Esteem (b) belongingness(c) Safety (d) physiological.99. Which law of learning is also called the law of use and disuse?(a) Law of exercise (b) Law of readiness(c) Law of effect (d) Law of intimacy.100. The law of effect is also known as(a) Law of use & disuse (b) Law of satisfaction(c) Law of recency (d) Law of frequency.101. Encouragement by spectators is a(a) Social incentive (b) Monetary incentive(c) Reward incentive (d) social competitive incentive.



1. Abduction and adduction take place about which axis?

a) Obliqueb) Longitudinal or vertical c) Frontal or mediolaterald) Sagittal or anteroposterior

2. Anatomically, the term 'Superior' means:a) Towards the midline of the bodyb) Away from the trunkc) Towards the head d) Towards the feet

3. Flexion and extension are:a) Movements in the frontal plane about the

sagittal axisb) Movements in the sagittal plane about the

frontal axis c) Movements in the horizontal plane about

the vertical axisd) None of these

4. In plantar flexion of the foot about the ankle joint:

a) The foot moves upwards towards the front of the calf

b) The foot moves upwards towards the rear of the calf

c) The foot moves sideways d) None of the above

5. Internal and external rotation are movements in which anatomical plane?

a) Sagittal b) Frontalc) Horizontal (transverse) d) None of these

6. Movements that occur primarily in the sagittal plane are:

a) Adduction, lateral flexion, flexion, dorsiflexion

b) Flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion

c) Flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, internal-external rotation

d) Supination and pronation of the forearm7. The anatomical term 'Lateral' means:a) Towards the backb) Towards the headc) Away from the midline of the body d) Towards the feet8. The opposite anatomical term from

'Distal' is:a) Proximal b) Anteriorc) Posteriord) Medial9. The opposite anatomical term from

'Inferior' is:a) Distalb) Lateral c) Superior d) None of these

10. The sagittal plane is also known as:a) The frontal planeb) The coronal planec) The horizontal plane d) The anteroposterior plane

11. The two key events for phase analysis of walking and running are:

a) Toe-off and touchdown b) Single and double supportc) Stance and swingd) None of these

12. What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative movement analysis?

a) Qualitative analysis describes and analyses movement non-numerically whereas quantitative analysis describes and analyses movement numerically

b) Qualitative analysis is descriptive whereas quantitative analysis is analytical

c) These is no differenced) Qualitative analysis is analytical whereas

quantitative analysis is descriptive13. What would be the optimal take-off angle

of a standing long jump for distance if the take-off and landing heights were equal?

a) 45 degrees b) 30 degreesc) 60 degreesd) 90 degrees

14. Which of the following can be the main objective of a throwing movement?


51. (d)

52. (b) 53. (c)

54. (a)

55. (b)

56. (c)

57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)

61. (c) 62. (a)

63. (b)

64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (c)

68. (a) 69. (c)

70. (b)

71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (b)

75. (d) 76. (b)

77. (c)

78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (a)

82. (d) 83. (c)

84. (b)

85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (a)

89. (b) 90. (b)

91. (a)

92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (b)

96. (c) 97. (c)

98. (d)

99. (a) 100. (b)

101. (a)


a) Distanceb) Flight time c) Accuracyd) Any of the above

15. Which of the following is most likely to result in the longest standing long jump distance?

a) One with a normal arm swing b) One with no arm movementsc) One with arms moving backwards - the

opposite direction from a normal jumpd) They would all produce the same jump

distance 16. Which of the following is not described as

a ballistic movement?a) Jumpingb) Walking c) Throwingd) Kisking

17. Which of the following movements are fundamental to sport and exercise?

a) Walking, running, jumping, kickingb) Walking, rolling, jumping, bowling c) Lifting, running, jumping, throwingd) Walking, running, jumping, throwing

18. Which of the following statements is true about the walking cycle?

a) It can be considered to last from heel contact to heel contact of the same foot

b) It can be considered to last from toe-off to toe-off of the same foot

c) It includes periods of double support and single support

d) All of the above are true 19. Angular acceleration is:

a) Change in angular velocity with timeb) The curvature of an angle-time graphc) The slope (or gradient) of an angular

velocity-time graphd) Rate of change in the angular speed

20. In angular motion:a) All parts of the object travel the same

distance in the same time in the same direction

b) All parts of the object travel through the same angle in the same time in the same direction

c) Neither A nor Bd) All parts of the object travel through the

same angle in the same time but not in the same direction

21. Most sports motions are characterized by:a) Linear motion onlyb) Angular motion onlyc) General motion d) None of the above

22. Velocity is:a) Change in acceleration with time

b) Change in position with time c) Change in force with timed) None of the above

23. Which of the following statements is true?a) Velocity is the rate of change of

acceleration with timeb) Acceleration is the rate of change of

displacement with timec) Acceleration is the rate of change of

velocity with time d) Velocity is the rate of change of force with

time24. Zero acceleration corresponds to:

a) Zero velocity b) Positive velocityc) Velocity changing from positive to

negative or vice versa d) None of the above

25. A sprinter reached a distance from the start line of 60 m after a time of 7.5 s. What was that sprinter's average speed for that part of the race?

a) 9.8 m/sb) 8 m/s c) 0.65 m/sd) None of the above

26. What forces affect a projectile in flight?a) Gravity only b) Gravity and aerodynamic forces c) Aerodynamic forces onlyd) No forces affect a projectile's flight

27. What is the main difference between a scalar variable and a vector?

a) Vectors have a directional quality as well as a magnitude

b) Scalars have a directional quality as well as a magnitude

c) Vectors cannot be added or subtractedd) Scalars cannot be added or subtracted

28. What is the projection angle for maximum range if the release height is zero?

a) 30 degreesb) 45 degrees c) 60 degreesd) 90 degrees

29. Which of the following is NOT a vector?a) energyb) Angular velocityc) Displacementd) Momentum

30. Angular momentum is:a) The product of moment of inertia and

angular velocity b) The sum of moment of inertia and angular

velocityc) The square root of muscle torqued) Muscle torque divided by segment mass



31. Linear momentum is:a) Mass multiplied by velocity b) Mass multiplied by accelerationc) Mass multiplied by speedd) None of the above

32. What is another name for a torque?a) A moment of force b) A forcec) An angular accelerationd) None of the above

33. What is the most important cause for the swing (sideward deviation) of a cricket ball when bowled quickly:

a) The Magnus effectb) The negative Magnus effectc) Asymmetrical boundary layer separation

because of the alignment of the ball seam d) None of the above

34. Which of the following statements about forces are true?

a) A force is the pulling or pushing action of one object on another

b) Forces are vectorsc) The SI unit of force is the newton (N)d) All the above

35. Which of the following can generate rotation about a particular body axis?

a) An eccentric forceb) Trading angular momentum from another

body axis by tilting the bodyc) A force coupled) All of the above

36. Which of the following forces always acts on a human performer on our planet?

a) Gravity or body weight b) Air resistancec) Ground contact forced) Impact forces

37. Which of the following is NOT a valid statement of Newton's Second Law of linear motion?

a) The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the force causing it

b) For an object of constant mass, the force acting equals the mass of the object multiplied by its acceleration

c) For an object of non-constant mass, force = mass multiplied by acceleration

d) For an object of constant mass, force = rate of change of momentum

38. Which of the following types of lever is least commonly found in the human musculoskeletal system?

a) First classb) Second class c) Third classd) They are all equally common

39. Which of the following roles can muscles take in group action?

a) Movers, or agonistsb) Stabilisersc) Neutralisersd) All the above

40. Which of the following is NOT a long bone?

a) Femurb) Radiusc) Tibiad) Rib

41. Which of the following is a flat bone?a) Fibulab) Sacrumc) Sternum d) Ulna

42. Which of the following groups best represents the three fundamental types of muscle contraction?

a) Isotonic, isokinetic, isometricb) Concentric, eccentric, isometric c) Concentric, eccentric, isokineticd) Concentric, isometric, isokinetic

43. Which of the following can never be treated as a hinge joint?

a) The elbowb) The kneec) The wrist d) The ankle

44. The fundamental functional unit of neuromuscular control is called:

a) A motor end plateb) A muscle fibrec) A motor neurond) Motor unit

45. How many of the bones of the human skeleton engage in voluntary movement?

a) 206b) 200c) 177 d) 150

46. Abduction and adduction are movements:a) In the sagittal plane about the frontal axisb) In the frontal plane about the sagittal axis c) In the horizontal plane about the vertical

axisd) None of the above

47. A smooth, sustained contraction of a muscle is called:

a) A muscle twitchb) Wave summationc) Tetanus d) Treppe



48. When we say that a person or object "weighs" a certain number of pounds, we refer to a measure of:

a) Energyb) Force c) Massd) Torque

KEYS1. d 14 d 27 a 40 d2. c 15 a 28 b 41 c3. b 16 b 29 a 42 b4. b 17 d 30 a 43 c5. c 18 d 31 a 44 d6. c 19 a 32 a 45 c7. c 20 b 33 c 46 b8. a 21 c 34 d 47 c9. c 22 b 35 d 48 b10. d 23 c 36 a11. a 24 c 37 c12. a 25 b 38 b13. a 26 b 39 d

1. Endoskeleton involves(a) Covering of skin, hair, nails(b) Bones and cartilages(c) Bones only(d) None of the above.

2. Exoskeleton involves(a) Covering of skin, hair nails(b) Bones and cartilages(c) Long bones only(d) Short bones only.

3. Study of joints is called(a) Kinesiology(b) Biology(c) Anthropometry(d) Anthology.

4. 'Hunch back' is also known as(a) Back pain (b) scoliosis(c) lordosis (d) kyphosis.

5. Side ward curvature of the spine is called (a) knock knee (b) kyphosis(c) Scoliosis (d) lordosis.

6. The path of an object project projected into free air space is known as(a) Speed (b) abnormal curve(c) Velocity (d) parabola.7. Boxer's muscles are(a) trapezius(b) sterno cliedo mastoid(c) Abdominal(d) Deltoid.8. 'Neck joint' is an example of(a) Pivot joint

(b) Hinge joint(c) Saddle joint(d) Condyloid joint.9. 'Trapeziums' muscles help in(a) Pushing the neck backward(b) Punching(c) Raising the leg forward(d) None of the above.10. Strongest ligament of the hip joint is(a) pub femoral(b) Ileofemoral(c) Ischiofemoral(d) None of the above.11. Which type of lever is most effective in sport movements?(a) Third class(b) Second class(c) First class(d) None of the above.12. Which muscle is involved in the elevation of arm?(a) Deltoid (b) Biceps(c) Triceps (d) Quadriceps.13. Which of the following is an example of bi-axial joint?(a) Hinge(b) Pivot(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.14. Number of bones in the axial skeleton is(a) 60 (b) 80(c) 40 (d) 20.15. Number of bones in the appendicle skeleton is(a) 120 (b) 180(c) 126 (d) 116.16. Movements possible in condyloid joint are(a) Flexion and extension(b) Circumduction only(c) Flexion, extension abduction, adduction(d) Flexion, extension, abduction adduction and circumduction.17. Which of the following is an example of uniaxial joint?(a) Condyloid(b) Saddle(c) Hinge(d) Condyloid and saddle both.18. The cartilage which serves to cushion the impact of large forces on bone ends is called(a) Fibrous cartilage(b) Hyaline cartilage(c) Notch(d) fossa.19. Function of long bones in the body is to(a) Give strength(b) Give protection(c) Act as lever(d) Provide surface area for muscle attachment.



20. Force generation but fiber lengthening is also known as(a) Eccentric contraction(c) Isotonic contraction(d) Isometric contraction. 21. 'Hypnosis' is also called(c) Lateral back curve.22. Bending forward of the trunk is an example of movement in the(a) Frontal plane(b) Transverse plane(c) sagittal plane(d) Longitudinal axis.

23. A forward upward movement of the foot at the ankle joint is(a) Plantar flexion (b) dorsi flexion (c) inversion (d) eversion.24. Bending of head towards right or left side of the shoulder is(a) Extension (b) flexion(c) Lateral flexion(d) Lateral extension.25. Synovial joints are(a) Slightly movable(b) Freely movable(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.26. The vertical axis passes(a) Perpendicular to the ground(b) Horizontal to the ground(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of above.27. The law of gravity is an example of a law of motion studied in the body of knowledge called(a) Chemistry (b) Physics (c) Mechanics (d) All the above.28. Largest bone in the human body is(a) Femur (b) hummers(c) Tibia (d) fibula.29. Shortest bone in the human (a) phalange (b) metatarsal (c) in nominate bone (d) tarsal.30. Which of the following has maximum percentage in. the. ComQ-aVdon bone 1(a) Calcium sulphate Calcium phosphate(c) Chloride(d) Fluoride.31. An athlete covering 100 m distance in 10 seconds, ran at a speed of(a) lOm/s (b) 100 m/s(c) 20 m/s (d) 1000 m/s.32. The forces acting on a runner near the end of a race are(a) Weight (b) friction(c) Air resistance (d) all the above.33. The terms reset and motion are studied under(a) Biochemistry(b) Anatomy

(c) Biomechanics(d) None of the above.34. In which type of lever, the weight is in between force and fulcrum?(a) Type I (b) Type II(c) Type III (d) All the above.35. The movements around ball and socket joints are(a) Flexion and extension(b) Rotation and circumduction(c) Hyper extension(d) All the above.36. Bone cells are also called(a) Osteoblasts (b) osteocytes (c) osteoclasts (d) osteoporosis.37. Technique of ossification of bones of right hand is used to determine(a) Height(b) Age(c) Weight(d) Equilibrium ability.38. 'Hamstring' muscle(a) extends knee (b) flexes knee (c) extends elbow (d) flexes elbow.39. Which of the following is a ball and socket joint?(a) Hip joint(b) Shoulder joint(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.40. During abduction the arm moves(a) Towards the body(b) Away from the body(c) In front of the chest(d) None of the above.41. In which type of lever, the force is in between weight and fulcrum?(a) Type I (b) Type II(c) Type III (d) All the above.42. 'Latissimus Dorsi' is situated in (a) lower leg (b) thigh(c) Back (d) upper arm.43. 'Lordosis' is also called(a) Round back(b) Hollow back(c) Lateral back(d) Back curve.44. Parabola is(a) The path of an object projected into free air(b) path of an object formed with air resistance(c) Path of the object falling vertically down(d) None of the above.45. Which of the following is responsible for limiting the range of movements of joint?(a) Tendons (b) Ligaments(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Muscle fibers.



46. 'Zygomatic' bone is present in (a) Upper extremities(b) Lower extremities(c) Vertebral column(d) Skull.47. Flexion at elbow in brought about by(a) Biceps(b) Triceps(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.48. Study of bones is called(a) Osteoporosis (b) osteoclast (c) otology (d) anthology.49. The bone cells which are involved in buil-ding of bone are(a) Osteoblasts(b) Osteoclasts(c) Osteocytes(d) None of the above.50. The skeleton of thorax is made up of(a) Cartilage(b) Bone(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.

QUESTIONS FOR UGC NET (PHYSICAL EDUCATION) SET III

51. How many bones are there in the corpus of human beings?

(a) 8 (b) 9(c) 10 (d) 11.52. What type of bones performs the function of giving strength?(a) Long bones (b) Regular bones (c) Flat bones (d) Short bones.53. Density of bones is greater in(a) Men(b) Women(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.54. Which of the following is a joint of reciprocal innervations?(a) Pivot joint (b) Saddle joint (c) Condyloid joint (d) Hinge joint.55. Carpal joint is the example of(a) Pivot joint(b) Condyloid joint(c) Hinge joint.(d) Ball and socket joint.56. Which of the following planes of the body divides it into upper and lower parts?(a) Saginaw (b) Transverse(c) Frontal (d) Vertical.57. The following bones form the elbow joint except(a) Scapula (b) radius(c) Ulna (d) hummers.

58. Main bones in forearm are(a) hummers-femur(b) radius-ulna(c) ulna-phalanges(d) Wrist bones-phalanges.59. On 'set' command the sprinter is in(a) Stable equilibrium(b) Unstable equilibrium(c) Neutral equilibrium(d) None of the above.60. What type of muscles is capable of resisting fatigue in a long duration activity?(a) Deltoid (b) Fast twitch(c) Slow twitch (d) both (a) and (b).61. Muscles which cause the joints to bend are called(a) Flexors (b) extensors(c) Abductors (d) adductors.62. Synovial joint is(a) Slightly movable(b) Freely movable(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.63. Which of the following is a fibrous joint?(a) Joints of the skull(b) Joints of the fingers(c) Joints of the ribs(d) All the above.64. The terms 'anterior and posterior' are syno-nymous with(a) Frontal and back(b) Verbal and dorsal(c) Lateral and medial(d) None of the above.65. 'Lumbar' vertebrae are(a) 6 in number (b) 7 in number (c) 5 in number (d) 4 in number.


1. (b)

2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d)

8. (a)

9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b)

15. (c)

16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b)

22. (c)

23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a)

29. (d)

30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d)

36. (b)

37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (c)

43. (b)

44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a)

50. (c)


66. A bone which is formed by the replacement of cartilage is known as(a) Long bone (b) short bone (c) seamed bone (d) replacing bone.67. A bone which is formed by the transformation of connective tissue is called (a) replacing bone (b) investing bone (c) seamed bone (d) flat bone.68. The specific function of tarsal bone is(a) Protection(b) Gives strength(c) Act as lever(d) None of the above.69. Example of synovial joint is(a) Suture(b) Knee joint(c) Inter vertebral disc(d) Shoulder joint.70. Study of muscles is called(a) Otology (b) anthropology(c) Mycology (d) anthropometry.71. Total number of bones in the human skull is(a) 20 (b) 21(c) 22 (d) 23.72. How many carpal bones are there in the wrist?(a) 6 (b) 7(c) 8 (d) 9.73. Newton's second law of motion is also known as(a) Law of inertia(b) Law of action reaction(c) Law of momentum(d) Law of gravitation.74. Lever system prevalent in human arm is(a) Class III(b) Class II(c) Class I(d) None of the above.75. Otology is the study of(a) Muscles (b) bones(c) Joints (d) nerves.76. Duration is measure of(a) Distance (b) displacement(c) Force (d) time.77. 'Speed' is indicated in(a) Km/sec2 (b) Cm/hour(c) Newton (d) Km/hr.78. First law of motion is also called(a) Law of action and reaction(b) Law of conservation of energy(c) Law of inertia(d) Law of transference of momentum.79. Imaginary line passing laterally from one side to other is called(a) Sagittal axis (b) sagittal plane (c) vertical axis (d) lateral axis.

80. Sideways bending of trunk is an example of movement in(a) Frontal plane and sagittal axis(b) Sagittal plane and sagittal axis(c) Frontal plane and transverse axis.(d) Sagittal plane and lateral axis.81. Newton's second law of motion is also called(a) Law of action and reaction(b) Law of inertia(c) Law of gravity(d) Law of acceleration.82. in isometric contraction, the muscle(a) Shortens(b) Lengthens(c) Neither shortens nor lengthens(d) Shortens as well as lengthens.83. The scapula bone is situated in(a) Leg (b) hip(c) Upper back (d) arm.84. Mechanics is the branch of physics that deals with bodies(a) At rest(b) In motion(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.85. The branch of mechanics that describes the cause of force is(a) Kinetics(b) Kinematics(c) Biomechanics(d) Fluid mechanics.86. The branch of mechanics, which deals with the force that produces or changes the state of motion, is(a) Kinematics (b) Statistics (c) Biomechanics (d) Kinetics.87. Largest bone in the human body is (a) tibia (b) femur (c) fibula (d) hummers.88. Metacarpals and phalanges are examples of(a) Saddle joint(b) Hinge joint(c) Condyloid joint(d) Ball and socket joint.89. Crapo metacarpal joint is an example of(a) Condyloid joint(b) Ball and socket joint(c) Saddle joint(d) Gliding joint.90. Total number of bones in the skull is(a) 7 (b) 8(c) 9 (d) 10.91. Thoracic vertebrae' consists of(a) 7 bones (b) 12 bones(c) 5 bones (d) 8 bones.92. 'Sacrum' vertebrae consists of(a) 5 bones (b) 6 bones(c) 4 bones (d) 3 bones.



