nta ugc-net commerce grand mock test...vardhman career place, opp: punjabi university, patiala...

VARDHMAN CAREER PLACE, OPP: PUNJABI UNIVERSITY, PATIALA

CENTRE NO: 98889-48720,90413-48720

NTA UGC-NET

Commerce

GRAND MOCK TEST

MISSION-NTA-UGC-NET/JRF 2019

D.O.B ........................................

__________________________

(Name)

____________________________

(Signature)

__________________________

Time : 2 hr [Maximum Marks : 200 ] Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100 ALL 100 QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY NO NEGATIVE MARKING

VARDHMAN CAREER PLACE, OPP: PUNJABI UNIVERSITY, PATIALA

CENTRE NO: 98889-48720,90413-48720

Commerce Grand Mock Test Time: 2 Hrs

VARDHMAN CAREER PLACE, M: 90413-48720, 98889-48720

1. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II:

List – I

a. Various combinations that a consumer can purchase

b. Various combination of two commodities that give the consumer equal satisfaction

c. A set of indifference curves

d. Point of tangency of a budget line and indifference curve

List – II

1. Indifference Map

2. Budget Line

3. Consumer Equilibrium

4. Indifference Curves

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 2 4 1 3

(B) 2 1 4 3

(C) 4 1 2 3

(D) 4 2 1 3

2. Assertion (A): An Iso Cost Line is a straight line.

Reason (R): The market rate of exchange between the two inputs is constant.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

3. Assertion (A): The rate of fall of MR Curve is more than twice the rate of fall of AR.

Reason (R): The MR & AR Curves are linear and negatively sloped.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

4. According to A.K. Sen, famines occurred in India because of

(A) Lack of proper distribution mechanism (B) Lack of demand

(C) Lack of transportation (D) Shortage of foodgrains

5. The horizontal demand curve for a commodity shows that its demand is

(A) Fairly elastic (B) Perfectly elastic (C) Highly elastic (D) Moderately elastic

6.Which State in India has the lowest Infant Mortality Rate?

(A) Maharashtra (B) Goa (C) Gujarat (D) Kerala

7.Match items given in List – I with those in List – II:

List – I List – II

a. Green Revolution 1. Oilseeds

b. Yellow Revolution 2. Milk

c. White Revolution 3. Fish

d. Blue Revolution 4. Wheat



Codes:

a b c d

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 4 2 1 3

(C) 2 1 3 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

8.Hedging refers to

(A) The acceptance of a foreign exchange risk (B) The covering of a foreign exchange risk

(C) Foreign exchange speculation (D) Foreign exchange arbitrage

9.An example of a Euro currency is

(A) A Dollar deposit outside the U.S. (B) A Pound Sterling deposit outside the U.K.

(C) A Mark deposit outside Germany (D) All of the above

10.Shadow price refers to

(A) Change in the value of the constraint per unit change in the objective function.

(B) Change in the value of objective function per unit change in any one of the constraints.

(C) The change in the value of the primal solution per unit change in the dual solution.

(D) All the above.

11.Which of the following is not one of the important objectives of Financial Management?

(A) Profit maximization (B) Wealth maximisation

(C) Value maximization (D) Social responsibility

12.Which of the following project appraisal method is not based on time value of money?

(A) Payback method (B) Net present value method

(C) Internal rate of return method (D) Discounted payback method

13. The exchange rate between the currencies of two countries will be equal to the ratio of the price indices in

these countries is explained by

(A) Inflation adjustment (B) Purchase power parity

(C) Interest rate parity (D) Transaction exposure

14. Making profit by taking advantage of different prices prevailing in different markets is referred as

(A) Hedging (B) Speculation (C) Arbitrage (D) Gambling

15. Among the following financial derivatives, which involves the least risk for the holder?

(A) Forward (B)Option (C)Futures (D)Swap

16. With reference to Working Capital Management, the term ‘float’ relates to

(A) Inventory Management (B) Receivables Management

(C) Cash Management (D) Marketable Securities

17. Takeover generally involves

(A). The acquisition of part of an undertaking to enable the acquirer to increase the market share of the product

concerned.

