ntse test-1 (19.08.05) f

FIITJEE PRACTICE TEST FOR NTSE

Enrolment No:……………………………..……………… Name:…………………………………………..

PART I – MATPART II - SAT

Time: Part – I : 90 minutes Max. Marks: 100Time Part – II : 90 minutes Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before start writing the answers.

1. The test is in two Parts. Part-I consists of 100 questions and part-II also consists of 100 questions.

2. All questions in Part-I and Part-II carry one mark each.

3. Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read the whole question paper before beginning to answer it.

4. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after another till you finish both the Parts.

5. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. If timer permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.

6. Since the time allotted to the two Parts of this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any question.

7. A blank page has been provided for rough work at the end of each part.

8. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO WRITE ANSWERS ON A SEPARAE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by encircling the number of the correct alternative in the answer sheet from amongst the ones given for the corresponding question in the test booklet.

10. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.

FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited., 5-9-14/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 004. Phone: 040-55777000 – 03 Fax: 040-55777004

Regd. Off: 29A, ICES House, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi - 16, Ph : 26515949 , 26865182, 26854102, Fax: 26513942

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PART – IMENTAL ABILITY TEST

Time: 90 minutesMax. Marks : 100

Note: Encircle the correct alternatives in the Answer Sheet from amongst the ones given against the corresponding question in the Text Booklet.

MENTAL ABILITY TESTDirections:In the number series given below, one number is missing. From among the choices 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 encircle the correct choice on the answer sheet against the particular question.1. 3, 8, 18, 38 ……………………..

(1) 59 (2) 78 (3) 86 (4) 98 (5) 308

2. 3, 5, 8, 10, 13 ………………..(1) 16 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 12 (5) 112

3. 4, 5, 8, 10, 16 ………………...(1) 20 (2) 24 (3) 16 (4) 18 (5) 218

4. 6, 10, 18, 34 ………..(1) 60 (2) 48 (3) 56 (4) 66 (5) 366

5. 2, 10, 18 ………..(1) 26 (2) 168 (3) 128 (4) 84 (5) 138

6. 2, 5, 10, 17 ………..(1) 98 (2) 82 (3) 26 (4) 110 (5) 16

7. 2, 2, 5, 5, 27 ……………..(1) 24 (2) 21 (3) 18 (4) 27 (5) 25

8. 1, 2, 3, 5, 8 ……………..(1) 7 (2) 11 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) 10

9. 3, 3, 5, 5, 11 ………..(1) 7 (2) 11 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) 10

10. 6, 8, 10, 5, 14 ……………(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3 (5) 10

Directions:Question 11 to 20In the following questions letter/letters are arranged in a particular order or some underlying criterion. Study the letter/letters to find out the order and fill in the blanks from amongst the responses 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Encircle the answer on the answer sheet against the particular Question.

11. ABCD, FGHI, KLMN …………(1) PQRS (2) QPZX (3) ZYXY (4) EFGH (5) TZVI

12. X, V, T ……………(1) Z (2) Y (3) S (4) R (5) W

13. PON, LKJ ……….



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(1) ABC (2) BCD (3) HGF (4) MNO (5) XYZ

14. V, T, R ………(1) Q (2) P (3) S (4) A (5) X

15. DEFGH, JKLMN ………..(1) ABBAT (2) CDCDT (3) ABCDT (4) PRST (5) YTSRT

16. BCED, FGIH, JKML ………..(1) RSUV (2) NOQP (3) KLOP (4) STVW (5) FTFT

17. IJLK, NOQP …………(1) STVU (2) TSUV (3) UVST (4) VUTS (5) FTFT

18. HILK, NORQ …………(1) UVYX (2) TUXW (3) FXTZ (4) GHJK (5) FLFL

19. GH, JK ………….(1) NM (2) MN (3) OP (4) QS (5) FS

20. WXYA, TUVB ………….(1) QRSC (2) TBSC (3) QRSD (4) MNOE (5) FOIT


21. 2 3 44 6 88 12 ?

(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 16 (5) 0

22. 4 6 106 8 12? 10 14

(1) 8 (2) 11 (3) 26 (4) 14 (5) 18

23. 6 9 1217 20 2328 ? 34

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 31 (5) 10

24. 25 30 1075 90 3050 60 ?

