national law university jodhpur 06&07

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National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test, 2006 Total Marks 600 Instructions 1. Read i nstructions carefully. 2. Thi s test pape r cont ains One Hu ndr ed Fif ty Quest ion s wit h mult ipl e-c hoi ce answer s. Of which forty questions from Legal Aptitude, thirty questions from Information Level, thirty questions from English, thirty questions from Reasoning Ability and twenty questions are from Mathematical Ability. 3. For each c orr ect a nswer f our mark s shall be awarded and for every wron g answer one mark shall be deducted. 4. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer asses sment sheet with HP pencil. Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet would render it invalid. 5. Can didate s are r equire d to r ecord answers in the comput er assessment sheet as instructed. 6. This test is of Two Hours. First bell wil l ri ng fi ve minutes befor e commencement o f the test . As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write his/her roll number at places prescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessment sheet. 7. Bef ore commenci ng to writ e your a nsw ers make sure t hat your booklet i s leg ibl y pri nted and contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of this booklet for rough work. 8. Can didate s are r equire d not t o keep in th eir possession anyt hing exc ept pen, pencil, sharpener, and eraser. Electronic gadgets (except wrist watch without any add on facility) such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall. 9. In case of any malpr act ice or att emp t to us e mal pra cti ce, whic h woul d incl ude t alking t o neighbors, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and expel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with the seized paper in a separate packet. Signature Center in-charge National Entrance Test (NET)

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Page 1: National Law University Jodhpur 06&07

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National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test, 2006

Total Marks 600 Instructions

1. Read instructions carefully.

2. This test paper contains One Hundred Fifty Questions with multiple-choice answers. Of which forty questions from Legal Aptitude, thirty questions from Information Level, thirtyquestions from English, thirty questions from Reasoning Ability and twenty questions arefrom Mathematical Ability.

3. For each correct answer four marks shall be awarded and for every wrong answer onemark shall be deducted.

4. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer assessment sheet with HP pencil.Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet wouldrender it invalid.

5. Candidates are required to record answers in the computer assessment sheet asinstructed.

6. This test is of Two Hours. First bell will ring five minutes before commencement of the test.As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write his/her roll number at placesprescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessmentsheet.

7. Before commencing to write your answers make sure that your booklet is legibly printedand contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of thisbooklet for rough work.

8. Candidates are required not to keep in their possession anything except pen, pencil,

sharpener, and eraser. Electronic gadgets (except wrist watch without any add on facility)such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall.

9. In case of any malpractice or attempt to use malpractice, which would include talking toneighbors, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper andexpel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with theseized paper in a separate packet.

SignatureCenter in-charge

National Entrance Test (NET)

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1. Match column A with column B in order to make suitable pairs. Select the most appropriatepair.

Column A Column B1. Democracy 1. Supreme Court2. Judiciary 2. Home Secretary3. Cabinet 3. Election4. Bureaucracy 4. Prime Minister  

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3), {3, 2}, {4, 2}(b) {1, 3}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 2}(c) {2, 3}, {1, 2}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

2. Match column A with column B to make opposites pairs. Select the most appropriate pair.

Column A Column B1. Rule of Law 1. Eve teasing2. Discrimination 2. Autocracy

3. Subjugation 3. Equality4. Fundamental Duty 4. Independence

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(c) {1, 1}, {2, 2}, {3, 3}, {4, 4}(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

3. Match column A and column B to make appropriate pairs. Column A lists words andcolumn B lists statements, select appropriate words and statements making a pair.

Column A Column B1. Secularism 1. For an offence a person can be punished up to a maximum

period of seven years of imprisonment.2. Immunity 2. Newspaper can publish any fair comment.3. Freedom 3. State does not promote any religion.4. Discretion 4. The Governor is not liable for any act done in his official

capacity

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(c) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}(d) {1, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

4. Match column A with column B to make the most suitable and appropriate pairs.

Column A Column B1. Immorality 1. committing a theft2. Offence 2. disrespecting parents3. Ethics 3. showing reasons for a decision4. Transparency 4. practicing honesty

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(c) {1, 2}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 3}(d) {1, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

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5. Which one of the following is a legal act?(a) Police beating a person for not showing respect to a police man.(b) Police arresting a person showing him a warrant of arrest.(c) Students blocking the public road and collecting contributions for a religious festival.(d) None of the above

6. Which of the following could be considered human rights?(a) Protecting children from forced labour.(b) Providing food to flood and draught affected people.(c) Basic schooling and medical facilities to citizen.(d) All the above.