(B). The acquisition of certain block of equity capital of a company which enables the acquirer to exercise

control over the affairs of the company.

(C). Taking over the responsibility to have trade agreement for finished product.

(D). Taking over certain long-term liabilities of another group company to help it financially.



18. The model that applies to Economic Order Quantity for Inventory Management, was proposed to be applied

to Cash Management by

(A) Miller and Orr (B) William J. Baumol (C) William Sharpe (D) David Durand

19. Which one is not the overseas market entry strategy followed by Multinational Corporations?

(A) Franchise (B) Collaborations (C) Joint venture (D) Strategic planning

20. Which one of the following represents number of years required to recover the initial investment?

(A) Accounting rate of return (B) Payback period

(C) Internal rate of return (D) Net present value

21. Selection is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes – those who are to

be offered employment and those who are not.” This is stated by

(A) Dale Yoder (B) Milton M. Mandell

(C) R.D. Agarwal (D) Edwin Flippo

22. The ultimate mission or purpose is to relate human resources to future enterprise needs, so as to maximize the

future return on investment in human resources. It is referred as

(A) Demand and Supply (B) Forecastin

(C) Human Resource Planning (D) Human Resource Development

23. The four systems of Management in terms of Leadership styles are related to

(A) Blake and Mouton (B) Philip Kotler (C) Peter F. Drucker (D) RensisLikert

24. Which level of Managers translatethecorporate strategy into concrete objectives for their individual business?

(A) Business level (B) Corporate level

(C) Multi-Business level (D) Functional level

25. The number of subordinates a superior can effectively handle is called

(A) Organising people (B) Span of control (C) Direction (D) Coordination

26. Match the following:


a. Functional Organisation 1. F.W. Taylor

b. Transactional Analysis 2.McClelland

c. Managerial Grid 3.Eric Berne

d. Need Theory 4.Blake and Mouton

Codes:

a b c d

(A) 1 3 4 2

(B) 1 2 3

(C) 4 3 2 1

(D) 2 1 4 3

27. Who is father of Administrative Management Theory?

(A) Max Weber (B) Frank Gilbrith (C)Henry Fayol (D) Henry Gantt

28. The process of determining the tasks that make-up a job and the skills, abilities and responsibilities needed to

perform the job is called

(A) Job Analysis (B) Job Description (C) Job Enrichment (D) All of the above



29. ARecruitment is concerned with

(A) Selecting the right candidate (B) Developing a pool of job candidates

(C) Getting applications (D) None of the above

30. Which of the following is the internal sources of recruitment?

(A) Advertisement (B) Selection (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

31. Which of the following is not a Trading block?

(A) NAFTA (B) ASEAN (C) SAARC (D) IMF

32. GATT stands for

(A) General Accord on Tariff and Trade (B) Generous Agreement on Trade and Tariff

(C) General Agreement on Tariff and Trade (D) Generalist Agreement on Trade and Tariff

33. In which stage of product life cycle, the company takes decision whether to maintain, harvest or drop the

product?

(A) Introduction (B) Growth (C) Maturity (D) Decline

34. The headquarters of which of the following international organizations is not located in Geneva, Switzerland?

(A) World Trade Organisation

(B) UNCTAD

(C) World Bank

(D) International Labour Organisation

35. Consider the following lists and identify the correct code:

LIST I LIST II

1. UNCTAD i. Ease of Doing Business Report

2. IMF ii. World Investment report

3. World Bank iii. World Economic Outlook

Codes:

1 2 3

(A) i iii ii

(B) ii iii i

(C) iii ii i

(D) ii i iii

36. Which of the following is not a member of World bank Group?

(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

(B) International Development Association(IDA)

(C) International Monetary Fund(IMF)

(D) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency(MIGA

37. Trade Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) doesn’t apply for

(A) Measures that affect trade in goods.

(B) Measures that lead to restrictions on quantities.

