pgi chandigarh may 2010 ebook

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1 PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review

PGI CHANDIGARH – MAY 2010 REVIEW

Acknowledgement: Dr. Manoj Chaudhary

ANATOMY

1.Which are not the flexors of forearm:

A. Pronater teres

B. Brachialis

C. Brachioradialis

D. Anconeus

E. Flexor pollicis longus

Ans: D (Anconeus) & E (Flexor pollicis longus)

2.Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:

A. Femoral br. of genitofemoral nerve

B. Superficial epigastric artery

C. Psoas major

D. Femoral vein

E. Saphenous vein

Ans: C (Psoas major) & D(Femoral vein)

3. Flexor of lumbar spine is/are:

A. Erector spinae

B. External oblique muscle

C. Internal oblique muscle

D. Rectus abdominis

E. Psoas major

IMPORTANT NOTICE

List of Roll Numbers for PGI MD/MS Entrance Exam to be held on 21st

November at 9 am has been published at

http://pgimer.nic.in/code/pdf/listmdms21nov10.pdf .

For issue of Duplicate Roll Numbers, please bring one passport size photo along with identity proof on 18th

– 20th

November 2010 till 2 pm in Research Block B, 6th

Floor, Room No. 6005 (Near Post Office, PGI).

In case of any query, please contact 0172-2755569.



Ans: D(Rectus abdominis) & E(Psoas major)

4.True about radial nerve:

A. Branch of posterior cord

B. Nerve of extensor compartment of forearm

C. Arise from C5-T1

D. Anterior interosseous nerve is branch of it

E. Supply skin of extensor compartment

Ans: A (Branch of..), B(Nerve of ..), C (Arise from..) & E(Supply..)

5.Anterior triangles of neck are :

A. Submental triangle

B. Carotid triangle

C. Supraclavicular triangle

D. Digastric triangle

E. Muscular triangle

Ans: A. (Submental ...), B. (Carotid ..), D. (Digastric..) E. (Muscular ..)

6.Features seen in common peroneal nerve injury:

A. Inversion inability

B. Loss of sensation of sole

C. Foot drop

D. Loss of extension of great toe

E. Seen in Fibular neck #

Ans: C. (Foot drop), D. (Loss of .....), E. (Seen ....)

7.Teres major of liver is remnant of:

A. Ductus venosus

B. Umblical artery

C. Ductus arteriosus

D. Peritoneum

E. Left umbilical vein

Ans : E (Left umbilical vein)

8.Rotator cuff is/are formed by all except:

A. Supraspinatus



B. Infraspinatus

C. Teres minor

D. Teres major

E. Subscapularis

Ans: D (Teres major)

9.Enchondral ossification is/are seen in:

A. Long bones

B. Flat bones of skull

C. Clavicle

D. Mandible

E. Nasal bones

Ans: A (Long bones)

10.Deep venous system of brain consists of:

A. Internal cerebral vein

B. Great cerebral vein

C. Basal veins

D. Cavernous sinus

Ans: A. (Internal cerebral vein), B. (Great cerebral vein) & (C Basal veins)

PHYSIOLOGY

11.“Nerve terminal releases chemical”- discovered by:

A. Dale

B. Withering

C. Domagk

D. Langley

E. Loewi

Ans: A. (Dale) & E. (Loewi)

12.True about Nissl granule:

A. Involved in RNA synthesis

B. Present in axon

C. Present in dendrite

D. Involved in protein synthesis



E. Structurally they are endoplasmic reticulum

Ans: C. (Present in...), D. (Involves in ...) E. Structurally they..)

13.Which of the following organ is not involved in Calcium metabolism:

A. Lung

B. Liver

C. Spleen

D. Skin

E. Kidney

Ans: C (Spleen)

14.True about milk secretion:

A. Neuroendocrine part of post. pituitary is involved

B. Secretion by contraction of lactiferous sinus

C. Oxytocin hormone is involved

D. Prolactin cause contraction of Myoepithelial cells

E. Affected by emotion

Ans: A. (Neuroendocrine..), B. (Secretion..) C. (Oxytocin..) E. (Affected by emotion)

15.CO2 retention is seen in:

A. Carbon monoxide poisoning

B. Respiratory failure

C. High altitude

D. Ventilatory failure

E. Pulmonary edema

Ans: B. (Respiratory...), D. (Ventilatory...), E. (Pulmonary ...)

“As one ascends higher, the alveolar PO2 falls less rapidly & alveolar CO2 declines somewhat

because of the hyperventilationQ”- Ganong 23rd/618



BIOCHEMISTRY

16.Which component transfers four protons :

A. NADH-Q Oxidoreductase

B. Cytochrome c Oxidase

C. Cytochrome-Qc oxidoreductase

D. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase

E. Succinate Q Reductase

Ans:A (NADH-Q Oxidoreductase) & C(Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase)

17.Hydrophobic aminoacids are:

A. Methionine

B. Isoleucine

C. Tyrosine

D. Alanine

E. Asparagine

Ans:ABD

18.True about competitive inhibition of enzyme:

A. ↑ Km

B. ↓ Km

C. ↑Vmax

D. No change in Km or Vmax

E. Vmax remain same

Ans: AE

“Estimates suggest that for each NADH oxidized, complex I & III translocate four proton each &

complex IV translocates two”- Harper 28th/106

Complexes I (NADH-Q oxidoreductase), III (Cytochrome-Qc oxidoreductase) and IV (Cytochrome c

Oxidase) act as proton pumps that cause pumping of protons from the matrix across the inner

mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space -Harper

Satyanarayan 3rd/48

Non-polar amino acidsQ

: These amino acids are also referred to as hydrophobic (water hatings).

They have no change on the 'R' group. The amino acids included in this group are-alanine,

leucine, isoleucine, valine, methionine, phenylalanine, tryptophan and proline.



19.Urea cycle enzymes are :

A. Glutaminase

B. Asparginase

C. Arginosuccinate synthetase

D. Ornithine transcarboxylase

E. Glutamate dehydrogenase

Ans: C (Arginosuccinate synthetase) & D (Ornithine transcarboxylase)

20.Epimer combination(s) is/are:

A. D-glucose & D- fructose

B. D-mannose & D-talose

C. D-glucose & D-mannose

D. D-glucose & D- gulose

E. D-galactose & D-glucose

Ans:CE

21.Glycosphingolipid is made up of :

A. Glucose

B. Glycerol

C. Sphingosine

D. Fatty acids

E. Thromboxane A2

Ans:ACD

22.Calvin cycle enzymes are:

A. G-6-PD

B. Sedoheptulose- 1-7-bisphosphatase

C. Glycerol Kinase

D. Phosphoribulose kinase

Ans: BD

“Biologically, the most important epimers of glucose are mannoseQ (epimerized at carbon 2) &

galactoseQ (epimerized at carbon 4)”- Harper 28th /115

“Galactose & mannose are not epimers”- Lippincott 4th/84 en.wikipedia.org /wiki/Gulose



23.High energy phosphate compounds are :

A. ATP

B. ADP

C. Creatinine phosphate

D. Acetyl CoA

Ans: ACD

24.Trypsin cleaves

A. Arginine

B. Glutamate

C. Lysine

D. Proline

Ans:AC

Calvin Cycle - Photosynthetic Carbon Reactions

The Calvin cycle or Calvin–Benson cycle or Reductive Pentose Phosphate cycle is a series of

biochemical reactions that take place in the stroma of chloroplasts in photosynthetic organisms.