(1) 20 (2) 17 (3) 13 (4) 19 (5) 21

25. 4 6 10

FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited., 5-9-14/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 004. Phone: 040-55777000 – 03 Fax: 040-55777004Regd. Off: 29A, ICES House, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi - 16, Ph : 26515949 , 26865182, 26854102, Fax: 26513942

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8 18 ?16 36 100

(1) 50 (2) 60 (3) 70 (4) 80 (5) 9026. 1 5 10

11 15 2021 25 ?

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40 (5) 50

27. 6 12 1818 ? 16236 144 324

(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 72 (4) 18 (5) 19

28. ? 200 25030 40 506 8 10

(1) 190 (2) 180 (3) 170 (4) 160 (5) 150

29. 4 6 82 4 66 8 ?

(1) 10 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 50 (5) 60

30. 3 15 756 30 150? 40 200

(1) 30 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6 (5) 10


31. ADGJ, CFIL, EHKN ………………(1) FILO (2) GJMP (3) HKMN (4) JLOQ (5) FDBA

32. AZBY, CXDW, EVFU ……….(1) GTHS (2) ETSH (3) GISH (4) HIGS (5) FTTF

33. UT, RQ, ON …………(1) FJ (2) LK (3) GJ (4) HG (5) WX

34. YXWV, RQPO, KJIH …………..(1) ABCD (2) DCBA (3) ZYXW (4) UTSR (5) NMLK

35. LK, IH, FE …………(1) YZ (2) HG (3) AB (4) CB (5) CK

36. OP, RS, UV ……………(1) CD (2) VW (3) ST (4) XY (5) LK

37. JKJK, NONO, RSRS …………



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(1) DCBA (2) IJIJ (3) VWVW (4) MNMN (5) TOSA

38. ZYAB, VUEF ………..(1) CDCD (2) GHIJ (3) ONML (4) RQIJ (5) EFGH

39. XYZ, ABC, UVW, DEF …………(1) ABC (2) EFG (3) RST (4) GHI (5) LKJ

40. TS, QP, NM ……………….(1) KJ (2) AB (3) VU (4) SR (5) ML

41. BCXY, CDWX, DEVW ……………….(1) DEVU (2) EFUV (3) FGVW (4) CDUV (5) CTCT

42. GH, OP ………….(1) WX (2) AB (3) ON (4) RQ (5) BA

43. V, E, Q, J ……………(1) S (2) T (3) L (4) O (5) K

44. AB, EF, YZ, UV ……………(1) SR (2) TO (3) QP (4) IJ (5) ZX

45. ZXVT, RPNL ………….(1) JHEC (2) ABCD (3) QRST (4) ZYXW (5) JHFD

46. EFD, HIG, KLJ ……….(1) ABC (2) XYZ (3) NOM (4) ZEF (5) QPR

47. AD, ZW, GJ …………..(1) AB (2) TQ (3) BC (4) YZ (5) OP

48. LK, ON, RQ …………(1) JK (2) VU (3) WX (4) YZ (5) UT

49. XWV, T, SRQ, ………….(1) I (2) O (3) Q (4) H (5) Z

50. YX, UV, SR …….(1) PO (2) OP (3) LM (4) KL (5) FN

Directions:Question 51 to 60Answer questions based on the following diagram.There are four circles X, Y, Z, Q.- X stands for persons who like Lemon- Y stands for persons who like Orange- Q stands for persons who like Pineapple Juice- Z stands for persons who like Apple Juice

- Various regions of the figures are indicated by a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, I, j.

- Answer the following questions from the choices given below.

