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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Study of fossils is (a) palaeontology (b) herpetology (c) saurology (d) organic evolution 2. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term (a) Thallophytes (b) Cryptogams (c) Bryophytes (d) Sporophytes 3. Who discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C of human beings? (a) Ronald Ross (b) Mendel (c) Laveran (d) Stephens 4. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal? (a) Bacteria (b) Euglena (c) Mycoplasma (d) Paramecium 5. A good green manure in rice fields is (a) Aspergillus (b) Azolla (c) Salvinia (d) Mucor 6. The most thoroughly studied fact of the known bacteria-plant interactions is the (a) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns (b) gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium

(c) nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria (d) plant growth stimulation by phosphatesolubilising bacteria 7. Archegoniophore is present in: (a) Marchantia (b) Chara (c) Adiantum (d) Funaria 8. The common mode of sexual reproduction in Chlamydomonas is (a) isogamous (b) anisogamous (c) oogamous (d) hologamous 9. An alga very rich in protein is (a) Spirogyra (b) Ulothrix (c) Oscillatoria (d) Chlorella 10. Match items in Column I with those in Column II: Column I Column II (A) Peritrichous (J) Ginkgo flagellation (B) Living fossil (K) Macrocystis (C) Rhizophore (L) Escherichia coli (D) Smallest (M) Selaginella flowering plant (E) Largest perennial (N) Wolffia alga Select the correct answer from the following: (a) A-L; B-J; C-M; D-N; E-K; (b) A-K; B-J; C-L; D-M; E-N (c) A-N; B-L; C-K; D-N; E-J; (d) A-J; B-K; C-N; D-L; E-K 11. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo? (a) Independent sporophyte (b) Presence of archegonia (c) Well developed vascular tissues (d) Independent gametophyte 12. In hot summer and cold winter, the number of malaria cases as well as Anopheles declines, Reappearance of malaria in humid warm conditions is due to (a) surving malarial parasites in human carriers (b) surviving sporozoites in surviving mosquitoes (c) monkeys (d) mosquito larvae in permanent waters

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13. Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and Humans belongs to the same (a) species (b) genus (c) family (d) order 14. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey bee? (a) Compound eyes (b) Poison gland (c) Jointed legs (d) Metamorphosis 15. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Animals - Morphological features (i) Crocodile - 4-chambered heart (ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia (iii) Obelia - Thecodont (iv) Lemur - Thecodont (a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) only (i) and (iv) (c) only (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) 16. Fruit of Groundnut is (a) Legume (b) Caryopsis (c) Berry (d) Nut 17. Aril represents the edible part of (a) banana (b) litchi (c) mango (d) apple 18. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells? (a) 42 (b) 63 (c) 84 (d) 21 19. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are (a) parts of secondary xylem and phloem (b) parts of pericycle (c) lateral meristems (d) apical meristems

20. Vessels are found in (a) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms (b) most of angiosperms and few gymnosperms (c) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some pteriodophyta (d) all pteridophyta 21. Function of companion cells is (a) providing energy to sieve elements for active transport (b) providing water to phloem (c) loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive transport (d) loading of sucrose into sieve elements 22. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is (a) myofibril (b) sarcomere (c) Z-band (d) cross bridges 23. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called (a) humification (b) fragmentation (c) mineralisation (d) catabolism 24. An outer covering membrane is absent over (a) nucleolus (b) lysosome (c) mitochondrion (d) plastid 25. Element necessary for middle lamella is (a) Ca (b) Zn (c) K (d) Cu 26. The plasma membrane consists mainly of: (a) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer

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(b) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer (c) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules (d) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer 27. Adenine is (a) Purine (b) Pyrimidine (c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide 28. Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction by (a) forming a reactant-product complex (b) changing the equilibrium point of the reaction (c) combining with the product as soon as it is formed (d) lowering the activation energy of the reaction 29. Which of the following statements about enzymes is wrong? (a) Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature for maximum activity (b) Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures (c) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are lipids also (d) Enzymes are highly specific 30. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their: (a) satellites (b) secondary constrictions (c) kinetochores (d) centromere 31. With increase in the turgidity of a cell surrounded by water the wall pressure will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) fluctuate (d) remain unchanged 32. The association between blue-green algae and fungi occurs in (a) lichens (b) symbiosis (c) cannibism (d) mycorrhiza 33. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised? (a) Phosphorus (b) Calcium (c) Potassium