93. Which of the following is an example of Hinge joint?(a) Hip joint (b) Elbow Joint(c) Ankle Joint (d) All the above.94. at the time of release of discus(a) Centripetal force is more than centrifugal force(b) Centrifugal force is more than centripetal force(c) Centripetal and centrifugal forces become zero(d) None of the above.95. The sternum is located in(a) Foot (b) palm(c) Chest (d) skull.96. The schedules for interval training are prepared(a) Annually (b) weekly(c) Monthly (d) quarterly.97. Who invented the method of weight training?(a) Aristotle(b) Herbert Spencer(c) Fredrick Yahn(d) Morgan and Adamson.98. Passive flexibility is due to(a) Muscular assistance(b) External help(c) Increase in strength(d) Neither (a) nor (b).99. Duration of 'macro cycle' is(a) 1 year plus (b) 2 months (c) 2 weeks (d) 4 days.100. Best method to enhance explosive strength in lower extremities is(a) Long distance running(b) Sand running(c) Bounding training and depth jumps(d) Mud running.101. Interval training is used for the development of(a) Flexibility(b) Agility(c) Explosive strength(d) Endurance.Answers51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54.

(b)55. (d) 56.

b)

57. (a)

58.

(b) 59.

(b) 60. (c) 61. (a)

62. (b) 63. (a)

64. (b)

65.

(c) 66.

(d) 67. (b) 68. (b)

69. (b) 70. (c)

71. (c)

72.

(c) 73.

(c) 74. (a) 75. (b)

76. (d) 77. (d)

78. (c)

79.

(d) 80.

(a) 81. (d) 82. (a)

83. (c) 84. (b)

85. (b)

86.

(d) 87.

(b) 88. (c) 89. (c)

90. (b) 91. (b)

92. (a)

93.

(b) 94.

(b) 95. (c) 96. (b)

97. (c) 98. (a)

99. (a)

100.

(c) 101.

(d)

SET

51. The ability to effectively integrate the moments of the body parts is(a) Agility (b) balance(c) Co-ordination (d) speed.52. Which of the following tests cannot measure coordination?(a) Ball catches (b) Jump rope(c) Vertical jump (d) Jumping jack.53. Which of the following is not measured using film analysis and EMG analysis? (a) Agility (b) Balance(c) Coordination (d) Speed.54. The ability to make successive movements in different directions efficiently and rapidly refers to(a) Agility (b) balance(c) Co-ordination (d) power.55. Which of the following tests is not a p of J. Johnson motor educability test?(a) Back roll (b) Front roll (c) Vertical jump (d) Stagger jump,56. Knox test is skill test for(a) Hockey (b) basketball(c) Volleyball (d) tennis.57. The assignment of a number to express in quantitative terms the degree to which a pupil possesses a given characteristic is called(a) Test (b) measurement(c) Evaluation (d) none.58. Chapman Ball Control test is used to test skills in(a) hockey(b) Basketball(c) Hewitttest(d) French short serve test.59. The father of anthropometry is(a) Boron Quetelet (b) Martens (c) Spielberger (d) Carron.60. Optimal Arousal Theory of Anxiety was postulated by(a) Clark Hull (b) Carron (c) Martens (d) Yuri Hania.61. Which theory of anxiety suggests that stress and anxiety will influence performance and that each athlete will respond is a unique; way to competitive anxiety?(a) Drive theory(b) Inverted U-hypothesis(c) Catastrophe theory(d) Optimal arousal theory.



62. Which of the following tests is not a test for measuring anxiety?(a) STAI (b) SCAT(c) BIDR (d) CSAI.63. Which of the following tests is used to measure aggression?(a) SCAT(b) BIDR(c) GEQ questionnaire(d) AMI.64. Who is the President of I.A.A.F.?(a) Primo Nebiolo(b) U. Thant(c) I. S. Bindra(d) Juan Antonio Samaranch.65. To which country does Primo Nebiolo, the I.A.A.F. president belongs?(a) United States (b) Italy (c) France (d) Greece.66. To which country does the current 110 m (H) world record holder, Colin Jackson belongs?(a) Britain (b) Ukraine(c) Australia (d) USA.67. Which of the following cups/trophies is not related to football?(a) Subroto Cup (b) World Cup (c) Durand Cup (d) Wills Cup.68. India was the winner of Olympic Gold Medal in Hockey from(a) 1920-1948 (b) 1928-1956 (c) 1896-1928 (d) 1956-1964.69. India regained top position in hockey in which Olympics?(a) 1996 (b) 1958(c) 1964 (d) 1928.70. What was 'Dhyanchand's' rank in the army?(a) Major General (b) Lieutenant (c) Captain (d) Lance Naik.71. At what position 'Dhyanchand' used to play?(a) Centre half (b) Centre forward (c) Full back (d) Goal keeper.72. After how many years did India win the gold medal in Asian Games held at Bangkok?(a) After 32 years (b) After 30 years (c) After 28 years (d) After 26 years.73. Who was the first male sprinter to win US championship in 200 m and 400 m races at the same time, in 20th century?(a) Michael Johnson(b) ' Carl Lewis(c) Calin Jackson(d) Jesse Owens.74. What was the nickname of Indian legend hockey player 'Dhyanchand'?(a) 'Hockey Wizard'(b) 'Hockey Man'(c) 'Little Master'(d) 'Hockey Jockey'.

75. In which year was the first World Cup Hockey tournament held?(a) 1970 (b) 1971(c) 1972 (d) 1973.76. At the time of inception, the World Cup Hockey tournament used to take place(a) Once in three years(b) Once in two years(c) Twice a year(d) Once in four years.77. Which of the following countries has won the World Cup Hockey tournament for the maximum number of times?(a) Holland (b) India(c) Pakistan (d) England.78. Which country is the birth place of Modem Hockey?(a) India (b) China(c) USA (d) England.79. Which is the name of trophy awarded to the winners of National Men's Championship in Basketball?(a) B. L. Gupta trophy(b) Sulivan Cup(c) Todd memorial Trophy(d) None of the above.80. Which trophy is awarded to Women's National Basketball Champion?(a) Uber Cup(b) Thomas Cup(c) Sulivan Cup(d) Basalat Jab Trophy.81. 1998 Asian Games were held in(a) New Delhi (b) Bangkok(c) Lahore (d) Beijing.82. What was the old name of Commonwealth Games?(a) The Empire games(b) The British Empire games(c) The British games(d) None of the above.83. In which of the following events in first Commonwealth Games, were women allowed to participate?(a) Gymnastics (b) Bowling (c) Swimming (d) Table Tennis.84. Who inaugurated the First Asian Games?(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad(b) Maharaja Patiala(c) G. D. Sondhi(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.85. Which country is coined as the cradle of chess?(a) Japan (b) Malaysia(c) China (d) India.86. Who amongst the following has won the maximum national level titles?(a) Nisha Millet(b) Bhuvaneshwari Kumari



http://localhost/is#bookmark161

(c) Sebestian Xevier(d) Aparna Popat.87. In which country did the game of basketball originate?(a) Russia (b) Japan(c) USA (d) Canada.88. In which year did the game of the basketball originate?(a) 1896 (b) 1928(c) 1892 (d) 1891.

89. Who invented the game of basketball?(a) James Nai Smith(b) W. A. Morgan(c) C. A. Bucher(d) Orbeteuffer.90. In which year was the 'Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna' award instituted?(a) 1990-91 (b) 1991-92(c) 1992-93 (d) 1993-94.91. Dronacharya Awards was constituted in the year(a) 1983 (b) 1984(c) 1985 (d) 1986.92. The final recommendation for Arjuna Awards is given by(a) Ministry of H. R. D.(b) The Prime Minister of India(c) State Government(d) The President of India.93. How many countries participated in the first Asian Games held in Delhi?(a) 10 (b) 11(c) 12. (d) 13.94. Who was the first Asian to become member of I.O.C.?(a) Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad(c) Jigaro Kano(d) Smt. Benajir Bhutto.95. Handball academy is being established by S.A.I.L. at(a) Bangalore (b) Manipur (c) Rourkela (d) Bhilai.96. 'Dead Ball' is associated with(a) Football (b) handball(c) Hockey (d) cricket.97. Witch of the following is the oldest sport in India?(a) Wrestling (b) Judo(c) Boxing (d) Atya Patya.98. Which present day international sport originated in Kerala?(a) Jud'o(b) Karate(c) Boxing(d) Tae-kwando.99. Juan Antonio Samaranch, the president of I.O.C. belongs to

(a) Japan (b) China(c) Spain (d) USA.100. Which of the following places does not have a sports college?(a) Lucknow (b) Kolkata(c) Jallandhar (d) Bangalore.101. Which of the following is the largest stadium in India?(a) Yuba Bharti Kridangan, Kolkata(b) Jawahar Lai Nehru Stadium, Delhi(c) National Stadium, Delhi(d) Shivaji Stadium, Delhi.102. Which of the following countries won maximum number of medals in the 16th Commonwealth games?(a) Australia (b) England(c) Canada (d) India.103. How many gold medals did India win in the 16th Commonwealth games?(a) 6 (b) 7(c) 8 (d) 9.Answers51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57 (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (d) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64 (a) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78 (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (xx) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (d) 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (d) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (b)

SET1. Which one of the following occurs during sub-

maximal exercise at the tissue-capillary interface?

A. Diffusion rates will decrease so less oxygen enters the lungs.

B. Diffusion rates will decrease so less carbon dioxide enters the blood stream.

C. Diffusion rates will increase to allow greater amounts of oxygen to enter the lungs.

D. Diffusion rates will increase to allow greater amounts of oxygen to enter the muscle.

2. An athlete who uses erythropoietin (EPO) is likely to see an improvement in

A. speed due to increased stimulation of the central nervous system.

B. aerobic capacity due to increased oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.

C. muscular strength due to increased cross-sectional area of the filaments.

D. anaerobic capacity due to increased oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.



3. Carbohydrate → glycogen → ________________ → CO2 + H2O + heat + energy

Which one of the following completes the formula above?A. ATPB. ADPC. lactic acidD. pyruvic acid

4. Which one of the following physical activity measures would be the least practical but most accurate measure of physical activity?

A. pedometersB. accelerometersC. direct observationD. physical activity logs

5. Which of the following statements is true of the characteristics associated with energy production from anaerobic glycolysis?

A. Maximum ATP production is 0.7 moles.B. ATP production occurs in the mitochondria.C. Peak power during maximal efforts occurs in 5–15 seconds.D. Energy production is limited by the amount of chemical fuel stored in the muscles.

6. The energy substrate stored in the body which can produce the most amount of ATP is

A. lipids.B. proteins.C. carbohydrates.D. phosphate creatine.

7. The organ which produces bile is(A) heart(B) pancreas(C) thyroid(D liver.8. If a instrument is able to measure accurately

what it is supposed to measure is called:a) Reliabilityb) Objectivec) Validityd) Precision

9. Which is not the criteria used in determining validitya) Subjective judgment criteriab) Composite score criterionc) Split halves criteriond) Critical appraisal criterion

10. The test retest criterion used for determining a) Reliabilityb) Objectivityc) Validityd) Precision

11. Which is not the components of health related fitnessa) Muscular enduranceb) Muscular strengthc) Speedd) Flexibility

12. Which is not included in the Kraus weber test itemsa) Strength of abdominal plus psoas musclesb) Strength of lower back musclesc) Floor touch testd) Strength of abdominal minus upper back

muscles13. In Phillips JCR test “J” stands for

a) Sarjent jumpb) Standing broad jumpc) Javelin throwd) None of the above

14. Which is not included in the roger’s strength testa) Left hand grip strengthb) Back strength testc) Pull upsd) Squat thrust

15. The height of bench in tuttle pulse ratio test isa) 13 inchb) 18 inchc) 20 inchd) 15 inch

16. Sit and reach test is used for measuring fora) Trunk flexibilityb) Wrist flexibilityc) Shoulder flexibilityd) None of the above

17. Maximum oxygen uptake can be calculated froma) Cooper 12 min run-walk testb) Harverd step testc) Tuttle pulse ratio testd) Phillips JCR test

18. Stork stand test is used for measuringa) Reaction timeb) Depth perceptionc) Dynamic balance d) Static balance

19. Which is not the part of barrow general motor ability testa) Standing broad jumpb) Zig zag runc) Medicine ball putd) Squat thrust

20. Which item is included in the Oregon motor fitness testa) Shuttle runb) Sit ups.c) Back strength testd) Sit and reach test

21. Which is not the part of knox basket ball testDr. Lalit M. Tiwari Assistant Professor (Department of Physical Education, Punjabi University Patiala Punjab)Mail add: [email protected] +91-9012761130 of 78


a) Dribble shootb) Penny cupc) Wall bounced) Dodging run

22. Penny cup test measure thea) Reaction time and coordinationb) Ball handling abilityc) Dribbling abilityd) None of the above

23. Which item is included in the Johnson basketball testa) Basketball throw for accuracyb) Penny cup testc) Speed pass testd) Rebound test

24. Which test items included in the Russel lange testa) Serving test b) volleying testc) both a and bd) none of the above

25. the height of the target area in brady volley ball testa) 7.5 feetb) 11.5 feetc) 8 feetd) 15 feet

26. Which is the test for measuring badminton playing abilitya) French short serve testb) Millar wall volley testc) Lokhart mcpearson testd) All the above

27. Which instrument measure the strengtha) Goniometerb) Dynamometerc) Spirometerd) None of the above

28. Which instrument measure the flexibilitya) Spirometerb) Dynamometerc) Sphygmomanometerd) None of the above

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28

Question 1 Multiple Choice

Which of the following divides a group of data into four subgroups? quartiles

percentiles standard deviation median


If the standard deviation of a population is 9, the population variance is: 3 9 21.35 81

Question 3

What is the median for the following numbers?6,15,21,23,28,33,38

23 28 38 21


Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? median

mean standard deviation mode


What is 40th percentile of the following numbers?39

29.4 17 23


What is the value of the coefficient of skewness for the following population of numbers?1.04

0.56 0.97 0.28


Consider the following population of numbers. What is the z score for 6?



0.66 0.95 1.23 +1.23


Consider the following grouped data. What is the sample variance of these

data?

212.69 208.90 14.45 14.58


What is the sample standard deviation of the following numbers?

3.42 2.96 11.67 8.75


What is the mode for the following numbers?3

4 5 6


Suppose data are normally distributed with a mean of 120 and a standard deviation of 30. Between what two values will approximately 68% of the data fall? 60 and 180

90 and 150 30 and 210 105 and 135


The interquartile range is which of

the following? the range of the middle 50% of the

data Q2 the difference between any two quartiles the square of the standard deviation


According to Chebyshev's theorem, if a population has a mean of 80 and a standard deviation of 35, at least what proportion of the values lie between 30 and 130? .35

.68

.49

.51 Question 14 Multiple Choice

The middle value of an ordered array of numbers is the mean

median mode midpoint


Consider the following grouped data.

What is the mode of these data?

16 35 15 20


The sum of the deviations about the mean are always: the range

the standard deviation total zero positive




If a distribution is abnormally tall and peaked, then is can be said that the distribution is: mesokurtic

platykurtic leptokurtic pyrokurtic


According to the empirical rule, approximately what percent of the data should lie within μ± 2σ? 68%

75% 95% 99.7%


What is the first quartile of the following numbers?

55 62.5 65 70


What is the population variance of the following numbers?3.31

10.98 3.58 12.81


Which of the following describe the middle part of a group of numbers? measures of central tendency

measures of variability measures of shape measures of association


What is the coefficient of correlation for the following two variables?

.129 .205 .366 .491


The mean of a distribution is 23, the median is 24, and the mode is 25.5. It is most likely that this distribution is: negatively skewed

positively skewed symmetrical asymptotic


What is the mean of the following numbers?

12.5 13 11 10.3


The mean of a distribution is 14 and the standard deviation is 5. What is the value of the coefficient of variation?

60.4% 48.3% 35.7% 27.8%

26. What is the standard deviation for the numbers: 75, 83, 96, 100, 121 and 125?

a) 18.2b) 16.2c) 17.3d) 18.9

27. What is the standard deviation of the first 10 natural numbers (1 to 10)?

a) 2.87b) 2.01c) 3.87



d) 4.87

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25 26 27

1. Which of the following statements describes a mental benefit of physical activity?a) Physical activity can enhance body

shape.b) Physical activity can develop an

understanding of rules.c) Physical activity can help to relieve

stress and tensiond) Physical activity can help develop

friendships.

2. Which of the following statements describes a physical benefit of physical activity?

a. Physical activity can enhance body shape.

b. Physical activity can develop an understanding of rules.

c. Physical activity can help to relieve stress and tension.

d. Physical activity can help develop friendships.

3. Which of the following is a definition of health?a. The ability to meet the demands of the

environment.b. A state of complete mental, physical

and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

c. A form of physical activity done primarily to improve one's health and physical fitness.

d. How well a task is completed.4. Which of the following is a definition of

fitness?a. The ability to meet the demands of the

environment.b. A state of complete mental, physical

and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

c. A form of physical activity done primarily to improve one's health and physical fitness.

d. How well a task is completed.5. Which word from the following list is a

component of health-related fitness?a. Powerb. Coordinationc. Speedd. Endurance

6. Which of the following demonstrates the importance of AGILITY?a. Ability to get a quick start and leave

the opposition behind.b. Ability to dodge opponents and get

freec. Ability to increase the range of

movements possible at a joint and hold a better technical shape

d. Ability to move two or more body parts together to produce a technically correct shot.

7. Which of the following demonstrates the importance of FLEXIBILITY?a. Ability to get a quick start and leave


free.c. Ability to increase the range of

movements possible at a joint and hold a better technical shape


8. Which of the following demonstrates the importance of CO-ORDINATION?a. Ability to get a quick start and leave


freec. Ability to increase the range of

movements possible at a joint and hold a better technical shape.


9. Which Principle of Training should be applied to reduce the chance of injury?a. Specificityb. Progressionc. Reversibilityd. Individual Needs

10. Which Principle of Training is being applied when a coach devises two different training programmes for two different athletes, even though they are training for the same event?a. Specificity



b. Progressionc. Reversibilityd. Individual needs

11. The main factors determining success in sport are:a) a high energy diet and large appetite.b) high intelligence and motivation to

succeed.c) a good coach and the motivation to

succeed.d) innate ability and the capacity to

respond to the training stimulus.e) number and activity of enzymes in the

muscles.12. Our genetic material is made up of:

a) deoxyribonucleic acid.b) ribonucleic acidc) dinitronucleic acidd) proteine) chrometin

13. In sprint events, improvements in performance may come from:a) faster reaction times.b) increased power generating ability of

muscles.c) improved resistance to fatigue.d) all of the above.e) (a) and (b) only

14. Women's world record performances have improved rapidly in recent years mainly because:a) women have evolved a greater muscle

mass.b) women can now run faster than men.c) women have started training at an

earlier age.d) more women are now engaged in

sport.e) the use of ergogenic aids has increased

in women.15. The key attribute in successful marathon

running is:a) Strengthb) Power c) Stride lengthd) Stamina e) Agility

16. Which of the following physiological characteristics is not important for success in endurance events such as the marathon race?a) The ability to regulate body

temperature.b) The ability to supply oxygen to the

exercising muscles.c) The availability of body stores of

carbohydrate.

d) A high proportion of Type I muscle fibres on the leg muscles

e) Muscle ATP and phosphocreatine content.