7. Which one of the following amounts to homicide?(a) A man killing a cow.(b) A tiger killing a man.(c) A woman killing a child.(d) None of the above.

8. Which one of the following is an example of contract?

(a) Ramesh promising Suresh a dinner.(b) Kailash promising Ram to kill Ganesh.(c) Mohit promising Suresh to buy his house for an agreed price.(d) Ravinder promising to negotiate Kailash for buying a house.

9. Which one of the following is an example of intellectual property?(a) An idea(b) A Book(c) A fantasy(d) None of the above

10. Which of the following finds a place in the Constitution of India?(a) Equality

(b) Non discrimination(c) Directive Principles(d) All the above

11. The age of eligibility for exercising the right to franchise in India is:(a) 22 years(b) 20 years(c) 18 years(d) 16 years

12. Which one of the following does not find a place in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?(a) Integrity

(b) Sovereignty(c) Morality(d) Justice

13. Which one of the following is an example of an offence of adultery?(a) A man and a woman living like husband and wife without marriage(b) A married man having sexual relations with an unmarried woman(c) A married woman having sexual relations with an unmarried man(d) None of the above

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14. Which one of the following refers to doli incapax ?(a) Not capacitated to commit a crime(b) Capacitated to commit a crime(c) Neither capacitated nor incapacitated to commit a crime(d) All the above

Directions questions 15 to 19: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions based onthe given passage. Choose the most appropriate from the multiple-choice answers.

There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world; the adversarial and theinquisitorial. In the inquisitorial system, the presiding judge is not a passive recipient of information. Rather, the presiding judge is primarily responsible for supervising the gathering of the evidence necessary to resolve the case. He or she actively steers the search for evidenceand questions the witnesses, including the respondent or the defendant. Lawyers play a morepassive role, suggesting routes of inquiry for the presiding judge and following the judge’squestioning with questioning of their own. Attorney questioning is often brief because the judgetries to ask all relevant questions.

The goal of both the adversarial system and the inquisitorial system is to find the truth. But theadversarial system seeks the truth by pitting the parties against each other in the hope thatcompetition will reveal it, whereas the inquisitorial system seeks the truth by questioning thosemost familiar with the events in dispute. The adversarial system places a premium on theindividual rights of the accused, whereas the inquisitorial system places the rights of the accusedsecondary to the search for truth. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned his own remedy and administered itprivately. The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the privatevengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. Thus, for example, eventhough the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all membersof society and even though the police department has taken over the pretrial investigativefunctions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant toconduct his own pretrial investigation. The trial is still viewed as a duel between two adversaries,refereed by a judge who, at the beginning of the trial has no knowledge of the investigative

background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal proceduresymbolizes and regularizes the punitive combat. By contrast, the inquisitorial system beginshistorically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical stepsremoved from the system of private vengeance. Therefore, from the standpoint of legalanthropology, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial systemthe public investigator has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of the prosecutor but also onbehalf of the defendant. Because of the inquisitorial system’s thoroughness in conducting itspretrial investigation, it can be concluded that a defendant who is innocent would prefer to betried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be triedunder the adversarial system.

15. Which one of the following explains the theme of the passage?(a) The inquisitorial system is the best system of criminal justice.

(b) Both the adversarial and the inquisitorial systems of criminal justice evolved from thesystem of private vengeance.

(c) The adversarial and inquisitorial systems of criminal justice are being combined into anew and better system.

(d) Analyzes two systems of criminal justice and implies that one is better.

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16. Which one of the following explains inquisitorial system?(a) Pretrial investigations are not conducted by the judge.(b) Pretrial investigations are conducted by the judge for the plaintiff.(c) Pretrial investigations are conducted by the judge for the defendant.(d) Pretrial investigations are conducted by the judge for both the plaintiff and the

defendant.

17. Which one of the following places a premium on the rights of the accused?(a) Inquisitorial system(b) Adversarial system(c) Arbitral system(d) None of the above

18. From the standpoint of law which one of the following system is superior?(a) Adversarial system(b) Inquisitorial system(c) Mix of both(d) None of the above

19. Which one of the following is the most appropriate about adversarial system?(a) It is duel between the parties and the judge is a referee.(b) It is an understanding between the parties and the judge is an approver.(c) It is a system where the judge is an investigator.(d) It is a system to create perpetual adversary between the parties.