(d) Sulphur 34. The enzyme that catalyses carbon dioxide fixation in C4 plants is (a) RuBP carboxylase (b) PEP carboxylase (c) Carbonic anhydrase (d) Carboxydismutase 35. Which pigment system is inactivated in red drop? (a) PS -I and PS -II (b) PS-I (c) PS -II (d) None of these 36. CAM helps the plants in: (a) conserving water (b) secondary growth (c) disease resistance (d) reproduction 37. Oxidative phosphorylation involves simultaneous oxidation and phosphorylation to finally form (a) pyruvate (b) NADP (c) DPN (d) ATP 38. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to root or dipped in (a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins (c) auxins (d) ethylene 39. Ethylene gas is used for (a) growth of plants (b) delaying fruit’s abscission (c) ripening of fruits (d) stopping the leaf abscission 40. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in (a) vessels and tracheid differentiation (b) leaf abscission (c) annual plants (d) floral parts 41. Calcium deficiency occurs in the absence of vitamin (a) D

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(b) C (c) E (d) B 42. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anaemia (b) Vitamin B6 - Loss of appetite (c) Vitamin B1 - Beri-beri (d) Vitamin B3 - Pellagra 43. Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to respiratory surface by only (a) plasma and erythrocytes (b) plasma (c) erythrocytes (d) erythrocytes and leucocytes 44. A person with blood group A requires blood. The blood group which can be given is (a) A and B (b) A and AB (c) A and O (d) A, B, AB and O 45. What is true about leucocytes? (a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood cancer (b) These are produced in thymus (c) These are enucleated (d) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls 46. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans? (a) Brain (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Pancreas 47. Uricotelism is found in (a) Mammals and birds (b) Fishes and fresh water protozoans (c) Birds, reptiles and insects (d) Frogs and toads 48. Which is part of pectoral girdle? (a) Glenoid cavity (b) Sternum (c) Ilium (d) Acetabulum

49. One function of parasympathetic nervous system is (a) contraction of hair muscles (b) stimulation of sweat glands (c) acceleration of heart beat (d) constriction of pupil 50. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected? (a) Movement of the eye ball (b) Movement of the tongue (c) Swallowing (d) Movement of the neck 51. Ovulation occurs under the influence of (a) LH (b) FSH (c) estrogen (d) progesterone 52. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? (a) Luteinizing - Failure of ovulation (b) Insulin - Diabetes insipidus (c) Thyroxine - Tetany (d) Parathyroid - Diabetes mellitus 53. Norepinephrine: Is released by sympathetic fibres Is released by parasympathetic fibres Increases the heart rate Decreases blood pressure Which of the above said statements are correct? (a) and (b) and (c) and (d) and 54. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by (a) Hofmeister (b) Nawaschin and Guignard (c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Strasburger 55. One of the most resistant biological material is (a) lignin (b) hemicellulose (c) lignocellulose (d) sporopollenin 56. Wind pollination is common in (a) legumes

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(b) lilies (c) grasses (d) orchids 57. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely? (a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate (b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines (c) Estrogen secretion further decreases (d) Primary follicle starts developing 58. Signals for parturition originate from: (a) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus (b) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (c) Placenta only (d) Fully developed foetus only 59. A normal green male maize is crossed with albino female. The progeny is albino because (a) trait for albinism is dominant (b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy plastids derived form green male (c) plastids are inherited from female parent (d) green plastids of male must have mutated 60. A colour blind mother and normal father would have (a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters (b) colour blind sons and daughters (c) all colour blind (d) all normal 61. A person with 47 chromosomes due to an additional Y chromosome suffers from a condition called (a) Down's syndrome (b) Superfemale (c) Turner's syndrome (d) Klinefelter's syndrome 62. When dominant and recessive alleles express itself together it is called (a) codominance (b) dominance (c) amphidominace (d) pseudodominance 63. A normal woman, whose father was colourblind is married to a normal man. The sons would be (a) 75% colour-blind (b) 50% color-blind (c) all normal