The Calvin Cycle, earlier designated the photosynthetic "dark reactions" pathway, is now referred to

as the carbon reactions pathwayQ. Sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphatase (one of only three enzymes of

the Calvin cycle that are unique to plants) cleaves sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphate into

sedoheptulose-7-phosphate, releasing an inorganic phosphate ion into solution.

Finally, phosphoribulokinase (another plant-unique enzyme of the pathway) phosphorylates RuP into

RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, completing the Calvin cycle.

Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Calvin_cycle

“Trypsin catalyses hydrolysis of lysine & arginine esters, chymotrypsin esters of aromatic amino

acids & elastase ester of small neutral aliphatic amino acids”- Harper 28th/462

“Trypsin: It cannot hydrolyse any peptide bond with proline residue”- Chatterjea & Shinde

7th/435



IMMUNOGENETICS & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

25.Non coding RNAs are :

A. siRNA

B. miRNA

C. tRNA

D. mRNA

E. rRNA

Ans: A. (siRNA), B. (miRNA), C. (tRNA) E. (rRNA)

26. Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:

A. Releasing factor

B. Stop codon

C. Peptidyl transferase

D. UAA codon

E. AUG codon

Ans: E(AUG codon)

27. Nucleosome consists of :

A. Histone

B. DNA

C. RNA

D DNA & RNA both

E. Carbohydrate

Ans: A (Histone) & B (DNA)

28. Method (s) to determine protein structure is/are:

A. X-ray crystallography

B. NMR Spectroscopy

C. Electrophoresis

D. Ultrasonography

E. Infra red spectroscopy

“AUG is initiation codon while UAA is terminating codon”- Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/249-50



Ans: A(X-RAY..), B (NMR Spectroscopy) & E (Infra red spectroscopy)

PATHOLOGY

29.Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte:

A. Lipofuscin

B. Pseudomelanin

C. Bile pigment

D. Iron

E. Melanin

Ans: B (Pseudomelanin) & E (Melanin)

30. True about p53 :

A. Proapoptotic

B. Tumor supressor gene

C. Protooncogene

D. Tumor necrotic factor

E. Cause cell cycle arrest

Ans: A. (Proapoptotic), B. (Tumor supressor gene) & E. (Cause cell cycle arrest)

31.Stains used in amyloidosis :

A. Congo red

B. Thioflavin

C. Reticulin

D. Gram iodine

E. PAS

Ans: A. (Congo red), B. (Thioflavin) & E. (PAS)

32.Which Ca metastases to heart :

A. Ca breast

B. Ca stomach

ElectrophoresisQ is used for protein purification- Satyanarayan 3rd/60



C. Ca lung

D. Ca Urinary bladder

E. Osteosarcoma

Ans: A. (Ca breast), C. (Ca lung) & E. (Osteosarcoma)

33.HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis:

A. DR1

B. DR2

C. DR3

D. DR4

E. DR 5

Ans: D (DR4)

34.Schistocyte is found in:

A. TTP

B. DIC

C. Severe iron deficiency

D. Prosthetic heart valve

E. March hemoglobinuria

Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC), C. (Severe iron ...) D. (Prosthetic ...) E. March ...)

35.Breast Ca is not a/w:

A. BRCA1 & BRCA2

B. Apocrine metaplasia

C. Atypical ductal hyperplasia

D. Fibroadenoma

E. Moderate hyperplasia

Ans: B (Apocrine metaplasia) & D( Fibroadenoma)

36.Modified Bloom Richardson criteria for Ca breast includes:

A. Desmoplasia

B. Lymphovenous embolism

C. Mitotic rate

D. Tubule formation

E. Nuclear polymorphism



Ans: C. (Mitotic rate), D. (Tubule formation) & E. (Nuclear ...)

37.Characteristic finding of biopsy in mesothelioma includes:

A. Myelin

B. Desmosin

C. Weibel palade bodies

D. Branching microvilli

E. Fibrosis

Ans: D (Branching microvilli)

38.True about Dyskeratosis congenita:

A. Pancytopenia

B. Nail dystrophy

C. Hyperkeratosis

D. X linked

E. Leucoplasia

Ans: A. (Pancytopenia), B. (Nail ...), D. (X linked) & E. (Leucoplasia)

39.Mitochondrial abnormality seen in

A. Oncocytoma

B. Kearn-Sayre syndrome

C. Farber disease

D. Mitochondrial myopathy

E. Leigh’s disease

Ans: A. (Oncocytoma), B. (Kearn-Sayre...), D. (Mitochondrial...) & E. (Leigh’s disease)

40.Diseases having autosomal recessive inheritance:

A. Cystic fibrosis

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Duchene muscular dystrophy

D. Albinism

E. Vit. D resistant ricket



Ans: A. (Cystic fibrosis) & D. (Albinism)

41.Subepithelial deposits are seen in:

A. Minimal change disease

B. MPGN

C. Membranous GN

D. PSGN

E. IgA Nephropathy

Ans: C. (Membranous GN) & D. (PSGN)

42.True about apoptosis

A. Increase in lysosomal enzyme

B. Increase in caspases

C. Phosphatidyl serine has important role

D. Internucleosomal cleavage of nucleus

Ans: B (Increse in caspase), C (Phosph.. ) & D ( Intern…)

MICROBIOLOGY

43.Feature of congenital Syphilis are:

A. Snuffles is late manifestation

B. Perforation in cartilaginous part of nose

C. Mulberry molar

D. Saddle nose deformity

Ans: B CD

44.All are true about secondary syphilis except:

A. Gumma formation

B. Condyloma lata

C. Palmar erythema

The earliest sign of congenital syphilis (appearing 2–6 weeks after birth) is usually rhinitis, or

"snuffles “.



D. Chancre may occur

E. Mucosal patch

Ans. A ( Gumma..) & C( Palmar erythema)

45. All are true regarding autoimmune disease except:

A. T cell recognize self antigen

B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an example

C. Higher incidence among male

D. Polyclonal B cell activation

E. Co-stimulatory molecule involvement

Ans: C (Higher ..)

46. Hypersensitivity to metal is diagnosed by

A. Skin patch test

B. Total IgE level

C. Leucocyte histamine release test

D. Classic delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reactions

E. Lymphocyte assay

Ans: A(Skin patch ..) & D ( Classical ..)

