What Is Organizational Behavior

_____ are individuals who get things done through other people.A. LeadersB. PsychologistC. OrganizationsD. Managers

Which French industrialist said that a manager's functions consist of planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling?

A. Henri Fayol B. Henry MintzbergC. Fred LuthansD. Herb Kelleher

Through the _____ function, managers monitor the performance of the organization and significant deviations.

A. OrganizingB. PlanningC. LeadingD. Controlling

_____ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations.

A. PsychologyB. Organizational behavior C. SociologyD. Leadership

is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behaviour of humans and other animals.

A. AnthropologyB. Social psychologyC. SociologyD. Psychology

Productivity implies a concern for _____ and _____.A. Efficiency, effectiveness B. Customer service, quality controlC. Customer service, efficiencyD. Effectiveness, quality control

The four management functions include all of the following EXCEPT.A. ControllingB. PlanningC. Staffing D. Organizing

_____ studies behavior as it relates to concerns such as absenteeism, turnover, productivity, and performance

A. PsychologyB. KineticsC. Organizational behavior D. Ergonomics

According to the text, the best approach for obtaining knowledge about human behavior is_____.

A. Using common senseB. A n observational approachC. A theoretical approachD. A systematic approach

What behavioral science discipline has made the MOST significant contributions to understanding individual behavior?

A. SociologyB. Social psychologyC. Psychology D. Anthropology

_____ has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries.

A. Anthropology B. PsychologyC. Social psychologyD. Political science

The field of organizational behavior is most concerned with an organization's _____.

A. ResponsivenessB. EfficiencyC. PerceptionD. Effectiveness

"Intuition" is concerned with _____.A. Gut feelings B. Systematic study scientific C. AnalysisD. Predictive ability

_____ is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals.

A. AnthropologyB. Social psychologyC. SociologyD. Psychology

Which is not a contributing area to Organizational Behavior?A. AnthropologyB. Physiology C. PsychologyD. Sociology

_____ is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities.

A. SociologyB. Social PsychologyC. Anthropology D. Political Science

Foundations of Organization Structure

Work specialization is also known as _____.A. Span of controlB. Chain of commandC. FormalizationD. Division of labour

_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.A. FormalizationB. SpecializationC. Departmentalization D. Chain of command

The _____ is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest level and clarifies who reports to whom.

A. Chain of command B. Span of controlC. FormalizationD. Organizational structure

_____ refers to the number of employees that can be directed by one manager.

A. FormalizationB. Span of control C. AuthorityD. Centralization

Most small businesses are organized as _____.A. Simple structures B. Matrix structuresC. Virtual organizationsD. Bureaucracies

The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is _____.A. FlexibilityB. DecentralizationC. Standardization D. Creativity

The _____ combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product.

A. Simple structureB. Virtual organizationC. BureaucracyD. Matrix structure

Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization?A. Clear organizational structure.B. Coordination of complex and interdependent activities. C. Elimination of power struggles.D. All of the above.

A _____ relies primarily on outsourcing.A. Team structureB. Boundaryless organizationC. Virtual organization D. Strategic alliance

The _____ model has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and little participation by low-level members in decision making.

A. Mechanistic B. StrategyC. OrganicD. Routine

A(n) _____ organization uses flat, cross-hierarchal and cross-functional teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and involves high participation in decision making.

A. MechanisticB. StrategyC. Organic D. Routine

Organizations that pursue a cost-minimization strategy are more likely to choose a(n) _____ structure.

A. FunctionalB. Mechanistic C. DepartmentalizedD. Organic

_____ refers to how a firm converts its inputs to outputs.A. EnvironmentB. StructureC. RoutineD. Technology

_____ is the degree to which an environment can support growth.A. InstabilityB. ComplexityC. Capacity D. Volatility

_____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.

A. Chain of commandB. Span of controlC. CentralizationD. Organizational structure

Division of labour is also known as _____.A. Span of controlB. DepartmentalizationC. Work specialization D. Formalization

Which of the following is true regarding specialization?A. Less time is spent in changing tasks.B. It's easier and less costly to find and train workers to do specific and repetitive

tasks.C. Employee skills tasks at performing tasks increases through repetition.D. Training for specialization is less efficient.

_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.A. CompartmentalizationB. Structured hierarchyC. Departmentalization D. Specialization

The _____ is an unbroken line of authority running from the top to the bottom of the organization.

A. Chain of command B. Span of controlC. Hierarchical lineD. Vertical structure

_____ refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed.

A. Unity of commandB. Authority C. Bureaucratic controlD. Formalization

_____, to a large degree, determines the number of levels and managers an organization has.

A. HierarchyB. AuthorityC. FormalizationD. Span of control

_____ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.

A. DecentralizationB. FormalizationC. Centralization

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a simple structure?A. Wide spans of controlB. Low degree of departmentalizationC. Authority centralized in a single personD. Highly formalized rules and regulations

The simple structure is most widely practiced in _____.A. Mid-range size businessesB. Large corporationsC. Small businesses D. International organizations

A _____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks, very formalized rules, and tasks that are grouped into functional departments.

A. Virtual organizationB. Bureaucracy C. Boundaryless organizationD. Team structure

As size increases, decision making typically _____.A. Becomes more efficientB. Moves through fewer organizational levelsC. Becomes slower D. Becomes more effective

Typically, a matrix structure combines _____ departmentalization.A. Customer and geographicB. Geographic and processC. Functional and processD. Functional and product

A matrix structure violates that _____ concept.A. Span of controlB. Unity-of-command C. CentralizationD. Contingency

In a _____ organization, a small, core organization outsources major business functions.