17. Endurance training increases the muscle's capacity to:a) contract faster.b) break down phosphocreatine.c) burn fat and carbohydrate.d) generate energy anaerobically.e) produce more blood cells.

18. Which of the following factors does not influence success in sport?a) Ability to tolerate heavy training

without succumbing to illness or injury.

b) Tactics.c) The diet.d) Skill.e) Ingestion of carnitine during exercise.

19. A fundamental cause of fatigue in high intensity exercise is:a) a fall in the cell concentration of ADP.b) inhibition of ATP production.c) failure of the ATP supply to match the

demand.d) lack of skill.e) depletion of triglyceride stores.

20. Performance enhancing synthetic steroids are based on the structure of the hormone:a) testosterone.b) cortisol.c) Progesteroned) aldosterone.e) Nandrolone

21. The capacity of the aerobically trained muscle to use fatty acids as afuel results in:a) reduction in lactic acid formation.b) sparing of muscle glycogen.c) sparing of blood glucose.d) all of the above (a-c) are correct.e) none of the above (a-c) are correct

22. Training for strength or power has little effect on:a) muscle massb) muscle strength.c) anaerobic capacity.d) aerobic capacity.e) muscle buffering capacity

23. Training for endurance has little effect on:a) muscle massb) muscle triacylglycerol and glycogen

content.c) mitochondrial content of muscle.d) aerobic capacity.e) capillary density of muscle.



24. Cardiovascular adaptations to endurance training include:

a) increased maximal cardiac output.b) lower resting heart rate.c) increased blood volume.d) (a), (b) and (c)e) (a) and (b) only.25. Endurance training in a glycogen-depleted

state results in:a) improved capacity to use fat as fuel for

exercise.b) reduced mitochondrial oxidative

enzyme activity c) reduced stress hormone responses to

submaximal exercise.d) improved high intensity exercise

performance.e) reduced appetite after training

sessions.26. The synthesis of glucose from lactate,

glycerol, or amino acids is called:a) Glycogenolysisb) Glycolysisc) Lipolysisd) Gluconeogenesise) Transammination

27. The process of breaking down triacylglycerol into free fatty acids and glycerol is called:a) beta oxidationb) lipogenesis.c) Lipolysisd) both (a) and (c) are correct.e) None of the above

28. Which of the following releases most energy when completely oxidised in the body?a) One gram of glucoseb) One gram of palmitic acidc) One gram of leucined) One gram of alcohole) One gram of protein

29. How many CO2 and ATP molecules are formed during onecomplete turn of the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs' cycle)?a) 2CO2 and 2ATPb) 2CO2 and 16ATPc) 2CO2 and 12ATPd) 2CO2 and 1ATPe) 1CO2 and 5ATP

30. Oxygen is used:a) In glycolysisb) in the conversion of fatty acids to

acetyl CoAc) in the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs'

cycle).d) in glycogenolysis.

e) in Type I fibres only.31. An action potential arriving at the motor

endplate causes release of:a) acetylcholine which traverses the

neuromuscular junction.b) sodium ions which binds to sodium

receptors on the muscle membrane.c) calcium ions which initiate an action

potential along the muscle fibre.d) noradrenaline which increases muscle

metabolic activity.e) none of the above.

32. The trigger to initiate the contractile process in skeletal muscle is:a) potassium binding to myosin.b) calcium binding to tropomyosin.c) ATP binding to the myosin cross

bridges.d) calcium binding to troponin.e) ATP breakdown by actin.

33. For very high force contractions lasting 1-2 seconds, the initial energy source is from:a) Glycolysis.b) creatine phosphorylationc) phosphocreatine stores.d) ATP stores.e) None of the above



1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13c a b a D b c d b d d a d22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33d a d a d c b a b b d

51. Where was the first World Cup Football held?(a) Uruguay (b) France(c) Canada (d) Brazil.52. Where was the 1998 World Cup Football held?(a) England(b) France(c) Canada(d) South Korea.53. In which of the following World Cup Soccer tournaments did maximum number of nations participate?(a) Uruguay 1930(b) France 98(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.54. Which two countries have hosted the World Cup Football tournament twice?(a) France and Brazil(b) Mexico and Italy(c) Germany and Japan(d) Argentina and Mexico.55. Which country, in the history of hockey, scored maximum number of goals against their opponents?(a) India (b) Pakistan(c) Holland (d) Germany.56. In which year was Hockey introduced in the Olympics?(a) 1908, London(b) 1920, Antwerp(c) 1936, Berlin(d) 1956, Melbourne.57. When was Hockey introduced in the Asian Games?(a) 1951, Delhi (b) 1954, Manila (c) 1958, Tokyo (d) 1962, Jakarta.

58. Where are the nest (17th) Commonwealth Games scheduled?(a) Manchester, England(b) Victoria, Canada(c) Kathmandu, Nepal(d) Pusan, S. Korea.59. Name of the German game on which the modern basketball has been based is(a) Handball (b) korfball(c) Hockey (d) volleyball.60. Which of the following stadiums was known as Irwin Amphitheatre?(a) National Stadium, Delhi(b) Yuba Bharti Kridangan, Calcutta(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru Stadium, Delhi(d) None of the above.61. Sport Authority of India was formed in(a) 1983 (b) 1984(c) 1985 (d) 1986.62. 'Michael Ferreira' is associated with the game of(a) Snooker (b) billiards(c) Golf (d) equestrian.63. Where was the World Cup Hockey tournament held in 1998?(a) Holland (b) UK(c) USA (d) Malaysia.64. Who won the World Cup Hockey (Men) tournament held at Holland (1998)?(a) Germany (b) England(c) Pakistan (d) Holland.65. The National Sports Festival for Women was started in(a) 1970 (b) 1974(c) 1975 (d) 1976.66. 'Ranga Swami Cup' is associated with the game of(a) Hockey (b) football(c) Volleyball (d) kho-kho.67. 'Cue' is associated with the game of(a) Bridge (b) hockey(c) Billiards (d) golf.68. Which style of Kabaddi is officially recognized?(a) National (b) Samvahini(c) Sanjeevani (d) Circle.69. The term 'caddy' is associated with(a) golf (b) billiards (c) bridge (d) snooker.70. Who amongst the following became the first Indian to win a grand slam title ?(a) Leander Paes(b) Mahesh Bhupathi(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.71. Where were the National games held in 1998?(a) Imphal (b) Jaipur(c) Jallandhar '(d) New Delhi.



72. Which of the following athletes secured fourth position in the Olympic Games final?(a) P. T. Usha(b) Milkha Singh(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.73. Which of the following athletes qualified for finals in different T and F events in Olympic Games?(a) Milkha Singh(b) Sriram Singh(c) P. T. Usha (d.) All the above.74. Which of the following universities won the MAKA trophy for maximum number of times?(a) Punjab University(b) Delhi University(c) Guru Nanak Dev University(d) Calicut University.75. Which of the following is the highest award in sports in the world?(a) Arjuna Award(b) Olympic order(c) Padma Shree(d) Jesse Owens Award.76. Who amongst the following has been the youngest ever No. 1 tennis player among women?(a) Martina Navratilova(b) Martina Hingis(c) Steffi Graf(d) Mary Joe Pierce.77. Which of the following grand slam tournament starts on the first day of every New Year?(a) Franch Open(b) Australian Open(c) US Open(d) Wimbledon.78. Name the first Indian (male) to swim across the English Channel?(a) Thomas cook(b) Khazan Singh(c) Mihir Sen(d) None of the above.79. I.A.A.F. stands for(a) International Amateur Athletics Federation(b) Indian Amateur Athletics Federation(c) Indian Association of Athletics and Field events(d) None of the above.80. I.A.A.F. was formed in(a) 1911 (b) 1912(c) 1913 (d) 1914.81. Who was the first athlete to be awarded Padmashree Award?(a) P. T. Usha(b) Milkha Singh(c) G. S. Randhawa(d) V. S. Chauhan.82. Which of the following will host the first Afro-Asian Games in 2001?

(a) New Delhi (b) Kathmandu (c) Paris (d) Mumbai.83. Who won the maximum number of medals in the 5th National Games at Manipur?(a) Sebastian Xavier(b) Nisha Millet(c) Shakti Singh(d) None of the above.84. Hall of fame for year 1999 in tennis was given to(a) Leander Paes(b) Wayne Arthur(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above.85. After how many years Thomas Cup and beer cup tournaments in Badminton held?(a) Biannually (b) Triannually (c) Annually (d) Quarterly86. Which Indian was the first to win world title in badminton?(a) Prakash Padukon(b) Syed Modi(c) Aparna Popat(d) P. Gopichand.87. Who is the president of A.A.F.I.?(a) Vijay Kumar Malhotra(b) R. L. Anand(c) Suresh Kalmadi(d) Murli Manohar Joshi.88. How many total indoor and outdoor records are being made by Sergei Bubka in the event of pole vault?(a) 33 (b) 34(c) 35 (d) 36.89. What is the ancient name of 'Polo' and who gave it?(a) 'Chaupar' by Rajputs(b) 'Chauhan' by Mughals(c) 'Chaturanga' by Marathas i (d) None of the above.90.1 Which of the following international games originated in India?(a) Volleyball and Kho-kho(b) Snooker and Badminton(c) Tae kwando and Judo(d) Judo and Karate.91. Where is the world's highest cricket ground situated?Lords (England)Chail (India)Oval (England)Kolkata (India).92. Where was the 'School Games Federation of India' (SGFI) formed?(a) Kamataka (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai (d) Kolkata.93. 'Ruud Gullit' is associated with which sport?(a) Volleyball (b) Football(c) Athletics (d) basketball.



94. Karnam Malleshwari weightlifter belongs to which state?(a) Andra Pradesh(b) Arunachal Pradesh(c) Karnataka(d) Kerala95. Dick Fosbury who invented the 'Fosbury Flop' style in high jump event belongs to(a) USA (b) England(c) Russia (d) Ukraine.96. 'Synthetic track' in athletics was used for the first time in(a) 1968 (Mexico Olympics)(b) 1948 (London Olympics)(c) 1896 (Athens Olympics)(d) 1996 (Atlanta Olympics).97. First World Cup Athletics Championship was held at(a) Pusan (b) Helsinki(c) Kathmandu (d) Stuttgart.98. In which state is the 'Britannia Amritraj Tennis Academy' situated?(a) Kerala (b) Chennai(c) Karnataka (d) Pondicherry.99. 'Pugilists' are also known as(a) Athletes(b) Chess players(c) Boxers(d) Archers.100. World 'Tee off' is associated with which game?(a) Polo (b) Snooker(c) Golf (d) Billiards.101. In which of the following countries is the headquarters of "World Physical Education Congress" located?(a) Japan (b) USA(c) England (d) Germany.102. 'Olympic Bhavan' site is being planned at(a) Chennai(b) New Delhi(c) Kolkata(d) Bangalore.Answers51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a)59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (a)67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (c)75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (b) 82. (a)83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (a)97. (b)98. (b)99. (c) 100. (c)101. (b) 102. (a)

51. Which of the following is a law of learning?(a) Law of readiness (b) Law of exercise(c) Law of effect (d) All the above.52. Mental development includes(a) External and internal organs (b) reasoning and thinking(c) Ethical and moral (d) emotional maturity.53. Through which of the following methods, desirable channels are provided for the release of emotional energy?(a) Inhibition (b) Sublimation(c) Catharsis (d) Repression.54. The rate of progress in learning slows down and reaches a limit beyond which further improvement seems impossible. It is known as(a) Plateau (b) loss of interest(c) Boredom (d) difficult stage.55. The therapy of psychoanalysis was developed by(a) Skinner (b) Sigmund Freud(c) Plato (d) Darwin.56. Sports performance is the bi-product of(a) Skill (b) conditional ability(c) Total personality (d) tactical ability.57. The first metamorphosis falls between the ages of(a) 7-10 years (b) 3-5 years(c) 11-14 years (d) 2-4 years.58. Which is the most effective method for encouraging self learning?(a) Demonstration method (b) Lecture method(c) Observation method (d) Task method.59. Which one is the simplest form of cognition?(a) Conception (b) Perception(c) Sensation (d) Affection.60. The functional division of spinal cord are(a) somatic-motor (b) somatic-sensory(c) visceral-motor (d) none of the above.61. The response defined as a result of training is called(a) Conditioned stimulus (b) unconditioned reflex(c) Conditioned reflex (d) conation.62. Which need is on top of the Maslow's hierarchy of needs?(a) Self-actualization (b) Esteem(c) Belongingness (d) Safety.63. ERG theory was given by(a) Maslow (b) Alderfer(c) Jung (d) Mcclellan.64. Alderfer's theory categorizes needs into three categories. The most important is(a) Growth needs (b) ralatedness need(c) Existence need (d) none of the above.65. Which of the following is an intrinsic motivator?(a) Pay (b) Promotion(c) Feedback (d) Interest of play.



66. The two factor theory of motivation is given by(a) Maslow (b) Jung(c) Alderfer (d) Harzberg.67. Reinforcement theory of motivation is given by(a) Jung (b) Herzberg(c) Skinner (d) Maslow.68. Achievement motivation relates to(a) Need of the person (b) Knowledge of the person(c) experience of the person (d) aptitude of the person.69. Terminal feedback is the information provided to the learner(a) Before the activity (b) During the activity(c) After the activity (d) none of the above.70. The initial steep rise in the learning graph is an indication of quick progress and is technically known as(a) 'End spurt' (b) 'Initial spurt'(c) Saturation point (d) None of the above.71. What type of motivation is not applicable to young children?(a) Intrinsic motivation (b) Extrinsic motivation(c) Achievement motivation (d) none of the above.72. The 'trial and error' theory of learning was propounded by(a) Newton (b) Pavlov(c) Thorndike (d) Homer.73. In the childhood, individual's behaviour is most influenced by(a) Community (b) School(c) Peer group (d) family.74. The cause of frustration among sports person is(a) Result of own performance (b) Normally due to mismatched level of aspiration and ability(c) Result of good performance (d) Natural outcome of competitive sports.75. Which is the description of the methods of personality measurement?(a) Rating scale (b) Interviews & observations(c) Paper & pencil test (d) All the above.76. Trial & Error learning is also known as(a) Conditioning (b) connectionism(c) Insight (d) none of the above.77. 'Exercise for the body and music for the soul, in which country the common adage was used?(a) Italy (b) France(c) Greece (d) Germany.78. What aspect of movement refers to body awareness?(a) To identify the parts of the body and the whole (b) To establish the relationship of the body parts(c) Able to identify the body parts (d) All the above.79. Law of effect in learning was started by(a) Pavlov (b) Thomdike(c) Skinner (d) Gestalt.

80. What is the population that psychologists usually study?(a) Cats & Dogs (b) Monkeys(c) People (d) Pigeons and rats.81. How is psychology defined today?(a) The science of behaviour and mental processes (b) The science of human behaviour and mental processes(c) The science of mind (d) The study of motivation, emotion, personality, adjustment and abnormality.82. Who is regarded as the 'father' of psychology?(a) Sigmund Freud (b) Ivan Pavlov(c) John B. Watson (d) Wundt.83. When catching a ball, your hand knows when to grasp because(a) Your parasympathetic nervous system is active (b) Alpha waves are being generated by your brain(c) participating muscles receive efferent signals from the brain (d) afferent signals inform your hand that the ball is about to make contact.84. Body mind relationship was first promulgated by(a) Socrates (b) Plato(c) Hitler (d) Homer.85. Who said, "I think therefore I am"?(a) Discartes (b) Plato(c) Aristotle (d) Rousseau.86. Who said, "sound mind in a sound body"?(a) Discartes (b) Rousseau(c) Aristotle (d) Plato.87. The hereditary factors of learning are(a) Height and weight (b) Physical structure(c) body composition (d) all the above.88. Autogenic training is a technique(a) To bring about relaxation in body (b) To increase anxiety level(c) to counter avoidance syndrome (d) none of the above.89. The stress condition is(a) Advantageous to the performer (b) Detrimental to the performer(c) Neither (d) helpful in the development of strength.90. Which law of learning states that things most often repeated are best retained?(a) Law of readiness (b) Law of exercise(c) Law of effect (d) Law of recency.91. The state of being first creates a strong almost unusable impression. This is(a) Law of primacy (b) Law of intensity(c) Law of recency (d) law of effect.92. That the things most recently learned are best remembered refers to(a) Law of intensity (b) Law of effect(c) Law of primacy (d) Law of recency.93. Which is the lowest level of learning?(a) Rate learning



(b) Understanding (c) Application (d) Correlation.94. Emotional stability, anxiety, sadness and built ability are attributes of which personality dimension?(a) Extroversion (b) Agreeableness(c) Bourgeoisies (d) Openness.95. Which of the following is not an attribute of agreeableness personality dimension?(a) Altruism (b) Complexity(c) Trust (d) Modesty.96. The leader who allows complete freedom in decision making and do not participate in the group activities is(a) Autocratic (b) Democratic(c) Lassez fair (d) none of the above.97. Stress is(a) Advantageous to the player (b) Detrimental to his abilities(c) Both advantageous and detrimental as per the situation (d) None of the above.98. Maslow places needs at the bottom of hierarchy.(a) Esteem (b) belongingness(c) Safety (d) physiological.99. Which law of learning is also called the law of use and disuse?(a) Law of exercise (b) Law of readiness(c) Law of effect (d) Law of intimacy.100. The law of effect is also known as(a) Law of use & disuse (b) Law of satisfaction(c) Law of recency (d) Law of frequency.101. Encouragement by spectators is a(a) Social incentive (b) Monetary incentive(c) Reward incentive (d) social competitive incentive.Answers51. (d)

52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a)

55. (b)

56. (c)

57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)

61. (c)

62. (a)

64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (c)

68. (a)

69. (c)

71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (b)

75. (d)

76. (b)

78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (a)

82. (d)

83. (c)

85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (a)

89. (b)

90. (b)

92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (b)

96. (c)

97. (c)

99. (a) 100. (b)

101. (a)

1. A movement that predominantly uses a hinge joint in physical activity is:

a) Sprint start leg action in athleticsb) The bowling arm action in cricketc) Heading the ball in footballd) Ankle action when swimming breast stroke

2. Which one of the following is a role of the National Governing Bodies in sport?

a) To provide equipment to fitness clubs b) To write the curriculum for school physical

educationc) Ensure health and safety guidelines are in

placed) Make money for the share holders

3. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic feedback?

a) The crowd booing a bad passb) The performer hitting a pass and the

technique feeling rightc) The coach shouting encouragement

following a good passd) The performer passing to a team mate who

has shouted for the ball

4. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation?

a) Trying to beat your personal best in a 100m sprint

b) Participating in badminton for enjoymentc) Wanting to swim a length of the swimming

baths to gain a badged) Taking up aerobics to get fitter

5. Why is personal hygiene important in physical education?

a) To avoid minor infectionsb) To be more successfulc) To be able to lift and carry equipment

safelyd) To keep the equipment clean

6. In order to improve the health of the biceps, which one of the following activities would be most effective?

a) Footballb) High Jumpc) Canoeingd) Hill walking



7. Overuse of tendons in physical activity can cause problems. Which one of the following problems is associated with tendon overuse?

a) Inflammationb) Arthritisc) Hypertrophyd) Bruising

8. Which of the following would ensure healthy joints?

a) Maintaining a healthy weightb) Use of massage oilc) Eating more red meatd) Lifting very heavy weights.