51. Number of persons who like Lemon juice and Apple juice but not Orange Juice.


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(1) h (2) f (3) d (4) a (5) e

52. Number of persons who like Apple Juice, Pineapple juice and Orange juice but not Lemon juice(1) b (2) f (3) d (4) g (5) a

53. Persons who like Apple Juice only(1) e (2) b (3) c (4) d (5) i

54. Persons who like Pineapple juice only(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d (5) i

55. Persons who like neither Pineapple juice nor Orange juice but like Lemon juice and Apple juice.(1) a (2) d (3) j (4) f (5) h

56. Persons who like Lemon juice only(1) e (2) i (3) f (4) g (5) a

57. Persons who like Orange juice only(1) b (2) c (3) f (4) h (5) j

58. Persons who like Lemon juice, Orange juice and Apple juice(1) j (2) g (3) d (4) e (5) a

59. Persons who like both Lemon Juice and Orange juice but not Apple juice(1) c (2) a (3) e (4) d (5) b

60. Persons who like both Orange juice and Apple juice but not other juices.(1) a (2) b (3) k (4) f (5) e

DirectionsQuestions 61 to 65

In the above diagram

61. Region that represents Tennis players only(1) P (2) U (3) Q (4) R (5) T

62. Region that represents both Cricket and Tennis players only but not Football(1) V (2) Q (3) P (4) T (5) U

63. Region that represents all the players(1) S (2) T (3) P (4) V (5) R

64. Region that represents Cricket and Football players but not Tennis players(1) Q (2) V (3) S (4) T (5) R

65. Region that represents Cricket players only



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(1) T (2) U (3) P (4) R (5) Q

DirectionsQuestions 61 to 65Questions 66-75 are based on various operations and arithmetic symbols defined below of the given alternatives which one is correct ?+ Stands for less thanx Stands for greater than– Stands for equal to Stands for addition< Stands for subtraction> Stands for multiplication= Stands for division

66. (1) 8 > 2 < 6 = 3 – 14 (2) 8 + 2 + 6 – 3 + 14 (3) 8 x 2 – 6 + 3 14(4) 8 + 2 6 – 3 x 14 (5) 8 < 2 > 6 + 3 14

67. (1) 12 + 5 – 2 + 6 < 3 > 5 (2) 12 – 5 x 2 + 6 > 3 + 5 (3) 12 < 5 > 2 6 = 3 + 5(4) 12 + 5 – 2 x 6 < 3 – 5 (5) 12 > 5 2 = 6 – 3 < 5

68. (1) 5 + 12 – 6 x 5 + 10 3 (2) 12 + 3 – 6 + 5 10 > 3 (3) 12 < 3 6 > 5 = 10 < 3

(4) 6 5 > 3 12 10 > 4 (5) 5 > 12 = 6 5 < 10 x 3

69. (1) 1 3 = 2 + 3 (2) 4 = 2 x 1 3 (3) 1 > 5 3 5(4) 4 x 3 > 2 < 1 (5) 1 > 8 2 x 20

70. (1) 8 < 5 3 + 2 (2) 8 > 2 = 4 + 2 (3) 8 = 2 2 x 10(4) 8 + 4 = 3 + 8 (5) 8 – 3 5 > 2

71. (1) 6 > 2 = 4 – 3 (2) 6 < 5 > 2 – 4 (3) 6 4 = 5 – 3 (4) 6 – 3 < 2 > 2 (5) 6 = 2 < 1 – 5

72. (1) 9 = 3 – 3 1 (2) 9 – 6 > 2 < 3 (3) 9 > 2 < 10 – 2 (4) 9 > 2 < 10 – 2 (5) 9 5 – 6 4

73. (1) 5 < 3 > 2 – 2 (2) 3 5 – 4 > 2 (3) 2 > 5 – 5 2(4) 3 < 2 > 2 – 4 (5) 5 – 3 > 2 1

74. (1) 3 4 x 5 < 2 (2) 3 > 4 x 5 = 2 (3) 3 4 x 2 2(4) 3 = 2 x 4 2 (5) 3 x 2 x 2 x 4

` (1) 12 10 + 10 20 (2) 12 + 10 – 10 > 2 (3) 12 + 10 < 10 + 20(4) 10 + 12 – 10 > 2 (5) 12 x 2 + 10 2

DirectionsQuestions 76 to 85Questions 76-85 are based on the following statements. Answer the questions given at the end. 11 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K play a game of Marbles. Each has a collection of ten marbles.