A. VerticalB. Virtual C. BoundarylessD. Team

Virtual organizations are highly _____, with little or no _____.A. Centralized, departmentalization B. Formalized, centralizationC. Departmentalized, formalizationD. Decentralized, departmentalization

The boundaryless organization is also known as the _____.A. Network organizationB. Cultural structureC. T-form D. Modular organization

In a mechanistic organization, communication is _____.A. Mostly upwardB. Both upward and lateralC. Mostly downward D. Both lateral and downward

_____ structures include cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams and a flat structure.

A. MechanisticB. HybridC. RoutineD. Organic

Innovation, cost minimization, and imitation are examples of _____.A. Corporate modelsB. FormalizationC. EnvironmentsD. Strategy

_____ need the flexibility of an organic structure, while _____ seek the efficiency and stability of a mechanistic structure.

A. Innovators, cost minimisers B. Cost minimisers, imitatorsC. Imitators, innovatorsD. Innovators, imitators

Size affects structure _____.A. At an increasing rateB. At a decreasing rate C. At a stable rateD. At an intermittent rate

Routine technology is accompanied by decentralization when _____.A. When formalization is lowB. When formalization is high C. When the company is organized by customerD. When tasks are routine

The greatest degree of uncertainty is faced by organizations that are _____.

A. Robust, complex, and dynamicB. Stable, complex, and scarceC. Dynamic, stable, and robustD. Scarce, dynamic, and complex

_____ refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements.

A. VolatilityB. Complexity C. DynamismD. None of the above

Work specialization is associated with _____.A. Lower employee productivity and lower satisfactionB. Higher employee productivity and higher satisfactionC. Lower employee productivity and higher satisfactionD. Higher employee productivity and lower satisfaction

The ____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization.

A. Matrix organizationB. Bureaucracy C. Simple structureD. Team structure

The ____ violates the unity-of-command concept.A. Simple structureB. BureaucracyC. Matrix structure D. Virtual organization

The ____ is also called the network or modular organization.A. Virtual organization B. Team structureC. MatrixD. Bureaucracy

The boundaryless organization relies heavily on _____A. Information technology B. Vertical boundariesC. Horizontal boundariesD. External boundaries

The _____ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization.

A. Mechanistic model B. Organic modelC. Technology modelD. Boundaryless organization

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of an organization's structure?

A. StrategyB. Organization sizeC. Industry D. Technology

Changes in corporate strategy precede and lead to _____.A. Changes in the environmentB. Better communicationC. Increased productivityD. Changes in an organization's structure

Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee performance and satisfaction is MOST true?

A. There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction.B. There is no evidence that supports a relationship between span of control and

employee performance.C. No one wants work that makes minimal intellectual demands and is routine.

The unbroken line of authority that extends from top of the organization to the lowest echelon is termed the chain of command.

A. True B. False

Narrow spans of control encourage overly tight supervision and discourage employee autonomy.

A. True B. False

A major weakness of the bureaucracy is lack of attention to rules.A. TrueB. False

The major disadvantages of the matrix structure lie in the confusion it creates, its propensity to foster power struggles, and the stress it places on individuals.

A. True B. False

The major advantage to the virtual organization is its flexibility.A. True B. False

Status and rank are minimized in the boundaryless organization.A. True B. False

The organic structure is characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization.

A. TrueB. False

Adding 500 employees to an organization that has only 300 members is likely to result in a shift towards a more organic structure.

A. TrueB. False

The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure should be.

A. True B. False

Research supports the notion that employees prefer an organic structure.

A. TrueB. False

Personality And Values

_____ is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

A. MoodsB. ValuesC. Personality D. Attitudes

_____ refers to those factors that were determined at conception.A. TemperamentB. Heredity C. EnvironmentD. Situation

_____ are enduring characteristics that describe an individual's behavior.A. Personality traits B. Individual dimensionsC. Value systemsD. Terminal values

The _____ is the most popular typology of personality traits.A. Hofstede Cultural ProfileB. Holland CodeC. Big Five ModelD. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

_____is the degree to which individuals like or dislike themselves, whether they see themselves as capable and effective, and whether they feel they are in control of their environment.

A. Emotional biasB. MachiavellianismC. Job satisfactionD. Core self-evaluation

_____ is the tendency to be pragmatic, emotionally distant, and exploitative.

A. Emotionally maturityB. Low self-esteemC. High self-esteemD. Machiavellianism

_____ refers to the tendency to be arrogant, have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require excessive self-admiration, and have a sense of entitlement.

A. Narcissism B. Job involvementC. Organizational commitmentD. External locus of control

An individual who is able to adjust his/her behavior to external factors is a high _____.

A. MachiavellianismB. locus of controlC. Type AD. self-monitor

Those who have a _____ personality are perpetually involved in a struggle to do more and more activities in less time.

A. Self-monitorB. Type A C. Type BD. Machiavellian

The value attribute that specifies importance is known as ____.A. Mode of conductB. End stateC. Intensity D. Freedom

Is most often described in terms of measurable traits that a person exhibits.

A. OrganizationB. ToleranceC. Personality D. Value

Which of the following best describes heredity?A. Situational determinants at workB. Environment factorsC. Factors that were determined at conception D. Personality traits that develop with age

The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator prefers routine and order.

