1. 1. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 1 1. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the pelvic diaphragm? a. The pelvic diaphragm is formed by levator ani and coccygeus muscles. b. The pelvic diaphragm is inferior to the superficial muscles of the perineum. c. The perineal aspect of the levator ani forms the medial wall of the ischiorectal foss d. The anal sphincter and levator ani muscles are attached to the fibromuscular perineal body. 2.Which of the following is NOT responsible for blindness in childhood? a. Dacryocystitis b. Glaucoma c. Malnutrition d. Ophthalmia neonatorum 3.The internal iliac lymph nodes drain lymph from all of the following structures EXCEPT a. ovary. b. rectum. c. uterus. d. urinary bladder. 4.Which of the following is the MOST common type of intussusception in children? a. Colocolic b. Ileoileal c. Ileocolic d. Jejunoileal 5.Midodrine is used for a. cardiac stress test. b. severe hypertension. c. congestive heart failure. d. chronic orthostatic hypotension. 6.Miosis is produced by all of the following substances EXCEPT a. cyanide. b. opiates. c. organophosphates. d. pontine hemorrhage. 7.Which of the following was the first pathogenic bacterium to be observed under the microscope? a. Yersinia pestis b. Bacillus anthracis c. Clostridium tetani d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 8.Carpal tunnel syndrome is produced due to compression of which nerve in the carpal tunnel? a. Ulnar nerve b. Median nerve c. Radial nerve d. Musculocutaneous nerve 9.Which of the following is NOT a posterior relation of the rectum? a. Sigmoid colon b. Presacral fascia c. Median sacral vessels d. Lowest portion of the sacral sympathetic chain 10. Which vascular access for hemodialysis has the highest long term patency rate? a. Arteriovenous fistula b. Arteriovenous graft c. Double lumen jugular catheter d. Tunneled double lumen jugular catheter 11.While carrying a heavy suitcase, the downward dislocation of glenohumeral joint is resisted by all of the following muscles EXCEPT a. deltoi b. latissimus dorsi. c. coracobrachialis. d. short head of biceps brachii. 12.Which of the following is a first-line drug for absence seizures? a. Topiramate b. Zonisamide c. Lamotrigine d. Sodium valproate 13.In neurons, resting membrane potential is close to equilibrium potential for which of the following? a. Na+ b. Cl- c. K+ d. Ca2+ 14.Regarding the external auditory meatus, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT a. it is a sinuous tube about 2.5 cm long in adults. b. it conducts sound waves from auricle to the tympanic membrane. c. the meatus is narrower about 5 mm from tympanic membrane and this area is called isthmus.
2. 2. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 2 d. the framework of outer one-third of the meatus is bone and the inner two-thirds is elastic cartilage. 15.The time interval between a primary case and a secondary case is called a. serial interval. b. period of communicability. c. extrinsic incubation perio d. intrinsic incubation perio 16.Notification of occupational diseases is required in all of the following legislations EXCEPT a. ESI Act. b. Mines Act. c. Factories Act. d. Dock Labour Act. 17.Thiersch operation is done for a. rectal tear. b. anal fissure. c. rectal prolapse. d. anorectal malformation. 18.Which of the following is included in the Human Development Index? a. Knowledge b. Disability rate c. Infant mortality d. Urbanisation rate 19.Hassall corpuscles are seen in a. liver. b. spleen. c. thymu]lls. d. kidney. 20.Which of the following describes iceberg phenomena of disease? a. It reflects political insensitivity to health issues. b. It reflects the fact that severe diseases are always fatal. c. It gives an idea of proportion of disease which is subclinical. d. It highlights early diagnosis as the most important concept in public health. 21.Wolff-Chaikoff effect is a. due to increased secretion of TSH. b. transient inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis by iodide. c. transient stimulation of thyroid hormone synthesis by iodide. d. permanent inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis by goitrogen. 22.Destruction of visual cortex in one occipital lobe leads to which of the following conditions? a. Acalculia b. Homonymous hemianopia c. Homonymous lower quadrantanopia d. Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing 23.Renal failure after PTCA is commonly due to a. septic shock. b. infective endocarditis. c. contrast nephropathy. d. malignant hypertension. 24.Schistocyte in peripheral blood smear is a feature of a. hemolytic uremic syndrome. b. proliferative glomerulonephritis. c. atheroembolic acute renal failure. d. rhabdomyolysis related acute renal failure. 25.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding protoplasmic astrocytes? a. It is found in white matter. b. It generates propagated potential. c. It takes up K+, glutamate, and GAB d. Its membrane potential varies with external Na+ concentration. 26.Which of the following muscles has a dual nerve supply? a. Flexor carpi ulnaris b. Flexor carpi radialis c. Flexor pollicis longus d. Flexor digitorum profundus 27.Compared to isometric exercise, isotonic exercise leads to a greater increase in a. heart rate. b. stroke volume. c. systolic blood pressure. d. diastolic blood pressure. 28. Which of the following biochemical reactions does not occur in mitochondria? a. Krebs cycle b. Urea cycle c. Cori cycle d. Fatty acid oxidation 29.Egg is deficient in which of the following vitamins?