9. Which of the following best describes the training principle of overload?

a) Concentrating on specific muscles to make it relevant

b) Putting the body under stress to improve strength

c) Doing too much exercised) Doing less exercise to rest muscles

10. Which of the following activities would be best described as both aerobic and anaerobic?

a) Sprinting b) Long jumpc) Weightliftingd) Tennis

11. Natalie has decided to take up cross country running. Which type of training would be most suitable for this activity

a) circuit trainingb) weight trainingc) continuous trainingd) flexibility training

12. After an hour’s vigorous exercise programme, a 16 year old male, who does not train regularly, experiences some short term effects on his body. Which one of the following would you expect to happen after such a short exercise programme.

a) increase in cardiac outputb) decrease in resting heart ratec) increase in lung volumed) increased breathing rate

13. What is the main reason for SMART goal setting?

a) To punish performers who do not stick to an exercise programme

b) To reward performers financially if they stick to an exercise programme

c) To check whether the coach is setting a good exercise programme

d) To motivate participants to follow an exercise programme

14. Why is feedback on performance especially important?

a) It discourages poor performersb) It increases competitionc) It sets a personal best targetd) It helps to improve technique

15. Which of the following is a potential hazard of a school playing field

a) correct footwearb) discarded litterc) the sports equipmentd) other players

16. Which one of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation when learning physical activity skills?

a) Enjoyment of the activityb) Pleasing your parentsc) Trying to win a competition for a cupd) Receiving a badge for swimming a width

17. Which of the following bones meet to form the elbow joint?

a) femur and pelvisb) humerus and femurc) humerus, radius and ulnad) humerus, tibia and fibula

18. Which one of the following best describes the role of tendons?

a) They attach muscle to boneb) They attach muscle to musclec) They attach bone to boned) They attach ligaments to bones

19. Which one of the following is a long term effect of a healthy, active lifestyle?

a) Heart rate increasesDr. Lalit M. Tiwari Assistant Professor (Department of Physical Education, Punjabi University Patiala Punjab)Mail add: [email protected] +91-9012761130 of 78


b) Muscle increase in temperaturec) Blood flow is slowerd) Stroke volume increases

20. How would you minimize the risks associated with a fitness centre when exercising?

a) Eat plenty of carbohydratesb) Check that all equipment is working

properlyc) Always try hard in all exercisesd) Record fitness progress in your training

diary

21. Which one of the following best describes aerobic training?

a) Long intervals of slow workb) Short intervals of slow workc) Long intervals of fast workd) Short intervals of fast work

22. Local authorities attempt to encourage more participation in physical activities. Which one of following is a local authority facility?

a) Leisure centre swimming poolb) Private gym clubc) Rugby clubd) Premier league football club training

facility

23. Which one of the following is an example of a media promotional campaign to promote a healthy, active lifestyle?

a) TV advertisement for high energy drinksb) Radio advertisement for sportswearc) Leaflets on a balanced diet in a local

libraryd) Newspaper report on a death caused by

smoking

24. Which one of the following is a potential hazard whilst participating in a physical activity in an outdoor adventure area?

a) Slippery rocksb) Cutting your leg on a sharp stonec) Concussion by banging your headd) Exhaustion because of walking too far

25. Which one of the following is the best description of the specificity training principle whilst weight training?

a) increase the weights lifted for each training session

b) Concentrate on training muscles in the upper body

c) Lifting your maximum weight for one repetition

d) Using all free weights rather than machines

26. Which one of the following is an example of the skeleton as a support structure?

a) Producing red blood cellsb) Strong mineralsc) Producing calcium for strong bonesd) Helping with correct posture

27. Which one of the following would be a good example of personal protective equipment to reduce the risk of injury if participating in a physical activity?

a) A gum shield in hockeyb) A post protector in rugbyc) A crash barrier for the crowdd) Well fitted training shoes

28. Which one of the following is the best example of a SMART goal set to improve performance of an official in a physical activity?

a) To learn the rules of the game and to give the right decisions in the next match

b) To get fitter and to keep up with the run of play

c) To learn the signal for offside by this time next week

d) To talk to the players after the game to get feedback on performance of the official

29. Which one of the following movements best describes flexion around a joint?

a) Lowering your body using your arms in the press up position

b) Bending backwards at the hip whilst standing

c) Turning your hand around so that the palm is facing upwards

d) Squeezing your ankles together whilst lying on the floor

30. Which of the following would you recommend to prevent inflammation of the joints during or after physical activity?

a) Rub massage oil into your joints before and after exercise



b) Use carbo-loading to increase energy levels

c) Stretch your muscles thoroughly before exercise

d) Do not do too much activity at any one time

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

1. Which one of the following is a role of the school in promoting an active, healthy lifestyle?

(a) Running health awareness programmes.(b) Checking on sleep patterns.(c) Giving parents advice on health.(d) Ensuring that family housing is appropriate. [1]

2. Which one of the following is an example of a national governing body?

(a) British Olympic Association.(b) UK Sport.(c) Lawn Tennis Association.(d) International Olympic Committee. [1]

3. Which one of the following is a positive effect of sponsorship on participation in physical activities?

(a) Only elite athletes are funded.(b) More company profits.(c) More funds available to purchase equipment.(d) Small range of activities are funded. [1]

4. Which one of the following best describes the frequency element of the FITT principle of training?

(a) How hard you exercise.(b) The type of exercise you choose.(c) How much time you take to exercise.

(d) How many times a week you exercise. [1]

5. Which one of the following is NOT a hazard found on a grass playing field?

(a) Broken glass.(b) Football posts.(c) Concussion.(d) Pot holes. [1]

6. Which one of the following training methods is mostly aerobic?

(a) Circuit training.(b) Weight training.(c) Continuous training.(d) Flexibility training. [1]

7. Which one of the following precautions would you take to minimise the risk of injury in a sports hall?

(a) Check that the equipment is well maintained.(b) Make sure you have a friend to exercise with.(c) Cool down properly.(d) Take first aid material with you. [1]

8. Which one of the following is an effective personal hygiene method to avoid minor infections following exercise?

(a) Wash your hands thoroughly before exercise.(b) Warm up all of your main muscle groups.(c) Wash and dry your feet after exercise.(d) Use a nasal strip during exercise. [1]

9. There are many long term effects of exercise and training on the body. Which one of the following is a long term effect on the heart?

(a) Increase in stroke volume.(b) Decrease in stroke volume.(c) Increase in tidal volume.(d) Decrease in tidal volume. [1]

10. Mental preparation is important when participating in physical activity. Which one of the following best describes the purpose of mental preparation for a young person who is exercising to keep GENERALLY fit?

(a) To psych yourself up to win and be competitive.(b) To concentrate effort and forget about stressful events.



(c) To focus on one particular muscle group and to build muscle group.(d) To block out the crowd. [1]

11. What value is cartilage in trying to maintain an active, healthy lifestyle?

(a) Protects bones from wear and tear.(b) Gives strength to a joint.(c) Produces valuable red blood cells.(d) Acts as a nutrient to bones. [1]

12. Which one of the following is an intrinsic motive for participating in the role of a leader in a physical activity?

(a) Getting paid for leading a physical activity session.(b) Running sessions to get a qualification.(c) To please your parents.(d) To enjoy leading a physical activity session. [1]

13. Which one of the following is the LEAST effective way to learn physical activity skills?

(a) Trial and error.(b) Copy role models.(c) Practise hard.(d) Reading a coaching manual. [1]

14. Which one of the following is the best example of how knowledge of results can motivate a young person?

(a) To show a young person that they have run a distance quicker than they have before.(b) To show a video playback of a javelin throw to an athlete.(c) To give a badge for a gymnast who learns a new skill.(d) To give money to a young person who stops smoking. [1]

15. Which one of the following best describes the vascular shunt mechanism?

(a) Speeding up the flow of blood to all organs during exercise.(b) The redistribution of blood during exercise.(c) The pushing forward of waste products to help excretion.(d) An increase in heart rate that increases cardiac output. [1]

1. Which one of the following is an example of a hinge joint?

(a) The shoulder joint(b) The hip joint(c) The knee joint(d) The wrist joint [1]

2 Which one of the following best describes fartlek training?

(a) A high resistance, low repetition method with strength and power(b) A varied, continuous training method with speed and endurance(c) A bounding and hopping method with flexibility and power(d) A mobility training method with active and passive stretching [1]

3 Which one of the following is a government initiative to encourage healthy eating?

(a) Take brisk walks instead of using a car(b) Drink no more than eight units of alcohol per day(c) Eat at least five portions of fruit and vegetables per day(d) Add salt to food to improve flavour [1]

4 Which one of the following is an effect of lactic acid during an exercise session?

(a) Helps you focus on the exercise task(b) Causes muscle fatigue during exercise(c) Causes stomach ache due to over-eating(d) Helps to break down oxygen to produce more energy [1]

5 Which one of the following is an example of trial and error when learning movement skills?

(a) Watching a video of basketball shooting technique(b) Copying your coach’s demonstration of the forehand drive technique in tennis(c) Practising shooting in hockey to get the right technique(d) Listening to your teacher’s instructions about the handstand technique in gymnastics (1)

6 Which one of the following is a joint problem?

(a) Osteoarthritis(b) Athlete’s foot(c) Diabetes(d) Obesity [1]



7 SMART target setting is often used to improve performance in physical activities.Which one of the following does the S in the SMART principle stand for?

(a) Superficial(b) Standardised(c) Specific(d) Special [1]

8 Which one of the following is a role of the National Governing Bodies in sport?

(a) To ensure health and safety guidelines are in place(b) To make money for the share-holders(c) To write the curriculum for school physical education(d) To provide equipment to fitness clubs [1]

9 Which one of the following is a potential hazard in a sports hall?

(a) Falling over and experiencing concussion(b) Water that has been spilled causes the floor to be slippy(c) A twisted ankle playing 5-a-side football(d) Needing a plaster after cutting yourself [1]

10 Which one of the following is a short term effect on the heart during an exercise session?

(a) Lower resting heart rate(b) Increase in tidal volume(c) Hypertrophy of the heart muscle(d) Increase in cardiac output [1]

11 Which one of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint?

(a) Elbow joint(b) Vertebral joint(c) Shoulder joint(d) Knee joint [1]

12 Which one of the following muscle groups are mainly responsible for a good performance in the long jump?

(a) Trapezius(b) Latissimus dorsi(c) Deltoid(d) Quadriceps [1]

13 Which one of the following best describes the intensity element of the FITT principle of training?

(a) How hard you work in an exercise class

(b) How long your training session lasts(c) The method of training you choose to keep fit(d) The number of exercise classes that you attend each week [1]

14 Which one of the following is not a good reason for goal setting?(a) To be more motivated(b) To control anxiety(c) To make the game more realistic(d) To measure progress [1]

15 Which one of the following is a major influence of the media on levels of participation in physical activities?

(a) Raises interest of many people in sport(b) Provides home entertainment(c) Enables big prize money to be offered(d) Encourages TV advertising [1

1. Who among the following started the custom of flaming the torch from Athens to thesite of Olympic Games ?(A) Adolf Hitler(B) King George- 1(C) Plato(D) Pierre-de-Coubertin.2. The organ which produces bile is(A) heart(B) pancreas(C) thyroid(Dl liver.3. The rotation of trunk is in the(A) frontal plane(B) transverse plane(C) saggital plane(D) horizontal plane.4. Surplus energy theory was propounded by0 McDougal(B) Herbert Spencer(C) -s(D) Karl Groose.5. Zygomatic is a bone of(A) face(B) head(C) wrist(D) ankle.6. The most abundant single constituent of muscle is(A) proteins(B) enzymes(C) water(D) carbohydrates.



7. Sprain during a sport activity is to be immediately attended to by(A) application of ointment(B) hot fomentation(C) cold compression(D) Massage.8. Postural deformities of the vertebral column are detected by(A) pedograph(B) ordinary measuring scale(C) spondeometer(D) all of these.9. Injury to medial meniscus is common amongst(A) hockey players(B) boxers(C) footballers(D) track & field.10. The type of machine in which force arm is less than the resistance arm favours(A) speed(B) force(C) power(D) resistance.1 1. Hunching the shoulders forward is called(8 Elevation(B) Abduction(C) Rotation(D) Adduction.12. Momentum gained by a long jumper directly depends on hisLA) mass and velocity(B) mass and air resistance(C) mass and reaction time(D) velocity and resistance.513. The Eysenck Personality Inventor ( EPI ) measures(A) Introversion only(B) Extroversion only(C) Personality structure(D) Introversion and Extroversion.14. The story of Pelop and Hypodamia throwing light on ancient Olympic Games is(A) deliberate source(B) advertent source(C) inadvertent source(D) secondary source.15. Close form questionnaire contains questions that call for(A) free response(B) check response(C) descriptive response(D) short response.16. Any cluster of individuals who have one or more characteristics in common is called(A) Population

(B) Commodity(C) Randomness(D) None of these.17. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :List - I List - IIa) Body measurement 1 . Biacromial diameterb) Skeletal diameter 2. Sitting heightc) Circumference 3. Subscapular skifold widthd) Skin fold measurement 4. Cuff-circumference.Code :a b c d(A) 1 2 3 4[ P.T.O.22 10-11 618. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :List - I List - IIa) Sacrum 1. 12 vertebraeb) Cervical 2. 5 vertebraec) Lumbar 3. 5 vertebrae fusedd) Thoracic 4. 7 vertebrae.Code :a b c dCA) 1 3 4 2(B) 4 1 2 319. Match List - Iwith List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :List - I List - IIa) Connectionist theories 1 . Cognitive theoryb) Gestalt theories 2. Hull's theoryc) Reinforcement theories 3. Skinner's theoryd) Conditioning theories 4. Thorndike's theoryCode :a b c d(A) 1 2 4 3(B) 4 1 2 3(C) 4 2 1 3(Dl 3 1 2 420. Soleus is a muscle of(A) face(B) hip(C) leg(D) forearm.21. The statistical measure which is generelly applied to the determination of samplingerror is(B) Chi-square(C) Correlation(D) Standard Deviation.22. 'Agoge' was the name of system in Greece related to(A) education(B) military training(C) music(D) none of these.23. The first physical fitness component to be lost by an athlete during detraining period



is(A) endurance(B) speed(C) strength(D) agility.24. As a load factor, quality of movement is related with(A) load frequency(B) load intensity(C) load volume(D) load density.25. Movement of a body part laterally toward the medial line of the body is called(A) Flexion(B) Extension(C) Abduction(D) Adduction.26. Which of the following training systems has been considered best for bodyadaptation ?(A) Interval training(B) High altitude training(C) Circuittraining(D) Fartlek training.[ P.T.O.22 10-11 827. In sports context, aggression must be defined as(A) Violence(B) Assertive play(C) Out-of-control situation(D) Hostility.28. Man's social inheritance is primarily reflected in(A) religious rites and rituals(B) education and ethics(C) social institutions and organizations(D) traditions and customs.29. The Latissimus Dorsi is powerfully involved in(A) Volleyball and Basketball(B) Football and Hockey(C) Swimming and Rowing(D) Gymnastics and Dance.30. The most difficult task in sports management is the management of(A) personnel(B) play fields(C) equipment(D) materials.3 1. A good demonstration is designed to help(A) the teacher to teach skills perfectly(B) enable pupils to understand the skill well(C) speed up perfection in a skill(D) understand biomechanics of the skill.32. Analysis of co-variance represents an extension of analysis variance to allow for thecorrelation between(A) two group scores(B) several group scores

(C) initial and final scores(D) two different variables.9 22 10-1133. Biofeedback is a technique by the use of which an individual learns to relax bycontrolling(A) involuntary body functions such as heart rate(B) voluntary muscles involved in exercise(C) inputs of sensory impulses(D) motor activities of the limbs.34. Match Statement - I with Statement - II and select the correct answer using the codegiven below :Statement - I : The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the appliedforce and it is in the same direction in which force is applied.Statement - II: When an object is acted upon by a constant force, its resultingacceleration is directly proportional to the force and inverselyproportional to its mass.Code :(A) (i) is correct(B) (ii) is correct(C) (i) and (ii) are correct) (i) and (ii) are false.35. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :List - I List - 11a) Cell Membrane 1. Excretory functionb) Mitochondria 2. Absorbs and excretes the molecules once carried outC) Lysosomes 3. Contain enzymesd) Vacuoles 4. Break down large molecules within the cellCode :a b c d(A) 1 4 2 3[ P.T.O.22 10-11 1036. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :List - I List - IIa) Medial 1. Face downb) Prone 2. Frontc) Supine 3. Insided) Anterior 4. Face up.Code :a b c dV\) 3 1 4 2(B) 1 4 2 3(C) 2 4 1 3(Dl 1 3 4 237. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :List - I List - IIa) Vitamin B, 1. Cyanocobalamine



b) VitaminB2 2. Thiaminec) VitaminE 3. Riboflavind) Vitamin B,, 4. TocopherolCode :38. Make the correct choice from the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below :Assertion (A) : The girdles attach the limbs ( extremities ) to the axial skeleton.Reason (R) : The girdles are considered to be part of the axial skeleton.(A) (A) and (R) are true(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false(C) (A) and (R) are false(D) (A)isfalse, but (R)is true.1139. The important indicator of female skeleton is(A) small skull(B) wide pelvis(C) curved humerus(D) wide mandible.40. Muscle can store glycogen up toIA) 475 gm(B) 700gm(C) 650gm(D) 400 gm.4 1. The minimum duration of a macro-cycle is(A) 17days(B) 7 days(C) 2days(D) 10 days.42. World Cup Football is organized after .................. years of Olympic Games.(A) 4 years(B) 5 years(C) 1 year(D) 2 years.43. Skeletal growth can be measured by(A) date of birth(B) carpal X-ray(C) brain scan(D) steel tape.44. One of the important tools for collecting data in historical research is(A) Sampling(B) Experiment(C) Interview(D) TAT Test.22 10-11 1245. The basic aim of interval training is the development of(A) speed(B) speed-strength(C) high endurance(D) speed endurance.46. Russel-Lang test is meant for measuring playing ability in(A) Basketball(B) Volleyball

(C) Badminton(D) Golf.47. Reciprocal innovation is a process that involves our(A) vascular system(B) hormonal regulation(C) neuromuscular phenomenon(D) muscular system.48. The pattern of reducing heart rate after exercise is known as(A) Bradycardia(B) Recovery(C) Low heart rate(D) Super-compensation.49. The largest organ of human organism is(A) Femur(B) Liver(C) Skin(D) Brain.50. BMI is the ratio between(A) food intake and work output(B) body weight and height(C) age and height(D) CO, and 0,'

RESEARCH AND STATISTICS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR UGC NET 2012

1. Which one of the following is a data collection method?

a. The case study.b. Positivism.c. The onion.d. Interview @

2. The research process is best described as a:a) Method to select a frame of referenceb) Set of rules that govern the selection of

subjectsc) Series of steps completed in a logical order

@d) Plan that directs the research design

3. A research proposal is best described as a(n)

a) Framework for data collection and analysisDr. Lalit M. Tiwari Assistant Professor (Department of Physical Education, Punjabi University Patiala Punjab)Mail add: [email protected] +91-9012761130 of 78


b) Description of the research process for a research project @

c) Description of how the researcher plans to maintain an ethical perspective during the study

d) Argument for the merit of the study

The purpose of a literature review is toa) Use the literature to identify present

knowledge and what is unknownb) Assist in defining the problem and

operational definitionc) Identify strengths and weaknesses of

previous studiesd) All of the above @

The statement 'To identify the relationship between the time the patient spends on the operating table and the development of pressure ulcers' is best described as a research:

a) Objectiveb) Aimc) Questiond) Hypothesis @

A statement of the expected relationship between two or more variables is known as the:

a) Concept definitionb) Hypothesis @c) Problem statementd) Research question

There is no significant difference in the endurance of basketball players and volleyball players' is an example of a

a) Null hypothesis @b) Directional hypothesisc) Non-directional hypothesisd) Simple hypothesis

1. What is a research design?(a) A framework for every stage of the

collection and analysis of data @(b) The style in which you present your

research findings, e.g. a graph(c) The choice between using qualitative or

quantitative methods(d) A way of conducting research that is not

grounded in theoryA simple random sample is one in which:

(a) From a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected

(b) A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize

(c) The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups

(d) Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected @

It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when:

(a) The population is widely dispersed geographically

(b) You have limited time and money available for travelling

(c) You want to use a probability sample in order to generalise the results

(d) All of the above @

The standard error is a statistical measure of:(a) The normal distribution of scores around

the sample mean(b) The extent to which a sample mean is

likely to differ from the population mean @

(c) The clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale

(d) The degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified

What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the sampling error?