A. PerceivingB. IntuitiveC. ExtrovertedD. Sensing

The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator relies on personal values and emotions.

A. JudgingB. IntoitiveC. Feeling D. Sensing

______ types, according to the MBTI typology, want control and prefer their world to be ordered and structured.

A. PerceivingB. Judging C. SensingD. Intuitive

Which personality dimension is measured in both the MTBI and the Big Five model?

A. Emotional stabilityB. ConscientiousnessC. AgreeablenessD. Extroversion

The _____ dimension of the Big Five Model refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others.

A. ExtroversionB. Agreeableness C. ConscientiousnessD. Openness to experience

Which of the Big Five dimensions has shown a strong and consistent relationship with job performance?

A. ExtrovrsionB. AgreeablenessC. Consientiousness D. Openness to experience

Machiavellianism, self-esteem, self-monitoring, propensity for risk taking, and Type A are all examples of _____.

A. Personality attributes B. Compensable skillsC. Genetically heritable traitsD. Core competencies

Individuals with _____ core self-evaluations tend to dislike themselves, question their capabilities, and view themselves as powerless over their environment.

A. InternalB. PositiveC. Negative D. External

Which is not true of a high Mach?A. He/she manipulates less. B. He/she wins more.C. He/she is persuaded less.D. He/she persuades others more.

When do high Machs flourish?A. When they interact face to face with others rather than indirectly.B. When the situation has a minimum number of rules and regulations.C. All of the above

A study found that while _____ thought that they were better leaders than their colleagues, their supervisors actually rated them as worse leaders.

A. Self-monitorsB. Risk takersC. MachiavelliansD. Narcissists

Which is NOT true of high self-monitors?A. He/she adjusts his or her behaviour to external factors.B. He/she is highly sensitive to external cues.C. He/she tends to display true emotions.

_____ behavior may lead to more effective performance for a share trader in a brokerage firm.

A. Low risk-takingB. High risk-taking C. Risk-averseD. Multi-risk

_____ personalities strive to do two or more things at once.A. Type BB. AggressiveC. ProtocolD. Type A

_____ personalities tend to play for fun and relaxation, rather than to exhibit superiority.

A. Type B B. AggressiveC. ProsaicD. Type A

A _____ personality type takes the initiative to improve its circumstances.A. MachiavellianB. EntrepreneurialC. ProsaicD. proactive

According to the Myers-Briggs type Indicator, people who are classified as _____ are conceptualizers.

A. INTJsB. ESTJsC. ENTPs D. MBTIs

Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others?

A. ExtroversionB. Openness to experienceC. Emotional stabilityD. Agreeableness

Individuals with a positive _____ like themselves, see themselves as effective, capable, and in control of their environment.

A. NarcissismB. PropensityC. Core self-evaluations

Individuals who are high in the _____ dimension of personality manipulate more, win more, are persuaded less, and persuade others more.

A. RokeachB. AestheticC. Machiavellianism

If personality characteristics were completely dictated by heredity, they would be fixed at birth and no amount of experience could alter them.

A. True B. False

A substantial body of research supports the MBTI as a valid measure of personality.

A. TrueB. False

Extroverts tend to be reserved, timid, and quiet.A. TrueB. False

The opposite of emotional stability is neuroticism.A. True B. False

Compared to introverts, extroverts tend to be happier in their jobs and lives as a whole.

A. True B. False

Terminal values are preferable modes of behaviour, or means of achieving one's instrumental values.

A. TrueB. False

The lives of Xers have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers.

A. True B. False

Organizations in a society low in uncertainty avoidance are likely to have more formal rules.

A. TrueB. False

Individuals with Holland's investigative personality are well suited for careers as small business managers.

A. TrueB. False

Motivation Concepts

_____ is the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

A. PerceptionB. CooperationC. Motivation D. Affect

Which is NOT a dimension in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?A. Ego B. PhysiologicalC. SafetyD. Esteem

_____ theory is an extension of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.A. Two-factorB. Theory YC. Theory XD. ERG

Which of the following comments was made by a Theory X manager?A. Employees dislike work. B. Employees will exercise discretion.C. The average person will seek responsibility.D. Employees can view work as natural as rest or play.

Which of the following is a motivational factor, according to Herzberg's two-factor theory?

A. Quality of supervisionsB. Recognition C. PayD. Relations with others

According to Edwin Locke, _____ goals produce the greatest degree of achievement.

A. Ambiguous and difficultB. Specific and difficult C. Specific and easy

_____ programs emphasize participative set goals that are tangible, verifiable, and measurable.

A. Self-efficacyB. Management by objectives

C. ReinforcementD. Organizational

_____ is also known as social cognitive theory or social learning theory.A. Self-efficacy B. ReinforcementC. Goal-settingD. Cognitive evaluation

The _____ effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy where believing something to be true can make it true.

A. ArchimedesB. GalatiaC. IcarusD. Pygmalion

_____ theory argues that behaviour is a function of its consequences.A. EquityB. Reinforcement C. Goal-settingD. Expectancy

_____ theory makes the assumption that people will compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate perceived inequities.

A. Equity B. ReinforcementC. Goal-settingD. Expectancy

When an employee compares their inputs and outcomes with another employee within their organization, they are making a(n) _____ comparison.

A. Self-outsideB. Self-insideC. Other-inside D. Other-outside

_____ justice is the perceived degree to which an individual is treated with dignity, concern, and respect.

A. ProceduralB. EquityC. Interactional

D. Distributive

According to expectancy theory, which of the following factors lead to good performance ?