(d) all colour-blind 64. Select the incorrect statement from the following: (a) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism (b) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population (c) Baldness is a sex -limited trait (d) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity 65. A nucleotide is formed of (a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate (b) purine, sugar and phosphate (c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate 66. Three codons causing chain termination are (a) TAG, TAA, TGA (b) GAT, AAT, AGT (c) AGT, TAG, UGA (d) UAG, UGA, UAA 67. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called (a) enhancer (b) promoter (c) regulator (d) receptor 68. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because (a) haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids (b) mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids (c) haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids (d) all mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids 69. Basic principles of embryonic development were pronounced by (a) Van Baer (b) Weismann (c) Haeckel (d) Morgan 70. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is (a) 5 × 106 years back (b) 25 × 106 years back (c) 50 × 106 years back

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(d) 75 × 106 years back 71. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures? (a) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult (b) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions (c) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function (d) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors 72. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is (a) preventing speciation (b) speciation through reproductive isolation (c) random creation of new species (d) no change in the isolated fauna. 73. Sarcoma is cancer of (a) epithelial tissue (b) mesodermal tissue (c) blood (d) endodermal tissues 74. Salmonella is related with (a) Typhoid (b) Polio (c) T.B. (d) Tetanus 75. Select the correct statement from the ones given below? (a) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth (b) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer (c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate (d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery 76. One of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pests is the (a) practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas (b) method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides (c) predator does not always survive when transferred to a new environment

(d) the predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest. 77. Which of the following plants are used as green manure in crop fields and in sandy soils? (a) Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla nilotica (b) Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum (c) Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri (d) Saccharum munja and Lantana camara 78. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of (a) chilli (b) maize (c) sugarcane (d) wheat 79. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of: (a) ethanol (b) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels. (c) Citric acid (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins 80. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for (a) DNA finger printing. (b) Disarming pathogen vectors. (c) Transformation of plant cells. (d) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors. 81. Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alphalactal albumin enriched. (B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules. (C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology. (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host. Which are the two statements having mistakes? (a) Statement (B) and (C) (b) Statement (C) and (D) (c) Statement (A) and (C) (d) Statement (A) and (B) 82. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those (a) present in maximum number (b) that are most frequent (c) attaining a large biomass

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(d) contributing to ecosystem properties 83. Consider the following four conditions (i) - (iv) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards. The conditions: (i) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature (ii) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature (iii) Bask in sun when temperature is low (iv) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis Options: (a) (iii), (iv) (b) (i) (c) (iii), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii) 84. In a food chain, the largest population is that of (a) decomposers (b) producers (c) primary consumers (d) tertiary consumers 85. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called (a) standing crop (b) deteritus (c) humus (d) standing state 86. Bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis takes place in (a) tropical rain forests (b) tropical rain forest and crop plants (c) crop plants (d) oceans 87. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned. (a) Sunderbans - Bengal Tiger (b) Periyar - Elephant (c) Rann of kutch - Wild Ass (d) Dachigam - Snow National park Leopard. 88. Which gas contributes most to green house effect? (a) CFC (b) Freon (c) CO2 (d) CH4 89. A major component of gobar gas is (a) Ammonia (b) Methane (c) Ethane

(d) Butane 90. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for (a) addition of preservatives to the product (b) purification of the product (c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel (d) availability of oxygen throughout the process

Chemistry 1. The molecular weight of O2 and SO2 are 32 and 64 respectively. At 15°Cand 150 mm Hg pressure, one litre of O2 contains ‘N’ molecules. The number of molecules in two litres of SO2 under the same conditions of temperature and pressure will be: (a) N/2 (b) N (c) 2N (d) 4N 2. The number of atoms in 2.9 mol of a triatomic gas is: ( NA= 6.20 ×9203 mol– 9 )

(a) 6.026 × 1022 (b) 1.806 × 1023 (c) 3.600 × 1023 (d) 1.800 × 1022 3. According to Bohr’s theory the energy required for an electron in the Li2+ ion to be emitted from n = 0 state is (given that the ground state ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 93.6 eV) (a) 61.2 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 30.6 eV (d) 10.2 eV 4. 58 . The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 × 92–34 Js. The speed of light is 3 × 9297 nm s– 9 . Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 × 9295 s–9? (a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 10 5. Which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionisation enthalpy? (a) 1s2 2s2 sp3 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p5

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6. Mark the incorrect statement in the following (a) The bond order in the species O2, O2 + and O2 –

decreases as O2+ > O2> O2- (b) The bond energy in a diatomic molecule always increases when an electron is lost (c) Electrons in antibonding M.O. contribute to repulsion between two atoms. (d) With increase in bond order, bond length decreases and bond strength increases. 7. In which of the following the bond angle is maximum? (a) NH3 (b) SCl2 (c) NH4

