ocet 2010 m.tech. nano science & nanotechnology

8/9/2019 Ocet 2010 M.tech. Nano Science & Nanotechnology

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OCET 2010Code No.: 210101

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the TestBooklet and Answer Sheet.

Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Tech. (Nanoscience & Nanotechnology)

Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SOINSTRUCTIONS1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided

and nowhere else.

2. Enter the Subject and Code No. of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken thecorresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.

3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the

Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.

6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,

darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheetwith Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.

7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in theAnswer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.

8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the

Question Booklet.9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted

for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.

10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is notallowed.

11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.

12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions

given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to thecandidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the

candidate only.13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this

Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from

the examination.15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any

paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfairmeans during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /Observer whose decision shall be final.

16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is notpermitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.


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1. A photon strikes an electron of mass m that is initially at rest, creating an electron-positron pair. Thephoton is destroyed and the positron and two electrons move off at equal speeds along the initialdirection of photon. The energy of photon was :

(A) mc (B) 2 mc

(C) 3 mc (D) 4 mc

2. The length of half wave dipole antenna at 60 MHz is

(A) 3.5 m (B) 3 m

(C) 2.5 m (D) 4 m

3. A TV tower has a height of 200 m. By how much the height of tower be increased to triple its coveragerange ?

(A) 400 m (B) 600 m

(C) 1600 m (D) 1800 m

4. Potential barriers across the p-n junctions are of the order of :

(A) 1 mV (B) 1 V

(C) 1 kV (D) 1 MV

5. For interfacing a microcontroller with a relay, it is proposed to use a p-n-p transistor as buffer.Which configuration is preferred ?

(A) Common emitter (B) Common Base

(C) Common Collector (D) any of A or B

6. Which of the following is a super cooled liquid ?

(A) NaCl (B) Sulphur

(C) Copper (D) Glass

7. The de-Brolgies wavelength of an electron in first orbit of Bohrs hydrogen is equal to :

(A) radius of orbit (B) diameter of orbit

(C) half the perimeter of orbit (D) perimeter of orbit

8. Minimum number of 8 micro-farad, 250 V capacitors used to make a combination of 16 micro farad1000 V is :

(A) 32 (B) 8

(C) 16 (D) 4

9. Two metallic balls each of radius 0.9 mm collide with each other and 5 electrons are exchangedbetween the metallic balls. What is the potential of each ball ?

(A) 10 V (B) 50 V

(C) 5 V (D) 0.5 V

10. The resistance of hot tungsten filament is about 10 items the cold resistance. What will be the resistanceof 100 W and 200 V lamp when not in use ?

(A) 14000 ohm (B) 400 ohm

(C) 40 ohm (D) 4 ohm

M.Tech. (Nanoscience & Nanotechnology)/210101/DNB-11686 1 [Turn over

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11. What is the effective wattage of 40 W and 60 W lamps connected in series with each other ?

(A) 100 W (B) 20 W

(C) 80 W (D) 24 W

12. A proton is fired perpendicular to the magnetic field B with kinetic energy E. If the proton is fired

through a magnetic field 4 B making angle 90 with it and in both cases the radius of circular pathis R, then the kinetic energy of proton should be :

(A) E (B) 2 E

(C) 4 E (D) 16 E

13. The hysteresis cycle for a material of transformer core should be :

(A) long and wide (B) short and thin

(C) short and wide (D) long and thin

14. Which one of the following statements is true ?

(A) The proton is a fundamental particle and cant be broken(B) The proton is broken into quarks u u d

(C) The proton is broken into quarks u d d

(D) The proton is made up of quarks & pions

15. The Q-meter works on the principle of :

(A) mutual inductance (B) self inductance

(C) series resonance (D) parallel resonance

16. An ideal Op-Amp is an ideal :

(A) Voltage controlled current source (B) Voltage controlled voltage source(C) Current controlled voltage source (D) Current controlled current source

17. The band gap of silicon at room temperature is :

(A) 2.1 eV (B) 1.1 eV

(C) 1.3 eV (D) 0.6 eV

18. The following motor definitely has a permanent magnet rotor :

(A) Stepper motor (B) Brushless DC motor

(C) Reluctance motor (D) DC commutator motor

19. Total instant power supplied by 3-phase supply to balanced R-L load is :(A) Zero (B) Constant

(C) Pulsating with zero average (D) Pulsating with non-zero average

20. An emf of 100 mV can be rectified using which device ?

(A) Normal p-n junction (B) Backward diode

(C) Zener diode (D) Cant be rectified

M.Tech. (Nanoscience & Nanotechnology)/210101/DNB-11686 2


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21. Which of the following law was modified by Maxwell by introducing displacement current ?

