pharma mcqs 2nd term test 2011

Q.1: Which of the following anti-Q.1: Which of the following anti-malarial is used as radical malarial is used as radical curative agent for curative agent for PlasmodiumPlasmodium vivaxvivax /ovale Malarial infections? /ovale Malarial infections?

a)a) QuinineQuinine

b)b) PrimaquinePrimaquine

c)c) ProguanilProguanil

d)d) AmodiaquineAmodiaquine

e)e) Artemether Artemether

Q.1: Which of the following anti-Q.1: Which of the following anti-malarial is used as radical malarial is used as radical curative agent for curative agent for PlasmodiumPlasmodium vivaxvivax /ovale Malarial infections? /ovale Malarial infections?

a)a) QuinineQuinine

b)b) PrimaquinePrimaquine

c)c) ProguanilProguanil

d)d) AmodiaquineAmodiaquine

e)e) Artemether Artemether

Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in

sensitive sensitive OrganismsOrganismsb) Is suitable for empirical therapy in b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in

common common infection infection c) Has a wide distribution but less c) Has a wide distribution but less

concentration in brainconcentration in braind) Recommended for serious d) Recommended for serious

rickettsial infectionrickettsial infectione) Causes dose related, aplastic e) Causes dose related, aplastic

anemiaanemia

Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-Q.2: Chloramphenicol:-

a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in sensitive a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis in sensitive

OrganismsOrganisms

b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in b) Is suitable for empirical therapy in common common

infection infection

c) Has a wide distribution but less c) Has a wide distribution but less concentration in brainconcentration in brain

dd) ) Recommended for serious rickettsial Recommended for serious rickettsial infectioninfection

e) Causes dose related, aplastic anemiae) Causes dose related, aplastic anemia

Q.3: Which one of the following Q.3: Which one of the following antibiotics can be safely antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of administered in the presence of hepatic disease?hepatic disease?

a)a) ErythromycinErythromycin

b)b) DoxycyclineDoxycycline

c)c) Streptomycin Streptomycin

d)d) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicol

e)e) AzithromycinAzithromycin

Q.3: Which one of the following Q.3: Which one of the following antibiotics can be safely antibiotics can be safely administered in the presence of administered in the presence of hepatic disease?hepatic disease?

a)a) ErythromycinErythromycin

b)b) DoxycyclineDoxycycline

c)c) Streptomycin Streptomycin

e)e) AzithromycinAzithromycin

Q.4: Which one of the following Q.4: Which one of the following cephalosporins can be used to treat cephalosporins can be used to treat H. influenzaeH. influenzae meningitis? meningitis?

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone

b)b) CefoxitinCefoxitin

c)c) CefaclorCefaclor

d)d) CefamandoleCefamandole

e)e) Cephalexin Cephalexin

Q.4: Which one of the following Q.4: Which one of the following cephalosporins can be used to treat cephalosporins can be used to treat H. influenzaeH. influenzae meningitis? meningitis?

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone

b)b) CefoxitinCefoxitin

c)c) CefaclorCefaclor

d)d) CefamandoleCefamandole

e)e) Cephalexin Cephalexin

Q.5Q.5:: Which one of the following Which one of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillins is resistant to Staphylococcus aureusStaphylococcus aureus βeta βeta lactamases?lactamases?

a)a) AmoxicillinAmoxicillinb)b) Piperacillin Piperacillin c)c) MethicillinMethicillind)d) Benzathine penicillinBenzathine penicilline)e) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodium

Q.5Q.5:: Which one of the following Which one of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillins is resistant to Staphylococcus aureusStaphylococcus aureus βeta βeta lactamases?lactamases?

a)a) AmoxicillinAmoxicillinb)b) Piperacillin Piperacillin c)c) MethicillinMethicillind)d) Benzathine penicillinBenzathine penicilline)e) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodium

Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Shigellosis because:Shigellosis because:

a)a) Complete absorption from upper GITComplete absorption from upper GITb)b) Natural resistance of the organism to Natural resistance of the organism to

drugdrugc)c) Induction of beta lactamase in the Induction of beta lactamase in the

organism organism d)d) Modification of penicillin binding proteins Modification of penicillin binding proteins

on the bacteriaon the bacteriae)e) Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it

inactiveinactive

Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Q.6: Amoxicillin is least effective against Shigellosis because:Shigellosis because:

a)a) Complete absorption from upper GITComplete absorption from upper GITb)b) Natural resistance of the organism to Natural resistance of the organism to

drugdrugc)c) Induction of beta lactamase in the Induction of beta lactamase in the

organism organism d)d) Modification of penicillin binding proteins Modification of penicillin binding proteins

on the bacteriaon the bacteriae)e) Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it Chelation of drug with bile salts to make it

inactiveinactive

Q.7: Urine culture of a patient has Q.7: Urine culture of a patient has shown growth of shown growth of PseudomonasPseudomonas aeruginosa. Which one of the aeruginosa. Which one of the following cephalosporins should be following cephalosporins should be used in treatment of this case?used in treatment of this case?

a)a) Ceftazidime Ceftazidime b)b) Ceftizoxime Ceftizoxime c)c) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone d)d) Cefuroxime Cefuroxime e)e) Cefotetan Cefotetan

Q.8: Which one of the following Q.8: Which one of the following sulphonamides is used in the sulphonamides is used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis?treatment of ulcerative colitis?

a)a) Sulphadiazine Sulphadiazine

b)b) Sulphasalazine Sulphasalazine

c)c) SulphadimidineSulphadimidine

d)d) Sulphadoxine Sulphadoxine

e)e) SulphacetamideSulphacetamide

Q.8: Which one of the following Q.8: Which one of the following sulphonamides is used in the sulphonamides is used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis?treatment of ulcerative colitis?