3. 3. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 3 a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D 30.Which of the following probes is used for Western blot? a. mRNA b. cDNA c. Antibody d. DNA 31.Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding starvation? a. Death occurs when 20% of body weight is lost. b. Exposure to cold or excessive heat hastens death. c. Females withstand starvation for a longer period as compared to males. d. The person will die within 10-12 days without intake of food and water. 32.Recurrent gross hematuria is a typical manifestation of which of the following? a. Fabry disease b. IgA nephropathy c. Kawasaki disease d. Primary amyloidosis 33.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding afferent arteriole of the glomerulus? a. It secretes aldosterone. b. It gives rise to macula dens c. It gives rise to mesangial cells. d. It gives rise to juxtaglomerular cells. 34. Lewy bodies are found in which of the following? a. Wilson disease b. Parkinson disease c. Huntington disease d. Machado-Joseph disease 35.The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus? a. Acetylcholinesterase b. Phosphatidyl esterase c. Pseudocholinesterase d. Butyrylcholinesterase 36.Which of the following is a common complication during hemodialysis? a. Hypotension b. Hypokalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypophosphatemia 37.Which of the following is a cause of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis? a. Chronic renal failure b. Renal tubular acidosis c. Methanol poisoning d. Diabetic ketoacidosis 38.Cystinuria is associated with excretion of which of the following amino acids in urine? a. Cysteine, lysine, ornithine, and alanine b. Cysteine, lysine, threonine, and alanine c. Cysteine, ornithine, lysine, and arginine d. Cysteine, ornithine, leucine, and arginine 39.Which of the following is NOT an anterior relation of left kidney? a. Left suprarenal b. Splenic flexure c. Head of pancreas d. Duodenojejunal flexure 40.Pars tensa, part of tympanic membrane comprises how many layers? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five 41.Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy causes a. atrial dysfunction only. b. systolic dysfunction only. c. diastolic dysfunction only. d. both systolic and diastolic dysfunction. 42.The law, 'the relative frequencies of each gene allele tends to remain constant from generation to generation' was given by a. Doug Engelbart. b. Hardy-Weinberg. c. Henry Sigerist. d. Johanna Frank. 43.Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by a. azathioprine. b. cyclosporine. c. methotrexate. d. cyclophosphamide. 44.Which of the following is NOT a feature of parkinsonism? a. Chorea b. Rigidity
4. 4. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 4 c. Akinesia d. Loss of postural reflexes 45.An extra-intestinal manifestation of ulcerative colitis which does not resolve or improve after colectomy is a. arthritis. b. ankylosing spondylitis. c. erythema nodosum. d. primary sclerosing cholangitis. 46.Colorectal carcinoma MOST commonly metastasizes to a. liver. b. lung. c. brain. d. kidney. 47.Which of the following muscles is MOST commonly involved in thyroid ophthalmopathy? a. Superior rectus b. Medial rectus c. Inferior rectus d. Lateral rectus 48.All of the following are associated with H pylori infection EXCEPT a. peptic ulcer. b. GI lymphom c. carcinoid tumor. d. gastric adenocarcinom 49.Long-term use of soft contact lenses can result in a. chalazion. b. ectropion. c. blepharitis. d. giant papillary conjunctivitis. 50.The lactose operon is positively controlled by which of the following? a. Increased concentrations of glucose and cyclic AMP (cAMP) b. Decreased concentrations of glucose and cAMP c. Decreased concentration of glucose, increased concentration of cAMP d. Increased concentration of glucose, decreased concentration of cAMP 51.Nitrergic neurons are a. sympathetic neurons with nitric oxide as neurotransmitter. b. parasympathetic neurons with nitric oxide as neurotransmitter. c. sympathetic neurons with neuropeptide-y as neurotransmitter. d. parasympathetic neurons with neuropeptide-y as neurotransmitter. 52.Food poisoning due to which of the following organisms has the shortest incubation period? a. Salmonella b. Staphylococcus c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium perfringens 53.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding obesity? a. BMI range for obesity is 20-25. b. Females have higher rate of obesity. c. Its etiology has no genetic component. d. Its prevalence decreases with age up to 40 years. 54.A patient with severe malnutrition while on nutritional rehabilitation shows abdominal distention ascites splenomegaly and hypertrichosis. Which of the following is the MOST probable diagnosis? a. Drug toxicity b. Cytomegalovirus infection c. Flaring up of tuberculosis d. Nutritional recovery syndrome 55..The X-ray film shows the diagnosis of a. artefact. b. bladder calculi. c. prostatic calcification. d. calcified lymph nodes in pelvis. 56.Darier sign is noted in which of the following? a. Urticaria b. Atopic eczema c. Papular urticaria d. Urticaria pigmentosa
5. 5. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 5 57.What is the MOST likely clinical diagnosis of the given euthyroid patient? a. Toxic nodule b. Thyroglossal cyst c. Multinodular goiter d. Solitary thyroid nodule 58.TIBC is increased in a. hemolytic anemi b. megaloblastic anemi c. iron deficiency anemi d. anemia of chronic disease. 59.Which of the following amino acids has buffering capacity? a. Arginine b. Histidine c. Lysine d. Cysteine 60. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for placenta accreta in multigravida? a. Hysterectomy b. Leave it alone c. Segmental resection d. Uterine artery embolization 61. Postmortem finding in a case of death due to myocardial infarction is a. fat necrosis. b. caseous necrosis. c. coagulative necrosis. d. liquefactive necrosis. 62. Which of the following is NOT a hepatotropic virus? a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis D c. Hepatitis E d. Hepatitis G 63. Elevated serum uric acid is an adverse effect of a. isoniazi b. rifampicin. c. ethambutol. d. pyrazinamide. 64.ics are defined as a. shock-like muscle jerks. b. rhythmical oscillation of body part. c. stereotyped, repetitive movements. d. quasi-purposive nonrepetitive movements. 65.Which of the following corynebacteria causes erythrasma affecting axilla and groin? a. C jeikeium b. C ulcerans c. C minutissimum d. C pseudotuberculosis 66.How many planes of communication have been described in a doctor-patient relationship? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 67.Which of the following bacteria is commonly associated with food poisoning due to consumption of cooked chinese fried rice? a. Bacillus cereus b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus 68.The MOST common presentation of retroperitoneal sarcoma is a. weight loss. b. abdominal lump. c. abdominal pain. d. lower limb edem 69.Which of the following is the treatment of choice for early vulvar carcinoma? a. Radiotherapy b. Chemotherapy c. Hormonal therapy d. Radical vulvectomy 70.Which of the following asthma drugs MOST likely causes oral candidiasis? a. Salbutamol b. Salmeterol c. Ipratropium bromide d. Inhaled corticosteroids 71.Section 320 of the IPC describes which of the following? a. Murder