(C) Discouraging measures that limit a company’s imports.

(D) Discouraging measures that limit a company’s exports.

38. The world trade organization was formed in the year _________ with GATT as it basis.

(A) 1993 (B) 1994 (C) 1995 (D) 1996



39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List -II

a. World Bank I. 1944

b. International Financial Corporation II. 1956

c. International DevelopmentAgency III. 1960

d. Asian Development Bank IV. 1966

a b c d

(A) I II III IV

(B) I III IV II

(C) I I IV III

(D) III I II IV

40. The trade theory of absolute advantage was developed by

(A) Haberler (B) David Ricardo (C) Adam Smith (D) Allfred Marshall

41. If the regression coefficient B in Y = A + B X is equal to zero, then the regression line will

(A) Pass through the origin (B) Be parallel to the x-axis

(C) Be parallel to the y-axis (D) Neither intersects x-axis nor y-axis

42. If a hypothesis is statistically significant, then it is concluded that

(A) The observed result is probably not due to chance.

(B) The observed result is probably a chance result.

(C) The observed result cannotpossibly be due to chance.

(D) The null hypothesis of no relationship is probably true.

43. Which one of the following statements is false?

(A) Sample space refers to the collection of all favorable outcomes of an experiment.

(B) Collectively exhaustive events are those whose union is sample space.

(C) All the outcomes of an experiment are known as sample space

(D) Two events are said to be independent if the happening of one does not affect the probability of happening of

the other.

44. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and indicate the code of correct matching in connection

with probability distributions:


(Mean and Standard Deviations) (Probability Distribution)

a. np, √npq i. Normal Distribution

b. λ,√λ ii. Binomial Distribution

c. 0, 1 iii. Poisson Distribution

Codes:-

a b c

(A). i ii iii

(B). iii i ii

(C). iii ii i

(D). i iii ii

45. A researcher wants to test the significance of the differences of the average performance of more than two

sample groups drawn from a normally distributed population, which one of the following hypothesis- testing tests

is appropriate?

(A) Chi-square test (B) F-test (C) z-test (D) t-test



46. In a symmetrical distribution

(A) Mean, Median and Mode values are identical. (B) Mean, Median and Standard Deviation are equal.

(C) Mean, Median and Correlation are equal (D) None of the above

47. Match the following:


(i) Poisson distribution has the property that 1. Its mean is greater thanVariance

(ii)Normal distribution is a 2. Symmetric distribution

(iii)Chi-square distribution is 3. Positively skewed distribution

(iv) Binomial distribution has the property thatare equal. 4. Its mean and variance

Codes:

i ii iii iv

(A) 4 2 1 3

(B) 4 2 3 1

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

48. For which distribution(s) Mean and Median are equal?

(i) Binomial Distribution; (ii) Poisson Distribution;

(iii) Exponential Distribution; or (iv) Normal Distribution

Codes:

(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (i) & (iii) (D) (ii) & (iv)

49. Consider the following statements relating to correlation and regression analysis:

Statement I: Correlation is independent of change of scale, but not of origin

Statement II: Correlation denotes co-variability between the variables

Statement III:Regression is a relative measure of relationship between variables

Statement IV: Regression is independent of change of origin but not of scale

Choose the correct option:

(A) Statements I, II and IV are correct (B) Statements II, III and IV are correct

(C) Statements II and III are correct (D) Statements II and IV are correct

50. If your score in an exam was 80, with a mean of 60, what would be the standardized score for this exam if the

standard deviation is 15?

(A) 1.33 (B) 1.25 (C) 1.52 (D) 1.72

51) Main objective of CRR and SLR is to ensure

(i) Liquidity position of Bank

(ii) Financial position of Bank

(iii) Profit position of Bank

(A). Only (i) is correct (B). Only (ii) is correct

(C). Only (iii) is correct (D). All are correct

52) Read the following events

(i) Allowing convertibility of rupee at the market rate in the current account.

(ii) Nationalisation of general insurance business.