+

(d) PCl3 8. In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three? (a) SF4 (b) I3- (c) SbCl5

2– (d) PCl5 9. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas? (a) It cannot be converted into a liquid (b) There is no interaction between the molecules (c) All molecules of the gas move with same speed (d) At a given temperature, PVis proportional to the amount of the gas 10. 50 mL of each gas Aand of gas Btakes 150 and 200 seconds respectively for effusing through a pin hole under the similar condition. If molecular mass of gas Bis 36, the molecular mass of gas Awill be: (a) 96 (b) 128 (c) 32 (d) 64 11. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase the temperature, which of the following is true? (a) ΔE = W ≠ 0,q = 0 (b) ΔE = W = q ≠ 0 (c) ΔE=2,W=q ≠ 0 (d) W=2, ΔE = q ≠ 0 12.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 13. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt BA2 is 4 × 10–12. The solubility of BA2 is (a) 4 × 10–4 (b) 4 × 10–12 (c) 4 × 10–3 (d) 1 × 10–4 14. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH? (a) SrCl2 (b) BaCl2 (c) MgCl2 (d) CaCl2 15. The oxidation number of chromium in potassium dichromate is (a) + 6 (b) – 5 (c) – 2 (d) + 2 16. Which one of the following has minimum value of cation/anion ratio. (a) NaCl (b) KCl (c) MgCl2 (d) CaF2 17. In Castner-Kellner cell for production of sodium hydroxide: (a) Brine is electrolyzed with Pt electrodes (b) Brine is electrolyzed using graphite electrodes (c) Molten sodium chloride is electrolysed (d) Sodium amalgam is formed at mercury cathode 18. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into (a) Sodamide (b) Sodium cyanide (c) Sodium nitrite (d) Sodium nitrate

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19. The most stable conformation of n-butane is (a) skew boat (b) gauche (c) staggered-anti (d) eclipsed

20. Which one of the following pairs represents stereoisomerism? (a) Structural isomerism and Geometrical isomerism (b) Optical isomerism and Geometrical isomerism (c) Chain isomerism and Rotational isomerism. (d) Linkage isomerism and Geometrical isomerism 21. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is: (a) Benzoic acid (b) Nitrobenzene (c) Toluene (d) Benzene 22. In preparation of alkene from alcohol using Al2O3 which is effective factor? (a) Temperature (b) Concentration (c) Surface area of Al2O3 (d) Porosity of Al2O3 23. The number of atoms contained in a fcc unit cell of a monoatomic substance is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 24. Asolid compound XYhas NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y–) will be: (a) 275.1 pm (b) 322.5 pm (c) 241.5 pm (d) 165.7 pm

25. Camphor is often used in molecular mass determination because (a) it is readily available (b) it has a very high cryoscopic constant (c) it is volatile (d) it is solvent for organic substances 26. Equivalent conductances of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 ohm–1 cm2 respectively. The equivalent conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution would be (a) 101.38 ohm–1 cm2 (b) 253.62 ohm–1 cm2 (c) 390.71 ohm–1 cm2 (d) 678.90 ohm–1 cm2 27.

(a) increase in ionic mobility of ions (b) 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution (c) increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic mobility of ions (d) increase in number of ions 28. If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is (a) 3 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2 29. During dialysis (a) only solvent molecules can diffuse (b) solvent molecules, ions and colloidal particles can diffuse (c) all kinds of particles can diffuse through the semi-permeable membrane (d) solvent molecules and ions can diffuse 30. Bleaching powder reacts with a few drops of dilute HCl to give (a) chlorine (b) hypochlorous acid