(a) It reduces the sampling error @(b) It increases the sampling error(c) It has no effect on the sampling error(d) None of the above

Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?

(a) Snowball sampling(b) Stratified random sampling @(c) Quota sampling(d) Convenience sampling

Snowball sampling can help the researcher to(a) Access deviant or hidden populations @(b) Theorise inductively in a qualitative study(c) Overcome the problem of not having an

accessible sampling frame(d) All of the above

Why do you need to review the existing literature?(a) To make sure you have a long list of

references(b) Because without it, you could never reach

the required word-count(c) To find out what is already known about

your area of interest @(d) To help in your general studying

Closed ended questions are those that(a) Have a fixed range of possible answers @(b) Prevent respondents from allocating

themselves to a category(c) Encourage detailed, elaborate responses(d) Relate to the basic demographic

characteristics of respondentsWhich of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviewing?

(a) Researchers do not have to spend so much time and money on travelling @



(b) Some people in the target population may not own a telephone

(c) It can be difficult to build rapport over the telephone

(d) Interviewers cannot use visual cues such as show cards

An open question is one that:(a) Allows respondents to answer in their own

terms(b) Does not suggest or provide a limited

range of responses(c) Can help to generate answers for closed

questions(d) All of the above

'Research methods':(a) is a term used to refer to all aspects of the

implementation of methods.(b) are the procedures a researcher uses to

gather information. @(c) are a set of abstract concepts together with

propositions about they are related.(d) none of the above.

The process of selecting a subset of a population is known as:

(a) survey research.(b) Representation(c) triangulation.(d) sampling. @

In a study of effects of alcohol on driving ability, the control group should be given

(a) a high dosage of alcohol.(b) one-half the dosage given the experimental

group(c) a driving test before and after drinking

alcohol.(d) no alcohol at all.

A scientific explanation that remains tentative until it has been adequately tested is called a(n)

(a) Theory(b) Law(c) Experiment(d) Hypothesis @

A study to determine the degree of relationship between two events is calleda.naturalistic observation.b.

the correlational method. @

c.a controlled experiment.d. The survey method

In an experiment to find out if taking steroids increases muscle mass scores, the muscle mass scores would be

a. the independent variable.b. a control variable.c. an extraneous variable.

the dependent variable. @

4. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?

a. Consistency or stability @b. Appropriateness of interpretations on the

basis of test scoresc. Ways in which people are the samed. A rank order of participants on some

characteristic

5. An ordinal scale is:a. The simplest form of measurementb. A rank-order scale of measurement @c. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbersd. A scale with an absolute zero pointe. A categorical scale

16. Which of the following is not a type of reliability?a. Test-retestb. Split-halfc. Content @d. Internal consistency

6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.a. Questionnairesb. Interviewsc. Experiments @d. Observations10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statements is true?a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s predetermined response categoriesb. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own wordsc. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words @d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words

15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):a. Interview protocolb. Event samplingc. Summated rating scale @



d. Ranking 16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are used by educational researchers?a. Observationb. Interviewsc. Questionnairesd. Checklists @ 18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:a. Questionnairesb. Interviewsc. Secondary datad. All of the above are methods of data collection @ 1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:a. A nonrandom sampling methodb. A quota samplec. A snowball sampled. An Equal probability selection method @ 2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participateb. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within

each ethnic group at random.c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number

table to pick cases from the table. @d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school. 7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?a. Snowball samplingb. Convenience samplingc. Quota samplingd. Purposive samplinge. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling @ 8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling techniqueb. A small sample based on simple random samplingc. A large sample based on simple random sampling @

d. A small cluster sample 9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?a. Simple random samplingb. Systematic samplingc. Quota samplingd. Purposive sampling @ 10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?a. Cluster sampling @b. Simple random samplingc. Systematic samplingd. Proportional stratified sampling 12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method called ______.a. Simple random samplingb. Cluster samplingc. Systematic samplingd. Convenience sampling @ 16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants?a. Snowball @b. Conveniencec. Purposived. Quota 17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your chapter?a. Simple random sampling @b. Proportional stratified samplingc. Cluster random samplingd. Systematic sampling21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?a. Cluster sampling @b. Convenience samplingc. Quota samplingd. Purposive samplinge. They are all type of nonrandom sampling 24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.a. Sampling @b. Censusc. Survey researchd. None of the above



28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.a. Sample @b. Populationc. Statisticd. Element 30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.a. Convenience samplingb. Quota samplingc. Purposive sampling @d. Snowball sampling

1. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and influences the dependent variable, it is called:a. Another dependent variableb. A confounding variable @c. A moderating variabled. An unreliable variable 8. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also influences the dependent variable is known as a _______________.a Confounding variable @b. Third variablec. Second variabled. Both a and b are correct

1. Analysis of covariance is:a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variables @b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effectsc. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groupsd. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables 8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?a. Presence techniqueb. Amount techniquec. Type techniqued. Random technique @9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting.a. One-group pretest-posttest designb. Pretest-posttest control group design @c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groupsd. Both b and c 11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.a. Experimental group @b. Control groupc. Participant groupd. Independent group 12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables?a. Building the extraneous variable into the designb. Matchingc. Random assignment @d. Analysis of covariance 13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.a. Experimental groupb. Control group @



c. Treatment groupd. Independent group 14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?a. Random assignment @b. Matchingc. Counterbalancingd. None of the above 15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups in an experimental study?a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)b. Even versus odd numbersc. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program @d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best 22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence over all other methods?a. Matching individual participantsb. Holding extraneous variablesc. Building the extraneous variable into the research designd. Counterbalancinge. Randomly assign research participants to the groups @ 23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced by the ____.a. Dependent variableb. Extraneous variablec. Independent variable @d. Confounding variable 24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental treatment conditions.a. Factorial designb. Repeated measures design @c. Replicated designd. Pretest-posttest control-group design

3. Partial correlation analysis involves: a. Examining the relationship between two or

more variables controlling for additional variables statistically @ b. Including only one group in a correlational

analysis c. Matching participants on potential confounding

variablesd. Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant

level of an extraneous variable 14. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?

a. Determine research problem and hypotheses

b. Analyze datac. Interpret resultsd. All are steps @

15. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.a. The observed result is probably not due to chance @b. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chancec. The observed result is probably a chance resultd. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true

17. Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a research study?a. Genderb. Ethnicityc. Intelligence and other traitsd. None of the above can be manipulated in a research study @ 25. If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that the relationship is ____.a. Weakb. Strongc. Statistically significantd. b is true and c is probably true @ 32. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of _________ relationship present between two variables.a. Curvilinearb. Nonlinear



c. Linear and quadraticd. Linear @

1. A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered:a. Primary sources @b. Secondary Sourcesc. External criticsd. Internal critics 2. The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to as:a. Sourcingb. Internal criticismc. Secondary criticismd. External criticism @ 3. A researcher studying the history of physical education finds a manuscript that purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His authentification of the object is referred to as:a. Positive criticismb. Internal criticismc. Secondary criticismd. External criticism @ 4. to know the accuracy of the information contained in the sources present in the historical data is : a. Positive criticismb. Internal criticism @c. External criticismd. Secondary criticism

6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons?a. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present b. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities c. To uncover the unknownd. All of the above

7. Historical research is interpretative.a. True @b. Falsec. sometime trued. sometime false 8. The following is a step in the process of historical research?a. Preparing a report or narrative exposition b. Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or questionc. Data collection and/or literature reviewd. All of the above @ 10. In historical research, a primary source _________.a. Consists of firsthand accounts by witnesses to events @b. Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the minutes of a meeting, and photographs c. Both a and b @d. none of the above 11. In historical research secondary sources are _________.a. Generally considered more useful that primary sources b. Generally considered less useful than primary sources @ 14. The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained in the sources collected is known as ______.a. External criticismb. Internal criticism @c. Vaguenessd. Presentism

1. What is the median of the following set of scores?

18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ?a. 10b. 14c. 18d. 12 @ 2. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean in a normal distribution?a. 34%b. 95%



c. 99%d. 68% @ 3. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula isa. The standard deviation @b. The difference between a score and the meanc. The ranged. The mean 5. The standard deviation is:a. The square root of the varianceb. A measure of variabilityc. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the meand. All of the above @ 6. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.a. Trueb. False @ 8. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.a. Line graphb. Bar graph @c. Scatterplotd. Vertical graph 9. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of data.a. Inferential statisticsb. Descriptive statistics @c. None of the aboved. All of the above 10. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____.a. Meanb. Medianc. Mode @d. Range 11. As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency because it is more precise.a. Mean @b. Medianc. Moded. Range 13. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of variability?a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical analysis @

b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data setsc. They provide nominally scaled datad. None of the above 14. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent variables.a. Regression analysis @b. Regression coefficientc. Regression equationd. Regression line 15. The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average.a. Mean @b. Medianc. Moded. All of the above 16. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables.a. Bar graphsb. Pie graphsc. Line graphsd. Scatterplots @ 17. The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are severely skewed.a. Meanb. Median @c. Moded. Range 18. Which of the following is the formula for range?a. H + Lb. L x Hc. L - Hd. H – L @ 19. Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation units?a. z score @b. SDU scorec. t scored. e score 20. Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?a. Median @b. Variancec. Standard deviationd. Range



21. Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?a. Modeb. Range @c. Mediand. Mean 22. What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?a. 7.5b. 6c. 7 @d. 4 23. What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?a. 7.5b. 400,005.2 @c. 7d. 4 24. Which of the following is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a reference group that falls below a particular raw score?a. Standard scoresb. Percentile rank @c. Reference groupd. None of the above 25. The median is ______.a. The middle point @b. The highest numberc. The averaged. Affected by extreme scores 26. Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores?a. Mean @b. Medianc. Moded. Range 27. If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very low scores, then the distribution of scores would be _____.a. Positively skewedb. Negatively skewed @c. Not skewed at alld. Normal 29. Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set of numbers arranged in order of magnitude?a. Modeb. Median @c. Mean

d. Variance 30. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is __________.a. Negatively skewed @b. Positively skewed c. Symmetrically skewedd. Symmetrical 31. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?a. Mutually exclusiveb. Exhaustivec. Both A and B @d. Neither A nor B 1. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?a. SDb. c. rd. 0 3. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long runb. You can be “95% confident” that your interval

will include the population parameterc. You can be “5% confident” that your interval

will not include the population parameterd. All of the above statements are true @ 5. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?a. The coin is not fairb. There is a correlation in the populationc. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population @d. The defendant is guilty 6. The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group means?a. Three or moreb. Two or more @ 7. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?a. Sampling errorb. Sample errorc. Standard error @d. Simple error 8. Hypothesis testing is the key branches of the field of inferential statistics?a. True @



b. False 9. A ______ is a subset of a _________.a. Sample, population @b. Population, samplec. Statistic, parameterd. Parameter, statistic 10. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical characteristic of a population.a. Sample, populationb. Population, samplec. Statistic, parameter @d. Parameter, statistic 12. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals.a. 99%b. 95% @c. 50%d. none of the above 13. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or she is engaging in hypothesis testing?a. The alternative hypothesis @b. The null hypothesisc. Both the alternative and null hypothesisd. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis 14. When p<.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).a. True @b. False 15. When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a significance or alpha level of .05).a. Trueb. False @ 16. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.a. Confidence intervalsb. Confidence limits @c. Levels of confidenced. Margin of error 17. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false.a. Type I error

b. Type II error @c. Type III errord. Type IV error _____ results if you reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually true.a. Type I error @b. Type II error c. Type III errord. Type IV error

18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.a. Repeated sampling b. Small sample c. Large sample @ d. Large population 19. the probability of not committing a type II error is known as:a. power of the test @b. level of significancec. confidence leveld. degree of freedom

20. a test is known as ------------- if it test the hypothesis that whether the means of two groups are significantly different or not.a. two tailed test @b. one tailed testc. analysis of covarienced. one way ANOVA

22. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.a. Standard error @b. Sample standard deviationc. Replication errord. Meta error 25. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, a ____ error occurs.a. Type I @b. Type Ac. Type IId. Type B 26. A post hoc test is ___.a. A test to compare two or more means in one overall testb. A test to determine regression to the meanc. A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more groups @d. A follow-up test to the independent t-test



27. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical conclusions about populations based on sample data is referred to as ___________.a. Descriptive statisticsb. Inferential statistics @c. Sample statisticsd. Population statistics 28. A statistical test used to compare 3 or more group means is known as _____.a. One-way analysis of variance @b. Post hoc testc. t-test for correlation coefficientsd. Simple regression 30. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the:a. Significance levelb. Alpha levelc. Probability valued. Both a and b are correct @ 31. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least precise) for a particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?a. 99% @b. 95%c. 90%d. None of the above 32. As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals?a. They become more preciseb. They become more narrowc. They become widerd. Both a and b @ 33. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.a. Type I errorb. Type II error @c. Type A errord. Type B error 34. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis testing?a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejectedb. When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejectedd. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejectede. Both a and b are true @

36. Assuming innocence until “proven” guilty, a Type I error occurs when an innocent person is found guilty.a. True @b. False

37. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter.a. Standard errorb. Sampling error @c. Difference errord. None of the above 38. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis testing?a. Null @b. Alternativec. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis 39. A Type I error is also known as a ______.a. False positive @b. False negativec. Double negatived. Positive negative 40. A Type II error is also known as a ______.a. False positiveb. False negative @c. Double negatived. Positive negative 41. the formula of rank order correlation coefficient is.a. 1-6€D2/N(N2-1) b. 1+6€D2/N(N2-1) c. 1-6€D2/N2(N-1) d. none of the above

The number of basketball shoots is a type of:a) Discrete variables @b) Continuous variablesc) True variablesd) None of the above

The sum of deviation of all the score in a set from their mean is

a) Zero @b) Less than zeroc) More than zerod) One

To find out the mode from median and mean, the formula is

a) 3 median -2 mean @b) 3mean – 2 medianc) 3 median + 2 meand) 3 mean +2 median



In positively skewed distribution, the exact position of central tendency is

a) Mode < median < mean @b) mean < median < modec) Mode < mean < mediand) mean < mode < median

In negatively skewed distribution, the exact position of central tendency is

a) Mode > median > mean @b) mean > median > Mode c) Median > mode > meand) Mode > mean > median

The measures of variability taken about median isa) Quartile deviation @b) Rangec) Mean deviationd) SD

In a normal distribution the value of mean, median and mode are:

a) mean=median= mode @b) mean >median>modec) Mode > mean > mediand) Mode < median < mean

The lack of symmetricity of normal curve is know as

a) Kurtosisb) Skewness @c) Flatnessd) None of the above

The measure of flatness of normal curve is known as:-

a) Kurtosisb) Skewnessc) Binomial expansiond) None of the above

If the calculated value of t is greater than the tabulated value of t:-

a) The significant difference will occurb) The significant effect will occurc) The alternate hypothesis will acceptd) All the above

2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have

and to specifically help them solve local problems? a. action research @b. basic researchc. predictive researchd. orientational research3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study? a. you should completely trust a single research study.b. you should trust research findings after different researchers have found the same findings @c. neither a nor bd. both a and b4. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of research?a. basic research @b. action researchc. evaluation researchd. orientational research 5. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?a. rationalismb. deductive reasoning @c. inductive reasoningd. probabilistic 7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same variables but different people" is which of the following?a. explorationb. hypothesisc. Replication @d. empiricism8. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.a. rationalismb. deductive reasoningc. logicd. Empiricism @ 15. Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?a. Inductive @b. Deductivec. Imductived. Top down 18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?a. Deductive methodb. Inductive method @c. Hypothesis methodd. Pattern method



19. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?a. Deductive method @b. Inductive methodc. Hypothesis methodd. Pattern method 20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?a. Deductive methodb. Inductive method @c. Hypothesis methodd. Pattern method 4. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.a. a constantb. a variable @c. a cause-and-effect relationshipd. a descriptive relationship5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):a. categorical variableb. dependent variablec. independent variable @d. intervening variable6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical datab. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effectc. it uses the deductive scientific methodd. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment @ 8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect relationships?a. nonexperimental Researchb. experimental Research @9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?a. extraneous variables are never presentb. a positive correlation usually existsc. a negative correlation usually exists d. manipulation of the independent variable @10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot manipulate the independent variable.a. basic researchb. quantitative researchc. experimental researchd. causal-comparative and correlational research @11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?a. resistance to manipulation

b. manipulation of the independent variable @c. the use of open-ended questionsd. focuses only on local problems12.. A positive correlation is present when _______.a. two variables move in opposite directions.b. two variables move in the same direction. @c. one variable goes up and one goes downd. several variables never change.13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative method for one phase and the quantitative method for another phase is known as ______.a. action researchb. basic researchc. quantitative researchd. mixed method research @e. mixed model research15.. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?a. experimental researchb. historical research @c. replicationd. archival research16. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.a. causal-comparative researchb. experimental research @c. ethnographyd. correlational research17.. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?a. age, temperature, income, heightb. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performancec. gender, religion, ethnic groupd. both a and b @18.. What is the opposite of a variable?a. a constant @b. an extraneous variablec. a dependent variabled. a data set20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?a. ageb. annual incomec. grade point averaged. Religion @21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.a. variableb. methodc. Constant @d. control group

23. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools. She develops a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She believes that parent



involvement has an impact on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent involvement leads to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student achievement. Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study?

a. Manipulated variableb. Extraneous variablec. Confounding variabled. Mediating or intervening variable @

25. Which correlation is the strongest?a. +.10b. -.95c. +.90d. -1.00 @ 26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:a. Positive @b. Negativec. Perfectd. They are not correlated

6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the development of a research idea?a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis @b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, and hypothesisc. Research topic, hypothesis, research purpose, research question, research problemd. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose 9. Sources of researchable problems can include: a. Researchers’ own experiences as educatorsb. Practical issues that require solutionsc. Theory and past research d. All of the above @ 12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which of the following?a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interestb. To identify potential methodological problems in the research areac. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest

d. All of the above @ 17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:a. Cost and time required to conduct the studyb. Skills required of the researcherc. Potential ethical concernsd. All of the above @ 18. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally ______.a. Is made prior to the literature review b. Is made after the literature reviewc. Will help guide the research process d. b and c @ 22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?a. Introductionb. Method @c. Data analysisd. Discussion 23. Research hypotheses are ______.a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature b. Statements of predicted relationships between variablesc. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refutedd. b and c @ 25. A research plan _____.a. is a blue print of the studyb. is a conclusion of the studyc. is a thesis of the studyd. All of the above 27. The Introduction section of the research plana. Gives an overview of prior relevant studiesb. Contains a statement of the purpose of the studyc. gives boundaries and significance of the study d. All of the above @ 28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?a. Everyday lifeb. Practical issuesc. Past researchd. Theorye. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas @



a.They are assigned to experimental and control groups from a sample which is representative of the larger population.

b.They each have an equal chance of being assigned to either the experimental or control group.

c.They are assigned to experimental and control groups so that the groups differ on some critical variable before the experiment begins.

d.neither the experimenter nor the subject knows whether the subject is in the experimental or control group.