47.Which of the following is not the manifestation of borellia burgdorferi:

A. Erythema chronicum migrans

B. Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

C. Lymphogranuloma venerum

D. Granuloma faciale

E. Lichen planus

Ans:CDE

48.Larva is seen in stool with :

A. Ankylostoma duodenale

Co-stimulatory molecules such as B7-1 (CD80) or B7-2 (CD86) are involved in autoimmunity.

Higher incidence among female.- Ananthnarayan 8th/172



B. Strongyloides stercoralis

C. Enterovirus vermicularis

D. Ascaris lumbricoides

E. Loa loa

Ans: A(Ankylostoma duodenale) & B (Strongyloides stercoralis)

49.Antigenic variation is seen in:

A. Treponema pallidum

B. Neisseria

C. Corynebacterium

D. Borrelia recurrentis

Ans:B ( Neisseria ) & D (Borrelia recurrentis)

50.True about diphtheria:

A. Gram –ive bacilli

B. I.P 2-5 days

C. Chemoprophylaxis is done with rifampicin

D. Previously immunized asymptomatic household contact should receive booster dose

E. Child recovered from illness- give active immunization

Ans: B (I.P 2- days) & D( Previously ..)

51.Genital ulcer seen in all except:

A. H. aegypticus

B. H. ducreyi

C. HSV

D. Chlamydia

E. T. pallidum

Ans:A (H. aegypticus)

“Hookworm (A. duodenale and N. americanus): In a stool sample that is not fresh, the eggs may

have hatched to release rhabditiform larvae, which need to be differentiated from those of S.

stercoralis”- Harrison 17th/1321



52. The term “viable not cultivable” (VNC) is used for:

A. M. Leprae

B. M. Tuberculosis

C. Trepenoma pallidum

D. H.pylori

E. Staphylococcus

Ans: A (M. Leprae) & B (Trepenoma pallidum)

PHARMACOLOGY

53.Theophyllin toxicity level increased in all except:

A. Smoking

B. Carbamazepine

C. Increased alcohol intake

D. Rifampicin

E. Ciprofloxacin

Ans: A. (Smoking), B. (Carbamazepine), C. (Increased...) & D. (Rifampicin)

54.Following are drugs except:

A. Nutrients

B. Blood component

C. Essential dietary ingredient

D. Poison

Ans: A. (Nutrients), B. (Blood ...) & C. (Essential ...)

55.Drug not effective in pseudomonas infection:

A. Ciprofloxacin

B. Norfloxacin

C. Aminoglycosides

D. Ampicillin

E. Piperacillin

“A drug can be defined as a chemical substance of known structure, other than a nutrient or an

essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a

biological effect”- Rang & Dale Pharmacology



Ans: B. (Norfloxacin) & D. (Ampicillin)

56. Aminoglycosides used in all except:

A. Staph. aureus

B. Streptococci

C. E. coli

D. Anaerobes

E. Salmonella typhi

Ans: D. (Anaerobes) & E. (Salmonella typhi)

57.A person driving a vehicle met with an accident. He was on certain medications. Which of the

following drugs, he might be taking

A. Fluoxetine

B. Fexofenadine

C. Tramadol

D. Buspirone

E. Chlorzoxazone

Ans: C. (Tramadol) & E. (Chlorzoxazone)

58.Which of the following are β1 selective antagonist:

A. Propanalol

B. Atenolol

C. Metoprolol

D. Pindolol

Ans: B. (Atenolol) & C.(Metoprolol )

59.Peptides drugs are :

A. Polymyxin B

B. Valinomycin

C. Streptomycin

D. Gramicidin S

E. Nodularin

Ans: A. (Polymyxin B), B. (Valinomycin), D. (Gramicidin S) & E. (Nodularin)

“For salmonella typhi aminoglycosides are not used”- Harrison 17th/959(table)

“Streptomycin is an aminoglycosides”- KDT 6th /668



60.Correctly matched pairs are:

A. Rifampicin – inhibit bacterial DNA polymerase

B. Terbinafine- inhibit fungal DNA polymerase

C. Acyclovir- inhibit viral DNA polymerase

D. Cytarabine- inhibit human DNA polymerse

Ans: C. (Acyclovir...) & D. (Cytarabine...)

61.Drugs which precipitates in renal tubule & cause obstruction:

A. Indinavir

B. Ceftriaxone

C. Guaifenesin

D. Atazanavir

Ans: A. (Indinavir), C. (Guaifenesin) & D. (Atazanavir)

62.Drugs that crosses blood brain barrier:

A. Erythromycin

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Ampicillin

D. Aminoglycosides

E. Ceftriaxone

Ans: B. (Cotrimoxazole), C. (Ampicillin) & E. (Ceftriaxone)

63.Amphotericin B toxicity is ↑ed by:

A. Normal saline

“Erythromycin do not cross BBB”-KDT 6th/728

“Aminoglycosides do not penetrate brain or CSF”- KDT 6th/719

“Ceftriaxone: Penetration into CSF is good”-KDT 6th/706

“Ampicillin: Penetration into CNS is poor, but in presence of active inflammation of

meninges, the drug concentration are sufficient to kill bacteria”- Katzung 10th/ 829-30

Cotrimoxazole:

“Trimethoprim adequately crosses BBB while sulfamethoxazole has a poorer entry”-KDT

6th/685

“Sulfamethoxazole is distributed widely in tissue & body fluids including CNS & CSF”-

Katzung 10th/ 763



B. Cardiac failure

C. Lipid formulations

D. Aminoglycosides

Ans: B. (Cardiac failure) & D. (Aminoglycosides)

64.True statement regarding Bioassay :

A. Done to know activity of endogenous substance

B. To know toxicity & efficacy of drug

Ans: A. (Done to .....) & B. (To know ....)

FORENSIC

65.True about battered baby syndrome:

A. Posterior rib # may be seen in xray

B. Injury at the side of metaphysis is specific

C. Epiphyseal injury common

D. Babygram is diagnostic

E. MC cause of death is extradural hemorrhage

Ans: All

66.All are true about postmortem staining except

A. Occur immediately after death

Bioassay (biological assay )

Purpose

1.measurement of the pharmacological activity of new or chemically undefined substances

2.investigation of the function of endogenous mediators

3.determination of the side-effect profile, including the degree of drug toxicity

4.measurement of the concentration of known substances (alternatives to the use of whole

animals have made this use obsolete)

5.assessing the amount of pollutants being released by a particular source, such as wastewater

or urban runoff.

Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bioassay



B. MC in dependent part

C. Disappear with rigor mortis

D. Margins are raised

E. Not found in internal organ

Ans: A. (Occurs..), C ( Disappear..),D( Margins..) & E. (Not found in internal organ)

67.Differentiating features of contusion (Vs postmortem staining) are :

A. Bluish in color

B. Disappear on pressure area

C. Margin irregular

D. Limited to intravascular compartment

E. Extravasation of blood occurs

Ans: C (Margin irregular) & E (Extravasation of blood occurs)

68.Rape even after consent is considered when age of woman is:

A. < 16yr

B. <17 yr

C. <21 yr

D. <25yr and in police custody

E. < 18 yr

Ans: A (< 16yr)

69.True about suspended animation:

A. Common phenomenon in yogic person

B. Can be voluntary

C. Similar to molecular death

D. Similar to brain death

E. Person can be revived

Ans: A ( Common), B (Can be voluntary) & E (Person..)

“PM staining persists until putrefaction sets in”- Reddy 27th/137

“PM staining does not appear elevated above the surface, but has sharply defined edges”- Modi’s

Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 23nd/429



70.True about pugilistic attitude:

A. Indicate antemortem burn

B. Indicate postmortem burn

C. Can not differentiate b/w ante & post mortem burn

D. Occur d/t intense heat

E. Indicate defence by victim

Ans: C ( Can ..), D. (D/t intense heat) & E. (indicate defence by victim)

71.Dimercaprol is used in poisoning with:

A. Pb

B. Hg

C. As

D. Acetaminophen

Ans: A (Pb), B. (Hg) & C. (As)

72.Not a grievous hurt:

A. Emasculation

B. Contusion over scalp

C. # of bone

D. Endanger life

E. Severe bodily pain for 15days

Ans: E (Severe bodily pain for 15days)

Suspended animation is apparent death ( not real death).

Signs of Molecular or Cellular death follow within 12-24 hrs after death & includes – cooling of

body, changes in eye, changes in the skin, PM staining & changes in muscle”- Parikh 6th/ 3.7

“Brain death is irreversible loss of cerebral function”- Reddy 27th/119

“Pugilistic attitude is present whether a living or dead body is burnt & has therefore no

medicolegal significance”- Parikh 6th/ 4.156



PSM

73.True about Cardiovascular diseases (CVD):

A. Urban & rural areas have equal incidence

B. RHD is a important cause of CVD

C. Primordial prevention is best strategy

D. Coronary heart disease cause 25% of total death

Ans: B. (RHD is ...), C. (Primordial ...) & D. (Coronary ...)

74.All of the following are incinerated except :

A. Mercury

B. Radiological waste

C. Halogen containing plastics

D Human anatomical waste

E. Animal waste

Ans: A. (Mercury), B. (Radiological waste) & C. (Halogen ..)

75.Zoonotic disease is/are transmitted by:

A. Ticks

B. Rat flea

C. Sand fly

D. Mosquito

E. Mite

Ans: All

76.The states, where crude birth rate is higher than the national level:

A. West Bengal

B. Maharashtra

C. Rajasthan

“Waste types not to be incinerated are : (a) pressurized gas containers; (b) large amount of

reactive chemical wastes; (c) silver salts and photographic or radiographic wastes; (d)

Halogenated plastics such as PVC; (e) waste with high mercury or cadmium content, such as

broken thermometers, used batteries, and lead-lined wooden panels; and (f) sealed ampules or

ampules containing heavy metals”- Park 20th/696



D. Madhya pradesh

E. Himachal pradesh

Ans: C. (Rajasthan) & D. (Madhya pradesh)

77.Assessment of Malnutrition is/are done by all except:

A. Creatinine-height index

B. Transferrin

C. Total lymphocyte count

D. Albumin concentration

E. Folate concentration

Ans: None (All option correct) Ref: (CSDT 11th/158)

78.Feature of slow filter (w.r.t fast filter) is/are:

A. Occupies less space

B. Highly skilled operation

C. Poor bacterial quality

D. Take more time for purification

E. Size of sand is smaller

Ans: D. (Take more...) & E. (Size of sand is smaller)

79.Features of RNTCP A/E:

A. Active case findings is not done

B. Included in NRHM in 2005

C. Teachers act as DOTS agent

D. Microscopy centre is established per 1 Lac

E. Achievement of at least 85% cure rate

Ans: B (Included in NRHM in 2005)

CBR(2004 data) India:24.1

Rajasthan:29

MP : 29.8

“The NRHM has not advocated for integration for malaria, TB & HIV/AIDS program because they

are the part of Milleniun Development Goals”-National health Programs of India by Jugal Kishore

7th/91



80.Dispersion of data is measured by:

A. Coefficient of correlation

B. Range

C. Standard deviation

D. Coefficient of variation

E. Normal distribution curve

Ans: B. (Range), C. (Standard deviation) & D. (Coefficient ...)

81. Job functions of Health Assistant male are:

A. ORS

B. Collect smear from any fever case

C. Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough

D. Immunisation

E. Check minimum of 10% house in a village

Ans: B. (Collect ....), D. (Immunisation) & E. (Check minimum ...)

OPHTHALMOLOGY

82. Postcataract infection can be prevented by:

A. Preop oral antibiotics

B. Postop oral antibiotics

C. Intraop IV antibiotics

D. Postop topical antibiotics

Ans: D (Postop topical antibiotics)

“ORS distribution is function of Health Worker Male & Female”- Park 20th/810-11

“Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough is function of Health Worker

male”- Park 20th/811

“Role of systemic antibiotics has been severely questioned by the endophthalmitis vitrectomy

study at least for the cases of post cataract surgery endophthalmitis”- Clinical Practice in

Ophthalmology by Sandeep Saxena 1st/414



83.Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:

A. Shield ulcer

B. Horner-Trantas spots

C. Papillary hypertrophy

D. Herbert pits

E. Pannus

Ans: A. (Shield ulcer), B. (Horner..) & C. (Papillary hypertrophy)

84.Cause of Cataract

A. Infrared

B. Microwaves

C. UV rays

D. Obesity

Ans: A (Infrared), C (UV rays) & D (Obesity)

85.Causes of floaters in DM is:

A. Vitreous hemorrahage

B. Vitreal detachment

C. Maculopathy

D. Infarction

Ans: A (Vitreous hemorrahage)

Herbert pits & pannus are feature of trachomaQ- Khurana 4th/64-65

Trantas spots – Presence of discrete whitish raised dots along the limbus in vernal

conjunctivitis.-Khurana 4th

/75

American Academy of Ophthalmology Section 11/56-57 writes “Microwave radiation has been

shown to cause cataracts in laboratory animals. Human case reports and epidemiologic studies

are more controversial and less conclusive than experimental studies” (So should not marked as

an answer).