(iii) Establishment of IDBI

(iv) Capital adequacy norms for commercial banks.

Arrange the events in the ascending order of their occurrence.

(A). iv, iii, ii, I (B). iv, ii, iii, I (C). i, ii, iii, iv (D). i, ii, iv, iii



53)Which among the following is not true with regard to merchandise banker?

(i) It can accept deposits (ii) It can advance loans

(iii) It can do other banking activities (iv) It can be manager to a public issues

(A). i, ii and iii (B). ii, iii and iv (C). i, iii and iv (D). ii and iv

54) Which of the following schemes are operated by IDBI?

(A). Modernisation Assistance Scheme (B). Technical Development Fund Scheme

(C). Equipment Finance Scheme (D). All of these

55) The main functions of IFCI are –

(i) Granting loans and advances for the establishment, expansion diversification and modernisation of industries

in

corporate and co-operative sectors.

(ii) Guaranteeing loans raised by industrial concerns in the capital market, both in rupees and foreign currencies.

(iii) Subscribing or underwriting the issue of shares and debentures by industries. Such investment can be held up

to 7 years.

(iv) Guaranteeing credit purchase of capital goods imported as well as purchased within the country

(A). (i) and (ii) (B). (iii), (iv), and (ii) (C). (i), (ii), and (iii) (D). (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

56) Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of_______.

(A)) All scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs

(B)) All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs

(C) Only Public Sector Banks

(D) Only Private Sector Banks

(E) All scheduled banks except private b

57) What is the upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction?

(A) Rs. 5 lacs (B) Rs. 1 lacs (C) Rs. 25 lacs

(D) Rs. 50 lacs (E) No upper limits is prescribed

58) Which scheme is eligible for refinance from NABARD (National Bank for Agricultural and Rural

Development) ?

(A) Small Road and Water Transport Operators (SRWTO)

(B) Self Employment Scheme for Exservicemen (SEMFEX)

(C) Soft Loan Assistance for Margin Money (SLAMM)

(D) All of these

59) Who is responsible for the collection and publication of monetary and financial information ?

(A) Finance Ministry (B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) National Sample Survey Organization (D) Auditor and Comptroller General of India

60. What are gilt-edged securities in India ?

(A) Securities issued by the government (B) Securities issued by the private sector

(C) Securities issued by the multinationals (D)Securities issued by the joint venture companies

61) Assertion A): The creditors of LLP shall be the creditors of LLP alone

Reason R): The liability of the partners of LLP is limited to their agreed contribution in the LLP.

(A). Both (A) and (R) true and R is the correct explanation of (A)

(B). Both (A) and R are true but (R) is not the correct explanation

(C). (A) is correct but (R ) is incorrect



(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

62) Consider the following lists in relation to key element of competition law and identify the correct code:

LIST I

1. section 4

2. section 6

3. section 3

LIST II

i. anti-competitive agreements

ii. abuse and dominant position

iii. merger, amalgamation and acquisitions control

(A) 1 (i) 2(iii) 3(ii) (B) 1(ii) 2(i) 3(iii) (C) 1(ii) 2(iii) 3(i) (D) 1(iii) 2(i) 3(ii)

63) Consider the following lists and identify the correct code:

LIST I: LIST II:

1. reverse charge mechanism i. levy of IGST

2. exports in GST ii. liability of recipient

3. Imports in GST iii. liability of registered person

4. E-way bill iv. zero rated

(A) 1ii 2iv 3i 4iii (B) 1iii 2iv 3i 4ii (C) 1ii 2i 3iv 4iii (D) 1iii 2i 3iv 4ii

64) Under section 2(2) of the sale of goods Act, 1930, 'delivery' means:

(A) gratuitous transfer of possession from one person to another.

(B) involuntary transfer of possession from one person to another

(C) voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another

(D) transfer of possession irrespective of whether it is gratuitous, involuntary or voluntary from one person to

another.

65) Which of the following is/are correct about GST?

1. it is destination based tax.