A. The individual must have the requisite ability to perform. B. The performance appraisal system must be perceived as fair.C. The rewards must be desirable to the employee.D. All of the above

Processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal are collectively known as _____.

A. RedirectionB. Motivation C. Cognitive effortD. Expectancy

In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, _____ needs include security and protection from physical and emotional harm.

A. EsteemB. PhysiologicalC. Safety D. Self-actualization

Physiological and safety needs are _____ needs.A. Higher-orderB. Lower-order C. LateralD. Equity

ERG theory is associated with _____.A. Abraham MaslowB. Frederick HerzbergC. Clayton Alderfer D. Douglas McGregor

According to ERG theory, _____.A. An unsatisfied need ceases to motivate.B. A person may work on three needs at the same time. C. Frustration over a lower-level need will cause an individual to focus on higher-level

needs.D. Individuals will focus on their lowest level of unsatisfied need.

Which of the following statements was most likely to have been made by a Theory X manager?

A. "My employees work really hard - they seem to motivate themselves."B. "Most people are hard workers."C. "I spend most of my day closely supervising employees. When I'm not around,

I suspect that they do as little as possible."D. "The key to high productivity is giving employees the opportunity to make

decisions."

Which of the following assumptions are characteristic of McGregor's Theory Y?

A. Employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play.B. People will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the

objectives.C. The average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility.D. All of the above

According to Herzberg, which of the factors below is NOT considered an intrinsic motivator?

A. AdvancementB. RecognitionC. ResponsibilityD. Pay

In Herzberg's model, conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision pay, and company policies are known as _____ factors.

A. MotivationB. RecognitionC. Hygiene D. Intrinsic

Promotional opportunities would be a(n) _____ factor in Herzberg's model.

A. HygieneB. Motivational C. ExtrinsicD. Equity

_____ suggests that introduction of extrinsic rewards reduces the enjoyment of the task.

A. Contingency theoryB. Goal setting theoryC. Cognitive evaluation theory D. Expectancy theory

Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?A. SalaryB. BonusC. Interesting work D. Promotion

_____ considers the degree to which peoples' reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values.

A. Self-concordance B. Goal setting theoryC. Self-efficacyD. Equity theory

Goal-setting theory suggests all of the following EXCEPT:A. Specific goals lead to higher performance.B. Difficult goals increase performance.C. Feedback leads to higher performance.D. Ambiguous goals increase performance.

_____ operationalizes goal-setting theory.A. Equity theoryB. Self-efficacyC. Management by objectives D. Expectancy theory

_____ refers to an individual's beliefs that he or she is capable of performing a task.

A. Self-efficacy B. Self-concordanceC. ReinforcementD. Equity

Which of the following is NOT a strategy for increasing self-efficacy?A. Vicarious modelingB. Extinction C. Enactive masteryD. Verbal persuasion

_____ refers to increasing self-efficacy by seeing someone else performing a task.

A. Enactive masteryB. ArousalC. Verbal persuasionD. Vicarious modeling

The _____ effect occurs when high performance expectations are communicated to employees.

A. PygmalionB. ZeusC. TrojanD. Galatea

_____ theory ignores the inner state of the individual and concentrates solely on what happens to a person when he or she takes some action.

A. EquityB. ExpectancyC. Reinforcement D. Self-efficacy

When an employee compares his current position with experiences in a different or former position he/she has just made a _____ comparison.

A. Self-outsideB. Other-insideC. Other-outsideD. Self-inside

_____ justice refers to the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals.

A. InteractionalB. Distributive C. EquityD. Procedural

An entitlement attitude implies that _____.A. Employees expect outcomes to be greater than inputs. B. Employees expect inputs to be greater than outcomes.C. Employees expect inputs and outcomes to be the same.D. Employees expect outcomes without inputs.

Which of the following is NOT a key element in motivation?A. Environment B. IntensityC. Direction

_____ is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

A. SocialB. Self-actualization C. Physiological

Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow?A. Physiological, safety, and social needsB. Safety, social, and esteem needsC. Esteem and self-actualization needsD. Socially, esteem, and self-actualization needs

A Theory X manager would assume employees would _____.A. Like workB. Seek responsibilityC. Need to be controlled D. Exercise self direction

Two-factor theory suggests that extrinsic factors such as _____ cause dissatisfaction.

A. AdvancementB. Working conditions C. AchievementD. Recognition

Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A. Job situations with personal responsibilityB. A high degree of risk C. Overcoming obstaclesD. Feedback

According to the goal-setting theory of motivation, goals should be _____.A. Extremely difficultB. EasyC. Difficult but attainable D. Similar to goals for other organizations

Manager's can increase an employee's _____ through enactive mastery, vicarious modelling, verbal persuasion, and arousal.

A. EquityB. ExpectancyC. Self-efficacy

_____ exists when an individual perceives that the ratio of their inputs to outcomes is dissimilar to the ration of relevant others.

A. ReinforcementB. Cognitive dissonanceC. Equity tension D. Turnover

The degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual is the ____ relationship.

A. Rewards-personal goals B. Performance-rewardC. Effort-performanceD. Rewards-effort

Motivation is a personality trait.A. TrueB. False

According to Maslow, a need that is essentially satisfied no longer motivates.

A. True B. False

Theory X assumptions hold a basically negative view of human beings.