A borrows 2 marbles from C E borrows 3 marbles from HF gives 9 marbles to I J borrows 2 marbles from DK gives 3 marbles to A G borrows 8 marbles from D

76. How many marbles does A have ?


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(1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 10 (4) 8 (5) 4

77. How many marbles does B have ?(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 16 (4) 12 (5) 2

78. How many marbles does J have ?(1) 13 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 13 (5) 12

79. How many marbles does K have ?(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) 4

80. How many marbles does D have ?(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 5 (5) 7

81. How many marbles does G and H have put together ?(1) 40 (2) 21 (3) 30 (4) 25 (5) 46

82. How many marbles does C, D, E put together ?(1) 20 (2) 19 (3) 18 (4) 15 (5) 21

83. Who is having minimum marble than the remaining ?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

84. Who is having highest marbles in the group ?(1) A (2) B (3) G (4) H (5) I

85. How many marbles does F have ?(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 3 (4) 0 (5) 6

DirectionsQuestions 86-90Questions 86-90 are based on the following table

Class Years and strength of the class1989 1990 1991 1992 1993

I 45 50 60 40 21II 20 25 20 10 20III 31 40 30 10 10

86. In which year the strength of class I is highest?(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993 (4) 1990 (5) 1989

87. In which year the strength of class II is lowest ?(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993 (4) 1990 (5) 1989

88. The ratio of strength of class I during 1990 and 1991.(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 5 (3) 5 : 6 (4) 4 : 1 (5) 2 : 3

89. What is total strength of classes 1, 2, 3 in the year 1993.(1) 31 (2) 41 (3) 50 (4) 49 (5) 51

90. What is the strength of class III during 1989 and 1990 put together(1) 70 (2) 71 (3) 69 (4) 68 (5) 75

Directions(91 – 95)



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Questions 91-95 are based on one letter/number series. You are required to find the number/letter which should replace the question marks. Encircle the choice on the answer against the particular question.

91. IJK : MLK : : OPQ : ?(1) RSQ (2) SRQ (3) FGJ (4) TSR (5) OPZ

92. BD : FH : : NP : ?(1) ST (2) VW (3) UV (4) PQ (5) RT

93. HI : DE : : NO : ?(1) JK (2) IJ (3) KL (4) FI (5) RS

94. ABC : EFG : : IJK : ?(1) MNO (2) PQR (3) MNZ (4) ZON (5) NMC

95. DCB : IHG : : MLK : ?(1) RQP (2) NMO (3) TMO (4) MBC (5) IHO

Directions (14-18): Read the following information and answer the questions given below it. M and N are good at hockey and volleyball. O and M are good at hockey and baseball. P and N are good at cricket and volleyball. O, P and Q are good at football and baseball.

96. Who among the following is good at four games ?(1) Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) M

97. Who is good at cricket, baseball and volleyball ?(1) Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) M

98. Who is good at baseball, volleyball and hockey ?(1) Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) M

99. Who is good at cricket, hockey and volleyball ?(1) Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) M

100. Who is good at the largest number of games ?(1) Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) M


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Space for rough work



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PART – IISCHOLASTIC ABILITY TEST

Time: 90 minutesMax. Marks: 100

Note: Encircle the correct alternatives in the Answer Sheet from amongst the ones given against the corresponding question in the Text Booklet.

SCHOLASTIC ABILITY TEST

1. The sum of the coefficients of even powers of x of a polynomial f(x) is(A) f(1) (B) f(0)

(C) (D)

2. The G.C.D of x3 – x2 – 4x – 6 and x2 – 2x – 3 is(A) 3x + 2 (B) x – 3 (C) – x – 3 (D) – 2x – 3

3. If x + y = a and xy = b then the value of is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

4. The equation whose roots are 4 and 5 is(A) x2 + 9x + 20 = 0 (B) x2 – 9x – 20 = 0(C) x2 – 9x + 20 = 0 (D) x3 + 9x + 20 = 0

5. The value of on simplifying is

(A) x (B) 1/x(C) 1 (D) –1

6. The value of x, y and z respectively on simplifying the equation 2x + 3y = 0, 3y + 4z = 14, 2x + 4z = 26 is(A) 3, –2, 5 (B) –3, 2, 5(C) –3, 2, –5 (D) 3, 2, 5

7. If the difference of the squares of two numbers is 45, the square of the smaller number is 4 times the larger number, then the numbers are(A) 9, 6 or 9, –6 (B) 5, 6 or 5, –6(C) 9, 5 or 9, –5 (D) none of these