a)a) Sulphadiazine Sulphadiazine

b)b) Sulphasalazine Sulphasalazine

c)c) SulphadimidineSulphadimidine

d)d) Sulphadoxine Sulphadoxine

e)e) SulphacetamideSulphacetamide

Q.9: Q.9: Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilis infection infection is preferably treated with:is preferably treated with:

a)a) Tetracyclines Tetracyclines

b)b) MetronidazoleMetronidazole

c)c) c)Tobramycinc)Tobramycin

d)d) Carbenicillin Carbenicillin

e)e) Azithromycin Azithromycin

Q.9: Q.9: Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilis infection infection is preferably treated with:is preferably treated with:

a)a) Tetracyclines Tetracyclines

c)c) c)Tobramycinc)Tobramycin

d)d) Carbenicillin Carbenicillin

e)e) Azithromycin Azithromycin

Q.10: The following drugs may be Q.10: The following drugs may be used in typhoid fever caused by used in typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhiSalmonella typhi except except::

a)a) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodium

b)b) Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin

c)c) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

e)e) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxone

Q.10: The following drugs may be Q.10: The following drugs may be used in typhoid fever caused by used in typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhiSalmonella typhi except except::

a)a) Ticarcillin disodiumTicarcillin disodium

b)b) Ciprofloxacin Ciprofloxacin

c)c) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

e)e) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxone

Q.11: Which one of the following Q.11: Which one of the following penicillins is not stable in the penicillins is not stable in the presence of gastric HCI?presence of gastric HCI?

a)a) Phenoxymethyl penicillin Phenoxymethyl penicillin

b)b) NafcillinNafcillin

c)c) Amoxicillin Amoxicillin

d)d) Carbenecillin indanyl sodium Carbenecillin indanyl sodium

e)e) PiperacillinPiperacillin

Q.11: Which one of the following Q.11: Which one of the following penicillins is not stable in the penicillins is not stable in the presence of gastric HCI?presence of gastric HCI?

a)a) Phenoxymethyl penicillin Phenoxymethyl penicillin

b)b) NafcillinNafcillin

c)c) Amoxicillin Amoxicillin

d)d) Carbenecillin indanyl sodium Carbenecillin indanyl sodium

e)e) PiperacillinPiperacillin

Q.12:The most important toxicity of Q.12:The most important toxicity of amphoterecin B is: amphoterecin B is:

a)a) NephrotoxicityNephrotoxicity

b)b) HepatoxicityHepatoxicity

c)c) Bone marrow depression Bone marrow depression

d)d) Ocular toxicity Ocular toxicity

e)e) Alopecia (hair loss)Alopecia (hair loss)

Q.12:The most important toxicity of Q.12:The most important toxicity of amphoterecin B is: amphoterecin B is:

a)a) Nephrotoxicity Nephrotoxicity

b)b) HepatoxicityHepatoxicity

c)c) Bone marrow depression Bone marrow depression

d)d) Ocular toxicity Ocular toxicity

e)e) Alopecia (hair loss)Alopecia (hair loss)

Q.13:Which one of the following anti Q.13:Which one of the following anti T.B. drugs has particular ability to T.B. drugs has particular ability to kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)

a)a) Isoniazid Isoniazid b)b) RifampicinRifampicinc)c) PyrazinamidePyrazinamided)d) EthambutolEthambutole)e) StreptomycinStreptomycin

Q.13:Which one of the following anti Q.13:Which one of the following anti T.B. drugs has particular ability to T.B. drugs has particular ability to kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)kill persisters (dormant Bacteria)

a)a) Isoniazid Isoniazid b)b) RifampicinRifampicinc)c) PyrazinamidePyrazinamided)d) EthambutolEthambutole)e) StreptomycinStreptomycin

Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B chemotherapy complains of decreased chemotherapy complains of decreased visual acuity and disturbance of color visual acuity and disturbance of color vision. The drug likely to be vision. The drug likely to be responsible for this effect is:responsible for this effect is:

a)a) EthambutolEthambutolb)b) Isoniazid Isoniazid c)c) ThiacetazoneThiacetazoned)d) PyrazinamidePyrazinamidee)e) Streptomycin Streptomycin

Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B Q.14: A patient taking anti T.B chemotherapy complains of decreased chemotherapy complains of decreased visual acuity and disturbance of color visual acuity and disturbance of color vision. The drug likely to be vision. The drug likely to be responsible for this effect is:responsible for this effect is:

a)a) EthambutolEthambutolb)b) Isoniazid Isoniazid c)c) ThiacetazoneThiacetazoned)d) PyrazinamidePyrazinamidee)e) Streptomycin Streptomycin

Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in Q.15: A drug predominantly excreted in bile is:-bile is:-

a)a) StreptomycinStreptomycin

b)b) ErythromycinErythromycin

c)c) BenzylpenicillinBenzylpenicillin

d)d) TetracyclineTetracycline

e)e) NetilmicinNetilmicin

Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal inflammation inflammation called pseudo-called pseudo-membranous colitis by the growth of membranous colitis by the growth of one of the following organism.one of the following organism.

a)a) E.coliE.colib)b) Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilisc)c) Clostridium difficileClostridium difficiled)d) Clostridium welchiiClostridium welchiie)e) Bacillus anthracisBacillus anthracis

Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials Q.16: Broad spectrum antimicrobials sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal sterilize the gut resulting in a fatal inflammation inflammation called pseudo-called pseudo-membranous colitis by the growth of membranous colitis by the growth of one of the following organism.one of the following organism.

a)a) E.coliE.colib)b) Bacteroides fragilisBacteroides fragilisc)c) Clostridium difficileClostridium difficiled)d) Clostridium welchiiClostridium welchiie)e) Bacillus anthracisBacillus anthracis

Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug is very safe. The following drug is very safe. The following adverse effects are very common on adverse effects are very common on prolonged use. Except:prolonged use. Except:

a)a) Orange colour urine, sweat & tearsOrange colour urine, sweat & tearsb)b) ThrombocytopeniaThrombocytopeniac)c) Flu-like syndromeFlu-like syndromed)d) Light chain proteinureaLight chain proteinureae)e) Inhibition of Cytochrome Inhibition of Cytochrome PP450450

Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB Q.17: Rifampicin: an essential anti TB drug is very safe. The following drug is very safe. The following adverse effects are very common on adverse effects are very common on prolonged use. Except:prolonged use. Except:

a)a) Orange colour urine, sweat & tearsOrange colour urine, sweat & tearsb)b) ThrombocytopeniaThrombocytopeniac)c) Flu-like syndromeFlu-like syndromed)d) Light chain proteinureaLight chain proteinureae)e) Inhibition of Cytochrome Inhibition of Cytochrome PP450450

Q.18:The drug of first choice Q.18:The drug of first choice against all superficial ringworm against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is:infections (dermatophyte) is:

a)a) Nystatin Nystatin

b)b) Amphotericin – BAmphotericin – B

c)c) FlucytosineFlucytosine

d)d) GriseofulvinGriseofulvin

e)e) EconazolcEconazolc

Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine Q.19:Loading dose of chloroquine is required because it is:-is required because it is:-

a)a) Rapidly excreted by the kidneysRapidly excreted by the kidneys

b)b) Rapidly metabolized by Rapidly metabolized by biotransformation biotransformation

c)c) High lipid solubilityHigh lipid solubility

d)d) More entry into infected RBCsMore entry into infected RBCs

e)e) High tissue bindingHigh tissue binding

Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by binding with :by binding with :

a)a) 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA

b)b) 50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA

c)c) 70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

d)d) 50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

e)e) 23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have Q.20: The macrolide antibiotics have bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects bacteriostatic and bactericidal effects by binding with :by binding with :

a)a) 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA 30 S ribosomal subunit of RNA

b)b) 50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA50 S ribosomal subunit of RNA

c)c) 70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA70 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

d)d) 50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA50 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

e)e) 23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA23 S ribosomal subunit of DNA

Q.21:Which one of the following drugs Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can be prescribed for acute can be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis caused by gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella Salmonella typhii typhii infection.infection.

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone b)b) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacinc)c) NeomycinNeomycind)d) Ampicillin Ampicillin e)e) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

Q.21:Which one of the following drugs Q.21:Which one of the following drugs can be prescribed for acute can be prescribed for acute gastroenteritis caused by gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella Salmonella typhii typhii infection.infection.

a)a) Ceftriaxone Ceftriaxone b)b) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacinc)c) NeomycinNeomycind)d) Ampicillin Ampicillin e)e) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

Q.22:The drug of first choice in Q.22:The drug of first choice in Pseudomonas aeruginosa Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in (MDR) in renal infections is:renal infections is:

a)a) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacin

b)b) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

c)c) VancomycinVancomycin

d)d) LinezolideLinezolide

e)e) Erythromycin stearateErythromycin stearate

Q.22:The drug of first choice in Q.22:The drug of first choice in Pseudomonas aeruginosa Pseudomonas aeruginosa (MDR) in (MDR) in renal infections is:renal infections is:

a)a) CiprofloxacinCiprofloxacin

b)b) Co-trimoxazoleCo-trimoxazole

c)c) VancomycinVancomycin

d)d) LinezolideLinezolide

e)e) Erythromycin stearateErythromycin stearate

Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese herbal medicine: all are true Except:herbal medicine: all are true Except:

a)a) Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active metabolitemetabolite

b)b) Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all human plasmodiahuman plasmodia

c)c) Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium ATPase pumpCalcium ATPase pump

d)d) Least toxic among all antimalarial drugsLeast toxic among all antimalarial drugse)e) An alternative to primaquine as gametocidalAn alternative to primaquine as gametocidal

Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese Q.23: Artemisinin a derivative of Chinese herbal medicine: all are true Except:herbal medicine: all are true Except:

a)a) Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active Metabolized to dihydroartimesinin, an active metabolitemetabolite

b)b) Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all Rapidly acting blood schizonticide against all human plasmodiahuman plasmodia

c)c) Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium Acts through a free radical by inhibiting Calcium ATPase pumpATPase pump

d)d) Least toxic among all antimalarial drugsLeast toxic among all antimalarial drugse)e) An alternative to primaquine as gametocidalAn alternative to primaquine as gametocidal

Q.24: WHO has approved the following Q.24: WHO has approved the following regimens for multidrug resistant regimens for multidrug resistant P. P. falciparum?falciparum?

a)a) Artemether plus lumefantrineArtemether plus lumefantrine

b)b) Artemether plus amodiaquineArtemether plus amodiaquine

c)c) Artemether plus mefloquineArtemether plus mefloquine

d)d) Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethaminepyrimethamine

e)e) Artemether plus halofantrineArtemether plus halofantrine

Q.24: WHO has approved the following Q.24: WHO has approved the following regimens for multidrug resistant regimens for multidrug resistant P. P. falciparum?falciparum?

a)a) Artemether plus lumefantrineArtemether plus lumefantrine

b)b) Artemether plus amodiaquineArtemether plus amodiaquine

c)c) Artemether plus mefloquineArtemether plus mefloquine

d)d) Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus Artemether plus sulfadoxine plus pyrimethaminepyrimethamine

e)e) Artemether plus halofantrineArtemether plus halofantrine

Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas endemic for chloroquine resistant endemic for chloroquine resistant malaria are recommended to have malaria are recommended to have prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, safe and showing excellent result is:safe and showing excellent result is:

a)a) MefloquineMefloquine

b)b) Quinine Quinine

c)c) ArtesunateArtesunate

d)d) PyrimethaminePyrimethamine

e)e) HalofantrineHalofantrine

Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas Q.25: The travelers visiting to areas endemic for chloroquine resistant endemic for chloroquine resistant malaria are recommended to have malaria are recommended to have prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, prophylactic treatment. A cost effective, safe and showing excellent result is:safe and showing excellent result is:

a)a) MefloquineMefloquine

b)b) Quinine Quinine

c)c) ArtesunateArtesunate

d)d) PyrimethaminePyrimethamine

e)e) HalofantrineHalofantrine

Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of ancient times caused by ancient times caused by Treponema Treponema pallidumpallidum.All of the following drugs .All of the following drugs can be prescribed to have complete can be prescribed to have complete recovery except:recovery except:

a)a) TetracyclineTetracyclineb)b) ErythromycinErythromycinc)c) Benzyl-penicillinBenzyl-penicillind)d) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxonee)e) SulphadiazineSulphadiazine

Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of Q.26: Syphilis in a venereal disease of ancient times caused by ancient times caused by Treponema Treponema pallidumpallidum.All of the following drugs .All of the following drugs can be prescribed to have complete can be prescribed to have complete recovery except:recovery except:

a)a) TetracyclineTetracyclineb)b) ErythromycinErythromycinc)c) Benzyl-penicillinBenzyl-penicillind)d) CeftriaxoneCeftriaxonee)e) SulphadiazineSulphadiazine

Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatisChlamydia trachomatis is treated with is treated with any one of the following drugs except:any one of the following drugs except:

a)a) Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlySulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlyb)b) Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyChloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyc)c) Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyTetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyd)d) Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ dayTab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ daye)e) Cap Azithromycin 500 mg dailyCap Azithromycin 500 mg daily

Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Q.27: Acute conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatisChlamydia trachomatis is treated with is treated with any one of the following drugs except:any one of the following drugs except:

a)a) Sulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlySulphacetamide eye drops 8 hourlyb)b) Chloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyChloramphenicol eye ointment 8 hourlyc)c) Tetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyTetracycline eye ointment 8 hourlyd)d) Tab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ dayTab. Clindamycin 10-20 mg/ kg/ daye)e) Cap Azithromycin 500 mg dailyCap Azithromycin 500 mg daily

Q.28: The following statement is least Q.28: The following statement is least likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:

a)a) Negligible plasma protein bindingNegligible plasma protein binding

b)b) Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m EqTherapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eq

c)c) Inhibition of renal excretion by sodiumInhibition of renal excretion by sodium

d)d) Half life 18-23 hoursHalf life 18-23 hours

e)e) Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depressionDrug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression

Q.28: The following statement is least Q.28: The following statement is least likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:likely regarding Lithium Carbonate:

a)a) Negligible plasma protein bindingNegligible plasma protein binding

b)b) Therapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m EqTherapeutic window 0.6 to 1.2 m Eq

c)c) Inhibition of renal excretion by Inhibition of renal excretion by sodiumsodium

d)d) Half life 18-23 hoursHalf life 18-23 hours

e)e) Drug of 1st choice in Bipolar depressionDrug of 1st choice in Bipolar depression

Q.29: Which one of the following is not Q.29: Which one of the following is not an opium alkaloid:-an opium alkaloid:-

a)a) NoscapineNoscapine

b)b) CodeineCodeine

c)c) NalorphineNalorphine

d)d) MorphineMorphine

e)e) PapaverinePapaverine

Q.29: Which one of the following is not Q.29: Which one of the following is not an opium alkaloid:-an opium alkaloid:-

a)a) NoscapineNoscapine

b)b) CodeineCodeine

c)c) NalorphineNalorphine

d)d) MorphineMorphine

e)e) PapaverinePapaverine

Q. 30:An old patient with Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism presents with red, Parkinsonism presents with red, tender, painful swollen feet. Which tender, painful swollen feet. Which of the following drugs may be of the following drugs may be responsible?responsible?

a)a) Amantadine Amantadine b)b) BromocriptineBromocriptinec)c) LevodopaLevodopad)d) SelegelineSelegelinee)e) Carbidopa Carbidopa

Q. 30:An old patient with Q. 30:An old patient with Parkinsonism presents with red, Parkinsonism presents with red, tender, painful swollen feet. Which tender, painful swollen feet. Which of the following drugs may be of the following drugs may be responsible?responsible?

a)a) Amantadine Amantadine b)b) BromocriptineBromocriptinec)c) LevodopaLevodopad)d) SelegelineSelegelinee)e) Carbidopa Carbidopa

Q.31: An intravenous general Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic that should be avoided in anaesthetic that should be avoided in patients of porphyria.patients of porphyria.

a)a) Ketamine Ketamine

b)b) Propofol Propofol

c)c) EtomidateEtomidate

d)d) ThiopentoneThiopentone

e)e) OxazepamOxazepam

Q.31: An intravenous general Q.31: An intravenous general anaesthetic that should be avoided in anaesthetic that should be avoided in patients of porphyria.patients of porphyria.

a)a) Ketamine Ketamine

b)b) Propofol Propofol

c)c) EtomidateEtomidate

d)d) ThiopentoneThiopentone

e)e) OxazepamOxazepam

Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist includes one of the following:includes one of the following:

a)a) ZolpidemZolpidem

b)b) AlprazolamAlprazolam

c)c) FlumazenilFlumazenil

d)d) CholrazepateCholrazepate

e)e) SufentanilSufentanil

Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist Q.32: Benzodiazepine antagonist includes one of the following:includes one of the following:

a)a) ZolpidemZolpidem

b)b) AlprazolamAlprazolam

c)c) FlumazenilFlumazenil

d)d) CholrazepateCholrazepate

e)e) SufentanilSufentanil

Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is preferred for outdoor procedures and preferred for outdoor procedures and the patient is ambulatory on the same the patient is ambulatory on the same day.day.