We wish to test the hypothesis that music improves learning. We compare test scores of students who study to music with those who study in silence. Which of the following is an extraneous variable in this experiment?a.

the presence or absence of music

b.

the students' test scores

c.

the amount of time allowed for the studying

d.

silence

An experiment is performed to see if background music improves learning. Two groups study the same material, one while listening to music and another without music. The independent variable isa. learning.b. the size of the group.c. the material studied.d. music.

Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the strongest relationship between two sets of variables?a. -0.98b. 0.90c. 0.00d. 1.20

The most powerful research tool is a (an)a. clinical study.b. experiment.c. survey.d. correlational study.

Students who do better in high school tend to do better in college. This is an example ofa. a negative correlation.

b. a zero correlation.c. a positive correlation.d. a perfect correlation.

In the traditional learning experiment, the effect of practice on performance is investigated. Performance is the __________ variable.a. independentb. extraneousc. dependentd. control

An advantage of the experimental method in physical education isa.the identification of a cause- and-effect relationship.

b.similar to the correlational method in that causality is determined.

c.that the surroundings are always similar to real life experiences.

d.that it is an informal way to investigate behavior.

A correlation coefficient of 0 means that there isa. a strong negative relationship between the two variables.

b. a strong positive relationship between the two variables.

c. a perfect positive relationship between the two variables.

d. no relationship between the two variables.

The independent variable in an experiment isa.the subject himself.b.

a measure of the subject's behavior.

c.the variable that the experimenter chooses to manipulate.

d.

any unwanted variable that may adversely affect the subject's performance.

A simple experiment has two groups of subjects calleda.the dependent group and the

independent group.b.

the extraneous group and the independent group.

c.the before group and the after group.d.

the control group and the experimental group.

Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the weakest relationship between two sets of variables?a. 0.08



b. -0.29c. 0.48d. -1.00A correlation coefficient of -1.09 indicates a(n)a. strong positive correlation.b. strong negative correlation.c. cause/effect relationship.d. error in computation.

Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local problems? a. action research @ b. basic research c. predictive research d. orientational researchThe development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of research?

a. basic research @ b. action research c. evaluation research d. orientational research

Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories? a. Deductive method @b. Inductive method c. Hypothesis method d. Pattern method

Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?a. Inductive @b. Deductivec. Imductived. Top down

A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):a. categorical variable b. dependent variable c.

independent variable d. intervening variable

Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect relationships?

a. nonexperimental Research b. experimental Research

What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research? a. extraneous variables are never present b. a positive correlation usually exists c. a negative correlation usually exists d. manipulation of the independent variable @A positive correlation is present when _______. a. two variables move in opposite directions. b. two variables move in the same direction.@

c. one variable goes up and one goes down d. several variables never change.

Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____? \a. experimental research b. historical research c. replication d. archival research

……. research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable. a. causal-comparative research b. experimental research c. ethnography d. correlational research

Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables? a. age, temperature, income, height b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance c. gender, religion, ethnic group d. both a and b @

What is the opposite of a variable? a. a constant @b. an extraneous variable c. a dependent variabled. a data set

Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable? a. age b. annual income c. grade point average d. religion @

In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________. a. variable b. method c. constant @ d. control group

Which correlation is the strongest? a. +.10 b. -.95 c. +.90 d. -1.00

The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:a. Positiveb. Negativec. Perfectd. They are not correlated



Which of the following statements are true? (Check one)I. Categorical variables are the same as qualitative variables. II. Categorical variables are the same as quantitative variables. III. Quantitative variables can be continuous variables.

a) I onlyb) II onlyc) III onlyd) I and III only

The catabolism is known as:(A)Destructive Metabolism(B)Destructive Metabolism(C) Anabolism(D) glycolysis

2. In which Metabolism ATP is consumed:(A) Catabolism(B) Anabolism(C) Photosynthesis(D) Digestion

3. Physiology is the study of:(A) Function of human body(B) structure of human body(C) 1954(D) 1955

4. Phosphagen means:(A) ATP+CP(B) CP(C) Glycogen(D) Pyruvic Acid

5. Which enzyme is used for the production of ATP from CP :

(A) Creatine Kinase (B)ATPase(C) APT Symthesase(D) Non of these

6. Glycolysis occurs in:(A) Mitochondria of the cell (B)Nucleus of the cell(C) cytoplasm of the cell(D) ribosome of the cell

7. Carrier of oxygen in the human body is:(A) Haemoglobin(B) WBC(C) Mitochondria(D) Non of these

8. the ATP produced in complete breakdown of 1 gm of Glycogen :

(A) 34(B) 36(C) 39(D) 38

9. Glycogen stored in:(A) liver(B) blood(C) kidney(D) stomach

10. The end product in anaerobic glycolysis is:(A) lactate(B) pyruvate(C) Co2(D) Acetyl CoA

11. NAD and FAD act as:(A) Electron carrier (B)energy giving(C) by product(D) Non of these

12. glycogenolysis is the formation of:(A) Glucose from gycogen(B) glycogen from glucose(C) Glycogen from lactic acid(D) ATP from Glycogen

13. cori cycle is the formation of:(A) Glucose from glycogen(B) glycogen from lactic acid(C) glycogen from pyruvic acid(D) acetyl CoA from pyruvate

14. The total ATP produced in ETC is:(A) 38(B) 39(C) 36(D) 34

15. Kreb’s cycle occur in:(A) cytoplasm(B) mitochondria(C) nucleus (D)blood

16. The main function of enzyme is:(A) speed up the reaction(B) electron carrier(C) energy giving(D) all of these

17. The breakdown of Fat is known as:(A) transamination(B) glycogenolysis(C) beta oxidation(D) fattylysis

18. ATP denotes as:(A) Adenine tri phosphate(B) adenomine tri phosphate(C) adenosine tetra phosphate(D) adenosine tri phosphate

19. The immediate source of energy is(A) ADP(B) ATP(C) Glucose(D) glycogen

20. The main source of energy is:Dr. Lalit M. Tiwari Assistant Professor (Department of Physical Education, Punjabi University Patiala Punjab)Mail add: [email protected] +91-9012761130 of 78


(A) Glucose(B) ATP (C) glycogen(D) Fat

21. Alactic system is:(A) anerobic(B) aerobic(C) oxidative(D) all of these

22. In the human body the store house of the energy is:

(A) cells(B) nerves(C) glands(D) spinal cord

23. Which is the rich source of Vitamin ‘C’ ?(A) Eggs(B) Milk(C) Citrus fruits(D) Green vegetables

24. Milk, eggs, fruits and green vegetables come under:

(A) Protective food (B)Body building food(C) Energy food(D) None of these

25. Which of the following is a communicable disease ?

(A) Beri-Beri(B) Scurvy(C) Malaria (D)None of these

26. Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency most commonly affects the power of:

(A) Eyes(B) Lungs(C) Heart(D) All of these

26. The term “metabolism”A. refers to all the chemical reactions that

occur in the body.B. includes the synthesis of complex

molecules from simpler molecules.C. includes the breakdown of complex

molecules into simpler molecules.D. includes anabolism and catabolism.E. is described by all of the above.

27. ATPA. is formed during the hydrolysis of ADP.B. is used by cells for the storage of

energy.C. represents the energy “currency” of all

cells.D. A and C.E. B and C.

28. The "basic unit of life" is: a. the atom b. water

c. the cell d. the chemical level of organization

29. Essential fatty acids are active in the promotion of:

(A) Growth(B) Development(C) Both of the above(D) None of these

1. Chromium supplementation might benefit the endurance athlete by ___. a. increasing 2,3 DPG b. increasing steady state metabolism c. improving maximal oxygen consumption d. improving carbohydrate metabolism 2. Iron supplementation for anemic subjects will improve ___. a. anaerobic power b. hemoglobin c. ventilation during maximum work d. WBC count 3. Phosphate loading is thought to ___. a. improve maximal oxygen uptake b. increase 2,3 DPG c. promote a better ventilatory response d. none of the above 4. An increase in the body fat stores is accomplished by an increase in ___. a. fat cell size b. fat cell number c. fat cell size to a critical level, then an increase in number d. fat cell number to a critical level, then an increase in size5. The respiratory centers are located in the ___. a. cerebral cortex b. medulla oblongata c. thalamus d. central thorax6. When the inspiratory center is triggered into action, the ___ space becomes ___ subatmospheric,



thus causing the ___ space to become subatmospheric and air moves ___ the lungs. a. intrapleural/less/intrapulmonary/out b. intrapulmonary/less/intrapleural/in c. intrapulmonary/more/intrapleural/out d. intrapleural/more/intrapulmonary/in 7. The cuff pressure at which the last sound can be detected is the ___ pressure. a. systolic b. diastolic c. mean d. mean arterial 8. The initial increase in heart rate with exercise appears to be a result of a(an) _____, and later during exercise a(an) _____. a. decrease in accelerator tone/increase in vagal tone b. withdrawal of vagal influence/increase in SNS tone c. increase in PsNS tone/increase in sympathetic tone d. none of the above 9. Following an aerobic training program, heart rate tends to be ___ at the same fixed work bout because ___ is generally increased. a. lower/body weight b. higher/stroke volume c. higher/mean arterial pressure d. lower/stroke volume 10. Maximal oxygen uptake ___ with increasing age. a. increases b. decreases c. does not change d. none of the above11. Which of the following changes in lung capacity may be observed in sedentary aging adults ___. a. decreased inspiratory volume b. decreased vital capacity c. increased residual volume d. all of the above

12. With immobilization, which of the following is responsible for the greatest change in skeletal muscle ___. a. decreased protein synthesis b. increased protein degradation c. decrease protein degradation d. increased protein synthesis13. Bicarbonate loading is proposed to have ergogenic potential for ___. a. skill-type sports b. strength-type sports c. middle distance sports d. endurance-type sports

14. Bicycle ergometers allow for an easier blood pressure measurement and blood sampling because ___.a. maximum physiological values are higher than when tested on a treadmill b. the pumping activity of the legs increases blood flow, thereby allowing easy blood collection c. the upper body remains relatively stable d. cycle is a familiar activity to the participants15. A primary reason to include stress testing in a medical evaluation is to ___. a. screen for possible silent coronary disease b. reproduce and document exercise-related chest symptoms c. detect an abnormal blood pressure response d. all of the above 16. Thickening of blood vessel wall lining, and a progressive narrowing of the vessels is referred to as ___. a. myocardial ischemia b. arteriosclerosis c. atherosclerosis d. diabetes 17. A transcient, reversible state of a lack of oxygen in the heart caused by reducted blood flow is termed ___. a. necrosis b. functional lesion c. muscle death d. ischemia 18. The following conditions are associated with an improvement in coronary artery blood flow ___. a. reduction in stress b. refrain from cigarette smoking c. a and b d. hypertension19. Regarding nitrates, which of the following is not true ___. a. little effect on heart rate and contractility b. decreased afterload c. increased preload d. reduces wall tension20. Beta-blockers are also referred to as ___ that ___ heart rate and ventricular contractility, and ___ myocardial oxygen consumption. a. adrenergic blocking agents/decrease/increase b. adrenergic blocking agents/decrease/decrease c. cholinergic blocking agents/increase/decrease d. none of the above21. Calcium-blockers ___ coronary arteries by ___ calcium entry. a. vasodilate/enhancing b. vasodilate/blocking c. have no effect on/stimulating d. none of the above



22. Among the following, which is true with regard to unstable angina ___. a. unprovoked pain b. pain that lasts 20 minutes or longer c. unpredictable pain d. all of the above 23. Myocardial infarctions usually occur in the ___ ventricle, thus involving the ___ coronary artery. a. right/transverse b. left/anterior descending c. right/collateral d. left/posterior descending24. The electrical impulse of the heart spreads from ___ via the ___. a. outside to inside/coronary arteries b. inside to outside/purkinje fibers c. middle to inside to outside/myocardium d. epicardial to subendocardial/bundle branches25. A narrowed pulse pressure with increasing workload indicates a low ___ and a very good likelihood of a ___ left ventricle. a. stroke volume/functionally good b. stroke volume/failing c. end-diastolic volume/poor d. end-systolic volume/healthy26. Increased ventricular contractility results in a(an) ___ in myocardial oxygen consumption. a. increase b. decrease c. no change d. none of the above27. When doing a squat exercise, which phase is considered eccentric for the quadriceps muscle group ___.a. when the hips, knees, and ankles undergo flexion b. when the hips, knees, and ankles undergo extension c. both flexion and extension are eccentric d. neither a nor b is eccentric

28. All of the following muscles flex the shoulder joint except ___.a. subscapularis b. biceps brachii c. coracobrachialis d. anterior deltoid29. Which of the following is the classic “gold standard” in assessing body composition?a. height and weight charts b. skinfolds c. hydrostatic weighing d. bioelectrical impedance30. Of the following types of resistance training protocols, which is static?a. circuit b. Isotonic

c. isometric d. pyramid31. The ___ component of the exercise prescription is used to prevent blood pooling in the lower limbs.a. muscular strength training b. cool-down c. warm-up d. heart rate training threshold32. During exercise, heart rate is linearly related to ___.a. age b. body weight c. oxygen consumption d. stroke volume33. The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each beat is ___.a. cardiac output b. stroke volume c. ejection fraction d. cardiac index34. The thigh skinfold measurement should be taken ___.a. two inches above the patella b. only with bioelectrical impedance c. with a horizontal fold on the anterior midline of the thigh d. with a vertical fold midway between the patella and the inguinal crease (line)35. With low resistance, high repetition, high speed training, muscle ___ is developed.a. strength b. endurance c. power d. none of the above36. The force arm of a third-class lever is always ___ the resistance arm.a. longer than b. shorter than c. equal to d. force times the force arm of 37. Regarding the following types of research, which one examines cause-and-effect relationships?a. qualitative b. descriptive c. longitudinal d. experimental38. In research, ___ variables are manipulated by the investigator.a. dependent b. representative c. independent d. control39. Researchers use correlational research because it allows them to ___.a. predict relationships b. establish cause-and-effect between two variables



c. provide proof to support conclusions d. all of the above40. Systolic blood pressure ___ with the transition from standing to lying down to head-down (45 degrees).a. decreases b. increases c. is unchanged d. increases, then decreases

Answer Key for Sample Questions

1. d 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. b

11. b 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. b

21. b 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. c 30. c

31. b 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. c

If enzymes could not be used during a reaction, which of the following could be added to a system to make the reaction occur faster? A) substrate B) energy, possibly in the form of heat C) product D) water E) none of the choices are correct

Answer: B

2. Which of the following is LEAST likely to enhance the activity of an enzyme? A) phosphorylation B) a vitamin C) 2-4 degree increase in temperature D) inorganic ions E) acid

Answer: E

3. Which form of energy is NOT correctly associated with an example? A) kinetic energy: fat molecules B) kinetic energy: movement of muscles C) chemical energy: glucose D) potential energy: water held behind a

dam E) potential energy: ATP

Answer: A

4. Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics?

A) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter.

B) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another.

C) Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter.

D) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs.

E) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.

Answer: B



5. Which best describes the second law of thermodynamics? A) Energy is not created nor destroyed,

but it can change into matter. B) Energy is not created nor destroyed,

but it can change from one energy form to another.

C) Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter.

D) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs.

E) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.

Answer: D

6. Which of the following is consistent with the laws of physics governing energy? A) When a liter of gasoline is burned in a

car engine, 100% of its energy goes into moving the car along the road.

B) You eat a "quarter-pounder" hamburger and assemble exactly a quarter-pound of additional body weight on your body.

C) Eventually sunlight that is absorbed on the earth returns to space as dispersed heat.

D) A calorie of sunlight becomes a calorie of plant tissue that, eaten by you, becomes a calorie of heat lost in muscle "power."

E) Chemical bonds are a case of converting energy to matter; breaking the bonds converts matter to energy.

Answer: C

7. While science is not yet able to describe the phenomenon of "thinking" in physical terms, we can be certain that it is a process involving the metabolism of brain cells. With positron emission tomography (PET scan) it is possible to inject short-lived isotopes and image the regions of the brain that have the most active metabolism during various mental activities. For different mental functions, different regions and amounts of nerve cells become active. However, A) the cellular energy expended in

"thinking" must be less than the chemical bond energy supplied in food to these brain cells.

B) "thought" cannot be linked to cell processes because energy is not related

to matter. C) since thoughts can occur over and

over, the requirement for a continual input of energy to prevent entropy does not apply to this cell activity.

D) "thinking" is beyond the scope of science to study.

E) None of these is correct

Answer: A



8. A living organism represents stored energy in the form of chemical compounds. When an organism dies, what happens to this stored energy? A) All chemicals immediately lose their

high-energy bonds. B) All molecules immediately degrade

into basic elements. C) All energy immediately leaves, and

that is one manifestation that the organism is dead.

D) The chemical compounds in cells lose their organization over time because there is no longer an input of energy to maintain the organized state.

E) The chemical compounds remain exactly intact and ready to start up again unless digested by a consumer or decay organism.

Answer: D

9. All of the biochemical pathways in a cell constitute A) coupling reactions. B) free energy. C) endergonic reactions only. D) exergonic reactions only. E) metabolism.

Answer: E

10. Endergonic reactions A) are always coupling reactions. B) have a negative ΔG and occur

spontaneously. C) can only occur if there is an input of

energy. D) have products with less free energy

than the reactants. E) All of the choices are correct.

Answer: C

11. Which of these statements is NOT a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? A) While the total amount of energy is

unchanged, the energy lost as heat is no longer useful to the cell in doing work.

B) Reactions that occur spontaneously are those that increase the amount of useful energy in a system.

C) The amount of disorder in the universe is always increasing.

D) To maintain organization of a cell, a

continual input of energy is required. E) The energy available to each

successive level in an ecosystem is progressively diminished.

Answer: B



12. Coupling occurs when the energy released by an exergonic reaction is A) used to drive another exergonic

reaction. B) used to drive an endergonic reaction. C) lost as nonusable heat to the

environment. D) used to decrease the entropy of the

universe. E) All of the choices are correct.

Answer: B

13. The subunits from which ATP is made are A) ADP and phosphate. B) FAD and NAD+. C) FAD and NADPH. D) ADP and FAD. E) ADP and NAD+.

Answer: A

14. ATP is considered to be A) an enzyme used widely in all kinds of

cells. B) a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate

different enzymes. C) a molecule that carries a great deal of

chemical energy in a chemical bond. D) the precursor of a high-energy

membrane-bounded protein. E) All of these

Answer: C

15. ATP is considered a high-energy compound because under cellular conditions, 7.3 kcal per mole of energy is released when a bond is broken between A) the base adenine and the sugar ribose. B) the adenosine and the phosphate

groups. C) the base adenine and the phosphate

groups. D) the adenosine diphosphate and the

third phosphate. E) All of the bonds release energy as

ATP is completely broken down.