6. 6. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 6 b. Hurt c. Grievous hurt d. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder 72.The drug with proven value in preventing progression of renal failure is a. statins. b. betablockers. c. low dose aspirin. d. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor. 73.What does the given chest X-ray reveal? a. Hemothorax b. Hemopericardium c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Multiple fracture ribs with subcutaneous emphysema 74.Polycythemia vera is proliferation of a. B cell. b. T cell. c. RBCs. d. plasma cells. 75.Hyperexcitability of neurons is seen in which of the following? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia 76.The MOST important single practice that prevents transmission of healthcare associated infections to a large extent is a. isolation. b. antibiotics. c. use of face mask. d. practice of hand hygiene. 77.Live attenuated vaccines can be given to which of the following groups? a. Leukemia patients b. Children < 8 years age c. Patient on steroid therapy d. Patient being given radiotherapy 78.Renal osteodystrophy in chronic renal failure is commonly due to a. primary hypoparathyroidism. b. primary hyperparathyroidism. c. secondary hypoparathyroidism. d. secondary hyperparathyroidism. 79.Which of the following diseases does not have rashes with fever? a. Measles b. Rubella c. Influenza d. Chicken pox 80.In patient with right 12th nerve palsy the tongue will a. deviate upwards. b. remain in midline. c. deviate on left side. d. deviate on right side. 81.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding fetal hemoglobin (HBF)? a. It consists of 2 alpha and 2 delta chains. b. It is less resistant than adult Hb to denaturation by acid . c. It is less resistant than adult Hb to denaturation by alkali. d. It accounts for 90% of all fetal Hb at 20 weeks of gestation. 82.Vestibulocochlear nerve examination includes all of the following EXCEPT a. gag reflex. b. Rinne test. c. Hallpike test. d. pure tone audiometry. 83.The tension required on ligature to block trachea is a. 2 kg b. 5 kg c. 15 kg d. 20 kg 84.which of the following is NOT isotonic with plasma? a. 10% dextrose b. 0.9 molar NaCl c. 1.2% sodium bicarbonate
7. 7. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 7 d. Hartmann solution (Ringer lactate) 85.Scopolamine is a preferred antiemetic for a. motion sickness. b. radiation sickness. c. postoperative emesis. d. hyperemesis gravidarum. 86.Bezold abscess is due to a. perisinus cell erosion. b. zygomatic cell erosion. c. mastoid tip cell erosion. d. petrous apical cell erosion. 87.What is the radiological diagnosis of the arrow marked area? a. Hydatid cyst lung b. Foreign body lung c. Secondaries lung d. Primary carcinoma lung 88.Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is often effective in preventing or reversing vestibular disturbances, especially motion sickness? a. Atropine b. Ipratropium c. Homatropine d. Scopolamine 89.Thought broadcast is a symptom of which of the following psychiatric disorders? a. Mania b. Schizophrenia c. Anxiety disorder d. Depressive disorder 90.MRSA strains are susceptible to a. imipenem. b. vancomycin. c. cloxacillin. d. flucloxacillin. 91.Which of the following modalities is considered as the gold standard for screening of breast cancer in women more than 40 years of the age? a. MRI b. PET-CT c. Ultrasound d. Mammography 92.The blood supply to the middle ear ossicle is LEAST at a. body of incus. b. handle of malleus. c. stapes suprastructure. d. lenticular process of incus. 93.The MOST likely diagnosis in this case is a. intussusception. b. prolapsed polyp. c. prolapsed rectum. d. prolapsed hemorrhoids. 94.NCRP recommendation for effective dose equivalent limit (annual) of occupational exposure to ionizing radiation is a. 5 mSv b. 50 mSv c. 150 mSv d. 500 mSv 95. Rabies is caused by a. flavivirus. b. retrovirus. c. enterovirus. d. rhabdovirus. 96.Which of the following is the MOST common cause of first trimester abortion? a. Trisomy b. Triploidy c. Monosomy d. Aneuploidy 97. Which of the following measures improves symptoms in seasonal affective disorder?
8. 8. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 8 a. Exercise b. Loss of weight c. Increased sleep d. Increased exposure to light 98. After 7 days of total knee replacement, a 65-year-old female patient died suddenly in the ward while eating. There was no obvious problem in the postoperative period except for pain in calf muscle and swelling of the leg. What could be the likely etiology of death in this case? a. Cellulitis of the leg b. Myocardial infarction c. Sudden chocking of throat with food d. Deep vein thrombosis leading to pulmonary embolism 99.Bacillary dysentery is transmitted by all of the following EXCEPT a. fomites. b. contaminated foo c. contaminated fingers. d. contaminated needles. 100.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis epidemiology? a. It is more common in females. b. Bovine TB can spread through milk. c. It is more communicable than mumps/measles. d. It is more prevalent in children under 5 years of age. 101. If the renal clearance of para amino hippuric acid is 720 mL/min and its extraction is 90%, then the actual renal plasma flow in mL/min would be a. 648 b. 720 c. 800 d. 1454 102. RBC casts are typically seen in a. nephrotic syndrome. b. acute tubular necrosis. c. acute nephritic syndrome. d. acute interstitial nephritis 103.The phosphagen present in skeletal muscle is a. creatine. b. creatinine. c. creatine phosphate. d. creatinine phosphate. 104. The phosphagen present in skeletal muscle is a. creatine. b. creatinine. c. creatine phosphate. d. creatinine phosphate. 105.B symptoms are MOST commonly seen in which of the following? a. Burkitt lymphoma b. Follicular lymphoma c. Mantle cell lymphoma d. Nodular sclerosing non-Hodgkin lymphoma 106'Phosphate timer' signifies relationship between a. inositol triphosphate and inositol bisphosphate. b. adenosine triphosphate and adenosine diphosphate. c. guanosine triphosphate and guanosine diphosphate. d. phosphorylation and dephosphorylation of cellular proteins. 107.The committed step in the biosynthesis of cholesterol is a. formation of mevalonate from HMG-Co b. cyclization of squalene to lanosterol. c. formation of squalene by squalene synthase. d. formation of acetoacetyl-CoA from acetyl-Co 108. A 10-year-old child presents with long bone pain, swollen gums, perifollicular hemorrhages, and bead like thickening of ribs. What is the likely diagnosis? a. Scurvy b. Rickets c. Fluorosis d. Thalassemia 109.Which of the following is a product of purine catabolism in humans? a. Urea b. Uric acid c. Hypoxanthine d. -amino isobutyrate 110.For prevention of Rh sensitization, human anti-D globulin is NOT effective if it is administered to the mother beyond a. 12 hours of delivery. b. 24 hours of delivery. c. 48 hours of delivery.