2. It is a value added tax.

3. cascading of taxes is an important feature of GST

(A) 1&2 (B) 2&3 (C) 1&3 (D) All of the above

66) Which of the following statements is/are correct about GST model being followed in India?

STATEMENT I: india has adopted a dual GST model in view of tge federal structure of the country.

STATEMENT II: centre and states simultaneously levy GSTon taxable supply of goods or services or both.

(A). Statement I&II are correct (B). Statement I only is correct

(C). Statement II only is correct (D). Both statement are incorrect

67) Which of following is/are correct about applicability of IT Act, 2000

1. Nothing contained in this act shall restrict any person from exercising any right conferred under the copyright

Act 1957 orthe patents Act, 1970.

2. The act shall also apply to any offence or contravention committed outside india if the act involves a computer

in india.

(A). 1 only (B). 2 only (C). Both1 and 2 (D). None of the above

68) Which of the following is incorrect about one person company (OPC)?

(A) It is a new class of company unser the companies act,2013 which can be incorporated by a single person.

(B) OPC is a separate legal entity with a limited liability of the member.

(C) As per the provision of companes act,2013, OPC is neither a public company nor a private company.



(D) None is correct

69)The issue of evergreening is primarily concerned with which of the following intellectual property rights

(IPRs)?

(A) Patent (B) Copyright (C) Trademark (D) Trade secrets

70) consider the following statement about dishonor of negotiable instruments and identify the correct code:

Statement I) A cheque can only be dishonor by non-payment

Statement II) A promissory note can only be dishonor by acceptance

Statement III) a bill of exchange can be dishonored by non-acceptance or non-payment

(A) Statement I&II are true

(B) Statement II&III are true

(C) Statement I&III are true

(D) all the statement are true

71. Which one of the following components is not the part of broad marketing environment ?

(A) Technological environment (B) Task environment

(C) Demographic environment (D) Natural environment

72. The Coco Cola Company markets a wide range of different beverage products including bottled water, soft-

drinks, juices and sports drinks. Each product appeals to a different segment. This is an example of which type of

market offering ?

(A) Differentiated marketing (B) Target marketing

(C) Undifferentiated marketing (D) Intensified marketing

73. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and indicate the code of correct matching :


a. Brand elements i. The marketer’s vision of what the brand must be and do for consumers.

b. Brand line ii. All products, original as well as line and category extensions, sold under a

particular brand name.

c. Brand personality iii. Those trademarkable devices that serve to identify and differentiate the brand.

d. Brand promise iv. The specific mix of human traits that may be attributed to a particular brand.

Codes :

a b c d

(A) iii ii iv i

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii i iv ii

(D) iv iii ii i

74. Statement – I : In developing advertising programme marketing managers must always start by identifying

the target market and buyer motives.

Statement – II : A company may run multiple ad campaigns at the same time, each emphasizing different aspects

of its brand and service.

(A) Only Statement – I is correct. (B) Only Statement – II is correct.

(C) Both Statements – I and II are correct. (D) Both Statements – I and II are incorrect.

75. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the code of correct matching :


a. Core benefit i. Bed, bathroom, towel, desk and closet

b. Basic product ii. Clean bed sheet

c. Expected product iii. Rest and sleep



Codes :

a b c

(A) i ii iii

(B) iii ii i

(C) iii i ii

(D) ii i iii

76. Select the correct sequence of steps in setting a pricing policy :

(a) Determining Demand (b) Analyzing competitors’ Costs, Prices and Offers

(c) Selecting the Final Price (d) Selecting the Pricing Objective

(e) Estimating costs (f) Selecting a pricing method

Codes :

(A) (d), (a), (e), (b), (f) and (c) (B) (a), (e), (b), (d), (f) and (c)

(C) (a), (b), (e), (d), (f) and (c) (D) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)

77. Which one of the following is a digital communications technique that involves improving visibility and

monitoring sentiment within social networks and blogs ?

(A) Email marketing (B) Display advertising

(C) E-PR (D) Search engine optimization

78. A company prices a 2 litre bottle of its mineral water at ` 30 but 60 ml of the same water in a moisturizer

spray for ` 75. This is an example of which one of the following pricing practices ?