20. The body of legal principles that prevailed in England from 6th century until the NormanConquest (1066) is known as:(a) Common Law(b) Anglo-Saxon Law(c) Indian Law(d) English Law

21. The legal and moral code of Islam, systematized in the early centuries of the Muslim era(8th-9th century AD) is known as:(a) Sharia(b) Quran(c) Hadith(d) None of the above

22. Which one of the following is not related to Indian Parliament?(a) General Assembly(b) Speaker (c) Joint Parliamentary Committee(d) Leader of the Opposition

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Directions for questions 23 to 32: Each question is based on the application of principles onthe given facts. Read the facts carefully, apply the given principle on the facts and select the mostappropriate answer out of the four choices given under each question.

23. Facts: A school bus driver, after dropping all the children home, stopped in a roadsiderestaurant for having lunch. While he was having lunch, conductor of the bus, who was nothaving a driving license, drove the bus in order to turn it. While turning the bus he causedan accident whereby a small boy, restaurant owner’s son was injured. Restaurant owner brought a suit against school authorities.

Principle: For every legally authorized act of the servant, the master is liable provided thatthe act falls within the course of employment when either the master has authorized thesame or it is a wrongful mode of doing some authorized act.(a) Restaurant owner’s suit against school will fail.(b) School authorities are to be held liable as conductor is an employee of the school.(c) School authorities are liable since the driver and conductor had finished the task of 

leaving children, a task for which they were authorized by the school authorities.(d) None of the above.

24. Facts: A, lives in a remote colony of Delhi. He has been running a cyber café there offering

internet services for more than five years. Being the only shop of this kind in the area hehas been making good profit. B, opened a coffee shop in the neighborhood and providedinternet access to his customers as a result internet business of A, is affected and he startssuffering loses. After some time A, has to close his business.

A, wants to bring a suit against, B for causing him loss of business.

Principle: The mere fact that a man is injured by another’s act gives in itself no cause of action; if the act is deliberate, the party injured will have no claim in law even though the actis intentional, so long as the other party is exercising a legal right.

(a) A, can bring an action against B, for legal remedy.(b) B, will be liable to restore A’s business.

(c) A, has no cause of action against B.(d) B, can be ordered to stop providing internet services to his customers.

25. Facts: Amit, while rushing to board a moving train at a station pushed Anil who waswalking along with a heavy load, containing fire crackers, the push resulted in slipping of the load from Anil’s hand. The crackers exploded injuring a boy, Sumit standing nearby.Sumit filed a suit against Amit claiming damages.

Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care in order not toinjure by an act or omission his neighbour, which he may foresee. The neighbour for thispurpose is a person who is likely to be affected by the act or the omission.

(a) Amit is not liable, because Sumit is not his neighbour.

(b) Amit is not liable, because Anil should not be carrying load of crackers on a Railwaystation.(c) Amit is liable, because he pushed Anil.(d) Amit is liable because he was running.

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26. Facts: Mr. Gemini was passing by Mrs. Vadhera’s house. At that time, Mrs. Vadhera’s dogran out and bit Mr. Gemini’s overcoat. Mr. Gemini turned around and shot at the doghowever, the dog ran away. While the dog was far away from Mr. Gemini, Mr. Gemini shotthe dog dead as he believed that the dog had bitten other persons in the locality. Mrs.Vadhera filed a suit for damages as her dog was of a rare breed and worth Rs. 5000/-

Principle: Every person has a right to defend his own person, property or possessionagainst an immediate harm, and to that end, may use reasonable amount of force.

(a) Mrs. Vadhera will succeed because Mr. Gemini killed the dog as his right of privatedefence has elapsed.

(b) Mrs. Vadhera will not succeed because Mr. Gemini is justified in shooting the dog.(c) Mrs. Vadhera will not succeed because Mr. Gemini took the action to protect him as

well as many other members of public in future.(d) Mrs. Vadhera will succeed because she lost her precious dog.

27. Facts: Mr. Anil and Mrs. Seema Shah purchased bus tickets from a private bus companyfor a journey from Rainagar to Baruch via Amreli. The bus driver, by mistake, took them ina wrong direction and dropped them at a distance of 3 miles from Amreli on the statehighway. Mr. and Mrs. Shah had to walk the distance of 3 miles as there was no mode of 

transport available and it was midnight.

Mr. And Mrs. Shah filed a suit against the bus company and claimed Rs. 2,500/ asdamages for inconvenience suffered for walking and Rs. 5,000/ in respect of Mrs. SeemaShah’s catching cold during that night.