(A) Amperes Law (B) Biot Sevarts Law

(C) Gausss Law (D) Faradays Law

22. In which of the atmospheric layers is the ozone present ?

(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere(C) Ionosphere (D) Mesosphere

23. Which quantity is increased in step down transformer ?

(A) Current (B) Voltage

(C) Power (D) Frequency

24. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by :

(A) Polarization (B) Interference

(C) Reflection (D) Refraction

25. The critical angle of diamond is 24 and that of glass is 42. The angle of incidence so that the raypassing from diamond to glass just grazes the surface of separation will be nearest to :

(A) 42 (B) 36

(C) 30 (D) 24

26. The object is placed at a distance n times the focal length of a concave lens. The linear magnification

of the object is :

(A) 1/(n + 1) (B) (1/n) + 1

(C) 1/(n 1) (D) (1/n) 1

27. What causes chromatic aberration ?

(A) Non Paraxial rays

(B) Paraxial rays

(C) Variation of focal length with colour

(D) Difference in radii of curvature of the bonding surfaces of lens.

28. A diffraction pattern is formed using a beam of red light. What will happen if the red light is replaced

by blue light ?

(A) no change (B) diffraction bands become narrower

(C) bands become broader (D) bands disappear

29.

In a double slit experiment, instead of taking slits of equal width, one slit is made twice as wide as the

other. Then, in interference pattern :

(A) The intensities of maxima and minima increase

(B) The intensity of maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity

(C) The intensity of maxima decreases and that of minima increases

(D) The intensity of maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity



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30. When a ray is refracted, which one of the following does not change ?

(A) Frequency (B) Wavelength

(C) Velocity (D) Amplitude

31. A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The

distance of virtual image from the surface of the sphere is :(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm

(C) 6 cm (D) 12 cm

32. Which one of the following statements is false :

(A) The energy of photoelectrons emitted from a given metal by soft x-rays have less energy than hard

x-rays

(B) To increase the intensity of x-rays, the filament current should be increased

(C) The characteristic x-rays have continuous range of wavelengths

(D) X-rays were named so because of their mysterious nature at the time of discovery

33. According to Moores law :

(A) The number of devices on a chip doubles every year

(B) The number of devices on a chip doubles every 18 months

(C) The number of devices on a chip doubles every 3rd year

(D) The chip size doubles every 18 months

34. Wave particle duality of matter suggests that it is not possible to measure time interval with certainty

simultaneously with :

(A) Location (B) Momentum

(C) Energy (D) Mass

35. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. How much energy need to be supplied to ionize

the hydrogen atom in the first excited state ?

(A) 13.6 eV (B) 6.8 eV

(C) 3.4 eV (D) 27.2 eV

36. In a nuclear reactor :

(A) Moderator is used to control the number of neutrons

(B) Moderator is used to slow down the neutrons

(C) Control rods are used to slow down the neutrons

(D) Coolant is used to slow down the neutrons

37. What is the cause of the fractional atomic weight of elements ?

(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars

(C) Nucleons (D) Electrons

38. Which technology uses minimum power ?

(A) n-MOS (B) ECL

(C) p-MOS (D) C-MOS



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39. AND-OR logic is equivalent to :

(A) NOR-NOR logic (B) NAND-NAND logic

(C) NAND-NOR logic (D) none of the above

40. How a multiplexed address-data bus is de-multiplexed ?

(A) by using a buffer (B) by using a latch(C) by using NAND gates (D) by using a decoder

41. Which of the following noble gases is obtained by radioactive disintegration ?

(A) Ae (B) Kr

(C) Xe (D) Rn

42. A solution of potassium ferrocyanide contains :

(A) 2 ions (B) 3 ions

(C) 4 ions (D) 5 ions

43. The largest stable nuclei is :(A) U-238 (B) U-235

(C) Pb-206 (D) Bi-209

44. The time period of a seconds pendulum in a satellite is :

(A) zero (B) 2

(C) infinity (D) depends upon mass of body

45. The body of mass m is taken from earth surface to a height h = 3 R, R(R being radius of earth).

The change in gravitational potential energy is

(A) mgR (B) 2/3 mgR

(C) mgR (D) mgR

46. Two water droplets merge with each other to form a larger droplet. In this process :

(A) energy is liberated

(B) energy is absorbed

(C) energy is neither liberated nor absorbed

(D) some mass is converted into energy

47. A body initially at 80 C cools to 64 C in 5 minutes and to 52 C in 10 minutes. The temperature of

surrounding is :

(A) 40 C (B) 36 C(C) 26 C (D) 16 C

48. An empty plastic box of mass 5 Kg is observed to accelerate up at the rate of g/6 when placed deepinside the water. What mass of sand should be put inside the box so that it may accelerate down at

the rate g/6 ?