9. 9. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 9 d. 72 hours of delivery 111.Which of the following SSRIs has the longest t? a. Fluoxetine b. Paroxetine c. Fluvoxamine d. Escitalopram 112.Long term tamoxifen is associated with increased risk of a. Ca ovary. b. Ca cervix. c. Ca vagin d. Ca endometrium. 113.Chairman of ESI Corporation is a. Union Minister for Labour. b. Union Minister of Health. c. Union Minister of Law. d. Union Minister of Finance. 114.The MOST common cause of aortic dissecting aneurysm is a. Trauma b. Syphilis. c. iatrogeni d. hypertension. 115.Crocodile skin effect is seen a. in drowning. b. in hot liquid burns. c. in high voltage burns. d. beneath the ligature mark. 116.Primary injuries to pedestrians are usually seen on a. head b. chest. c. upper limbs. d. lower limbs. 117.Which of the following clostridia is predominantly saccharolytic? a. C tetani b. C botulinum c. C perfringens d. C bifermentans 118.The hearing loss in early Meniere disease involves a. 4 KHz. b. low frequencies. c. high frequencies. d. both high and low frequencies. 119.The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) adrenal steroidogenic enzyme is a. 17-hydroxylase. b. 11-hydroxylase. c. 21-hydroxylase. d. cholesterol desmolase. 120. Entry of ECF Ca2+ is required for a. muscle contracture. b. cardiac muscle contraction. c. smooth muscle contraction. d. skeletal muscle contraction. 121.Olopatadine acts as a. antihistamini b. antiinflammatory. c. mast cell stabilizer. d. antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizer. 122. The causative bacteria for malignant otitis externa is a. Proteus vulgaris. b. Klebsiella pneumoniae. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Pseudomonas aeruginos 123.Which of the following diseases has the shortest incubation period? a. Measles b. Influenza c. Small pox d. Chicken pox 124.A 40-year-old banker was diagnosed with gastric carcinom Following the diagnosis, he felt dazed and confuse He became quiet and withdrawn. He did not feel like working, watching television, or teaching his children which he used to enjoy earlier. He reported feeling low almost all the time. After few days, he was taken for a psychiatric evaluation. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis? a. Anxiety disorder b. Adjustment disorder c. Severe depressive episode d. Posttraumatic stress disorder 125.The diuretic which is MOST effective in controlling edema in chronic renal failure is a. thiazide. b. loop diureti c. osmotic diureti d. aldosterone antagonist.
10. 10. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 10 126.Extremely low birth weight (ELBW) is defined as a. up to and including 799 grams b. up to and including 999 grams c. up to and including 1499 grams d. up to and including 2499 grams 127. Which of the following diseases has fecal-oral route of transmission? a. Kala azar b. Poliomyelitis c. Epidemic typhus d. Guinea worm disease 128.Chandler index is used for epidemiological studies of a. hookworm. b. taeniasis. c. amoebiasis. d. ascariasis. 129.Which of the following is NOT a cause of partial seizures? a. Absence seizures b. Benign rolandic epilepsy of childhood c. Benign occipital epilepsy of childhood d. Autosomal dominant frontal lobe epilepsy 130.Clinical effect of digitalis is due to a. increase in intracellular K+. b. reduction in intracellular Na+. c. increase in intracellular Ca++. d. improvement in A-V conduction. 131.The MOST common cause of spontaneous abortion is a. triploidy. b. mosaicism. c. tetraploidy. d. autosomal trisomy. 132.Methylphenidate is a drug of choice for a. autism. b. nocturnal enuresis. c. obsessive compulsive disorder. d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. 133. Which of the following is the drug of choice for antibiotic associated diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile? a. Colistin b. Erythromycin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Metronidazole 134. Clue cells are seen in a. gonorrhe b. candidiasis. c. trichomoniasis. d. bacterial vaginosis. 135. A 19-year-old woman with primary amenorrhea has normal height, normal breast, and public hair, short blind vagina, absent uterus in USG. Probable diagnosis is a. XYY syndrome. b. Mllerian agenesis. c. gonadal dysgenesis. d. Klinefelter syndrome. 136. The MOST likely diagnosis of this condition on scalp is a. melanom b. neurofibrom c. sebaceous cyst. d. basal cell carcinoma 137. True vocal cords move because they are attached to a. cricoid cartilage. b. thyroid cartilage. c. arytenoid cartilage. d. corniculate cartilage. 138. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Weight for age measures acute malnutrition. b. Weight for height measures chronic malnutrition. c. Height for age measures acute and chronic malnutrition. d. Mid-upper arm circumference measures acute malnutrition. 139. Picket fence pattern of fever in chronic otitis media is seen in a. meningitis. b. brain abscess. c. subdural abscess.
11. 11. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 11 d. lateral sinus thrombosis. 140. Methotrexate inhibits which of the following enzymes? a. Xanthine oxidase b. Thymidylate synthetase c. Dihydrofolate reductase d. Ribonucleotide reductase 141. A nutrient is classified as a trace element when it is a. 0.001% of body weight. b. 0.01% of body weight. c. 0.1% of body weight. d. 1% of body weight. 142. The device shown is used for a. ventilation. b. TUR-prostate. c. TUR-bladder tumor. d. intercostal drain insertion. 143. Normal life span of RBC is a. 75 days b. 90 days c. 110 days d. 120 days 144. Nitabuch layer is absent in which of the following? a. Vasa previa b. Placenta previa c. Placenta accreta d. Abruptio placentae 145. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding hyponatremia in diabetic ketoacidosis? a. 3% saline is the ideal fluid for correction. b. Hyponatremia is worsened by insulin administration. c. Hyponatremia is always symptomatic at the beginning. d. The level of blood sugar should be taken into consideration before correction of hyponatremi 146. A 3-year-old child from a small village of Bihar was brought to the OPD with genu valgus deformity of both lower limbs. On examination, there was bossing of the forehead, prominence over the costochondral junction, intercostals muscles were retracted, wrist joint was widened, and protruded abdomen. X-ray of the knee joint showed genu valgus with distal femoral metaphyseal cupping and irregular physis. What is the likely diagnosis? a. Scurvy b. Rickets c. Fluorosis d. Hypothyroidism 147. Luteal phase defect is treated with a. low dose aspirin. b. low molecular weight heparin. c. intravenous immune globulin. d. natural micronised progesterone. 148. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is a. the oxygen physically dissolved in bloo b. independent of the hemoglobin concentration. c. the ratio between oxygen uptake and oxygen usage. d. the maximum quantity of oxygen that will combine with 100 ml of whole bloo 149. Which of the following is a radiological feature of rickets? a. Pelkan spur b. Epiphyseal separation c. Epiphyseal widening d. Ground glass appearance 150. Hirschberg corneal reflection test measures which of the following? a. Fixation b. Angle of deviation c. Amount of nystagmus d. Corneal astigmatism 151. Very low birth weight (VLBW) refers to the babies with a birth weight below a. 750 grams b. 1000 grams c. 1500 grams d. 2500 grams 152. Plague is transmitted by a. tick. b. mite.