A. True B. False

According to Herzberg, the opposite of "satisfaction" is "dissatisfaction".A. TrueB. False

Hygiene factors usually lead to job satisfaction when present in a job.A. TrueB. False

According to goal-setting theory, a generalized goal will produce a higher level of output than a specific goal.

A. TrueB. False

Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions to correct the inequities.

A. TrueB. False

In expectancy theory, the strength of a person's motivation to perform depends in part on how strongly he believes he can achieve what he attempts.

A. True B. False

Motivation From Concept To Applications

The _____ suggests that any job can be described in terms of five core job dimensions.

A. opportunity to perform scoreB. productivity indicator modelC. core competency paradigm

D. job characteristics model

_____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work.

A. AutonomyB. Task significanceC. Task identity D. Feedback

_____ is the horizontal expansion of a job.A. Job enlargementB. Job sharingC. Job enrichment D. Job congruence

Jobs may be enriched by _____, grouping tasks so that an employee creates an identifiable and meaningful output.

A. establishing client relationshipsB. forming natural work units C. expanding jobs verticallyD. opening feedback channels

Bill and Jane each work 20 hours per week and share the same job. They benefit from their company's _____ program, which allows two employees to share one full-time job.

A. job sharing B. flexitimeC. job rotationD. teleworking

Which of the following is one of the three major forms of employee involvement?

A. flexitimeB. gainsharingC. employee stock ownershipD. participative management

_____ is the distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs

A. Unilateral decision makingB. Group consensusC. Continuous feedbackD. Joint decision making

Which of the following is an example of representative participation?A. groupthinkB. board representatives C. work sharingD. quality circle

A _____ is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors that meet regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions.

A. board representativeB. work councilC. quality circle D. employee share ownership plan

An advantage of _____ is that they allow employers to differentiate pay based on performance, so that those people thought to be high performers are given bigger raises.

A. piece-rate pay plansB. merit pay plans C. gainsharing plansD. bonus plans

_____ allow employees to choose benefits that best meet their needs.A. Skill-based payB. Flexible benefits C. GainsharingD. Pay for performance

_____ plans allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular services.

A. Core-plusB. Profit sharingC. Modular

D. Flexible spending

_____ range from private letters of thanks to publicized formal programs where specific types of behaviour are encouraged and the procedures for attaining recognition are clearly identified.

A. Flexible benefitsB. Gainsharing plansC. Employee recognition programs D. ESOPs

Across all countries, _____ job characteristics (pay, working conditions) were consistently and positively related to satisfaction with one's job.

A. intrinsicB. intuitiveC. extrinsic D. external

Richer countries, countries with stronger social security, countries that stressed individualism rather than collectivism, and countries with a smaller power distance showed a stronger relationship between the presence of _____ job characteristics (recognition, interesting job) and job satisfaction.

A. intrinsic B. intuitiveC. extrinsicD. external

The _____ describes jobs in terms of skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback.

A. opportunity to perform scoreB. productivity indicator modelC. core competency paradigmD. job characteristics model

In the JCM model, the _____ dimension relates to the degree to which jobs have a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people.

A. autonomyB. task identityC. task significance D. feedback

The core dimensions of the job characteristics model can be combined into a single predictive index, called the _____.

A. motivating potential score B. job characteristics indexC. task significance modelD. feedback factor

_____ is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another.A. Job enrichmentB. Job enlargementC. Job rotation D. Job characteristics

_____ is the vertical expansion of a job, increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work.

A. Job enrichment B. Job enlargementC. Job rotationD. Job characteristics

_____ lets employees know how well they are performing their jobs and whether their performance is improving, deteriorating, or remaining at a constant level.

A. Expanding jobs verticallyB. Forming natural work unitsC. Opening feedback channels D. Combining tasks

_____ allows employees some discretion over their start and stop times, while requiring a specific number of hours per week.

A. Job enrichmentB. TeleworkingC. Job sharingD. Flextime

The _____ variable reflects that individuals may be willing and able to perform, but that there may be obstacles that constrain performance.

A. autonomyB. job enlargementC. opportunity to perform D. task identity

_____ are a way to increase workers' control and autonomy to improve their motivation, organizational commitment, productivity, and job satisfaction.

A. Merit pay plansB. Employee share ownership plansC. Share option compensation programsD. Employee involvement programs

Participative management requires the use of _____.A. power redistributionB. quality improvementC. employee ownershipD. joint decision making

_____ is considered the "most widely legislated form of employee involvement around the world".

A. Quality circlesB. Representative participation C. Employee share ownershipD. None of the above

While _____ programs have little impact on employee satisfaction, many studies report positive effects on productivity.

A. participative managementB. representative participationC. measurementD. quality circle

_____ is consistent with participative management, while _____ aligns with the more traditional autocratic style of managing people.

A. Theory X, Theory YB. Theory Y, Maslow's needs hierarchyC. Theory Y, Theory X D. equity theory, Theory Y

The process of initially setting pay levels requires evaluating _____, the worth of the job to the organization.

A. internal equity B. profit-sharingC. piece-ratesD. external equity

Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing, and employee share ownership plans are all forms of _____ programmers’.

A. employee involvementB. variable-pay C. job sharingD. total quality management

In _____, workers are paid a fixed sum for each unit of production completed.

A. piece-rate plans B. merit based pay plansC. bonus plansD. profit sharing programs

_____ are organization-wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established formula designed around a company's profitability.

A. Piece-rate plansB. Merit based pay plansC. Bonus plansD. Profit sharing programs

_____ are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire share, often at below-market prices, as part of their benefits.