(A) 1.5 Kg (B) 2 Kg

(C) 2.5 Kg (D) 4 Kg



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49. Two identical rods are connected between two containers. One of them is at 100 C containing waterand other is at 0 C containing ice. If rods are connected in parallel then the rate of melting of ice is

a.g/s. If they are connected in series then the rate is b.g/s. The ratio of b/a is :

(A) 1/8 (B)

(C) (D) 4

50. The temperature of a radiating body increases by 30%. Then, the increase in amount of radiation

emitted will be approximately :

(A) 185% (B) 285%

(C) 325% (D) 130%

51. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of TK does 6 R joule of work. If the ratio ofspecific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, then the final temperature

of the gas will be :

(A) (T + 4) K (B) (T 4) K

(C) (T + 2.4) K (D) (T 2.4) K

52. At what temperature, the kinetic energy of a gas molecule is half of the value at 27 C ?

(A) 13.5 C (B) 123 C

(C) 150 C (D) 75 K

53. The quantity PV/kT represents :

(A) mass of gas (B) KE of gas

(C) number of moles of gas (D) number of molecules of gas

54. Microwave region of em spectrum generally lies between :

(A) 0.1100 cm (B) 50100 cm

(C) 50100 mm (D) 50100 m

55. Which of the following compounds absorb UV radiation ?

(A) Benzene (B) Heptane

(C) Chloro-Hexane (D) Benzoic Acid

56. I-125 emits :

(A) particles (B) rays

(C) both (D) None of the above

57. Half life of I-131 is :

(A) 8 Minutes (B) 8 Hrs.

(C) 8 days (D) 8 years

58. Electric field required to keep a water drop of mass m just to remain suspended, when charged with

one electron is :

(A) em/g (B) mg/e

(C) emg (D) mg



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59. Two sources of light are said to be coherent if the wave produced by them have the same :

(A) Wavelength

(B) Amplitude

(C) Wavelength and Constant phase difference

(D) Amplitude and Wavelength

60. Which out of the following does not support the wave nature of light ?

(A) Interference (B) Diffraction

(C) Polarisation (D) Photo-electric effect

61. Nucleic Acids include :

(A) DNA and CNA (B) DNA and RNA

(C) DNA and Acetic Acid (D) RNA and Acetic Acid

62. With increase in temperature the frequency of the sound from an organ pipe :

(A) decreases (B) increases

(C) remains unchanged (D) changes erratically

63. Which type of vibrations are produced in a sitar wire ?

(A) Progressive transverse (B) Progressive longitudinal

(C) Stationary transverse (D) Stationary longitudinal

64. When high speed electrons hit a target of high atomic number

(A) only heat is produced

(B) only continuous x-rays are produced

(C) only continuous and characteristic x-rays are produced

(D) heat is produced alongwith characteristic x-rays

65. In an electronic transition, atom can not emit :

(A) UV (B) Infrared

(C) Visible light (D) Gamma rays

66. A straight wire of diameter 0.55 mm carrying a current of a A is replaced by another wire of 1 mm

diameter carrying the same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is :

(A) Twice the earlier value (B) One half of the earlier value

(C) One quarter of the earlier value (D) No change

67. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at

the centre is B. If it is bent into a circular loop of n turns, the magnetic field at the centre of coil

would be :

(A) nB (B) n2 B

(C) 2 nB (D) 2 n2 B



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68. 220 V, 1000 Watt bulbs will consume 1000 W power, when connected with 110 Volt supply if :

(A) 4 such bulbs are connected in parallel

(B) 2 such bulbs are connected in parallel

(C) 2 such bulbs are connected in series

(D) 4 such bulbs are connected in series

69. What is the nature of graph between temperature and thermo emf ?

(A) Hyperbola (B) Straight Line

(C) Parabola (D) Some other curve

70. In an experiment, light of particular wavelength is incident on metal surface, and electrons are

emitted from the surface as a result. To produce more electrons per unit time but with less KE per

electron, the experimenter should do the following :

(A) Increase the intensity and decrease the wavelength(B) Increase the intensity and the wavelength

(C) Decrease the intensity and the wavelength

(D) Decrease the intensity and increase the wavelength

71. When Boron is bombarded by neutrons, a neutron can be absorbed and an alpha particle emitted.

The KE of reaction products is equal to :

(A) KE of incident neutron

(B) Energy equivalent to mass decrease in the reaction

(C) Energy equivalent to mass decrease in reaction minus the KE of incident neutron

(D) Energy equivalent to mass decrease in reaction plus the KE of incident neutron

72. In case of type 2 superconductors what happens to the critical temperature when a magnetic field is

applied :

(A) Critical temperature remains same

(B) It decreases with increasing field

(C) It increases with increasing field

(D) It is a material property and may increase or decrease

73. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its :

(A) Pressure and Temperature are high

(B) Pressure and Temperature are low

(C) Pressure is high but temperature is low

(D) Pressure is low but temperature is high



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74. A uniform charged sphere of total charge Q expands and contracts between radii R1 and R2 at a

frequency f. The total power radiated by the sphere is :

(A) proportional to Q (B) Proportional to f

(C) Proportional to (R2/R1) (D) Zero

75. One end of nichrome wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area A is attached with another

nichrome wire of length L and cross-sectional area 2 A. If the free end of longer wire is at electric

potential of 8.0 V, and the free end of smaller wire is at electric potential of 1.0 V, the potential at

the junction of two wires is most nearly equal to:

(A) 2.4 V (B) 3.3 V

(C) 4.5 V (D) 6.6 V



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