12. 12. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 12 c. louse. d. rat fle 153. The second stage of labor is stage of a. fetal expulsion. b. cervical dilatation. c. maximum retraction. d. placental separation. 154. Coloured haloes are NOT seen in a. early cataract. b. glaucomatocyclitic crisis. c. primary open angle glaucom d. primary angle closure glaucom 155. Which of the following is the MOST common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy? a. Amnesia b. Headache c. Confusion d. Depression 156. Scleromalacia perforans is a condition that is treated with a. NSAIDs. b. antibiotics. c. analgesics. d. corticosteroids. 157. The hydrolytic step leading to the release of a polypeptide chain from a ribosome is catalyzed by a. release factors. b. peptidyl transferase. c. dissociation of ribosomes. d. elongation factors. 158. Which of the following is TRUE regarding posthumous child? a. A dead born child b. Born to unmarried woman c. Born after death of father d. Born after parental divorce 159. Cobblestone appearance of palpebral conjunctiva is seen in a. trachom b. vernal conjunctivitis. c. angular conjunctivitis. d. chemical conjunctivitis. 160. Aldosterone is secreted by a. adrenal medull b. zona reticularis. c. chromaffin cells. d. zona glomerulos 161. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding typhoid epidemiology? a. No vaccine is available. b. Relapses are rarely seen. c. S typhi is killed by freezing. d. Occurrence of typhoid is an index of insanitation. 162. Which of the following results in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis? a. Lactic acidosis b. Starvation ketosis c. Diabetic ketoacidosis d. Renal tubular acidosis 163. The time interval between receipt of infection by a host and maximum infectivity of that host is known as a. latent perio b. serial interval. c. generation time. d. communicable perio 164. Raindrop skin change is a feature of poisoning by a. lea b. iron. c. mercury. d. arseni 165. The MOST common malignancy of mesentery is a. lymphom b. carcinoi c. metastases. d. desmoid tumor. 166. Which of the following is MOST appropriate statement about tubercular meningitis? a. It is due to progressive primary tuberculosis. b. 90% patients have evidence of miliary tuberculosis. c. It is due to hematogenous spread of primary and post primary pulmonary tuberculosis. d. It is due to lymphatic spread of mycobacteria in primary and post primary tuberculosis. 167. Which of the following is the MOST common organism associated with nongastrointestinal cause of peritonitis in females? a. Chlamydia
13. 13. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 13 b. Klebsiella c. Bacteroides d. Escherichia coli 168. Antimycobacterial activity of INH a. inhibits the growth of Mycobacterium. b. is due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzyme. c. inhibits DNA gyrase in the cell wall of Mycobacterium. d. is due to inhibition of synthesis of mycolic acid in the cell wall of Mycobacterium. 169. A 1-year-old child was brought by the mother with a complaint of an oval swelling over the midline on lower back. The child was not moving the lower limbs. What is the diagnosis? a. Poliomyelitis b. Dermoid cyst c. Cerebral palsy d. Meningomyelocele 170. Which of the following is included in the formula for calculating 'sensitivity' of a screening test? a. True positive b. True negative c. False positive d. Total negative 171. Microdosing study is done a. before preclinical study. b. during lead optimisation. c. after new drug application. d. before phase I clinical trial. 172. An axillary lymph node metastasis known as an Irish nodule is seen in a. gastric cancer. b. ovarian cancer. c. testicular cancer. d. pancreatic cancer. 173. A skin disorder MOST often caused by the herpes virus and consisting of red lesions that look like targets is a. candidiasis. b. keratosis pilaris. c. aphthous stomatitis. d. erythema multiforme. 174. Rice-watery stool is associated with which of the following? a. Cholera b. Bacillary dysentery c. Salmonella gastroenteritis d. Pseudomembranous colitis 175. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Integrated Disease Surveillance Project of India? a. It was launched in 2009 as a central scheme. b. The private sector plays no role in data generation. c. Medical colleges are not involved in data generation. d. It intends to detect early warning signals of impending outbreaks. 176. Which of the following gases has the highest affinity for hemoglobin? a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen c. Carbon dioxide d. Carbon monoxide 177. All of the following are remnants of mesonephric tubules EXCEPT a. epoophoron. b. paroophoron. c. appendix testis. d. superior aberrant ductules. 178. Lesion of the anterior pituitary causes a. reduced urine volume due to low levels of ACTH. b. increased urine volume due to glucocorticoid deficiency. c. reduced urine volume due to raised levels of vasopressin. d. increased urine volume due to raised glomerular filtration rate. 179. Lichtenberg figures are seen in a. scalds. b. lightening. c. joule burn. d. flash burns. 180. Which of the following is a common cause of subconjunctival hemorrhage? a. Trauma b. Trachoma c. Vernal conjunctivitis d. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis 181. Trident hand deformity is seen in a. achondroplasi b. hypochondroplasi
14. 14. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 14 c. diaphyseal aclasis. d. Albers-Schonberg disease 182. Which of the following is TRUE regarding incidence rate? a. It refers to old as well as new cases. b. It is always more than prevalence rate. c. It is always calculated on monthly basis. d. It is also known as attack rate in short duration diseases. 183. Which of the following is a dangerously low lying placenta? a. Type I anterior b. Type II anterior c. Type I posterior d. Type II posterior 184. D1 resection in Ca stomach involves a. aortic nodes. b. perigastric nodes. c. major arterial trunks. d. superior mesenteric lymph nodes. 185. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of chronic type II respiratory failure? a. COPD b. Pneumonia c. Acute asthma d. Pneumothorax 186. BCG is used to produce immunity against a. HBV. b. rabies. c. influenz d. tuberculosis. 187. Absolute contraindication of MRI is a. pacemaker. b. claustrophobi c. breast implants. d. first trimester of pregnancy. 188. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding anesthetic agent ether? a. Induction is slow. b. Diathermy cannot be use c. It affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias. d. Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchial secretions. 189. Which set is known as epidemiological triad? a. Agent, host, and environment b. Endemic, epidemic, and outbreaks c. Time, place, and person distribution d. Incidence, prevalence, and disease load 190. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is MOST commonly seen in a pregnant patient on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy? a. Folic acid b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin B12 191. Shelf life of a drug is the period between a. date of manufacture and date of expiry. b. date of patent filing and date of patent expiry. c. time of intake and 93.75% elimination from the body. d. date of investigational new drug application and date of new drug application. 192. In zero order kinetics a. the clearance progressively increases. b. passive diffusion process becomes saturate c. the t is constant despite rising drug concentration. d. elimination rate is independent of drug concentration. 193. The essential part of Chamberland type filter is the 'candle' which is made of a. latex. b. porcelain. c. Kieselgur. d. infusorial earth. 194. Which of the following is NOT seen in congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypertension c. Hyponatremia d. Metabolic acidosis 195. The given ultrasound scan is of a 42-year-old primigravida with 12 weeks pregnancy. Which of the following abnormalities can be identified?