A. Gain sharing plansB. Employee share ownership plans C. Share optionsD. Variable pay programs

_____ can be uniquely tailored to reflect difference in employee needs based on age, marital status, spouses' benefit status, number and age of dependents.

A. Skill-based payB. Flexible benefits C. Gain sharingD. Pay for performance

_____ are predesigned packages of benefits, with each module put together to meet the needs of a specific group of employees.

A. Core-plus optionsB. Modular plans C. Flexible spending plansD. Pay for performance plans

_____ consist of a core of essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefit options from which employees can select and add to the core.

A. Core-plus options B. Modular plansC. Flexible spending plansD. Pay for performance plans

_____ allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular services.

A. Core-plus optionsB. Modular plansC. Flexible spending plans D. Pay for performance plans

_____ is an example of an extrinsic reward.A. Challenging workB. Opportunity for advancement.C. RecognitionD. Compensation

A recent survey of employees in a variety of work settings found that _____ was considered to be the most powerful workplace motivator.

A. working conditionsB. payC. recognition D. location

An obvious advantage of workplace recognition programmers is that they are _____.

A. unusualB. intuitiveC. inexpensive D. complex

An employee recognition program is most likely to be considered fair in which of the following jobs?

A. sales representative B. customer service representativeC. human resource managerD. receptionist

Which of the following is NOT a recommendation concerning employee motivation?

A. Allow employees to participate in decisions that affect them.B. Recognize individual differences.C. Link rewards to seniority. D. Use goals and feedback.

The _____ says that internal rewards are obtained by individuals when they learn that they personally have performed well on a task that they care about.

A. management by objectives planB. participative decision making modelC. job characteristics model D. performance feedback system

_____ (or cross-training) is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another.

A. Job enlargementB. Employee involvementC. Job rotation D. Job enrichment

_____ may be implemented by combining tasks, forming natural work units, establishing client relationships, expanding jobs vertically, and opening feedback channels.

A. Job enlargementB. Employee involvementC. Job rotationD. Job enrichment

Writers, lawyers, analysts, and employees who spend the majority of their time on computers or on the telephone are natural candidates for _____.

A. department modelingB. job sharingC. teleworking D. flextime

_____ is a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization's success.

A. MBOB. Employee involvement C. Reengineering

A _____ is a group of employees and supervisors who meet regularly to discuss their quality problems and recommend solutions.

A. department teamB. cooperative groupC. evaluation teamD. quality circle

Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing, and employee share ownership plans are all forms of _____ programs.

A. ESOPB. gain sharingC. variable-pay D. Scanlon

_____ is an incentive plan where improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is allocated.

A. ESOPB. Gain sharing C. Variable payD. Scanlon plan

The three most popular types of _____ are modular plans, core-plus options, and flexible spending accounts.

A. share optionsB. gain sharing plansC. variable pay programsD. flexible benefits

Task identity refers to the degree to which the job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of others.

A. TrueB. False

Employee involvement is a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization's success.

A. True B. False

Quality circles have the authority to find problems, assess alternative actions, and implement a solution.

A. TrueB. False

Gain sharing programs may also be referred to as profit-sharing programs.

A. TrueB. False

ESOPs are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire shares as part of their benefits.

A. True B. False

One advantage of bonuses over merit pay is that bonuses reward employees for recent performance.

A. True B. False

Skill-based pay encourages employees to concentrate on one or two highly desirable skills.

A. TrueB. False

Traditional benefit packages were designed for the typical employee of the 1950s; fewer than 10% of employees now fit that stereotype, requiring an updated look at these benefits.

A. True B. False

A survey of 1,500 employees found that recognition was the most powerful workplace motivator.

A. True B. False

Communication

When employees are required to communicate grievances to their supervisor, communication is performing a _____ function.

A. InformationB. emotional expressionC. control D. motivation

When communicating, a sender _____ a message and passes the message through a medium or channel.

A. feeds backB. decodesC. transfersD. encodes

_____ channels are established by the organization and transmit messages that are related to the professional activities of members.

A. ProfessionalB. InformalC. Formal D. Member

_____ communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs.

A. Upward B. LateralC. DownwardD. Emotional

A(n) _____ network is used by self-managed work teams.A. wheelB. chainC. all-channel D. spoken

Which is NOT a characteristic of the grapevine?A. It is not controlled by management.B. It is perceived by most employees as being more believable.C. It largely serves the self-interests of the people within it.D. It is a highly accurate source of information.

Electronic communication includes _____.A. video conferencingB. e-mailC. instant messagingD. all of the above

_____ is an effective computer-aided form of communication, allowing messages to be sent to one or thousands of people simultaneously.

A. VideoconferencingB. Instant messagingC. E-mail D. An intranet

_____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the right time.

A. E-mailB. CommunicationC. Knowledge management

_____ messages are likely to be complicated and have the potential for misunderstanding.

A. ComplicatedB. RoutineC. Non routine D. Rich

_____ refers to the purposeful manipulation of language so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver.

A. Barrier makingB. DeceptionC. Filtering D. None of the above

_____ is a barrier to effective communication - people receiving information tend to protect their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them.

A. Information overloadB. Selective perception C. FilteringD. Language

A fear of speaking in front of groups or to other people is known as _____.A. fear of speakingB. speaking phobiaC. selective perceptionD. communication apprehension

According to author Deborah Tannen, men use talk to emphasize _____, while women use it to create _____.