a)a) ThiopentoneThiopentone

b)b) MidazolamMidazolam

c)c) PropofolPropofol

d)d) HalothaneHalothane

e)e) EtomidateEtomidate

Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is Q.33: Which of the following anesthetic is preferred for outdoor procedures and preferred for outdoor procedures and the patient is ambulatory on the same the patient is ambulatory on the same day.day.

b)b) MidazolamMidazolam

c)c) PropofolPropofol

d)d) HalothaneHalothane

e)e) EtomidateEtomidate

Q.34: Symptoms of malignant Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia includes all of the hyperthermia includes all of the following except:following except:

a)a) HypertensionHypertension

b)b) Muscle flaccidityMuscle flaccidity

c)c) AcidosisAcidosis

d)d) HyperkalemiaHyperkalemia

e)e) Body temperature> 104 CBody temperature> 104 C

Q.34: Symptoms of malignant Q.34: Symptoms of malignant hyperthermia includes all of the hyperthermia includes all of the following except:following except:

a)a) HypertensionHypertension

b)b) Muscle flaccidityMuscle flaccidity

c)c) AcidosisAcidosis

d)d) HyperkalemiaHyperkalemia

e)e) Body temperature> 104 CBody temperature> 104 C

Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic agent cause’s megaloblastic agent cause’s megaloblastic anemia on prolonged use.anemia on prolonged use.

a)a) HalothaneHalothane

b)b) EnfluraneEnflurane

c)c) KetamineKetamine

d)d) Nitrous oxideNitrous oxide

e)e) DesfluraneDesflurane

Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic Q.35: Toxicity of which anesthetic agent cause’s megaloblastic agent cause’s megaloblastic anemia on prolonged use.anemia on prolonged use.

a)a) HalothaneHalothane

b)b) EnfluraneEnflurane

c)c) KetamineKetamine

d)d) Nitrous oxideNitrous oxide

e)e) DesfluraneDesflurane

Q.36: Parkinsonism is Q.36: Parkinsonism is characterized by the following characterized by the following except:except:

a)a) FlaccidityFlaccidity

b)b) RigidityRigidity

c)c) Resting tremorsResting tremors

d)d) Excessive salivationExcessive salivation

e)e) MicrographiaMicrographia

Q.36: Parkinsonism is Q.36: Parkinsonism is characterized by the following characterized by the following except:except:

a)a) FlaccidityFlaccidity

b)b) RigidityRigidity

c)c) Resting tremorsResting tremors

d)d) Excessive salivationExcessive salivation

e)e) MicrographiaMicrographia

Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine hypnotic agent has the following hypnotic agent has the following characteristics.characteristics.

a)a) Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptorsActs on a subset of benzodiazepine receptors

b)b) It has no anticonvulsant properties.It has no anticonvulsant properties.

c)c) It possesses little muscle relaxing propertyIt possesses little muscle relaxing property

d)d) It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound insomniainsomnia

e)e) Development of tolerance is common on Development of tolerance is common on prolonged use.prolonged use.

Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine Q.37: Zolpidem, a non benzodiazepine hypnotic agent has the following hypnotic agent has the following characteristics.characteristics.

a)a) Acts on a subset of benzodiazepine receptorsActs on a subset of benzodiazepine receptors

b)b) It has no anticonvulsant properties.It has no anticonvulsant properties.

c)c) It possesses little muscle relaxing propertyIt possesses little muscle relaxing property

d)d) It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound It shows little withdrawal effects or rebound insomniainsomnia

e)e) Development of tolerance is common on Development of tolerance is common on prolonged use.prolonged use.

Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than tricyclie anti-depressant in the tricyclie anti-depressant in the management of:management of:

a)a) Bulimia nervosa Bulimia nervosa

b)b) Chronic pain of neuropathic originChronic pain of neuropathic origin

c)c) Generalized anxiety disorderGeneralized anxiety disorder

d)d) Obsessive compulsive disorderObsessive compulsive disorder

e)e) Premenstrual dysphoric disorderPremenstrual dysphoric disorder

Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than Q.38: SSRIs are less effective than tricyclie anti-depressant in the tricyclie anti-depressant in the management of:management of:

a)a) Bulimia nervosa Bulimia nervosa

b)b) Chronic pain of neuropathic originChronic pain of neuropathic origin

c)c) Generalized anxiety disorderGeneralized anxiety disorder

d)d) Obsessive compulsive disorderObsessive compulsive disorder

e)e) Premenstrual dysphoric disorderPremenstrual dysphoric disorder

Q.39: Overdosage of Q.39: Overdosage of benzodiazepines can be benzodiazepines can be reversed with:reversed with:

a)a) Naloxone Naloxone

b)b) NaltrexoneNaltrexone

c)c) NalmefeneNalmefene

d)d) FlumazenilFlumazenil

e)e) Glutamate Glutamate

Q.39: Overdosage of Q.39: Overdosage of benzodiazepines can be benzodiazepines can be reversed with:reversed with:

a)a) Naloxone Naloxone

c)c) NalmefeneNalmefene

d)d) FlumazenilFlumazenil

e)e) Glutamate Glutamate

Q.40: Which one of the following is Q.40: Which one of the following is not a side effect of phenytoin:not a side effect of phenytoin:

a)a) NystagmusNystagmus

b)b) Gingival hyperplasiaGingival hyperplasia

c)c) HirsutisimHirsutisim

d)d) OsteomalaciaOsteomalacia

e)e) Alopecia (Hair loss)Alopecia (Hair loss)

Q.40: Which one of the following is Q.40: Which one of the following is not a side effect of phenytoin:not a side effect of phenytoin:

a)a) NystagmusNystagmus

b)b) Gingival hyperplasiaGingival hyperplasia

c)c) HirsutisimHirsutisim

d)d) OsteomalaciaOsteomalacia

e)e) Alopecia (Hair loss)Alopecia (Hair loss)

Q.41: Following statements about Q.41: Following statements about carbamazepine are true, except:carbamazepine are true, except:

a)a) Acts through blockade of Na-ion channelsActs through blockade of Na-ion channels

b)b) Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic seizuresseizures

c)c) Increases hepatic metabolism of other drugsIncreases hepatic metabolism of other drugs

d)d) Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal neuralgianeuralgia

e)e) Ch. Use is associated with drug dependence.Ch. Use is associated with drug dependence.