15. 15. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 15 a. Anencephaly b. Hydrocephaly c. Holoporencephaly d. Increased nuchal translucency 196. Which of the following drugs causes acute kidney injury with hypomagnesemia? a. Quinine b. Amphotericin c. ACE inhibitors d. Indomethacin 197. The investigation shown in the image is a. ERCP. b. gastroscopy. c. duodenoscopy. d. T-tube cholangiography. 198. The parietal cells of gastric mucosa are responsible for the secretion of a. H+ ion. b. gastrin. c. pepsinogen. d. somatostatin. 199. Colour coding 'black' of biomedical waste is disposed off by a. incineration. b. autoclaving. c. chemical treatment. d. disposal in secured landfill. 200. Which of the following is the MOST common site of malignancy in women in developed countries? a. Lungs b. Breast c. Esophagus d. Cervix uteri 201. Secondary prevention of carcinoma cervix includes which of the following? a. Circumcision b. Family planning c. Personal hygiene d. Pap smear testing 202. What is the angle between the anal canal and rectum (anorectal angle)? a. 90 b. 120 c. 150 d. 180 203. The MOST likely radiological diagnosis of this case is a. horse shoe kidney. b. left hydronephrosis. c. right renal carcinom d. multiple cysts right kidney. 204. Red degeneration of fibroid is due to a. infection. b. ischemi c. calcification. d. thrombosis of veins. 205. Right ovarian vein drains into a. lumbar vein.
16. 16. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 16 b. left renal vein. c. right renal vein. d. inferior vena cav 206. Which of the following does not belong to gestational trophoblastic tumor? a. Chorioangioma b. Choriocarcinoma c. Hydatidiform mole d. Placental site trophoblastic tumor 207. The dosage of an oral hypoglycemic drug is adjusted by repeated measurement of blood sugar. This type of dosing strategy is known as a. titrated dose. b. standard dose. c. regulated dose. d. target level dose. 208. Which of the following hormones has the shortest plasma half-life? a. Rennin b. Cortisol c. Aldosterone d. Norepinephrine 209. The diagnosis is a. tongue tie. b. microglossi c. macroglossi d. stenosis of mandibular duct. 210. In transient ischemic attack (TIA) symptoms usually resolve within a. 48 hours b. 36 hours c. 24 hours d. 12 hours 211. Primary prevention of hypertension includes which of the following? a. Reduction of weight b. Hospital-based screening c. Population-based screening d. Early treatment of mild cases 212. The earliest detectable sign of no proliferative diabetic retinopathy is a. hard exudates. b. microaneurysms. c. deep retinal hemorrhages. d. superficial retinal hemorrhages. 213. A 30-year-old man with history of chronic smoking has the given finding. The MOST likely diagnosis is a. embolism. b. atherosclerosis. c. Buerger disease. d. diabetic gangrene. 214. The puborectalis muscle encircles anorectal junction a. completely. b. viscerosomati c. only anteriorly. d. posteriorly and laterally. 215. A young executive with frequent history of travel presented with fever which gradually increased in a step ladder fashion over last 2 weeks. He also has pain abdomen and diarrhe Blood culture revealed Gram negative motile nonlactose fermenting bacilli. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis? a. Q fever b. Brucellosis c. Shigellosis d. Enteric fever 216. Damage caused by bullet depends on
17. 17. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 17 a. mass of bullet. b. yawing of bullet. c. velocity of bullet. d. specific gravity of target tissue 217. The MOST likely diagnosis in this case is a. left lung abscess. b. carcinoma left lung. c. secondary left lung. d. hydatid cyst left lung. 218. Vertical transmission of hepatitis B in pregnancy can be assessed by a. LFT. b. WB c. HBcAg. d. HBV DN 219. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of hirsutism? a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Polycystic ovarian disease c. Cushing syndrome d. Idiopathic 220. Cobblestone appearance on barium study is a feature of which of the following? a. Crohn disease b. Ulcerative colitis c. Amebic colitis d. Colonic polyposis 221. An example of omega-3 fatty acid is a. linoleic aci b. linolenic aci c. arachidonic aci d. palmitoleic aci 222. The normal value for amniotic fluid at term is a. 400-600 ml b. 600-800 ml c. 800-1000 ml d. 1000-1200 ml 223. Which of the following is provided mainly through cross-sectional studies? a. Incidence rate b. Natural history c. Prevalence rate d. Etiology of disease 224. What is the role of pyrazinamide in 6-month short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis? a. Its potent bactericidal and sterilizing action on intermittently multiplying semidormant bacilli b. Its bacteriostatic action helps in preventing emergence of resistance to other companion drugs c. Its early bactericidal activity prevents emergence of drug resistant mutants to any companion drugs d. Its bactericidal and sterilizing effect in eliminating semidormant bacilli multiplying slowly in an acidic environment 225. Which of the following is included in the first level of prevention, that is, the concept of health promotion? a. Pap smear b. Use of helmet c. Root canal treatment d. Encouraging physical activity 226. World Disaster Reduction Day is celebrated on a. second Wednesday of October. b. third Wednesday of October. c. fourth Wednesday of October. d. first Wednesday of November. 227. Bilateral caloric hypofunction may be found in a. otosclerosis. b. Meniere disease. c. ossicular fixation. d. ossicular dislocation. 228. Amino acid having pivotal role in transmethylation reaction is a. proline. b. valine. c. histidine. d. methionine.