“Sometimes the onset of new floaters is secondary to vitreous hemorrahage, often caused by

advanced Diabetic retinopathy”- Parson 20th/88



86.All are true about optic nerve except :

A. Arises from axons of bipolar neurons

B. 4 cm long

C. Covered by 3 layers continuous with meninges

D. Crossed by ophthalmic artery

Ans: A. (Arises from ....) & B. (4 cm long)

87.True about fovea:

A. Cones present

B. Visual acquity lowest

C. Optic nerve passes

D. Rods present

E. Visual acquity highest

Ans: A. (Cones present) & E. (Visual acquity highest)

88.Features of non-proliferative DR is all except:

A. Neovascularisation

B. Soft exudate

C. Hard exudate

D. Vitreous detachment

E. Cotton-wool spot

Ans: A. (Neovascularisation) & D. (Vitreous detachment)

89.A 10 yr boy present with b/l chronic uveitis. Which investigation should be ordered :

A. Hemogram

B. X -ray of sacroiliac jt.

C. HIV test

D. Mantoux test

Ans: A. (Hemogram), B. (X -ray of sacroiliac jt.) & D. (Mantoux test)

ENT

90.Surfers ear is:

A. Exostosis

B. Otosclerosis

C. Otitis externa



D. Squamous cell Ca

E. Fibrous dysplasia

Ans: A (Exostosis)

91.True about sphenoid sinus:

A. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium

B. Duct open in middle meatus

C. Open in sphenoethmoid recess

D. Present at birth

E. Present in greater wing of sphenoid

Ans: C (Open in sphenoethmoid recess)

92.Not included in oral cavity Ca:

A. Base of tongue

B. Gingivobuccal sulcus

C. Soft palate

D. Hard palate

E. Buccal mucosa

Ans: A. (Base of tongue) & C. (Soft palate)

93.Sampters triad includes:

A. Bronchiectesis

B. Asthma

C. Aspirin sensitivity

D. Nasal polyposis

E. Tinnitus

Ans: B. (Asthma), C. (Aspirin sensitivity) & D. (Nasal polyposis)

Exostosis : abnormal bone growth within the ear canal.

“The oropharynx includes the base of the tongue and tonsil”- P.L. Dhingra 5th/257

“The palate is divided anatomically into the hard palate (part of the oral cavity) and the soft

palate (part of the oropharynx)” -. emedicine.medscape.com ›Head & Neck Surgery



94.Mandibular hypoplasia seen in:

A. Usher’s syndrome

B. Treacher-Collins syndrome

C. Crouzon’s syndrome

D. Velocardio-facial syndrome

E. Achondroplasia

Ans: B. (Treacher...), C. (Crouzon’s ...) & D. (Velocardio...)

MEDICINE

95.True about PEComa (Perivascular Epithelioid Cell tumour) :

A. Melanin & HMB45 are markers

B. Malignant melanoma variant

C. Contain perivascular epithelioid cells

D. Angiomyolipoma(AML) is a subtype

Ans. A. (Melanin ...), C. (Contain ...) & D. (Angiomyolipoma...)

96.True about third heart sound (H3):

A. Heard in MR

B. Diastolic sound

Ans: A (Heard in MR) & B (Diastolic sound)

97.Investigstions in a clinically suspected case of tuberculosis is done by:

A. Mantoux test (in children)

B. Sputum AFB

C. QuantiFERON-TB Gold

D. Bactec

E. T-SPOT-TB

Ans. All (A,B,C,D& E)

98.All are true about Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:

A. Surgery is done

B. Exocrine tumour

C. Endocrine disorder

D. Secretory diarrhoea seen

E. Metastasis seen



Ans. B (Exocrine tumour)

99.True about malignant melanoma:

A. Lymphatic spread

B. Lymph node biopsy is always done

C. Biopsy to be done when sentinel node is involved

D. Microsatellitism seen

Ans: All

100.True about Septic shock

A. ↓ Cardiac output is initially present

B. Vascular dilation

C. Hypotension is a late sign

D. Widespread endothelial dysfunction

Ans: B. (Vascular dilation), C. (Hypotension ...) & D. (Widespread ...)

101.True statement about GERD:

A. Associated with H.pylori

B. Fundoplication is done

C. Smoking is protective

D. PPI is used in treatment

E. Bernstein test is done

Ans: B. (Fundoplication ...), D. (PPI is used ...) & E. (Bernstein ...)

102.Which of the following manifestation of Crohn’s Disease do not respond to treatment/occur after

treatment:

A. Pyoderma gangrenosum

B. Primary scleorosing colitis

C. Erythema nodosum

D. Nephrolithiasis

E. Ankylosing spondylitis

Ans: A. (Pyoderma...), B. (Primary...), D. (Nephrolithiasis) & E. (Ankylosing ...)



103.Manifestation (s) of hypokalemia includes:

A. Prominent U wave

B. Rhabdomyolysis

C. Diarrhoea

D. Tetany

E. Muscle cramp

Ans: A. (Prominent ...), B. (Rhabdomyolysis), D. (Tetany) & E. (Muscle cramp)

104.True about Myasthenia gravis :

A. Defect at myoneural junction

B. ↑ Ach receptor

C. ↓Ach receptor

D. Thymoma occur

E. Autoimmune disease

Ans. A. (Defect...), C. (↓Ach receptor), D. (Thymoma...) & E. (Autoimmune ...)

105.False statement about extraadrenal pheochromocytoma:

A. 50% extraadrenal

B. May occur in Bladder

C. May occur in thorax

D. Involve carotid body

Ans : A (50% extraadrenal)

106.Feature of NF1 are:

A. Axillary freckle

B. Ash leaf macules

C. Optic glioma

D. Acoustic neuroma

E. Family history

Ans: A. (Axillary ...), B. (Ash ...), C. (Optic glioma) & E. (Family ...)

107.Reactive arthritis is a/w

A. C jejuni

B. Yersenia

C. Salmonella



D. Chlamydia

E. Mycoplasma

Ans: A. (C jejuni), B. (Yersenia), C. (Salmonella) & D. (Chlamydia)

108. All are true about congenital erythropoetic porphyria except :

A. Can occur from infancy to adult

B. Erythrodontia

C. Ferrochelase def.

D. Corporophyrin III in urine

E. Uroporphyrin in urine

Ans: C. (Ferrochelase def.) & D. (Corporophyrins ...)

109.Drug used in unstable angina & NSTEMI :

A. Morphine

B. Aspirin

C. Nitrates

D. Thrombolytic agents

E. CCB

Ans: All

110.Causes of secondary hypertension are:

A. Old age

B. Parenchymal kidney disease

C. Pregnancy

D. Hypothyroidism

Ans: All

111.Severe diarrhea is associated with:

A. Met acidosis

B. Met alkalosis

C. Normal anion gap

D. Inc. anion gap

Ans: A (Met acidosis) & C (Normal anion gap)



112.Nephrogenic dibetus insipidus causing drugs are:

A. Li

B. Demeclocycline

C. Acyclovir

D. Amphotericin B

Ans: A. (Li), B. (Demec..) & D. (Amphotericin B)

113.Thrombotic thrombocytopenic microangiopathy are seen in:

A. TTP

B. DIC

C. HUS

D. Polycythemia

Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC) & C. (HUS)

114.Anti ds DNA is specific for:

A. SLE

B. Systemic sclerosis

C. Wegener granulomatosis

Ans. A (SLE)

115.All are feature of Sjogren syndrome except:

A. Interstitial nephritis

B. Subcutaneous fibrosis

C. Lack of tear

D. Xerostomia

E. More common in male

Ans: B (Subcutaneous fibrosis) & E (More common in male)

116.Extra articular manifestation of RA are all except:

A. Subcutaneous nodule

B. Renal failure

C. Spleen atrophy

D. Scleritis

E. Pleural effusion

Ans: B (Renal failure) & C (Spleen atrophy)



117.False about mesial temporal lobe epilepsy :

A. Respond well to medical treatment

B. Most common syndrome associated with tonic clonic seizure

C. MRI is diagnostic

D. Surgery is TOC

E. Hippocampal sclerosis seen

Ans: A ( Respond..) & B (Most..)