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(c) calcium oxide (d) oxygen 31. Which of the following statements is false? (a) Radon is obtained from the decay of radium (b) Helium is inert gas (c) Xenon is the most reactive among the rare gases (d) The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is helium 32. Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent? (a) Br2 (b) I2 (c) Cl2 (d) F2 33. The common oxidation states of Ti are (a) + 2, + 3 (b) + 3, + 4 (c) – 3, – 4 (d) + 2, + 3, + 4 34. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy? (a) Vanadium (Z= 23) (b) Chromium (Z= 24) (c) Manganese (Z= 25) (d) Iron (Z= 26) 35. Among the following, the compound that is both paramagnetic and coloured, is (a) KMnO4 (b) CuF2 (c) K4 [Fe(CN)6] (d) K2Cr2O7 36. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour? (Atomic number: Zn = 30, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28) (a) [Zn(NH3) 6] 2+ (b) [Cr(NH3) 6] 3+ (c) [Co(NH3) 6] 3+ (d) [Ni(NH3) 6] 2+ 37. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give (a) 3 – Propyl – 1 – chlorobenzene (b) n-Propyl benzene (c) No reaction

(d) Isopropyl benzene. 38. Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional isomers. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl ether, due to the presence of (a) H-bonding in ethanol (b) H-bonding in dimethyl ether (c) CH3 group in ethanol (d) CH3 group in dimethyl ether 39. The compound formed when malonic ester is heated with urea is (a) Cinnamic acid (b) Butyric acid (c) Barbituric acid (d) Crotonic acid. 40.

(a) Diethyl ketone (b) Formaldehyde (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetone 41.

(a) [a] and [b] (b) [a], [c] and [d] (c) only [b] (d) [a], [b] and [c]

42. (a) RNHBr and RCONHBr (b) RNHCOBr and RNCO (c) RCONHBr and RNCO (d) RCONBr2

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43. The reactions of (a) oxygen and (b) carbon monoxide with haeme (the prosthetic group of haemoglobin) give (c) only oxygen-haeme complex (d) only carbon monoxide-haeme complex 44. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone? (a) Testosterone (b) Thyroxin (c) Adrenaline (d) Glucagon 45.

(a) addition polymer (b) thermosetting polymer (c) homopolymer (d) copolymer

Physics 1. The time dependence of a physical quantity p is given by p = p0 exp (–αt2), where Dis a constant and t is the time. The constant α (a) is dimensionless (b) has dimensions T–2 (c) has dimensions T2 (d) has dimensions of p 2. A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passes through two points P and Q separated by a distance with velocity 30 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. The velocity of the car midway between P and Q is (a) 33.3 km /h (b) 20√2 km/ h (c) 25√2 km/h (d) 35 km/h 3. The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed along the +ve x direction? (a) 54 m (b) 81 m (c) 24 m (d) 32 m. 4.

(a) 190 J (b) 160 J (c) 150 J (d) 20 J 5.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 6. A particle of mass m is moving with a uniform velocity v1. It is given an impulse such that its velocity becomes v2. The impulse is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 7. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s will be: (a) Mv newton (b) 2 Mv newton (c) Mv/2 newton (d) zero 8.

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(a) 150 N (b) zero (c) 150 √3N (d) 300 N 9. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to: (a) t2P0 (b) t1/2 (c) t –1/2 (d) t/√m 10. A couple produces (a) no motion (b) purely linear motion (c) purely rotational motion (d) linear and rotational 11. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius Rand mass M about an axis touching the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from the sun are r1 and r2. Its distance from the sun when it is at perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit drawn from the sun is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 13. The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is f v, where v is its escape velocity from the surface of the Earth. The value of f is (a) 1/√2 (b) 1/3 (c) ½ (d) √2 14. A fluid is in streamline flow across a horizontal pipe of variable area of cross section. For this which of the following statements is correct? (a) The velocity is minimum at the narrowest part of the pipe and the pressure is minimum at the widest part of the pipe (b) The velocity is maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe and pressure is maximum at the widest part of the pipe (c) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe (d) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the widest part of the pipe 15. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature 20° C? The temperature of boiling water is 100° C. (a) 6.3 min (b) 8.4 min (c) 12.6 min (d) 4.2 min 16. An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to 8/27 of its original volume. The rise in temperature is (γ = 5/3) (a) 475°C (b) 402°C (c) 275°C (d) 175°C

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17. Two containers A and B are partly filled with water and closed. The volume of A is twice that of B and it contains half the amount of water in B. If both are at the same temperature, the water vapour in the containers will have pressure in the ratio of (a) 1: 2 (b) 1: 1 (c) 2: 1 (d) 4: 1 18. A wave has S.H.M (Simple Harmonic Motion) whose period is 4 seconds while another wave which also possess SHM has its period 3 seconds. If both are combined, then the resultant wave will have the period equal to (a) 4 seconds (b) 5 seconds (c) 12 seconds (d) 3 seconds 19. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, the potential energy stored in it is (a) 8 U (b) 16 U (c) U/ 4 (d) 4 U