18. 18. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 18 229. Whiff test is done for a. candid b. chancroi c. trichomoniasis. d. bacterial vaginosis. 230. In phase 2 clinical trial, how many number of subjects are recruited for the study? a. 20-100 b. 100-200 c. 1000 d. 1000-10000 231. Which muscle relaxant is preferred in a patient with bilirubin of 8.6 mg/dl and serum creatinine of 2.1 mg/dl, taken for surgery under general anesthesia? a. Atracurium b. Vecuronium c. Pancuronium d. Rocuronium 232. The bone that ossifies predominantly in membrane is a. radius. b. humerus. c. scapul d. clavicle. 233. All of the following muscles are attached to the greater tubercle of humerus EXCEPT a. teres minor. b. infraspinatus. c. supraspinatus. d. pectoralis major. 234. Skier nose is due to a. cold dry air. b. chilled drink. c. hot spicy foo d. excessive fatty foo 235. What is the MOST likely diagnosis for given X-ray? a. Mesenteric cyst b. Sigmoid volvulus c. Ileo-caecal intussusception d. Carcinoma ascending colon 236. A 25-year-old pregnant woman presents with severe pain and numbness in the thumb, index finger, and middle finger of her right han She feels maximum pain at night. On examination all the muscle powers of hand is normal. But on pressing the middle of the volar wrist joint for 30 seconds, there is severe radiating pain and numbness in the above fingers. What could be the diagnosis? a. Cervical spondylitis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Carpal tunnel syndrome d. Cubital tunnel syndrome 237. Smoking may have protective effect on a. Crohn disease. b. infective colitis. c. ulcerative colitis. d. diverticular disease. 238. Refractive power of the cornea is a. 41 dioptres b. 43 dioptres c. 45 dioptres d. 47 dioptres 239. X-ray mammography is performed by using a. low kVp, high mAs. b. high kVp, low mAs. c. low kVp, low mAs. d. high kVp, high mAs. 240. What is the MOST likely diagnosis in the barium swallow?
19. 19. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 19 a. Achalasia cardia b. Corrosive stricture c. Adenocarcinoma esophagus d. Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus 241. Inborn error associated with inherited defect in -keto acid decarboxylase is a. alkaptonuri b. Hartnup disease. c. isovaleric acidemi d. maple syrup urine disease. 242. Recruitment phenomenon is seen in a. normal hearing. b. cochlear hearing loss. c. conductive hearing loss. d. retrocochlear hearing loss. 243. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding hypernatremia? a. Seizures are rare. b. CSF biochemistry will be normal. c. Urine output is usually decrease d. It can cause CNS symptoms without dehydration. 244. Dehydrogenases involved in HMP shunt pathway are specific for a. NAD+. b. NADP. c. FA d. FMN. 245. What is the predominant adrenoceptor in bronchial smooth muscle? a. Alpha-1 adrenoceptor b. Beta-1 adrenoceptor c. Alpha-2 adrenoceptor d. Beta-2 adrenoceptor 246. Barrett esophagus increases the risk of which of the following? a. Lymphoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor 247. The biochemical pathways involved in basal ganglia are a. serotonergic, adrenergic, GABAergic systems. b. dopaminergic, cholinergic, GABAergic systems. c. serotonergic, cholinergic, GABAergic systems. d. dopaminergic, serotonergic, GABAergic systems. 248. Presbyacusis is hearing loss due to a. aging. b. myxedem c. otosclerosis. d. Meniere disease. 249. The MOST likely diagnosis of this case is a. fibroadenom b. acute mastitis. c. sarcoma breast. d. fibroadenosis. 250. Which of the following is the laser treatment for primary open angle glaucoma? a. Laser iridotomy b. Laser iridoplasty c. Laser synechiolysis d. Laser trabeculoplasty 251. Which of the following is LEAST common in uterine fibroids? a. Infertility b. Degeneration c. Malignant change d. Abnormal uterine bleeding
20. 20. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 20 252. How frequently should the fetal heart be noted on partogram? a. 2 hours b. 1 hour c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes 253. Which the following enzymes is activated by phosphorylation? a. Pepsin b. Protein kinase c. Glycogen synthase d. Glycogen phosphorylase 254. Clubbing of fimbrial ends of the fallopian tubes on HSG is seen in a. gonorrhe b. candidiasis. c. tuberculosis. d. trichomoniasis. 255. On exposure to radiation which period of pregnancy leads to maximum chance of congenital deformities in children? a. 4-16 weeks b. 16-29 weeks c. 29-40 weeks d. Throughout the pregnancy period 256. Which of the following is the common side effect of loop diuretic? a. Hypokalemic acidosis b. Hypokalemic alkalosis c. Hyperkalemic acidosis d. Hyperkalemic alkalosis 257. All of the following are common in Crohn disease EXCEPT a. stricture. b. skip lesion. c. toxic megacolon. d. serpentine ulcer. 258. Infectious etiology is usually seen in a. lymphangiom b. glomangiom c. cavernous hemangiom d. granuloma pyogenicum. 259. Finger in glove sign is seen in a. tuberculosis. b. fractured bronchus. c. Klebsiella pneumoni d. allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis 260. Ureter develops from a. urogenital sinus. b. mesonephric duct. c. mesonephric tubules. d. paramesonephric duct. 261. Protocol for suctioning the patient with an artificial airway does not include which of the following? a. Preoxygenation b. Application of suction for less than 10 seconds c. Use of a catheter about half the internal diameter of ETT d. Ventilating the patient with Ambu bag and room air after suctioning is completed 262. McBurney point on spinoumbilical line is at the junction of a. medial 1/2 and lateral 1/2. b. medial 1/3rd and lateral 2/3r c. medial 1/4th and lateral 3/4th. d. medial 2/3rd and lateral 1/3r 263. Which of the following is a tumor marker for follow-up of treatment of epithelial cancer ovary? a. AFP b. CEA c. HCG d. CA125 264. Which of the following is TRUE about hyphema? a. Blood in vitreous b. Retinal hemorrhages c. Blood staining of cornea d. Blood in anterior chamber 265. Which of the following is the shortest diameter of fetal head? a. Biparietal diameter b. Bitemporal diameter c. Occipitofrontal diameter d. Suboccipitofrontal diameter 266. Type A gastritis is a. a malignancy. b. an infective disease. c. an autoimmune disease. d. a hypersensitivity reaction. 267. The MOST common cranial nerve involved in malignant otitis externa is a. VI b. VII