8. If ax = b, by = c, cz = a, then the value of xyz is(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) (D) abc


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9. If x = 2, y = 1 and z = –3 then x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz is equal to(A) 6 (B) 0(C) 2 (D) 8

10. Twelve years hence a man will be four times as he was 12 years ago, then his present age is(A) 25 years (B) 20 years(C) 28 years (D) 30 years

11. If then z is equal to

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

12. If ax = by = cz and b2 = ac, then is

(A) 2/y (B) 1/y(C) 1/2y (D) 2y

13. The remainder when x6 – 3x5 + 2x2 + 8 is divided by x + 1 is(A) 24 (B) 14 (C) 8 (D) 18

14. The value of k for which (x – 1) is a factor of x3 – kx2 + 11x – 6 is(A) – 5 (B) 2(C) 6 (D) – 6

15. The value of a and b so that x3 + ax2 + bx + 6 is divisible by (x + 1) and (x – 2) are(A) a = –1, b = 4 (B) a = –4, b = 1(C) a =4, b = –1 (D) a = 1, b = –4

16. The number of real roots of the quadratic equation ( n > 1) is

(A) 1 (B) 2(C) n (D) 0

17. Consider the equation x2 +x – n = 0, where n is an integer lying between 1 to 20. Total number of different values of ‘n’ so that the equation has integral roots is (A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 2

18. Let p(x) = 0 be a polynomial equation of least possible degree, with rational coefficients,

having as one of its roots. Then the product of all the roots of

p(x) = 0 is (A) 7 (B) 49(C) 56 (D) 63

19. The value of is equal to



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(A) 10 (B) -4(C) 4 (D) -10

20. If ‘1’ lies between the roots of equation x2 +(a –1)x + a2 =0 then (A) 1 < a < 2 (B) -2 < a < -1(C) 0 < a< 1 (D) -1 < a< 0

21. If the equations ax2 +bx +1 =0 and ax2 +x +b =0 have exactly one common root then (A) a – b =2 (B) a – b = 1(C) a + b = 2 (D) a + b = -1

22. If a 2 + b2 +c2 + d2 = 1, then the maximum value of ab + bc + cd +da is (A) zero (B) One(C)Two (D) None of these

23. If a, b, c are positive real numbers, then the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0(A) are real and positive (B) are real and negative(C) have negative real part (D) have positive real part.

24. If x2 + ax + b = 0 and x2 + bx + a = 0 have one and only one common root, then that common root is(A) 0 (B) 1(C) –1 (D) none of these

25. If one root of equation x2 + px + 12 = 0 is 4 while the equation x2 + px + q = 0 has equal roots, the value of q is equal to

(A) (B)

(C) 4 (D) None of these

26. 1 light year is equal to

(A) 6.3 x 104 (B) 6.3 x 104 A.U.

(C) 3.0 x 108 ms–1 (D) 6.3 x 107

27. A body strikes the floor vertically with a velocity u and rebounds at the same speed. The change in velocity would be(A) u (B) 3u(C) 2u (D) zero

28. The moon is 4 x 108 m from the earth. A radar signal transmitted from the earth will reach the moon in about(A) 5.2 s (B) 1.3 s(C) 2.6 s (D) 0.70 s

29. The acceleration of a body projected upwards with a certain velocity is(A) 9.8 ms-2 (B) -9.8 ms-2

(C) zero (D) insufficient data30. The unit for the rate of change of velocity will be

(A) ms-1 (B) ms-2

(C) Ns (D) N/s


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31. Which of the following would probably show the velocity-time graph for a body whose acceleration-time graph is shown in figure?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

32. In figure the velocity of the body at A is (A) zero(B) unity(C) maximum(D) infinite

33. The velocity-time graph of a body falling from rest under gravity and rebouncing from a solid surface is represented by which of the graphs shown in figure.(A) (B)

(C) (D)

34. A body moves along the circumference of a circular track of radius R(shows in figure). What is displacement of the body when it covers ¾ th of its circumference?