Answer: D



16. While eating a container of yogurt, you have to leave, so you store the yogurt in the refrigerator. A day later you return and find the surface of the yogurt is no longer smooth but has broken into several liquified products. You correctly guess that enzymes from your saliva, via the spoon, have continued digesting the yogurt in your absence. What will happen over time? A) The reaction will soon stop because

the amount of saliva is small, and you would have to add more saliva to continue the degradation.

B) The reaction will continue indefinitely since the enzyme is not consumed by the reaction.

C) The reaction will continue until half is digested and then stop because the reaction between substrate and product will be balanced.

D) Absolutely no degradation of the yogurt will occur naturally unless in the presence of this enzyme.

E) The reaction will stop because the enzyme will be denatured in the refrigerator.

Answer: B

17. If there are twelve different intermediate products produced in the stages for production of a molecule in a cell, we can expect that there A) is one enzyme that carries this process

through to the end product. B) is one enzyme for degradation and

another enzyme for synthesis. C) may not be any enzymes involved if

this is a natural cell product. D) must be twelve different raw materials

combined in the cell by one enzyme. E) are about twelve enzymes, at least one

responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway.

Answer: E

18. Which of the following is characteristic of enzymes? A) They lower the energy of activation of

a reaction by binding the substrate. B) They raise the energy of activation of

a reaction by binding the substrate. C) They lower the amount of energy

present in the substrate. D) They raise the amount of energy

present in the substrate.

E) They react chemically with the substrate and gradually get used up in the process.

Answer: A



19. An enzyme is generally named by adding _____ to the end of the name of the ______. A) "-ose," cell in which it is found B) "-ase," cell in which it is found C) "-ose," substrate D) "-ase," substrate E) "-ase," coenzyme

Answer: D

20. Lactose is milk sugar, and humans produce substantial lactase enzyme to digest it when we are infants. However, we soon lose some or even all of our lactase after childhood. In such cases, undigested lactose passes to the lower intestine where bacteria break it down into lactic acid and CO2, causing painful gas bloating. This problem could be avoided by A) avoiding all dairy products containing

lactose. B) taking lactase enzyme tablets when

consuming lactose products. C) taking any enzyme tablets when

consuming dairy products. D) consuming lactose in tablet form. E) Both taking lactase enzyme and

avoiding all dairy products would correct the problem.

Answer: E

21. Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together? A) As the product is released, the enzyme

breaks down. B) The enzyme is like a key that fits into

the substrate, which is like a lock. C) The active site is permanently changed

by its interaction with the substrate. D) As the substrate binds to the enzyme,

the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.

E) All of these

Answer: D



22. Which statement is NOT true about the effects of various conditions on the activity of an enzyme? A) Higher temperatures generally

increase the activity of an enzyme up to a point.

B) Above a certain range of temperatures, an enzyme is denatured.

C) A change in pH can cause an enzyme to be inactivated.

D) An enzyme's activity is generally reduced by an increase in substrate concentration.

E) When sufficient substrate is available, the active site will nearly always be occupied.

Answer: D

23. Which term is derived from the Greek root words meaning "other space"? A) allosteric B) coenzyme C) vitamin D) enzyme E) chemiosmosis

Answer: A

24. Which statement is NOT true about enzyme inhibition? A) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor

binds to the active site of the enzyme. B) In noncompetitive inhibition, the

inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the substrate.

C) In irreversible inhibition, a poison binds to the enzyme so that it can never work again.

D) Most inhibitors act in a reversible fashion.

E) All of the statements are true.

Answer: E

25. A coenzyme is A) an ionic cofactor that interacts with an

enzyme to allow it to work. B) a protein cofactor that interacts with

an enzyme to allow it to work. C) a nonprotein organic cofactor that

interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.

D) an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.

E) a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.

Answer: C



26. Solar energy is stored in which molecules during photosynthesis? A) carbon dioxide B) water C) NAD D) glucose E) All of these

Answer: D

27. Which organelles contain functioning ATP synthase complexes in their membranes? A) Golgi complexes and lysosomes B) mitochondria and chloroplasts C) endoplasmic reticulum and vesicles D) vacuoles and vesicles E) mitochondria and endoplasmic

reticulum

Answer: B

28. What establishes the electrochemical gradient across a membrane to provide energy for ATP production? A) The chloroplast's electron transport

system provides the ions. B) Hydrogen ions naturally collect on the

outside of the organelle membrane. C) Hydrogen ions are pumped across the

membrane by carrier proteins. D) ATP synthase channels pump the

hydrogen ions to the outside of the membrane.

E) All of the choices establish the electrochemical gradient.

Answer: C

29. Which of the following is NOT a form of potential energy? A) glucose manufactured by a plant B) water behind a dam C) glycogen in an animal's liver D) ATP in a cell E) All of these choices are a form of

potential energy

Answer: E



30. Diffuse, disorganized forms of energy A) is given off as heat. B) increase entropy. C) are not usable to do work. D) are formed during energy

transformations E) All the choices are true.

Answer: E

31. Coupling of endergonic and exergonic reactions within cells A) permits biological reactions to proceed

at temperatures consistent with life. B) uses energy released by one reaction

to fuel the other reaction. C) utilizes ATP to carry energy between

the exergonic and endergonic reactions.

D) is a common process used by both plants and animals.

E) All of the choices are correct.

Answer: E

32. ATP A) supplies energy needed to synthesize

macromolecules within the cell. B) supplies energy required to pump

substances across the plasma membranes.

C) is the energy source for muscles to contract.

D) supplies the energy needed for cells to divide.


Answer: E

33. Of the following, which process will NOT denature or destroy a protein? A) heating to temperatures above 100

degrees Centigrade B) subjecting the protein to strong acids

or strong bases C) subjecting the protein to digestive

enzymes D) dissolving the protein in distilled water E) All of these will destroy the protein.

Answer: D



34. If a reaction results in one molecule losing an electron and a second molecule gaining that electron, the electron donor is said to be A) reduced. B) transformed. C) oxidized. D) inhibited. E) None of these

Answer: C

35. In the electron transport systems of chloroplasts and mitochondria, A) the system consists of a series of

membrane bound carriers that transfer electrons from one carrier to another.

B) high energy electrons enter the system and low energy electrons exit the system.

C) energy release occurs when the electron transfers from one carrier to another.

D) released energy is used to pump protons across a membrane.


Answer: E

36. Which statement does NOT describe a chemical equation? A) The products are placed to the left of

the arrow. B) The reactants are placed to the left of

the arrow. C) The arrow represents the direction in

which the reaction proceeds. D) Atoms must be balanced on both sides

of the arrow. E) It represents a chemical change

involving energy.

Answer: A



37. From the table below of free energy exchange, it is obvious that

A) photosynthesis and cellular respiration have essentially the same amount of free energy generated or released.

B) free energy is released in all of these reactions except photosynthesis.

C) where the free energy is negative, formation of the products less complex than the reactants is more likely.

D) All of the choices are true. E) None of the choices is true.

Answer: D



Use the following to answer questions 38-40:

38. The above process takes place in the membranes of what organelles? A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) nuclei D) ribosomes E) both mitochondria and chloroplasts

Answer: E

39. Two globular proteins are represented in the above diagram. What is the term for the protein on the right? A) ATP synthase B) Electron carrier C) Proton carrier D) Electron acceptor E) sodium-potassium pump

Answer: A



40. The process illustrated above is known as A) photosynthesis B) respiration C) chemiosmosis D) transcription E) protein synthesis

Answer: C

Use the following to answer questions 41-43:

41. The above graph shows the rate of reaction of an enzyme at various temperatures. What is the ideal functioning temperature for this enzyme? A) 10 degrees B) 30 degrees C) 40 degrees D) 50 degrees E) 60 degrees

Answer: C



42. What statement is a correct conclusion about the rate of reaction as indicated by the graph? A) The rate increases steadily until about

40 degrees and then levels off. B) The rate increases steadily throughout

the temperature range. C) The rate of reaction decreases

throughout the temperature range. D) The rate increases steadily then

decreases steadily after reaching an optimum temperature.

E) None of these statements is correct.

Answer: D

43. What is the most likely explanation for the data represented by this graph? A) The enzyme works rapidly at first but

then gets used up in the reaction after about 50 degrees.

B) The enzyme is running out of substrate and is therefore slowing down.

C) The enzyme speeds its collisions with the substrate as it warms but begins to denature past a certain temperature.

D) The enzyme could begin to speed up its rate again after 65 degrees.

E) The enzyme is unstable unlike most enzymes that can work well across a range of temperatures.

Answer: C



1. The first recorded Olympic Games were held in the year:

(A) 677 B.C.(B) 776 B.C.(C) 666 B.C.(D) 567 B.C.

2. Olympic Flag was hoisted first time in the year:

(A) 1920(B) 1900(C) 1908(D) 1912

3. All India Council of Sports came into existence in the year:

(A) 1952(B) 1953(C) 1954(D) 1955

4. The diameter of the shotput circle is:(A) 2.5 metres(B) 2.135 metres(C) 2 metres(D) 2.55 meters

5. Learning is a process of:(A) Acquiring new skills(B) Observing new skills(C) Both of the above(D) Non of these

6. Cardiac muscles are:(A) Voluntary muscles(B) Involuntary muscles(C) Striped muscles (D)None of these

7. Carrier of oxygen in the human body is:(A) RBC(B) WBC(C) Mitochondria(D) Non of these

8. The highest exclusive sports award of Govt. of India is:

(A) Padamashri Award(B) Vikram Award(C) Arjuna Award(D) Khel Rattan

9. ‘Tennis elbow’ injury can occur to:(A) Tennis players(B) Badminton players(C) Squash players (D)All of these

10. Sprain is injury to:(A) Bone(B) Muscle

(C) Ligament(D) Tendon

11. Body-fat is measured with the help of:(A) Flexometer(B) Skinfold caliper(C) Tensiometer(D) Non of these

12. Circumduction is a movement performed at:

(A) Knee joint(B) Elbow joint(C) Shoulder joint(D) None of these

13. The decathlon event is completed within:(A) 1 day(B) 3 days(C) 2 days(D) None of these

14. For equilibrium to exist the centre of gravity of a body must fall:

(A) Away from its base(B) Within its base(C) At the edge of its base(D) At the top of its base

15. Climbing stairs on the toes, rope skipping and cycling are some of the corrective exercises for:(A) Flat foot(B) Kyphosis(C) Lordosis(D) Non of these

16. Eysenck classified personality into:(A) 6 dimensions(B) 16 dimensions(C) 4 dimensions(D) 3 dimensions

17. Law of Readiness, Law of Exercise and Law of Effect are propounded by:

(A) Thorndike(B) Cattle(C) Pavlov(D) Non of these

18. Anxiety is classified into the following no. of categories:

(A) 2(B) 4(C) 5(D) 3

19. The National body which controls track & field in India

(A) IAAF(B) I.O.A.(C) AAAA(D) AFI

20. 84 - ( - 17) is equal to:



(A) 101(B) 84(C) 17(D) 67

21. Lakshmibai College of Physical Education, Gwalior was established in the year:

(A) 1958(B) 1957(C) 1956(D) 1960

22. The first training college of Physical Education in India is:

(A) T.I.P.E., Kandivali(B) L.N.I.P.E., Gwalior(C) Y.M.C.A., Madras(D) Christian College, Lucknow

23. Which is the rich source of Vitamin ‘C’ ?(A) Eggs(B) Milk(C) Citrus fruits(D) Green vegetables

24. Milk, eggs, fruits and green vegetables come under:

(A) Protective food (B)Body building food(C) Energy food(D) None of these

25. Which of the following is a communicable disease ?

(A) Beri-Beri(B) Scurvy(C) Malaria (D)None of these

26. Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency most commonly affects the power of:

(A) Eyes(B) Lungs(C) Heart(D) All of these

27. A sprinter is disqualified when he:(A) takes two foul starts(B) takes one foul start(C) takes three foul start(D) falls in the track

28. Essential fatty acids are active in the promotion of:

(A) Growth(B) Development(C) Both of the above(D) None of these

29. ‘AIDS’ Transmission mode is:(A) Sexual(B) Mother to child(C) Blood(D) All of these

30. The adaptation processes in sports training are set in motion only when it is:

(A) Optimum load(B) Critical load(C) Overload(D) Underload

31. It is called Passive flexibility when the movement is done:

(A) By slow stretch and hold method(B) By the athlete himself(C) With external help(D) Without external help

32. The longest cycle of training in a year is:(A) Meso cycle(B) Macro cycle(C) Metro cycle(D) Olympic cycle

33. Ideo-motor training is also known as:(A) Mental Rehearsal(B) Isometric training(C) Iso-Kinetic training(D) Isotonic training

34. While arranging competitions, it must be ensured that majority of these fall in:

(A) Loading period(B) Preparatory period(C) Competition period(D) Scattered throughout the year

35. The total of the frequency column is indicated by the word/letter:

(A) N(B) F(C) C1(D) None of these

36. The most reliable central tendency is:(A) Mean(B) Mode(C) Median

(D) Standard Deviation37. Motor educability is:

(A) Ability to learn motor skills(B) Ability to learn athletic skills(C) Ability to learn fundamental skills(D) None of these

38. Criteria for test selection is:(A) Reliability(B) Validity(C) Objectivity(D) All of these

39. The height of bench in Harward Step test is:

(A) 15 to 17 inches(B) 18 to 20 inches(C) 21 to 23 inches(D) All of these

40. Anthropometer means:(A) Machine to measure height(B) Machine to measure width



(C) Both of the above(D) None of the above

41. Sports management is:(A) An Art(B) A Science(C) Art and Science both(D) None of these

42. The basic functions of management are:(A) Planning and organization(B) Directing and programme

development(C) Personnel and financial

management (D) All of the above43. Blueprint of the competition plan is called:

(A) Technique(B) Tactics(C) Strategy(D) Skill

44. Which of the following is the first step in a sports programme ?

(A) Directing(B) Staffing(C) Planning(D) Budgeting

45. A leader must possess the following qualities except one given below:

(A) Missionary zeal(B) Commitment(C) Selfishness(D) Foresight

46. Which of the following is not one of the five components of health-related fitness?

A) speed.B) body compositionC) muscular enduranceD) flexibility

47. The body adjusts to lower levels of activity by losing fitness over time, a training principle known as:

A) overload B)specificity

C) reversibilityD) none of the above

48. As an individual gains muscle mass, which of the following adaptations occurs?

A) decreased stroke volumeB) increased metabolismC) increased resting heart rateD) decreased energy use

49. Which of the following is not part of the cardiorespiratory system?

A) alveoliB) capillaries

C) lymph nodesD) venae cavae

50. The right side of the heart pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs in what is referred to as:

A) systemic circulation B)pulmonary circulation

C) a systoleD) a diastole

51. All of the following are characteristics of arteries except that they:

A) carry blood away from the heartB) carry oxygenated blood in the

systemic circulationC) return blood to the heartD) have thick elastic walls

52. Pushing on an immovable object is an example of which type of training?

A) isotonic exerciseB) isometric exerciseC) isokinetic exerciseD) concentric exercise

53. During weight training, the muscle that contracts is known as the:

A) antagonistB) agonistC) eccentricD) involuntary

54. Health problems associated with obesity include:

A) hypertension B)impaired immune function

C) breathing disordersD) all of the above

55.. Individuals with hypertension should follow which of these recommendations?

A) hold their breath while exercisingB) exercise at a high intensityC) increase intensity graduallyD) none of the above

56. Cycling on Monday, jogging on Wednesday, and swimming on Saturday is an example of:

A) cycle trainingB) cross-trainingC) periodizationD) interval training

57. Our genes influence all of the following except:



A) body size and shape B)our eating patterns

C) the ease with which weight is gainedD) where on the body extra fat is stored

58. The energy required to maintain vital body functions is known as:

A) resting heart rateB) stroke volumeC) respirationD) resting metabolic rate

59. Which of the following is considered a major risk factor for CVD that cannot be

changed?A) family historyB) chronic hostilityC) stressD) tobacco use

60. The greenhouse effect is related to:A) acid rainB) air quality indexC) global warmingD) temperature inversion

61. Patella A) ribs

B) hipbone C) kneecap

D) skull 62. Involuntary muscle found in blood vessel

walls. A) Smooth muscle

B)Sensory nerves C) Venous return

D)Vasodilate 63. Increase in size of heart muscle wall.

A)pH level B)Sedentary

C)Hypertrophy D)Receptors

64. The ability to change the position of you body and control the movements

A)lifting B)flexibility

C)time D)agility

65. The world record of 100 meter sprint is:A) 9.65 sec.

B)9.69 sec. C) 9.66 sec.

D) 9.71 sec.

66. Who defeated Andy Roddick in the Wimbledon 2009 final?

A)Rafael Nadal B)Andy Murray

C)Andy RoddickD)Roger Federer

67. A measurement tool of the energy value of food.

A) Calories B)Calcium

B)copper D)fluoride

68. Only Allow One Direction Of Movement A) Hinge Joints

B)Bicep C)B.O.S.S

D)Overload 69. Was invented in the United States

A)Baseball B)Soccer

C)Gymnasium D)Basketball

70. Changing your training from 3 to 4 sessions per week

A)Increasing Duration B)Increasing Frequency

C)Evaluating Training D)Increasing Intensity

71. A method of training that involves training at a variety of paces, or over varied terrain

A)Interval Training B)Fartlek Training

C)Evaluating Training D)Monitoring Training

72. A standardised test for stamina which involves running as far as you can in a set time

A)Training Zone B)12-Minute Cooper Run

C)Monitoring Training D)Split Times

73. An instrument used to measure the movements and angles created by joints.

A)Emetic B)Amnesia

C)Goniometer D)Anterior

74. Who is the top ranked female tennis player in the world

A) Serena WilliamsB)Ana Ivanovic

C) Dinara Safina D)Venus Williams

75. Which of the following should be the primary objective of an intramural program?

A) Involving the greatest possible number of students in the program



B) Providing for well-balanced competition in individual and team sports throughout the program

C) Stimulating the interest of spectators and gaining newspaper coverage of intramural events

D) Providing a wide variety of activities for teams and for individuals

QAns

QAns

QAns

QAns

QAns

QAns

1 B 14 B 2

7 B 41 C

54

D

66

D

2 A 15 A 2

8 C 42 D

55

C

67

A

3 C 16

C

29 D 4

3 C 56

B

68

A

4 B 17 A 3

0 C 44 C

57

B

69

D

5 A 18 A 3

1 C 45 C

58

D

70

B

6 B 19 D 3

2 B 46 A

59

A

71

B

7 A 20 A 3

3 A 47 C

60

C

72

B

8 C 21 B 3

4 C 48 B 6

1C 7

3C

9 D 22 C 3

5 A 49 C 6

2A 7

4C

10 C 2

3 C 36 A 5

0 B 63

C 75

A

11 B 2

4 C 37 A

51

C

64

D

12 C 2

5 C 38 D

52

B

65

B

13

C 26

A 39

B 5

B

3

40 C

1. Individual skeletal muscle cells are known as

a. Myotomesb. Myofilamentsc. muscle fibersd. myofibrils

2. All of the following are functions of skeletal muscle tissue except

a. cooling of the bodyb. body movementsc. maintenance of postured. storage and movement of materials

3. The three types of muscle tissue area. voluntary, involuntary, and cardiacb. skeletal, cardiac, and smoothc. striated, skeletal, and voluntaryd. striated, unstriated, and rough

4. The layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle is the

a. Sarcolemmab. Perimysiumc. Endomysiumd. Epimysium

5. What is the cell membrane of a muscle fiber called?

a. endomysiumb. sarcomerec. sarcolemmad. myofibril

6. Each of the following is an attribute of skeletal muscle fibers except

a. lack striationsb. long and large in diameterc. possess transverse tubulesd. multinucleated