A. status, connection B. closeness, emotionC. intimacy, independenceD. affiliation, power

_____ must include both the transference and understanding of meaning.A. WritingB. ReadingC. SpeakingD. Communication

Teasing and verbal harassment are forms of _____ control.A. formal

B. informal C. lateralD. normal

_____ is the process of converting a message to a symbolic form.A. DecodingB. RetranslationC. Encoding D. Receiving

Communication barriers that distort the clarity of a message are known as _____.

A. noise B. conferenceC. staticD. feedback

A memo is typically transmitted through a(n) _____ communication channel.

A. formal B. corporateC. informalD. institutional

Communication from a supervisor to a subordinate is _____ communication.

A. upwardB. lateralC. downward D. cross-functional

A climate survey is an example of _____ communication.A. downwardB. lateralC. upward D. informal

Which of the following is NOT true of oral communication?A. Oral messages can be conveyed and a response received in a minimal amount of

time.B. Oral messages reduce distortion. C. Oral communication allows for rapid detection of unclear messages.D. The grapevine often communicates orally.

Which of the following is NOT true of written communication?A. Written communication is readily verifiable.B. With written communication, the message can be stored for an indefinite period.C. People tend to be less careful in writing than in speaking. D. Written communication may be physically available for later reference

_____ is the emphasis given to words or phrases.A. StressB. InflectionC. Tonal durationD. Intonation

The _____ network relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for the entire group's communication.

A. all-channelB. chainC. wheel D. spoke

A _____ network is appropriate if accuracy is most important.A. all-channelB. chain C. wheelD. spoke

Which of the following is an advantage of face-to-face communication over e-mail?

A. Personal touchB. Non-verbal cuesC. ToneD. All of the above

_____ refers to real time e-mail.A. Rapid e-mailB. Close-upC. Instant messaging D. Instant Replay

Who are the fastest growing users of Facebook?A. elementary school studentsB. high school studentsC. people over 25 D. college students

A _____ is an internet log.A. blog B. internal wheelC. intranetD. medium

_____ allows employees in an organization to have meetings with people at different locations.

A. A networkB. Videoconferencing C. A communication channelD. Networking

A _____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the right time.

A. knowledge dissemination systemB. knowledge management system C. cornucopiaD. decision control system

_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.

A. Signal strengthB. Interpersonal bandwidthC. Information loadD. Channel richness

Managers that are _____ have the ability to match appropriate media richness with the ambiguity involved in the communication.

A. media-savvyB. techno-savvyC. media-sensitive D. filtered

Rob routinely withholds negative information in the weekly report he transmits to his supervisor. In terms of communication, Rob is engaging in _____.

A. selective perceptionB. "muddying the waters"C. filtering D. information overload

_____ is the process of receivers projecting their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them.

A. Selective perception B. NoiseC. Information overloadD. Feedback

When individuals experience _____, they select out, pass over, or forget information.

A. selective perception B. information overloadC. emotionD. filtering

The _____ initiates a message by encoding a thought.A. channelB. sender C. receiverD. medium

The chief means of conveying messages is _____ communication.A. nonverbalB. interpersonalC. oral D. written

The _____ communication network is best illustrated by an unstructured committee.

A. wheelB. all-channel C. interpersonalD. circle

Electronic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT:A. internet logs.B. telephone calls. C. videoconferencing.

_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.

A. FeedbackB. FilteringC. PerceptionD. Channel richness

Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. He is engaging in _____.

A. filtering B. selective perceptionC. jargonD. feedback

Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication?A. FilteringB. Channel richness C. Selective perceptionD. Language

Tannin’s research indicates that men use talk to ___, while women use it to _____.

A. emphasize status; create connection B. build relationships; get promotionsC. establish blame; emphasize statusD. Create networks; emphasize separateness

In _____ cultures, the words themselves are the primary conveyors of meaning

A. richB. low-context C. symbolicD. semantic

In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding.A. TrueB. False

The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback.A. True B. False

The all-channel network rigidly follows the formal chain of command.A. TrueB. False

Organizational boundaries become less relevant as a result of electronic communications.

A. True B. False

Selective perception refers to a sender manipulating information so that it will be seen more favorable by the receiver.

A. TrueB. False

Oral apprehensive may find it extremely difficult to talk with others face-to-face.

A. True B. False

Men are more direct than women in conversation.A. True B. False

Low-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others.

A. TrueB. False

Organization culture

When an organization becomes _____, it takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or any of its members.

A. institutionalized B. stabilizedC. culturedD. mature

_____ is a shared system of meaning among employees.A. Organizational systemsB. Collective sensemakingC. Organizational culture D. sensitivity

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organization's culture?

A. Outcome orientationB. Assertiveness C. Innovation and risk takingD. Attention to detail

The term "organizational culture" is considered _____, while "job satisfaction" is _____.

A. evaluative, objectiveB. subjective, descriptive

C. descriptive, evaluative D. objective, subjective

Which of the following is NOT a function of culture?A. Enhances the stability of the social systemB. Conveys a sense of identityC. Acceptance of diversity D. Generation of commitment

Individual-organizational fit refers to _____.A. an employee's pre-socializationB. whether an employee has an appropriate educational backgroundC. the technical proficiency of employeesD. whether the applicant or employee's attitudes and behavior are

compatible with the culture.

_____ is known for its democratic culture.A. W. R. Gore B. K-martC. BFID. Wal-mart

The process of "on boarding" is a type of ____ at Limited Brands.A. trainingB. encounterC. socialization D. metamorphosis

The _____ stage explicitly recognizes that each individual arrives with a set of values, attitudes, and expectations.