20. For production of beats the two sources must have (a) different frequencies and same amplitude (b) different frequencies (c) different frequencies, same amplitude and same phase (d) different frequencies and same phase 21. Two sound sources emitting sound each of wavelength λ are fixed at a given distance apart. A listener moves with a velocity u along the line joining the two sources. The number of beats heard by him per second is (a) u/2λ (b) 2u/λ

(c) u/λ (d) u/3λ 22. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then which of the following statements is not true? (a) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated (b) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated (c) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends (d) Antinode will be at open end 23.

(a) E along KO (b) E along OK (c) E along KO (d) 3 E along OK 24. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in uniform electric field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the force on it and its potential energy are respectively (a) q.E and max. (b) 2 q.E and min. (c) q.E and p.E (d) zero and min. 25. You are given several identical resistances each of value R= 92Ω and each capable of carrying a maximum current of one ampere. It is required to make a suitable combination of these resistances of 5Ω which can carry a current of 4 ampere. The minimum

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number of resistances of the type R that will be required for this job is (a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 20 26.

(a) 94/3 Ω (b) 02/3 Ω (c) 94 Ω (d) 09 Ω 27. Two cells, having the same e.m.f., are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistances r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference across the first cell is zero. The value of R is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 28. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 2.0 A through a resistance of 92 Ω is (a) 2.5 Ω (b) 2.8 Ω (c) 9.2 Ω (d) 2.0 Ω 29. For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be (a) wrapped with insulation around it when a current is passing through it (b) placed inside an iron can (c) surrounded with fine copper sheet (d) placed inside an aluminium can

30. If the number of turns per unit length of a coil of solenoid is doubled, the self-inductance of the solenoid will (a) remain unchanged (b) be halved (c) be doubled (d) become four times 31. An LCR series circuit is connected to a source of alternating current. At resonance, the applied voltage and the current flowing through the circuit will have a phase difference of (a) π (b) 2 π (c) 4 π (d) 0 32. The primary of a transformer when connected to a dc battery of 10 volt draws a current of 1 mA. The number of turns of the primary and secondary windings are 50 and 100 respectively. The voltage in the secondary and the current drawn by the circuit in the secondary are respectively (a) 20 Vand0.5 mA (b) 20 V and 2.0 mA (c) 10V and 0.5 mA (d) Zero and therefore no current 33. 1. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of the lens when immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 will be (a) 10 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 7.5 cm 34.

(a)

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(b)

(c)

(d) 35. Which one of the following phenomena is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wave front? (a) Refraction (b) Reflection (c) Diffraction (d) Origin of spectra 36. The wavelength of a 1 keV photon is 1.24 × 10–9 m. What is the frequency of 1 MeV photon? (a) 1.24 × 1015 (b) 2.4 × 1020 (c) 1.24 × 1018 (d) 2 × 4 × 1023 37. In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between (a) negative electrons and neutral atoms/ molecules (b) photons and neutral atoms /molecules (c) neutral gas atoms/molecules (d) positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules 38. What is the radius of iodine atom (At. no. 53, mass no. 126) (a) 2.5 × 10–11 m (b) 2.5 × 10–9 m (c) 7 × 10–9 m (d) 7 × 10–6 m 39. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1 approaches a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is (a) directly proportional to Z1 Z2 (b) inversely proportional to Z1 (c) directly proportional to mass M1 (d) directly proportional to M1 × M2 40. Solar energy is due to (a) fusion reaction (b) fission reaction (c) combustion reaction (d) chemical reaction

41. It is possible to understand nuclear fission on the basis of the (a) liquid drop model of the nucleus (b) meson theory of the nuclear forces (c) proton-proton cycle (d) independent particle model of the nucleus 42.

(a) (b)

(c)

(d) 43. For amplification by a triode, the signal to be amplified is given to (a) the cathode (b) the grid (c) the glass-envelope (d) the anode 44. The forward biased diode is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 45. For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristics is correct?

(a) (b)

(c) (d) 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. b 54. b 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. c

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66. d 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. b 74. a 75. b 76. d 77. b 78. d 79. d 80. a 81. d 82. d 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. d 87. d 88. c 89. b 90. d 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. d 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. d 45. c