118.Hydrogen breath assay is used for:

A. Lactose intolerance

B. GERD

C. H.Pylori

Ans: C (H.Pylori)

119.True about pulmonary sarcoidosis :

A. Schaumann & asteroid bodies are present

B. CD4/CD8 <2.5

C. Non caseating granuloma

D. Intravascular granuloma

E. Perihilar & peribronchial granuloma

Ans. A (Schaumann..)C. (Non caseating ...), D. (Intravascular ...) & E. (Perihilar ...)

120.Sclerodema like disorder is/ are caused by:

A. Vinyl chloride

B. Bleomycin

C. Aromatic hydrocarbon

D. Pentazocine

E. Gold

Ans. A. (Vinyl ...), B. (Bleomycin), C. (Aromatic ...) & D. (Pentazocine)

121.Not a risk for cholangio ca

A. Hepatolithiasis

B. Hepatitis C

C. Clonorchis sinensis

D. Choledocholithiasis



E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Ans: None

122.True about wegener’s granulomatosis:

A. Sinusitis

B. CD4/CD8 ratio reversed (Confirm as answer or not)

C. ANA positive

D. Hypocomplementia

Ans: A. (Sinusitis) & C. (ANA positive)

SURGERY

123.True about parotid tumor:

A. Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancy

B. Pleomorphic adenoma is MC variety

C. Malignant disease is MC variety

Ans: AB

124.All are true about amoebic liver abscess except:

A. Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment

B. Multifocal abscess can not be treated by aspiration

C. More common in left side

D. More common in female

Ans: C (More common in left side) & D (More common in female)

125.True about Hirschprung's disease :

A. Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated

B. Descending colon is most common site of aganglionosis

C. Barium enema is diagnostic

D. It is seen in infants & children only

E. Barium enema show calcification

Ans: A (Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated)



126.True about Ischemic rest pain :

A. More in night

B. MC in calf muscle

C. Increase upon elevation of limbs

D. Relieved by dependent position

E. Often associated with trophic changes

Ans. All

127.All are true about intermittent claudication except :

A. Most common in calf muscle

B. Pain is positional

C. Atherosclerosis is important predisposing factor

D. Relieved by rest

Ans: B (Pain is positional)

128.Hypogastric pain arise from:

A. Uterus

B. Left colon

C. Urinary bladder

D. Gall Bladder

Ans: ABC

129.True about Intussusceptions in children :

A. Most common variety is ileocolic

B. A/w pathological lead point

C. May be seen after viral infection

D. Can be relieved by barium enema

E. Surgery is always indicated

Ans:ABCD

130.True about treatment of intussusceptions :

A. Air enema

B. Saline enema

C. Ba enema

D. Hydostatic reduction under sedation

E. Colonoscopy is always done to confirm diagnosis

Ans:ACD



131.True about volvulus

A. Most common in caecum

B. Common in psychiatric pt.

C. Bird's beak sign

D. May present as intestinal obstruction

Ans: B. (Common ....), C. (Bird's ...) & D. (May present ....)

132. About papillary carcinoma true statement is/are:

A. Radiation cause it

B. Multi focal

C. Hematogenous spread is common

D. Distant metastasis is seen

E. More common in iodine deficient area

Ans. A. (Radiation ...), B. (Multi focal), D. (Distant ....) & E. (More common ....)

133.Colonic disease can be diagnosed by all except:

A. Virtual colonoscopy

B. Ba enema

C. Ba swallow

D. Ba meal follow through

E. Enteroclysis

Ans: C (BA..), D (Ba..),E (Enteroclysis)

134.T/t of CBD stone includes

A. ERCP

B. Cholecystectomy

C. Ursodeoxy cholic acid

D. Hepatojejunostomy

E. Choledochotomy

Ans: ABCE

Ba swallow & Ba meal follow through is meant for upper GI tract (oesophagus,stomach & small

intestine)

Enteroclysis (Small bowel enema) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Enteroclysis

• It is a fluoroscopic X-ray of the small intestine.



O BSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY

135.True statement regarding use of antiepileptic drugs in pregnancy:

A. Valproate is associated with NTD

B. Multiple drug should be given

C. Carbamazepine is safe

D. Phenytoin can produces foetal hydantoin syndrome

Ans: A (Valproate is associated ...) & D (Phenytoin ...)

136.Risk factors for pre-eclampsia:

A. Age >35yr

B. Obesity

C. Previous h/o preeclampsia

D. Multigravida

E. Antiphospholipid syndrome

Ans: All

137.True statement (s) regarding Ca cervix involving parametrium but not pelvic involvement:

A. Stage II A

B. Stage II B

C. Radiotherapy should be given

D. Hysterectomy can be useful

E. Staging should be done only after cystoscopy

Ans: B (Stage II B), C ( Radio..) & E ( Staging)

138.In Ca cervix low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in Bethesda system includes:

A. CIN I

B. CIN II

C. CIN III

D. Squamous metaplasia

Ans:A (CIN I)

139.A 35 yr old P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy . T/t includes:

A. Cold knife conization

B. Hysterectomy

C. Radical hysterectomy

D. Lap assisted hysterectomy

E. LEEP



Ans: E (LEEP)

140.True statement regarding cholestasis in pregnancy:

A. Reccurs in subsequent pregnancy

B. Ursodeoxyholic acid relieves pruritus

C. Mild jaundice occurs in majority of patients

D. Pruritus may precedes laboratory findings

E. Serum alkaline phosphatase is most sensitive indicator

Ans: A. (Reccurs...), B. (Ursodeoxyholic ...), C. (Mild ...) & D. (Pruritus ....)