A. selectionB. prearrival C. metamorphosisD. encounter

Which of the following is NOT associated with organizations with high ethical standards?

A. high in risk toleranceB. high in innovationC. focus on meansD. high aggressiveness

Employees will view the behavior of _____ as a benchmark for defining appropriate behavior.

A. their immediate supervisorB. government officialsC. top management D. new employees

A _____ is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.

A. positive organizational culture B. centralized organizational cultureC. bureaucracyD. matrix organization

Institutionalization is the process through which _____.A. individuals become a part of an organizationB. an organization takes on a life of its own C. an individual is offered a life-time positionD. an organization employs a critical mass of people

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizational culture?A. Attention to detailB. InnovationC. Formalization D. Team orientation

A strong culture builds all of the following EXCEPT ____.A. cohesivenessB. loyaltyC. quality D. organizational commitment

Culture is most likely to be a liability when _____.A. it increases consistency of behaviorB. the environment is dynamic C. management is incompetentD. it reduces ambiguity

Which of the following is NOT a way that culture is created?A. Founders hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do.B. Founders indoctrinate and socialize employees to their way of thinking and

feeling.C. Founders poll early employees to determine the appropriate cultural

values.D. The founders' own behaviour acts as a role model that encourages employees to

identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs.

All of the following serve to sustain a culture EXCEPT _____.A. selectionB. formalization C. socializationD. top management

_____ is the process that adapts employees to the organization's culture.A. Training

B. MentoringC. Socialization D. Communicating

Which of the following is NOT a common form by which culture is transmitted to employees?

A. StoriesB. Selection C. RitualsD. Language

Which of the following is NOT identified that managers can create a more ethical culture?

A. Visibly reward ethical acts.B. Set aggressive performance goals. C. Communicate ethical expectations.D. Provide protective mechanisms.

The origin of culture as an independent variable affecting an employee's attitudes and behavior can be traced back more than 50 years to the notion of _____.

A. bureaucracyB. organizational structureC. institutionalization D. uniformity

_____ refers to the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on employees.

A. Team orientationB. Attention to detailC. Outcome orientationD. People orientation

_____ is the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve those outcomes.

A. Attention to detailB. Innovation and risk takingC. Outcome orientation D. Stability

Bureaucratic organizations tend to maintain the status quo and have cultures that emphasize _____.

A. stability B. mediocrityC. outcome orientationD. aggressiveness

A _____ culture expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization's members.

A. weakB. dominant C. core

_____ tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences that members face.

A. GroupsB. TeamsC. Weak culturesD. Subcultures

Microsoft's culture values _____ and risk taking.A. attention to detailB. team orientationC. people orientationD. aggressiveness

In a _____, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared.

A. strong culture B. transitional cultureC. weak cultureD. intense culture

A strong culture can substitute for _____, which also creates predictability, orderliness, and consistency.

A. specializationB. formalization C. centralizationD. authority

In its role as a _____ mechanism, culture creates distinctions between one organization and others.

A. controlB. stabilizationC. boundary-defining D. identification

When is culture a liability?A. When the environment is stableB. When there is little competitionC. When the shared values are not in agreement with those that will further the

organization's effectivenessD. When employees come to the organization with similar cultural backgrounds

How is culture created?A. The founders indoctrinate new employees with their values and vision.B. The founders hire and retain only employees who think and feel the same way that

they do.C. The founders act as role models of acceptable behaviour and values.D. All of the above.

At _____, there no bosses, job titles, or chains of command.A. IBMB. BFIC. DeltaD. W. R. Gore

_____ is a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis.

A. Socialization B. SelectionC. ContritionD. Customization

During the _____ stage, the newly hired employee confronts the possible dichotomy between her expectations and reality.

A. prearrivalB. encounter C. metamorphosisD. customization

Nike employees recount the story of how co-founder Bill Bowerman went to his workshop and poured rubber into his wife's waffle iron to create a better running shoe. This story highlights Nike's culture of _____.

A. socializationB. innovation C. diversityD. aggressiveness

Which of the following is NOT likely to shape an ethical culture?A. High risk toleranceB. High aggressiveness C. Focuses on means as well as outcomesD. Support for innovation

Ethical ambiguities can be minimized by creating and disseminating a(n) _____.

A. employee handbookB. organizational code of ethics C. performance standardD. quota system

To create an ethical organizational culture, performance appraisals should evaluate the ____ as well as the extent to which goals are reached.

A. importanceB. economyC. environmentD. means

Which of the following is NOT an example of a formal protective mechanism?

A. ethical counsellorsB. ethical officersC. ombudsmenD. auditors

A _____ organizational culture emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes vitality and growth.

A. positive B. centralizedC. formalized

When an organization has become institutionalized, its original goals become viewed as the prime directive.

A. TrueB. False

Strong cultures are made up of values that are intensely held and widely shared.

A. True B. False

The degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization is termed outcome orientation.

A. TrueB. False

Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces a dynamic environment.

A. TrueB. False

The founders of an organization generally have little impact on the organization's culture since they are so far removed from the employees.

A. TrueB. False

Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining culture: selection practices, promotion policies, and socialization methods.

A. TrueB. False

Language can serve to unite members of a given culture as new employees learn the acronyms and jargon specific to the organization.

A. True B. False

A strong organizational culture will exert more influence on employees then a weak one.

A. True B. False

A positive organizational culture is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.

A. True B. False