21. 21. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 21 c. VIII d. IX 268. The multiple perforations of tympanic membrane are seen in a. leprotic otitis medi b. syphilitic otitis medi c. tubercular otitis medi d. Wegener granulomatosis. 269. Cutaneous larva migrans is usually caused by which of the following? a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Cryptosporidium parvum c. Ancylostoma braziliense d. Cyclospora cayetanensis 270. Normal umbilical cord has a. one artery and one vein. b. one artery and two veins. c. two arteries and one vein. d. two arteries and two veins. 271. Which of the following viruses is associated with cancer cervix? a. HIV-1 b. HIV-2 c. HPV-6, 11 d. HPV-16, 18 272. Golden 'S' sign is seen in a. Pancoast tumor. b. pulmonary infarction. c. peripheral adenocarcinoma of lung. d. central bronchogenic carcinoma with collapse. 273. In ESI Act, 1948 the employers contribution is 4.75% of the a. total wages. b. yearly profit. c. cost of company. d. total welfare cost. 274. The suppression of lactation is BEST achieved by a. estrogen. b. cabergoline. c. testosterone. d. progesterone. 275. Which of the following is the MOST common histological type of cancer of endometrium? a. Mucinous carcinoma b. Clear cell carcinoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma 276. The MOST common cystic disease of the kidney is a. x-linked recessive polycystic kidney disease. b. x-linked dominant polycystic kidney disease. c. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. d. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease. 277. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding left suprarenal gland? a. It is posterior to liver. b. It forms part of stomach be c. The body of pancreas crosses in front of it. d. It lies in front of the left crus of diaphragm. 278. The absolute refractory period in neuron is from a. threshold to firing level. b. firing level to spike potential. c. firing level until repolarization is 1/3rd complete. d. firing level until repolarization is 2/3rd complete. 279. The enzyme complex that provides a link between glycolysis and TCA cycle is a. Pyruvate kinase b. Citrate synthase c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase d. Lactate dehydrogenase 280. A young boy is brought with a history of cricket ball injury to eye. All of the following can be present EXCEPT a. hyphem b. hypopyon ulcer. c. blood staining of the corne d. tractional retinal detachment. 281. Proteus species is a common cause of a. diarrhe b. pneumonitis. c. otitis medi d. urinary infection. 282. The body of auricle is formed from a. fibrocartilage. b. elastic cartilage.
22. 22. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 22 c. fibrofatty tissue. d. hyaline cartilage. 283. Which of the following coagulation factors is NOT decreased in the hemorrhagic disease of a newborn? a. Factor II b. Factor V c. Factor IX d. Factor X 284. As per Tos classification for pars flaccida retraction, adherence to neck of malleus with full view of retraction pocket is a. stage I. b. stage II. c. stage III. d. stage IV. 285. A patient with history of acid injury on face presents 2 months later with watering and inability to close the left eye. Which of the following could be the probable cause? a. Mechanical ectropion b. Paralytic ectropion c. Cicatricial ectropion d. Cicatricial entropion 286. Urethral involvement in cancer vulva is first seen in a. stage I. b. stage II. c. stage III. d. stage IV. 287. What is the cut-off value of mid upper arm circumference below which severe acute malnutrition (SAM) is diagnosed in children upto 5 years? a. 11.0 cm b. 11.5 cm c. 12.0 cm d. 12.5 cm 288. Which of the following is a laboratory feature of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)? a. Urine osmolality is decrease b. Serum osmolality is increase c. Urine sodium level is increase d. Serum sodium level is increase 289. Translocon is a pore in the a. nucleus. b. lysosome. c. mitochondri d. endoplasmic reticulum. 290. During fetal development, which of the following is the MOST vulnerable period for teratogenicity? a. 1st-2nd week of gestation b. 3rd-8th week of gestation c. 10th-12th week of gestation d. 18th-20th week of gestation 291. Pot belly and protruding tongue seen in cretinism are due to a. reduced skeletal growth. b. altered protein metabolism. c. increased soft tissue growth. d. disproportionate skeletal and soft tissue growth. 292. Which of the following terms describes occurrence of more frequent road traffic accidents on weekends? a. Cyclic trends b. Secular trends c. Seasonal trends d. Transitional trends 293. He amino acid that has sparing action on niacin is a. lysine. b. glycine. c. tryptophan. d. phenylalanine. 294. T cells mature in a. liver. b. spleen. c. thymus. d. bone marrow. 295. Chemical labyrinthectomy is done for a. otosclerosis. b. presbyacusis. c. Meniere disease. d. noise-induced hearing loss. 296. Which of the following is the MOST common type of cancer cervix? a. Adenoid-cystic b. Adenocarcinoma c. Small cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma 297. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of fulminant hepatic failure?
23. 23. Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy NBE Mock Test Paper www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in, 09999734551, 09873185402 Page 23 a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D 298. What is the predominant interaction of photons with matter utilized in diagnostic radiology? a. Compton effect b. Pair production c. Coherent scatter d. Photoelectric effect 299. All of the following veins form important systemic anastomoses EXCEPT a. superior rectal vein and inferior vena cav b. inferior rectal vein and the accessory hemiazygos vein. c. esophageal branches of left gastric vein and azygous vein. d. paraumbilical vein and superficial veins of anterior abdominal wall. 300. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding warfarin? a. Half-life is 36 hours. b. It does not cross placent c. Bioavailability of warfarin is 100%. d. 99% is bound to plasma protein albumin. 301. In molecular assays for diagnosis of MDR tuberculosis, which of the following genes is tested for rifampicin resistance? a. Kat G b. rpoB c. Inh A d. Kat D Team Motivation MCI/FMG Coaching Academy 114/Basement, Sudarshan Apartment, Gautam Nagar, New Delhi-110049 M: 09999734551, 09873185402 www.teammotivation.in, info@teammotivation.in