Q.41: Following statements about Q.41: Following statements about carbamazepine are true, except:carbamazepine are true, except:

a)a) Acts through blockade of Na-ion channelsActs through blockade of Na-ion channelsb)b) Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic Highly effective for generalized tonic-clonic

seizuresseizuresc)c) Increases hepatic metabolism of other Increases hepatic metabolism of other

drugsdrugsd)d) Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal Is a drug of first choice for trigeminal

neuralgianeuralgiae)e) Ch. Use is associated with drug Ch. Use is associated with drug

dependence.dependence.

Q.42: All of the following drugs can be Q.42: All of the following drugs can be used for chronic ethanol intoxication.used for chronic ethanol intoxication.

a)a) AcamprossateAcamprossate

c)c) DisulfiramDisulfiram

d)d) MethanolMethanol

e)e) TopiramateTopiramate

Q.42: All of the following drugs can be Q.42: All of the following drugs can be used for chronic ethanol intoxication.used for chronic ethanol intoxication.

a)a) AcamprossateAcamprossate

c)c) DisulfiramDisulfiram

d)d) MethanolMethanol

e)e) TopiramateTopiramate

Q.43: All of the following are Q.43: All of the following are excitatory neurotransmitters excitatory neurotransmitters except:except:

a)a) Nor epinephrineNor epinephrine

b)b) Serotonin Serotonin

c)c) GABAGABA

d)d) GlutamateGlutamate

e)e) AcetylcholineAcetylcholine

Q.43: All of the following are Q.43: All of the following are excitatory neurotransmitters excitatory neurotransmitters except:except:

a)a) Nor epinephrineNor epinephrine

b)b) Serotonin Serotonin

c)c) GABAGABA

d)d) GlutamateGlutamate

e)e) AcetylcholineAcetylcholine

Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change in patient status may result in change in patient status may result in accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the following conditions except.following conditions except.

a)a) Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.b)b) Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.c)c) If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more

severe.severe.d)d) Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.e)e) Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less effective Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less effective

in toxicity because lithium is a small ion.in toxicity because lithium is a small ion.

Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with Q.44: Therapeutic overdoses are more common with lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just lithium carbonate than any other drug.Just change in patient status may result in change in patient status may result in accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the accumulation of lithium as we see in most of the following conditions except.following conditions except.

a)a) Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.Thiazide diuretics will reduce excretion by 25%.b)b) Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.Diclofenac, an NSAID may increase serum lithium.c)c) If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more If phenothiazines are added to lithium EPS are more

severe.severe.d)d) Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.Hyponatremia will enhance renal lithium absorption.e)e) Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less Haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis are less

effective in toxicity because lithium is a small ion.effective in toxicity because lithium is a small ion.

Q.45: Which of the following opioid Q.45: Which of the following opioid analgesics is generally used in analgesics is generally used in combination with droperidol to combination with droperidol to produce neuroleptanalgesia?produce neuroleptanalgesia?

a)a) BuprenorphineBuprenorphine

b)b) Pentazocine.Pentazocine.

c)c) FentanylFentanyl

d)d) LevallorphanLevallorphan

e)e) MeperidineMeperidine

Q.45: Which of the following opioid Q.45: Which of the following opioid analgesics is generally used in analgesics is generally used in combination with droperidol to combination with droperidol to produce neuroleptanalgesia?produce neuroleptanalgesia?

b)b) Pentazocine.Pentazocine.

d)d) LevallorphanLevallorphan

e)e) MeperidineMeperidine

Q.46: Which of the following is Q.46: Which of the following is more potent analgesic as more potent analgesic as compared to morphine.compared to morphine.

a)a) PethidinePethidine

b)b) PentazocinePentazocine

d)d) Tramadol Tramadol

e)e) NalaxoneNalaxone

Q.46: Which of the following is Q.46: Which of the following is more potent analgesic as more potent analgesic as compared to morphine.compared to morphine.

a)a) PethidinePethidine

b)b) PentazocinePentazocine

d)d) Tramadol Tramadol

e)e) NalaxoneNalaxone

Q.47: All of the following are the Q.47: All of the following are the partial opioid agonists exceptpartial opioid agonists except

b)b) ButorphanolButorphanol

c)c) Pentazocine Pentazocine

d)d) NalbuphineNalbuphine

e)e) Codeine Codeine

Q.47: All of the following are the Q.47: All of the following are the partial opioid agonists exceptpartial opioid agonists except

b)b) ButorphanolButorphanol

c)c) Pentazocine Pentazocine

d)d) NalbuphineNalbuphine

e)e) Codeine Codeine

Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is true?true?

a)a) Gets ionized at pH of body fluidsGets ionized at pH of body fluids

b)b) Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as compared to procainecompared to procaine

c)c) Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.

d)d) Is poorly water solubleIs poorly water soluble

e)e) Is incompatible with catecholaminesIs incompatible with catecholamines

Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is Q.48: Which statement about lidocaine is true?true?

a)a) Gets ionized at pH of body fluidsGets ionized at pH of body fluids

b)b) Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as Causes less hypersensitivity reactions as compared to procainecompared to procaine

c)c) Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.Is metabolized by the plasma esterases.

d)d) Is poorly water solubleIs poorly water soluble

e)e) Is incompatible with catecholaminesIs incompatible with catecholamines

Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol intolerance by inhibiting.intolerance by inhibiting.