(A) Product-Form pricing (B) Customer-segment pricing

(C) Image pricing (D) Location pricing

79.I : Direct marketing is a non-interactive marketing system.

Statement – II : Direct marketing uses one or more media to effect a measurable response or transaction at any

location.

Select the correct code :

Codes :

(A) Both the Statements are correct. (B) Both the Statements are incorrect.

(C) Only Statement – I is correct. (D) Only Statement – II is correct

80.. Which one of the following refers to “two or more unrelated companies put together resources or

programmes to exploit an emerging market opportunity” ?

(A) Holistic marketing (B) Horizontal marketing system

(C) Hub and spoke system (D) Co-branding

81. If an assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in india ,the portion of

agriculutural income in that case shall be

(A) 100% (B) 60% (C) 50% (D) 60%

82. X is employed in a private company at a salary of Rs.70,000 per month and Rs.10,000 as dearness pay .He

received Rs.2000 per month as house rent allowance. He paid Rs.2500 per month as house rent.What is the

exempted portion of house rent allowance?

(A)Rs.2500 (B)Rs.2000 (C)Rs.1000 (D)Nil

83. The statutory limit for deduction u/s 80GG of income tax act 1961 for the A.Y. 2019-20 is

(A)Rs.2000 per month (B)Rs.3000 per month

(C)Rs.2500 per month (D)Rs.5000 per month



84. Minimum alternate tax (MAT) is imposed on:--

(A) all companies (B) public limited companies only

(C) private limited companies only (D) partnership firms and companies

85. In which of the following long term assets ,cost indexation benefit is allowed?

(A) Debentures issued by a company (B) self generated goodwill of a business

(C) Bonus shares allotted on 1.4.2000 (D) Jewellery

86. Any amount of money received in excess of Rs.50,000 without consideration is fully taxable in the hands of

(A) individuals (B) individuals and HUF (C) individuals,HUF and company (D) all of above

87. Under income tax act 1961 Unabsorbed depreciation can be carried forward for set off purpose:

(A) for 4 years (B)for 5 years (C) for 8 years (D) for unspecified period

88. Which one of the following does not describe a type of transfer pricing?

(A) cost based (B) negotiated (C) Administered (D) Target based

89. A price on goods and services sold by one member of a corporate family to another ,such as from a parent to

its subsidiary in a foreign country, is known as

(A) arm’s length price (B)export price (C)import price (D) transfer price

90. Double Taxation Relief could be :

(A) bilateral relief (B) unilateral relief

(C) multilateral relief (D) both (A) and (B)

91.Which of the following is not a cash inflow?

(A) decrease in creditors (B) decrease in debtors

(C) issue of shares (D) sale of fixed assets

92.Limited liability partnership act is passed in which year?

(A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2009

93. Name of the judge who gave the judgement on Garner Vs murray Case related to insolvency of parners?

(A) justice peter (B) justice s.arnold (C) justice john lee (D) justice Instice joyee

94. Which section of companies act deals with the issue of sweat equity shares

(A) section 52 (B) section 53 (C) section 54 (D) section 55

95. Accounting for holding companies is governed by which accounting standard ?

(A) AS-18 (B)AS-19 (C) AS-20 (D)AS-21

96.Which method of inventory issue is best during inflation?

(A) NIFO (B)FIFO (C) HIFO (D) LIFO

97. Rule of thumb for absolute liquid ratio is

(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:2 (D)3:1

98. Ind AS-106 is related to :

(A) fair value measurement (B)leases

(C) joint arrangements (D) extraction and evaluation for mineral resources



99. VED analysis technique is related to :

(A) labour control (B) overhead control (C) inventory control (D) inventory issue

100.Safety audit is mandatory for

(A) manufacturing industries (B)hazardous industries

(C) textile industries (D) mining industries

nta ugc-net commerce grand mock test...vardhman career place, opp: punjabi university, patiala...

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