(A) 3 R (B)

(C) (D)

35. A car increases its speed from 20 km/h to 50 km/h in 10 seconds. Its acceleration is(A) 30 ms–2 (B) 3 ms–2

(C) 18 ms–2 (D) none of these

36. A body has an acceleration of -4 ms–2. What is its retardation? (A) – 4 ms2 (B) zero(C) 4 ms–2 (D) nothing can be decided



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37. Two unequal masses (M1 and M2) are connected by a string which passes over a frictional pulley(shown in figure). If M1, M2 and the table are frictionless, the acceleration of the masses would be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) none of these

38. A single horizontal force F is applied to a block of mass M, which is contact with another block of mass M(shown in figure). If the surface are frictionless, the force between the blocks is

(A) (B)

(C) (D) none of these

39. A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a block of wood of mass C. If loss of any mass and friction be neglected, the velocity of the system must be

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

40. Three identical blocks of mass 2 kg each are hanging on a string passing over a fixed ideal pulley as shown in the figure. The tension in the string connecting the blocks B and C is(A) zero(B) 13 N(C) 3.3 N(D) 19.6 N

41. The masses of 10kg and 20kg respectively are connected by a massless spring. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown, the 10 kg mass has an acceleration of 12 ms–2, what is the acceleration of 20 kg mass ?(A) 12 ms–2

(B) 4 ms–2

(C) 10 ms–2

(D) zero

42. A man of weight W is standing on a lift which is moving upward with an acceleration a. The apparent weight of the man is


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(A) (B) W

(C) (D)

43. A monkey is at rest on a weightless rope which goes over a pulley and is tied to a bunch of bananas at the other end. The weight of the bunch of bananas is exactly the same as that of the monkey. The pulley is frictionless and weightless. The monkey starts to climb up the rope to reach the bananas. As he climbs, the distance between him and the bananas will(A) decrease (B) increase(C) first decreases and then increases (D) remain unchanged

44. A body of mass 100 g is moving with a velocity of 15 ms-1. The momentum associated with the ball will be(A) 0.5 kg ms-1 (B) 1.5 kg ms-1

(C) 2.5 kg ms-1 (D) 3.2 N s

45. If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon(A) its mass will change (B) its weight will change, but not mass(C) both mass and weight will change (D) its mass and weight will remain the same

46. A body is said to be under balanced forces when the resultant force acting on the body is (A) unity (B) zero(C) infinity (D) none of these

47. When a force of 1 newton acts on a mass of 1kg that is able to move freely, the object moves with a(A) speed of 1 ms–1 (B) acceleration of 1 ms–2

(C) speed of 1k ms–1 (D) acceleration of 12 ms–2

48. A Diwali rocket is ejecting 0.05 kg of gases per second at a velocity of 400 ms–1. The accelerating force on the rocket is(A) 20 dyne (B) 20 newton(C) 20 kg wt (D) sufficient data not given

49. A man sitting in a train in motion is facing the engine. He tosses a coin up, the coin falls behind him. The train is moving(A) forward with uniform speed (B) backward with uniform speed(C) forward with acceleration (D) forward with deceleration

50. A cannon after firing recoils due to(A) conservation of energy (B) backward thrust of gases produced(C) Newton’s 1st law of motion (D) Newton’s 3rd law of motion

51. The atomic number of an element is 11 and its mass number is 23. The respective number of electrons, protons and neutrons in this atom will be(A) 11, 11, 12 (B) 11, 12, 11(C) 12, 11, 11 (D) 23, 11, 23

52. An atom which has a mass number of 14 and has 8 neutrons is an (A) isotope of oxygen (B) isobar of oxygen



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(C) isotope of carbon (D) isobar of carbon

53. For an element with atomic number 19, the 19th electron will occupy(A) L-shell (B) M-shell(C) N-shell (D) K-shell

54. When an alpha ()-particle are sent through thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil because(A) -particles are much heavier than electrons (B) -particles are positively charged(C) most part of the atom is empty space (D) -particles move with high velocity

55. The two electrons occupying an orbital are distinguished by(A) principal quantum number (B) angular momentum quantum number(C) magnetic quantum number (D) sin quantum number

56. When the angular momentum quantum number, = 1, the shape of the orbital will be(A) spherical (B) dumbbell(C) double dumbbell (D) more complicated