a)a) Alochol dehydrogenaseAlochol dehydrogenase

b)b) Acetylcholine estraseAcetylcholine estrase

c)c) Aldehyde dehydrogenaseAldehyde dehydrogenase

d)d) Xanthine oxidaseXanthine oxidase

e)e) Carbonic anhydraseCarbonic anhydrase

Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol Q.49: Disulfiram produces alcohol intolerance by inhibiting.intolerance by inhibiting.

a)a) Alochol dehydrogenaseAlochol dehydrogenase

b)b) Acetylcholine estraseAcetylcholine estrase

c)c) Aldehyde dehydrogenaseAldehyde dehydrogenase

d)d) Xanthine oxidaseXanthine oxidase

e)e) Carbonic anhydraseCarbonic anhydrase

Q.50: Which of the following Q.50: Which of the following barbiturates is used in the barbiturates is used in the treatment of kernicterustreatment of kernicterus

b)b) AmylobarbitoneAmylobarbitone

c)c) SecobarbitoneSecobarbitone

d)d) PhenobarbitonePhenobarbitone

e)e) OxybarbitoneOxybarbitone

Q.50: Which of the following Q.50: Which of the following barbiturates is used in the barbiturates is used in the treatment of kernicterustreatment of kernicterus

b)b) AmylobarbitoneAmylobarbitone

c)c) SecobarbitoneSecobarbitone

d)d) PhenobarbitonePhenobarbitone

e)e) OxybarbitoneOxybarbitone

Q.51: Hypotension resulting from Q.51: Hypotension resulting from spinal anaesthesia can be spinal anaesthesia can be treated withtreated with

a)a) EphedrineEphedrine

b)b) AtropineAtropine

c)c) DobutamineDobutamine

d)d) PhentolaminePhentolamine

e)e) Epinephrine Epinephrine

Q.51: Hypotension resulting from Q.51: Hypotension resulting from spinal anaesthesia can be spinal anaesthesia can be treated withtreated with

a)a) EphedrineEphedrine

b)b) AtropineAtropine

c)c) DobutamineDobutamine

d)d) PhentolaminePhentolamine

e)e) Epinephrine Epinephrine

Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is converted into active form by converted into active form by gastric juice is gastric juice is

a)a) AlprazolamAlprazolam

b)b) ClorazepateClorazepate

c)c) MidazolamMidazolam

d)d) ChlordiazepoxideChlordiazepoxide

e)e) DesmethyldiazepamDesmethyldiazepam

Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is Q.52: A benzodiazepine that is converted into active form by converted into active form by gastric juice is gastric juice is

a)a) AlprazolamAlprazolam

b)b) ClorazepateClorazepate

c)c) MidazolamMidazolam

d)d) ChlordiazepoxideChlordiazepoxide

e)e) DesmethyldiazepamDesmethyldiazepam

Q.53: In local anaesthesia,Q.53: In local anaesthesia,a)a) Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pHEfficacy of drugs is increased by low pHb)b) The drug binds with sodium channels on outer The drug binds with sodium channels on outer

side of membraneside of membranec)c) Drugs having low water solubility are suitable Drugs having low water solubility are suitable

for infiltration anaesthesiafor infiltration anaesthesiad)d) Ester type drugs produce more hypersensitivity Ester type drugs produce more hypersensitivity

reactions than the amides reactions than the amides e)e) Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the

proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugsproteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs

Q.53: In local anaesthesia,Q.53: In local anaesthesia,a)a) Efficacy of drugs is increased by low pHEfficacy of drugs is increased by low pHb)b) The drug binds with sodium channels on outer The drug binds with sodium channels on outer

side of membraneside of membranec)c) Drugs having low water solubility are suitable Drugs having low water solubility are suitable

for infiltration anaesthesiafor infiltration anaesthesiad)d) Ester type drugs produce more Ester type drugs produce more

hypersensitivity reactions than the amides hypersensitivity reactions than the amides e)e) Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the Long-acting local anesthestics also bind with the

proteins and cannot be displaced by other drugsproteins and cannot be displaced by other drugs

Q.54: Which of the following Q.54: Which of the following antipsychotic acts on wider antipsychotic acts on wider variety of receptorsvariety of receptors

a)a) RisperidoneRisperidone

b)b) AmisulprideAmisulpride

c)c) OlanzapineOlanzapine

d)d) ChlorpromazineChlorpromazine

e)e) Lithium carbonateLithium carbonate

Q.54: Which of the following Q.54: Which of the following antipsychotic acts on wider antipsychotic acts on wider variety of receptorsvariety of receptors

a)a) RisperidoneRisperidone

b)b) AmisulprideAmisulpride

c)c) OlanzapineOlanzapine

e)e) Lithium carbonateLithium carbonate

Q.55: Is the only drug among older Q.55: Is the only drug among older antipsychotic not effective as antipsychotic not effective as antiemeticantiemetic

a)a) ThioridazoneThioridazone

b)b) HaloperidolHaloperidol

c)c) FluphenazineFluphenazine

e)e) Thiothixine Thiothixine

Q.55: Is the only drug among older Q.55: Is the only drug among older antipsychotic not effective as antipsychotic not effective as antiemeticantiemetic

a)a) ThioridazoneThioridazone

b)b) HaloperidolHaloperidol

c)c) FluphenazineFluphenazine

e)e) Thiothixine Thiothixine

Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants may cause all of the following may cause all of the following adverse effects exceptadverse effects except

a)a) Dryness of mouthDryness of mouth

b)b) ConstipationConstipation

c)c) Extrapyramidal syndromeExtrapyramidal syndrome

d)d) Retention of urineRetention of urine

e)e) InsomniaInsomnia

Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants Q.56: Tricyclic antidepressants may cause all of the following may cause all of the following adverse effects exceptadverse effects except

a)a) Dryness of mouthDryness of mouth

b)b) ConstipationConstipation

c)c) Extrapyramidal syndromeExtrapyramidal syndrome

d)d) Retention of urineRetention of urine

e)e) InsomniaInsomnia

Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.