141.Oligohydramnios is/are associated with:

A. Neural tube defect

B. Renal agenesis

C. Postmature birth

D. Premature birth

Ans: B. (Renal agenesis) & C. (Postmature birth)

142.True about MRKH (Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser) syndrome:

A. Absent uterus

B. Absent ovary

C. Absent vagina

D. XX phenotype

E. XY phenotype

Ans: A. (Absent uterus), C. (Absent vagina) & D. (XX phenotype)

143.True about Klinefelter syndrome:

A. XXY

B. XO

C. Male hypogonadism

D. Female hypogonadism

E. ↑FSH

Ans: A. (XXY), C. (Male hypogonadism) & E. (↑FSH)

“Although CIN can be treated with a variety of techniques, the preferred treatment for CIN 2 and 3

has become LEEP. Hysterectomy is currently considered too radical for treatment of CIN”- Novak’s

14th/582,485



144.True about PCOS

A. High FSH/LH ratio

B. Unilateral large ovarian cyst in 60-80%

C. Hirsutism

D. ↑ed. risk of DM

E. OCP given for treatment

Ans: C. (Hirsutism), D. (↑ed. risk ...) & E. (OCP given for treatment)

145.Regarding H1N1 influenza in pregnancy, true statement (s) is/are:

A. Oseltamavir is used

B. H1N1 more dangerous in pregnancy

C. Should start t/t only after confirmation of diagnosis

Ans: A. (Oseltamavir is used) & B. (H1N1 more ...)

146.True regarding changes during pregnancy:

A. Hyperplasia of parathyroid

B. Hyperplasia of thyroid

C. Increased Pigmentation

D. ↓ BMR

E. ↑ Insulin

Ans: A. (Hyperplasia ...), B. (Hyperplasia ...), C. (Increased ....) & E. (↑ Insulin)

147.True about vaccum extraction of fetus :

A. Can be used in non dilated cervix

B. Can be used in incompletely dilated cervix

C. Used in face presentation

D. Applied 3cm post. to Anterior fontanelle

E. Applied 3cm ant. to post fontanelle

Ans: B (Can be used ...) & E (Applied 3cm ....)

148.True about MgSO4

A. Tocolytic

B. Used in Management of eclampsia

C. Cause neonatal respiratory depression

Ans: A. (Tocolytic), B. (Used in ...) & C. (Cause neonatal ...)



149.True statement regarding ectopic pregnancy :

A. Pregnancy test positive

B. βhCG levels should be >1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS

C. βhCG levels should be <1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS

D. Methotrexate is used

Ans: A. (Pregnancy ...), B. (βhCG levels ...) & D. (Methotrexate)

150.All are true about Prelabour rupture of membrane (PROM) except:

A. Amnioinfusion is done

B. Amoxiclav antiobiotic should be given

C. Asceptic cervical examination

D. Steroid is used

E. Preterm labour

Ans: A (Amnioinfusion is done)

151.Prolong latent phase is/are seen in:

A. Placenta praevia

B. Unripe cervix

C. Abruptio placentae

D. Excessive sedation

E. Early epidural analgesia

Ans: B. (Unripe cervix), D. (Excessive sedation) & E. (Early ...)

152.True statement regarding sarcoma botryoides:

A. Involvement of vagina

B. Grape like growth seen

C. Common in old age

D. Malignant

Ans: A. (Involvement ...), B. (Grape like ...) & D. (Malignant)

153.Abortion (in men!!!, misprinted in paper, should be women) is/are caused by:

A. Borrelia recurrentis

B. HIV

“A intrauterine sac should be visible by TVS when the βhCG levels of approximately 1000

mIU/ml”- COGDT 10th/268



C. Listeria

D. Syphilis

E. HBV

Ans: B. (HIV), C. (Listeria) & D. (Syphilis)

PAEDIATRICS

154.What are the complication (s) of pyogenic meningitis in a child:

A. Arachinoidits

B. Mental retardation

C. Status epilepticus

D. Sensorineural hearing loss

Ans: All

155.True statement(s) about posterior urethral valves in neonate:

A. B/l hydroneprhosis may be present

B. Creatinine & urea levels remain normal

C. Enlarge & widen prostatic urethra

D. More common in girls

Ans:A (B/l hydroneprhosis ...) C (Enlarge ...)

156.Organic cause of constipation in infant are all except:

A. High fibre diet

B. Cystic fibrosis

C. Hypothyroidism

Ans:A (High fibre diet)

157.True regarding neonatal resuscitation:

A. Ist nasal suctioning done

B. Ist mouth suctioning done

C. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 3cm and mouth is upto 5cm

D. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 5cm and mouth

upto 3cm

Ans:B (Ist mouth ...) & C (Max. length of ....)



158.A 1 & 1/2 yr child can do:

A. Build tower of 4 blocks

B. Speak 10-25 meaningful word

C. Scribble

D. Points 3-4 body parts

E. Copies parents in task

Ans: B. (Speak 10-25 ...), C. (Scribble) & E. (Copies parents ...)

159.A child presented with cola coloured urine, proteinuria 2+ & h/o rash 2 week ago. Probable Dx is:

A. IgA nephropathy

B. HSP

C. HUS

D. Wegener Granulomatosis

Ans:B (HSP)

ORTHOPAEDICS

160.True about parosteal osteosarcoma:

A. Same prognosis as medullary type

B. Never go to medulla

C. May involve medulla

Ans: C (May involve medulla)

Devita 7th/1671

• It has a better prognosis than classic osteosarcoma

• It has intramedullary extension

• Scribbles – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28

• Tower of 3 blocks – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28

• Tower of 6 blocks – 2 years O.P. Ghai 7th/28

• Copies parents in task – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30

• Vocabulary of 10-15 words- 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30

• Vocabulary of 100 words – 2 yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30

• Point 3-4 body part – 2yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30



161.True about carpal tunnel syndrome:

A. Occur in pregnancy

B. Affects medial 3 ½ finger

C. Associated with Hypothyroidism

D. Froment sign positive

E. Median nerve involvement is present

Ans: A. (Occur in ..), C. (Associated ...) & E. (Median nerve ..)

162.Complication of # radius are:

A. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture

B. Myositis ossificans

C. Infection

D. Tendon rupture

E. Angiodysplasia

Ans: A. (Volkmann ...), B. (Myositis..), C. (Infection) & D. (Tendon...)

163.True about Duputurens contracture:

A. A/w peyronie’s disease

B. First affect index finger

C. Nodule formation & thickening of palmar fascia

D. Amputation may be required

Ans: A. (A/w ...), C. (Nodule ...) & (D. (Amputation...)

164.All are true statement regarding talipes equinovarus except:

A. Cubitus valgus

B. Inversion of the foot

C. Abduction of the forefoot

D. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita causes it

E. Treatment should start after 3 month

Ans: A.(Cubitus valgus ), C (Abduction of the forefoot)& E( Treatment should start after 3 month)

Carpal tunnel syndrome affects lateral 3 ½ fingers

Froment sign is seen in ulnar nerve injury

The ring finger is affected most commonly.



ANESTHESIA

165. True about propofol :

A. Indicated in egg allergy

B. Can be used in porphyria

C. It is of barbiturate group

D. Used in day care surgery

Ans: B. (Can be ..) & D. (Used in...)