57. For a given principal quantum number n = 4, the energy of its sub-shells follows the order (A) s < p < d < f (B) s < d < f < p(C) s < p < f < d (D) d < f < p < s

58. Which of the following subshell can accommodate a maximum number of electrons ?(A) 3s (B) 2p(C) 3d (D) 2s

59. The properties of the elements, as well as the formulae and properties of their compounds depend in a periodic manner on the atomic weights of the elements. This periodic law was given by(A) J.Lother Meyer (B) John A.R.Newlands(C) Dobernier (D) D.I.Mendeleev

60. Which order of relative size amongst the following is incorrect?(A) Li < Na < K (B) C < Si < Al(C) Mg > Al < Na (D) F < Cl < Br

61. Which of the following is the correct order of relative sizes?(A) Al (B) Al+

(C) Al+2 (D) Al+3

62. The element with the largest size in the second period is(A) lithium (B) fluorine(C) sodium (D) oxygen

63. Which of the following hydroxides is most basic?(A) Be(OH)2 (B) Ba(OH)2

(C) Ca(OH)2 (D) Mg(OH)2

64. The element with lowest IE1 is(A) sodium (B) cesium


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(C) barium (D) magnesium

65. Which element has the highest electron affinity?(A) Br (B) Cl(C) I (D) F

66. The first IE values of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order(A) Na < Mg < Al < Si (B) Na < Mg > Al > Si(C) Na < Mg > Al < Si (D) Na > Mg > Al > Si

67. Which of the following has the smallest size?(A) I– (B) S–2

(C) O–2 (D) Cl–

68. An ionic bond is formed when(A) the combing atoms gain electrons(B) the combing atoms lose electrons(C) a metallic element reacts with a nonmetallic element(D) two metallic elements react

69. Which of the following statements is wrong?(A) an atom is electrically neutral(B) the size of a cation is smaller than that of the corresponding atom(C) the size of an anion is bigger than that of the corresponding atom(D) an atom and its ion have an unequal number of protons

70. In electrovalency,(A) molecules lose electrons forming atoms (B) molecules gain electrons forming atoms(C) atoms share electrons (D) atoms lose or gain electrons forming ions

71. Which of the following is a non-directional bound?(A) covalent (B) electrovalent(C) coordinate-covalent (D) none of these

72. Which of the following molecules contains a triple bond?(A) CCl4 (B) C2H4

(C) C2H2 (D) NH3

73. A covalent bond is likely to be formed between(A) sodium and chlorine (B) calcium and oxygen(C) nitrogen and hydrogen (D) magnesium and fluorine

74. In which of the following compounds does central atom have less than eight electrons in its valence shell?(A) SiH4 (B) BF3

(C) PF5 (D) C2H4

75. Acetylene (C2H2) molelcule contains(A) 3 bonds and 2-bonds (B) 2 bonds and 3-bonds(C) 4 bonds and 1-bonds (D) 1 bond and 2-bonds



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76. Match the following:a) Cerebrum ( ) i) Controls pituitary glandb) Diencephalon ( ) ii) Controls heart beatc) Hypothalamus ( ) iii) Seat of intelligenced) Cerebellum ( ) iv) Controls emotionse) Medulla oblongata ( ) v) Co-ordinates muscular activity

(A) c, a, d, b, e (B) c, d, e, a, b(C) c, d, a, e, b (D) c, b, a, e, d

77. The condition of a person suffering with “Diabetes Insipidus”(A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypoglycemia(C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism

78. The final products formed in animals during anaerobic respiration(A) Ethyl alcohol, CO2 and 2 ATP (B) Lactic acid, CO2 and 2 ATP(C) Ethyl alcohol and 2 ATP (D) Lactic acid and 2 ATP

79. In photosynthesis NADP is reduced to NADPH using hydrogen of(A) Water molecule (B) Glucose molecule(C) Phosphoglyceric acid molecule (D) Carbon dioxide molecule

80. Write odd one out – Ampula, Cochlea, Utriculus, Sacculus(A) Ampula (B) Cochlea(C) Utriculus (D) Sacculus

81. When we are looking at distant vision(A) The lens become opaque(B) No involvement of lens(C) The lens becomes more convex or rounded(D) The lens is more flattened or thinner