a)a) They can cause dose related anterograde They can cause dose related anterograde amnesiaamnesia

b)b) They can cause retrograde amnesiaThey can cause retrograde amnesia

c)c) Most of the benzodiazepines do not have Most of the benzodiazepines do not have muscle relaxant propertiesmuscle relaxant properties

d)d) They can cause irreversible confusional They can cause irreversible confusional state in elderlystate in elderly

e)e) Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines does not leads to withdrawal symptomsdoes not leads to withdrawal symptoms

Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.Q.57: Regarding benzodiazepines.

a)a) They can cause dose related They can cause dose related anterograde amnesiaanterograde amnesia

b)b) They can cause retrograde amnesiaThey can cause retrograde amnesia

c)c) Most of the benzodiazepines do not have Most of the benzodiazepines do not have muscle relaxant propertiesmuscle relaxant properties

d)d) They can cause irreversible confusional They can cause irreversible confusional state in elderlystate in elderly

e)e) Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines Sudden discontinuation of benzodiazepines does not leads to withdrawal symptomsdoes not leads to withdrawal symptoms

Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the following conditions exceptfollowing conditions except

a)a) Chronic painChronic pain

b)b) Nocturnal enuresisNocturnal enuresis

c)c) Malignant hyperthermiaMalignant hyperthermia

d)d) Endogenous depressionEndogenous depression

e)e) Hyperkinetic syndromeHyperkinetic syndrome

Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the Q.58:Desipramine can be used in the following conditions exceptfollowing conditions except

a)a) Chronic painChronic pain

b)b) Nocturnal enuresisNocturnal enuresis

c)c) Malignant hyperthermiaMalignant hyperthermia

d)d) Endogenous depressionEndogenous depression

e)e) Hyperkinetic syndromeHyperkinetic syndrome

Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the following characteristics exceptfollowing characteristics except

a)a) It is component of anesthesiaIt is component of anesthesiab)b) It has a high blood gas partition It has a high blood gas partition

coefficientcoefficientc)c) It is potent analgesicIt is potent analgesicd)d) It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of

Byles,MachineByles,Machinee)e) It is used in combination with other It is used in combination with other

inhalational agents due to high MAC valueinhalational agents due to high MAC value

Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the Q.59: Nitrous oxide has all of the following characteristics exceptfollowing characteristics except

a)a) It is component of anesthesiaIt is component of anesthesiab)b) It has a high blood gas partition It has a high blood gas partition

coefficientcoefficientc)c) It is potent analgesicIt is potent analgesicd)d) It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of It is insoluble in the rubber tubings of

Byles,MachineByles,Machinee)e) It is used in combination with other It is used in combination with other

inhalational agents due to high MAC valueinhalational agents due to high MAC value

Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be used in pre anaesthetic medication toused in pre anaesthetic medication to

a)a) Slow down the gastric emptyingSlow down the gastric emptyingb)b) Dilate the pupilsDilate the pupilsc)c) Prevent bradycardiaPrevent bradycardiad)d) Causes bronchodilatationCauses bronchodilatatione)e) Prevent colic during visceral surgeryPrevent colic during visceral surgery

Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be Q.60: Anticholinergic drugs may be used in pre anaesthetic medication toused in pre anaesthetic medication to

a)a) Slow down the gastric emptyingSlow down the gastric emptyingb)b) Dilate the pupilsDilate the pupilsc)c) Prevent bradycardiaPrevent bradycardiad)d) Causes bronchodilatationCauses bronchodilatatione)e) Prevent colic during visceral surgeryPrevent colic during visceral surgery

Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic ulcer drugs cause salt and water ulcer drugs cause salt and water retention.retention.

a)a) SucralfateSucralfateb)b) RanitidineRanitidinec)c) CarbenoxoloneCarbenoxoloned)d) CimetidineCimetidinee)e) OmeprazoleOmeprazole

Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic Q.61:.Which of the following antipeptic ulcer drugs cause salt and water ulcer drugs cause salt and water retention.retention.

a)a) SucralfateSucralfateb)b) RanitidineRanitidinec)c) CarbenoxoloneCarbenoxoloned)d) CimetidineCimetidinee)e) OmeprazoleOmeprazole

Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be treated by the following drugs except:treated by the following drugs except:

a)a) MetronidazoleMetronidazole

b)b) VancomycinVancomycin

c)c) BacitracinBacitracin

d)d) ClindamycinClindamycin

e)e) Cycloserine Cycloserine

Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be Q.62: Pseudo membranous colitis can be treated by the following drugs except:treated by the following drugs except:

a)a) MetronidazoleMetronidazole

b)b) VancomycinVancomycin

c)c) BacitracinBacitracin

e)e) Cycloserine Cycloserine

Q.63: Drug of first choice for Q.63: Drug of first choice for Becteroides fragilis Becteroides fragilis induced induced peritonitis is:peritonitis is:

a)a) Ampicillin + Ampicillin + ββ lactamase inhibitor lactamase inhibitor

c)c) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicol

e)e) RifampicinRifampicin

Q.63: Drug of first choice for Q.63: Drug of first choice for Becteroides fragilis Becteroides fragilis induced induced peritonitis is:peritonitis is:

a)a) Ampicillin + Ampicillin + ββ lactamase inhibitor lactamase inhibitor

c)c) ChloramphenicolChloramphenicol

e)e) RifampicinRifampicin

Q.64: Which of the following anti Q.64: Which of the following anti T. B drugs is structural T. B drugs is structural analogue of PABA: -analogue of PABA: -

a)a) ThiacetazoneThiacetazone

b)b) Para-amino salicylic acidPara-amino salicylic acid

c)c) RifampicinRifampicin

d)d) INHINH

e)e) EthambutolEthambutol