166. True about Bain circuit:

A. Mapleson type B

B. Mapleson type D

C. Can be used for spontaneous respiration

D. Can be used for controlled ventilation

E. Coaxial

Ans: B. (Mapleson..), C. (Can be ...), D. (Can be used ....) & E. (Coaxial)

167. True about Laryngeal mask airway:

A. More reliable than face mask

B. Prevent aspiration

C. Alternative to Endotracheal tube (E.T.T)

D. Does not require laryngoscope & visualisation

E. Indicated in full stomach to prevent aspiration

Ans: A. (More ...), C. (Alternative ...) & D. (Does not ...)

168. True statement regarding pin index:

A. Pin is present on cylinder

B. Pin is present on machine

C. Not effective if wrong gas is filled in cylinder

D. Pin index of air is 2,5

Ans: B. (Pin is ...) & C. (Not effective if ..)

Initial treatment is always nonoperative and should be started as soon as possible, preferably

the day the infant is born.

Adduction of the forefoot occurs.



169. True about Epidural anesthesia:

A. Effects start immediately

B. C/I in coagulopathies

C. Given in subarachnoid space

D. Venous return decreases

Ans: B. (C/I in ...) & D. (Venous ...)

SKIN

170.Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation:

A. Leprosy

B. Pinta

C. Syphilis

D. Pytriasis alba

E. Pytriasis versicolor

Ans: C (Syphilis)

171. Acantholysis is/are seen in:

A. SSSS

B. Impetigo

C. Hailey –Hailey disease

D. Darrier’s disease

E. Pemphigus vulgaris

Ans: C (Hailey ...), D (Darrier’s disease) & E (Pemphigus ...)

PSYCHIATRY

172.True about Autism:

A. Persistent delusion

B. Persistent hallucination

C. Incoordinate social interaction

D. Defective reciprocal interaction

“Pinta: Secondary skin lesion is caused by hyperpigmentation or hypopigmentation”-

Ananthanarayan 8th/378



E. Onset after 5 yr

Ans: C. (Incoordinate ....) & D. (Defective reciprocal interaction)

173.SSRI is first line treatment for :

A. OCD

B. Panic disorder

C. Social phobia

D. Post traumatic stress disorder

E. Adjustment disorder

Ans: A. (OCD), B. (Panic disorder), C. (Social phobia), D. (Post ..)

174.True about treatment of personality disorder:

A. Antipsychotic drugs are used

B. SSRI used in treatment

C. Behaviour therapy

D. No need of medication

Ans: A. (Antipsychotic..), B. (SSRI ...), C. (Behaviour..) & D. (No need ...)

175.Atypical (Second generation or newer) antipsychotics are:

A. Aripiprazole

B. Risperidone

C. Pimozide

D. Penfluridol

E. Olanzapine

Ans: A. (Aripiprazole), B. (Risperidone) & E. (Olanzapine)

176.Indications of ECT is/are:

A. Psychotic depression

B. Catatonic schizophrenia

C. Cyclothymia

“The SSRIs are now 1st choice drugs for OCD, panic disorder, social phobia, eating disorders,

premenstrual dysmorphic disorder & post traumatic stress disorder.”- KDT 6th/446



D. Dysthymia

E. Post traumatic stress disorder

Ans: A. (Psychotic depression) & B. (Catatonic schizophrenia)

177.Features of serotonin syndrome associated with SSRI & MAOIs are:

A. Tremors

B. Agitation

C. Cardiovascular collapse

D. Hypothermia

E. Suicidal tendency

Ans: A. (Tremors), B. (Agitation) & C. (Cardiovascular collapse)

178.Prophylactic blood level of Li is:

A. 0.3 mEq/L

B. 0.6 mEq/L

C. 0.9 mEq/L

D. 1.2 mEq/L

E. 1.5 mEq/L

Ans. B. (0.6 mEq/L), C. (0.9 mEq/L) & D. (1.2 mEq/L)

RADIOLOGY

179. Which combination is/are false about T1/2 of radioisotopes:

A. Ra-226 : 1626 years

B. I-131 : 60 years

C. Co-60: 5.26 years

D. Ir-192:74 years

E. Cs-137: 30 years

Ans: B. (I-131 : 60 years) & D. (Ir-192:74 years)

Neeraj Ahuja 6th/84 writes about Li

Therapeutic LevelsQ = 0.8-1.2 mEq/L

Prophylactic LevelsQ = 0.6-1.2 mE/q

T1/2 of Ir-192 is 74 days & I-131 is 8 days



180. Radium emits:

A. α Rays

B. β Rays

C. γ Rays

D. Neutron

E. X-rays

Ans: A. (α Rays), B. (β Rays), C. (γ Rays) & D. (Neutron)

182. Left sided cardiac bulge seen on chest X-ray is/are d/t to:

A. Enlargement of left atrial appendage

B. Azygous vein enlargement

C. Coronary artery aneurysm

D. Pulmonary edema

E. Right atrial hypertrophy

Ans: A (Enlargement of left atrial appendage)

183. Figure of eight is seen in:

A. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)

B. Transposition of great arteries (TGA)

C. TOF

D. Ebstein anomaly

E. ASD

Ans: A (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC))

184. Earliest investigation for diagnosing Ankylosing spondylitis is :

A. MRI STIR sequence

B. Bone scan

C. CT scan

D. X-ray

E. USG

Ans: A (MRI STIR sequence)

Dynamic MRI with either short tau inversion recovery (STIR) sequence or T1-weighted images with

contrast enhancement, is highly sensitive and specific for identifying early intraarticular

inflammationQ, cartilage changes, and underlying bone marrow edema in sacroiliitis.



185. For renal stone, diagnosis is not done by:

A. IVP

B. X-ray

C. PET- Scan

D. USG

E. CT scan

Ans: C (PET- Scan)

186. 1 Becquerel is equal (Disintegration/sec) to:

A. 3.7 x 1010

B. 2.7 x 1010

C. 1.7x 1010

D. 3.7x 10-2

E. 1

Ans: E (1)

187. Isotopes used in relief of metastatic bone pain includes:

A. Strontium-89

B. I-131

C. Gold-198

D. P-32

E. Rhenium-186

Ans: A. (Strontium-89), B (I-131) & D(P-32) & E. (Rhenium-186)

188. Teardrop bladder seen in :

A. Pelvic hematoma

B. Pelvic lipomatosis

C. T.B

D. Neurogenic bladder

E. Intraperitoneal bladder rupture

Ans: A.(Pelvic hematoma) & B. (Pelvic lipomatosis)

1Bq= 1 disintegration/second

1 Curie (Ci)= 3.7 x 1010

disintegration/second

“Extraperitoneal bladder rupture causes teardrop bladder or Pear-shaped bladder”- Radiology

Review Manual by Wolfgang Dahnert 5th/ 975



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