7. A thick, fibrous connective tissue cord that attaches a muscle to a bone is called

a. a ligamentb. a tendonc. a raphed. an aponeurosis

8. What are the principal proteins of muscle contraction?

a. actin and myoglobinb. actin and myosinc. myoglobin and collagend. myosin and myoglobin

9. Which structures extend into the sarcoplasm as a network of deep invaginations of the sarcolemma?



a. transverse tubulesb. sarcoplasmic reticulac. terminal cisternaed. cross-bridges

10. The functional contractile units of a skeletal muscle fiber are the

a. Myofilamentsb. sarcomeresc. muscle fibersd. myofibrils

11. A nerve impulse triggers the release of what chemical at a neuromuscular junction?

a. adenosine triphosphate (ATP)b. acetylcholinesterase (AChE)c. acetylcholine (ACh)d. none of the above

12. Which term describes the expanded tip of an axon at a neuromuscular junction?

a. synaptic vesicleb. motor end platec. synaptic cleftd. synaptic knob

13. Which part of a sarcomere contains entire thick filaments and lateral end regions with overlapping thin filaments?

a. M lineb. A bandc. H zoned. I band

14. When a muscle fiber contracts, what slides toward the center of each sarcomere?

a. the thin filaments of actinb. the thick filaments of myosinc. both a and bd. neither a nor b

15. A reduction in muscle size, tone, and power is called

a. atrophyb. hypertrophyc. a spasmd. hyperplasia

16. A muscle impulse travels deep into the muscle fiber along

a. the sarcolemmab. T-tubule membranesc. the endomysiumd. myofibrils

17. A single motor neuron, the muscle fibers it controls, and the neuromuscular junctions in between constitute a

a. sarcomereb. motor end platec. ssynaptic terminald. motor unit

18. When stimulated by a muscle impulse, what do the terminal cisternae release into the sarcoplasm?

a. sodium ions, Na+

b. calcium ions, Ca2+

c. adenosine triphosphate, ATPd. acetylcholine, ACh

19. Types of skeletal muscle fibers includea. fastb. intermediatec. slowd. all of the above

20. Muscle fibers are arranged concentrically in

a. pennate musclesb. circular musclesc. convergent musclesd. parallel muscles

21. Types of pennate muscles include which of the following?

a. multipennateb. bipennatec. unipennated. all of the above

22. The most common levers in the body are ____________ levers.

a. first-classb. second-classc. third-classd. all of the above

23. Most muscles are attached at one end to a less movable point known as the

a. insertionb. tendonc. origind. belly

24. A muscle is classified functionally as an agonist when

a. it is the main muscle that contracts to produce a particular movement

b. it contracts together with another muscle to assist in a given action

c. its contraction prevents movement and thereby stabilizes a joint

d. its actions work in opposition to the movement being considered

25. Which of the following describes a first-class lever?

a. the fulcrum is situated between the force and the resistance

b. the resistance is located between the fulcrum and the applied force

c. a force is applied between the resistance and the fulcrum

d. none of the above26. All of the following characteristics are

used in naming muscles excepta. actionb. sizec. shaped. colour



27. The deltoid muscle is named on the basis of its

a. actionb. sizec. shaped. attachment

28. Of the following terms used in muscle names, which one refers to a specific body region?

a. fibularisb. gluteusc. trapeziusd. quadriceps

29. Which of muscle structures proceeds from smaller to larger in diameter?

a. myofilament, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril

b. fascicle, myofibril, muscle fiber, myofilament

c. myofilament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle

d. myofibril, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofilament

30. Skeletal muscle contraction involves which of the following events?

a. a nerve impulse followed by a muscle impulse

b. release of calcium ions from terminal cisternae

c. tropomyosin moving to expose active sites on actin molecules

d. all of the above

31. Of the following, which is the first to occur during muscle contraction?

a. actin slides past myosinb. sarcomeres shortenc. crossbridges link thick and thin

filamentsd. myofibrils shorten and pull on

ends of sarcolemma32. In the sliding filament mechanism,

crossbridges area. myosin heads that bind to active

sites on a thin filamentb. actin heads that bind to active sites

on another thin filamentc. chemical bonds that pull a thick

filament toward the center of a sarcomere

d. all of the above33. What actually shortens when a muscle

fiber contracts?a. thick and thin filamentsb. A bands, M lines, and Z discsc. sarcomeres, H zones, and I bandsd. both b and c

34. Rigor mortis demonstrates that skeletal muscle tissue

a. normally requires energy to end as well as to start a contraction

b. can survive and function for some time after the heart stops beating

c. maintains powerful contractions even with no ATP, until autolysis occurs

d. all of the above35. For any given muscle, the total force

exerted by a contraction depends ona. the length of each muscle fiberb. the number of activated motor

unitsc. the type of contractiond. the degree of muscle tone prior to

contraction36. Physical conditioning can

effectively decrease the proportion of which type of muscle fibers?

a. slowb. intermediatec. fastd. none of the above

37. Reflecting their different needs, fast muscle fibers contain large ____________ reserves whereas slow fibers contain the oxygen-carrying pigment ____________.

a. glycogen; myoglobinb. fat; hemoglobinc. myoglobin; glycogend. hemoglobin; myoglobin

38. The "muscular system" includes muscles in which of these locations?

a. in the wall of the stomachb. around the pupil of the eyec. surrounding the orbitd. in the wall of the heart

39. In terms of ability to produce ATP, cardiac muscle fibers are most like

a. fast skeletal muscle fibersb. intermediate skeletal muscle fibersc. slow skeletal muscle fibersd. smooth muscle fibers

40. Aging affects the muscular system in all of the following ways except

a. decrease in diameter of skeletal muscle fibers

b. decrease in amount of connective tissue within muscles

c. decrease in number of myofibrils and myofilaments in existing muscle fibers

d. decrease in ability to recover from disease or injury



41. Which of the following characterizes both skeletal and smooth muscle cells?

a. voluntary controlb. multinucleatedc. striatedd. excitable

ANS:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12C A B D C A B B A B C D16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27B D B D B D C C A A D C31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41C A C D B C A C C B D

1. Which of the following statement is INCOREECT about hypnosis?

A. Hypnosis is not the same as sleepB. Hypnosis can increase the accuracy of

memoryC. Hypnosis is not a dangerous procedure if

applied by a qualified clinicianD. Hypnosis does not precipitate a literal re-

experiencing of childhood events

2. Which of the following is an example of psychological skill?

A. ImageryB. Progressive relaxationC. MeditationD. General self-awareness

3. Self confidence, attentional control, arousal control and anxiety control are

the examples of ____________.A. Psychological methodsB. Psychological skillsC. Psychological inventoriesD. Psychological problems

4. Which of the following technique is used when a Psychologist wants to learn

about athlete’s attitude towards Sport Psychology?

A. InterviewB. Performance profileC. ObservationD. Psychological inventories

5. Which of the following statement is INCOREECT about hypnosis?A. Hypnosis is not the same as sleep

B. Hypnosis can increase the accuracy of memory

C. Hypnosis is not a dangerous procedure if applied by a qualified clinician

D. Hypnosis does not precipitate a literal re-experiencing of childhood events

6. Attitudes are made up of which three components?A. Cognitive, social, behaviouralB. Cognitive, affective, behavioural +C. Social, normative, behaviouralD. Normative, cognitive, behavioural

In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are allowed to sleep either 4 or 8 hours on each of three consecutive nights. This reseach is an example of:a. naturalistic observationb. survey researchc. a case studyd. an experimente. a correlational study +

28.) a research method in which an investigator manipulates factors that potetnially produce a particular behavior is called a(n):a. surveyb. experiment +c. case studyd. naturalistic observatione. correlation method

32.) In order to provide a baseline against whcih they can evaluate the effects of a specific treatment, experiementers make use of a(n):a. dependent variableb. random samplec. independent variabled. control condition +e. experimental condition

36.) When Mr. Adams calculated his students' algebra test scores, he noticed that two students had extremely low scores. Which measure of central tendency is affected most by the scores of these two students?a. mean +b. standard deviationc. moded. mediane. range

40. Psychological differences between the genders are:a. of little interest to contemporary psychologists



b. simply reflections of biological differences between the sexes +c. no longer evident in contemporary western societiesd. of little relevance to real lifee. far outweighed by gender similarities

Q.1) What nutrient is needed for growth?

A.CarbohydrateB.ProteinC.PepsinD.Vitamin DE.Iron

Q.2) What products are needed for aerobic respiration?

A.Glucose + OxygenB.Glucose + CarbohydrateC.Carbon Dioxide + OxygenD.Glucose + Lactic AcidE.Glucose + IronQ.3) How to calculate male's MHR?

A.220 / ageB.220 + ageC.230 - ageD.220 - ageE.220 x age

Q.4) What are the by products in anaerobic respiration?

A.Glucose + Carbon dioxideB.Oxygen + GlucoseC.Lactic acid + Carbon DioxideD.Lactic acid + oxygenE.Oxygen + Calcium

Q.5) Where was 1936 Olympic held?

A.BerlinB.AthensC.ParisD.TokyoE.Melbourne

1. What is the essence of education?A. The essence of education is reason and intuition,B. The essence of education is growth.C. The essence of education is knowledge and skills.D. The essence of education is choice,2. What is the nature of the learner?A. The learner is an experiencing organism.B. The learner is a unique, free choosing, and responsible creature made up of intellect and emotion.C. The learner is a rational and intuitive being.D. The learner is a storehouse for knowledge and skills, which, once acquired, can later be applied and used.3. How should education provide for the needs of man?A. The students need a passionate encounter with the perennial problems of life; the agony and joy of Love,reality of choice, anguish of freedom consequences of actions and the inevitability of death.B. Education allows for the needs of man when it inculcates the child with certain essential skills andknowledge, which all men should possess.C. The one distinguishing characteristic of man is intelligence. Education should concentrate on developing theintellectual reeds of students.D. Since the needs of man are variable, education should concentrate on developing the individual differences instudents.4. What should be the environment of education?A. Education should possess an environment where the student adjusts to the material and social world, as itreally exists,B. The environment of education should be life itself, where students can experience living—not prepare for it.C. The environment of education should be one that encourages the growth of free, creative individuality, notadjustment to group thinking nor the public norms.



D. Education is not a true replica of life, rather, it is an artificial environment where the child should bedeveloping his intellectual potentialities and preparing for the future.5. What should be the goal of education?A. Growth, through the reconstruction of experience, is the nature, and should be the open-ended goal, ofeducation,B. The only type of goal to which education should lead is to the goal of truth, which is absolute, universal, andunchanging.C. The primary concern of education should be with the development of the uniqueness of individual students.D. The goal of education should be to provide a framework of knowledge for the student against which newtruths can be gathered and assimilated.6. What should be the concern of the school?A. The school should concern itself with man’s distinguishing characteristic his mind, and concentrate ondeveloping rationality.B. The school should provide an education for the ‘whole child,” centering its attention on all the needs andinterests of the child.C. The school should educate the child to attain the basic knowledge necessary to understand the real worldoutside.D. The school should provide each student with assistance in his journey toward self-realization.7. What should be the atmosphere of the school?A. The school should provide for group thinking in a democratic atmosphere that fosters cooperation rather thancompetition.B. The atmosphere of the school should be one of authentic freedom where a student is allowed to find his owntruth and ultimate fulfillment through non-conforming choice making.C. The school should surround its students with “Great Books” and foster individuality in an atmosphere ofintellectualism and creative thinking.D. The school should retain an atmosphere of mental discipline; yet incorporate innovative techniques, whichwould introduce the student to a perceptual examination of the realities about him.8. How should appropriate learning occur?A. Appropriate learning occurs as the student freely engages in choosing among alternatives while weighing

personal responsibilities and the possible consequences of his actions,B. Appropriate learning takes place through the experience of problem-solving projects by which the child is ledfront practical issues to theoretical principles (concrete-to-abstract).C. Appropriate learning takes place as certain basic readings acquaint students with the world’s permanencies,inculcating them in theoretical principles that they will later apply in life (abstract-to-concrete).D. Appropriate learning occurs when hard effort has been extended to absorb and master the prescribed subjectmatter.9. What should be the role of the teacher?A. The teacher should discipline pupils intellectually through a study of the great works in literature where theuniversal concerns of man have best been expressed.B. The teacher should present principles and values and the reasons for them, encouraging students to examinethem in order to choose for themselves whether or not to accept them.C. The teacher should guide and advise students, since the children’s own interests should determine what theylearn, not authority nor the subject matter of the textbooks.D. The teacher, the responsible authority, should mediate between the adult world and the world of the childsince immature students cannot comprehend the nature and demands of adulthood by themselves.10. What should the curriculum include?A. The curriculum should include only that which has survived the test of time and combines the symbols andideas of literature, history, and mathematics with the sciences of the physical world.B. The curriculum should concentrate on teaching students how to manage change through problem solvingactivities in the social studies. . empirical sciences and vocational technology.C. The curriculum should concentrate on intellectual subject matter and include English, languages, history,mathematics, natural sciences, the fine arts, and also philosophy.D. The curriculum should concentrate on the humanities; history, literature, philosophy, and art—wheregreater depth into the nature of man and his conflict with the world are revealed.



11. What should be the preferred teaching method?A. Projects should be the preferred method whereby the students can be guided through problem-solvingexperiences.B. Lectures, readings, and discussions should be the preferred methods for training the intellect.C. Demonstrations should be the preferred method for teaching knowledge and skills.D. Socratic dialogue (drawing responses from a questioning conversation) should be the preferred method forfinding the self.Scoring the TestThis test is self-scoring. Circle the answer you selected for each of the questions checked on the test(Table A—I). Total the number of circles below each column.Progressivism Perennialism Essentialism Existentialism1 B A C D2 A C D B3 D C B A4 B D A C5 A B D C6 B A C D7 A C D B8 B C D A9 C A D B10 B C A D11 A B C D

One of the subdivisions of Philosophy is “Metaphysics”, which questions:

A. What is truth?B. What is real? +C. What is value?D. How to think clearly?

301. The statement by the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi that a new education would made so as to "Prepare Indians for the 21st Century in the year(a) 1990 (b) 1985(c) 1987 (d) 1991302. Who had observed that the art of education would never attain clearness in itself without philosophy? He was(a) M.K. Gandhi (b) Fichte(c) John Dewey (d) Gautam Buddha303. The opinion that "our aim should be to produce men who possess both culture and expect knowledge" given by(a) Prof. A.H. Whitehead(b) Montessori(c) Froebel(d) All of the above

304. How do we get knowledge and how can we be sure it is true and not error? This area of philosophy is called(a) Neurology(b) Epistemology(c) Beyond Philosophy(d) None of the above305. All levels of education are provided from the nursery to the University stage in(a) Ashram at Pondicherry(b) Brahmo Samaj(c) Shantiniketan(d) Arya Samaj306. In today's society school should give(a) Ornamental base(b) Vocational base(c) Both a & b(d) None of the above307. Following attributes would correctly define learning(a) Understanding, imagination and workmanship(b) Change of behaviour, practice and experience(c) Belief, creativity, and endurance(d) Intution, intelligence and memorisation308. The 1968 national policy teacher education adopted by the Indian Government laid stress on the following aspects of teacher's education(a) Adequate emoluments and academic freedom for teachers.(b) Travel allowance and family pensions for teachers(c) In-service training and correspondence education for teachers.(d) Promotion and retirement facilities for teachers.309. If we believe in the dualistic theory of the mind versus body nature of man, have to arrive at the econsequence that(a) Education is mechanisation in process and theoretical in development(b) Learning is purely a matter of material changes in the behaviour of man(c) Learning an education should cater to observable behaviour of man(d) Education is purely a matter of mental training and development of the self.310. Swami Vivekanand was famous for speaking on(a) Vedas(b) Medicians(c) Gita(d) Vedanta311. Article 45 under the Directive Principles of State policy in the Indian Constitution, provides for(a) Rights of minorities to establish educational institutions(b) Free and compulsory primary education(c) Education for weaker sections of the country



(d)Giving financial assistance to less advanced states312. Vivekanand was a(a) Religious guru(b) Poet(c) Philosopher(d) All of the above313. The National Educational Policy of 1979, recommended also about the public schools(a) their uniquencies and traditions have to preserved the interests of the best talents of the country(b) they should be brought under laws and regulations of the government public education system(c) they must be allowed the autonomy that was bestowed on them by the past system of education(d) suitable ratio has to be maintained for admission of middle class and poor student also.314. Rama Krishna Mission was founded by(a) Swami Dayanand(b) Swami Vivekanand(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy(d) Guru Nanak Dev315. Annie Besant inspired the opening of schools in many cities in(a) End of nineteenth century(b) Early nineteenth century(c) Early twentieenth century(d) End twentieenth century316. In ancient India religions and moral aims were dominated by(a) Brahmnic system of education(b) Kshatriya system of education(c) Both a & b(d) None of the above317. The concept of totalitarian education in the West was in favour of(a) Treating education as a binding factor of international understanding(b) The education of the individual for development of his total personality(c) Making the education of the individual as an instrument for realising the ends of the state(d) Making the state responsible to evolve education as a means of satisfying individual's needs and interests.318. Regarding co-education at the secondary stage, the 1952-53 Education Commission has suggested that(a) To start, resource, in several states could not afford(b) There should be objection to extend co-educational school(c) To maintain separate schools for boys and girls(d) The situation in our country warrants establishment of more boys schools than co-educational school.

319. Who formed Brahmo Samaj(a) Guru Nanak (b) Kabir(c) Ramanand(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy320. Tagore was a(a) Philosopher (b) Poet(c) Musician (d) Both a & b321. The topic method in education should be interpreted(a) a method of development of the syllabus in a subject(b) a concentric approach of teaching the classroom(c) a substitute for the project method of teaching(d) a method suited better for arts subjects as compared to science subjects.322. Arya Samaj was founded by(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy(b) Swami Dayanand Sarswati(c) Swami Satyanand(d) Kabir323. Ahimsa & Truth in Gandhiji's opinion is(a) Two side of a coin(b) Have no relation between the two(c) Can't translate(d) Can't inter-wined324. "The affection brought about a lossening up of the rigidity of Hindu Society and has been an admirable modern influence on Hindu thought" said by(a) Swami Dayanand(b) Swami Vivekanand(c) Kabir(d) Rabindranath Tagore325. Intellectual aim in education was emphasised in(a) India(b) Greek(c) Sparta(d) AthenianAnswers:301(b) 302. (b) 303. (a) 304. (b) 305.

(a)

306. (b) 307. (c) 308. (a) 309. (d) 310. (c)

311. (b) 312. (d) 313. (d) 314. (b) 315. (a)

316. (c) 317. (c) 318. (a) 319. (d) 320. (b)

321(c) 322. (b) 323. (a) 324. (b) 325. (b)

7. Who is a philosopher, in the original sense of the world?



A. Someone who studies the stars and planets.

B. A person primarily interested in the truth about moral matters.

C. A lover and pursuer of wisdom, regardless of the subject matter

D. A clever and tricky arguer8. Which is a common characteristic of

philosophical questions?A. They are strictly empirical questionsB. They involve fundamental concepts that

are unavoidable by the thoughtful personC. They are purely semantic questions.D. They aren't relevant to ordinary, everyday

situations9. Which is the branch of philosophy that

studies issues concerning art and beauty?A. AestheticsB. EpistemologyC. LogicD. Metaphysics



physical education · web viewquestions for ugc net (physical education) set i 51. which of the...

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