82. In food preservation, the principle of __________ is used.(A) Plasmolysis (B) Deplasmolysis(C) Imbibition (D) Diffusion

83. Write the odd one out Faccidity, Turgidity, Endosmosis, Ascent of sap(A) Faccidity (B) Endosmosis(C) Turgidity (D) Ascent of sap

84. Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest suitable word / words for the fourth place:(A) Dark reaction (B) CO2 fixation(C) Kreb’s cycle (D) Photolysis

85. A compound formed in mitochondria due to oxidation of pyruvic acid(A) Oxalo acetic acid (B) Citric acid(C) Acetyl Co-enzyme A (D) RUBP

86. One of these is not a respiratory substrate(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates(C) Vitamins (D) Fats


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87. Match the following:a) Frontal lobe ( ) i) Visual informationb) Parietal lobe ( ) ii) Sensation of touchc) Occipital lobe ( ) iii) Sensation of hearing and smelld) Temporal lobe ( ) iv) Centre of speech, memory & thinking

(A) d, b, a, c (B) b, d, c, a(C) a, b, c, d (D) c, a, b, d

88. Exopthalmic goitre is caused due to(A) Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone (B) Hypo secretion of thyroid hormones(C) Hyper secretion of insulin (D) Hypo secretion of Insulin

89. Dictyosomes is the other name of(A) Lysosomes (B) Golgi body(C) Vacuoles (D) Endoplasmic Reticulum

90. The cell organelle made up of RNA and proteins(A) Chromatin fibres (B) Lysosomes(C) Golgi body (D) Ribosomes

91. Which of the following is not an electron acceptor in photosynthesis?(A) Cytochrome (B) Plastoquinone(C) RUBP (D) NADP

92. Given below the diagram shows the rectified vision of

(A) Myopia (B) Hypermetropia(C) Presbiopia (D) Astigmatigm

93. Given below an experiment, the seeds kept in Flask A could not germinate because

(A) There is no oxygen (B) There is no carbon dioxide(B) There is no water (D) There is no sun light

94. What is the purpose of CaCl2 in the test tubes given below experiments?



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(A) It is absorbs O2 (B) it absorbs CO2

(C) it absorbs H2O (D) it absorbs glucose

95. It balances air pressure on either side of the ear drum(A) Ear ossicles (B) Labrynth(C) Eustachian tube (D) Tympanic membrane

96. The vitamin which helps in absorption of iron(A) Vitamin A (B) vitamin B12

(C) Vitamin C (D) vitamin ‘D”

97. The digestive gland that does not produce any enzymes(A) Liver (B) Salivary gland(C) Pancreas (D) Gastric gland

98. The element required for the formation of enamel on the teeth is(A) Iodine (B) Calcium(C) Fluorine (D) Iron

99. The excretory organs in grasshopper(A) Nephridia (B) Flame cells(C) Kidneys (D) Malphigian tubules

100. The process which leads algal bloom …….(A) Eutropicantion (B) Ozone depletion(C) Biomagnification (D) Soil pollution


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Space for rough work



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FIITJEE PRACTICE TEST FOR NTSE

PART – IISCHOLASTIC ABILITY TEST

ANSWERS

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C

5. C 6. A 7. A 8. A

9. B 10. B 11. B 12. A

13. B 14. C 15. B 16. D

17. C 18. C 19. D 20. D

21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B

25. A

PHYSICS-ANSWERS

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B

5. B 6. A 7. A 8. A

9. D 10. D 11. C 12. A

13. C 14. A 15. B 16. B

17. A 18. D 19. B 20. B

21. B 22. B 23. B 24. C

25. D

CHEMISTRY-ANSWERS

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C

5. D 6. B 7. A 8. C

9. D 10. C 11. D 12. C

13. B 14. B 15. B 16. C

17. C 18. C 19. D 20. D


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21. B 22. C 23. C 24. B

25. A

BIOLOGY-ANSWERS

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A

5. B 6. D 7. A 8. D

9. C 10. C 11. C 12. A

13. A 14. B 15. D 16. C

17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C

21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D

25. A



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