Principle: For a breach of contract, compensation can be claimed for the personalinconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in theusual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made thecontract to be likely to result from the breach of the contract.

(a) The bus company is liable to pay both the amounts claimed because the loss wassuffered by Mr. And Mrs. Shah for no fault of theirs.

(b) The bus company is liable to pay Rs. 2,500/ only.(c) The bus company is not liable to pay anything.(d) The bus company is not liable as there was no breach of contract.

28. Facts: A, a patient of B a doctor, is dissatisfied with B’s treatment. He discontinues thetreatment and after sometime leaves the city. Later on his illness was automatically cured.A was upset because B had made him spend a lot of money on his illness. A writes a letter accusing B, for cheating. He alleges that B magnified the effects of his illness, deliberatelytreated him in a manner so that it persisted and also caused deterioration of his health. Bshows this letter to his lawyer. In consultation with his lawyer B files a suit for damagesagainst A for defamation.

Principle 1: A person defames another if he states anything, which exposes the other to

hatred or ridicule or results in, him being shunned by others, or injures him in his trade,business or profession.Principle 2: To commit defamation, there must be communication of defamatory statementto a third party.

(a) A has defamed B and is liable to pay compensation.(b) A has defamed B when the letter was read by the lawyer and therefore the

compensation has to be paid.(c) A has not defamed B(d) A has defamed B by writing such a letter to him

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29. Facts: A and B were thieves engaged in stealing cars and other vehicles. One day theystole a car and while driving through a city, they engaged a driver to drive them through thecity, as they did not know the route inside the city. As the indicator lamp of the car was notworking and the thieves were unaware of this, they had not told about it to the driver due towhich another car belonging to X was damaged and his driver suffered injuries. X and hisdriver file a suit for damages against A and B.

Principle: A right of action cannot arise out of an illegal activity.

(a) X and his driver would lose, because he was injured by a stolen car.(b) X and his driver would win, because they were not a party to the stealing.(c) X and his driver would win, because their car was illegally hit.(d) None of the above.

30. Facts: A promises B to discover a treasure trove by magic, if B pays him Rs. 500. B beingaware of the fact that A is a magician agrees to the same and pays him Rs. 500. But to B’sdismay no treasure trove was discovered. B files a suit for breach of contract and torecover Rs. 500.

Principle: An agreement to do act impossible in itself is void.

(a) B’s suit will fail.(b) B would recover Rs. 500.(c) B would recover Rs. 500 only if he has suffered some loss.(d) A shall be required to discover treasure trove by magic otherwise he would be liable for 

breach of contract.

31. Facts: Rakesh is a merchant based in Kolkata deals in almonds, which he procures fromIndian as well as foreign markets. Vimlesh enters into a contract with Rakesh for supply of 500 kilograms of almonds @ Rs. 400 per kilogram. The relations between India andPakistan turned sour and both countries snapped business ties soon after Rakesh agreed

to supply almonds to Vimlesh. Rakesh did not deliver almonds to Vimlesh because hemostly procured almonds from Pakistan, which were comparatively cheaper. When askedby Vimlesh, Rakesh said that due to no trade and war like conditions between Indian andPakistan he is not in a position to supply him almonds. Vimlesh files a suit for breach of contract.

Principle: When due to natural disaster or war it becomes impossible to perform acontract, non-performance of such contract shall not make either of the parties liable for breach of contract but this does not include commercial impossibility.

(a) Vimlesh will succeed.(b) Rakesh will succeed.(c) None of them will succeed.

(d) Both of them will partially succeed.

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32. Facts: GSK A pharmaceutical company has reasons to believe that an existing patent of Pfizer company is erroneous thus it starts manufacturing the medicine on which the socalled erroneous patent of Pfizer exists. Pfizer filed a suit for stopping GSK frommanufacturing the medicine and also for treble damages. The court finds the patent valid.

Principle: A willful infringement of patent where the infringing acts were committed withoutconcern for the rights of the patentee or without a good faith belief will result in trebledamages to be paid by infringer to the patentee.

(a) GSK will have to pay treble damages only.(b) GSK will have to pay ordinary damages.(c) GSK will have to pay no damages but stop manufacturing the medicine.(d) GSK will pay damages but not treble damages and also stop manufacturing the

medicine.

33. Which one of the following gives the correct meaning of doctrine of subrogation?(a) Derogation(b) Congregation(c) Entering into shoes of another (d) Sharing profits equally

34. An accomplice means:(a) A partner in crime(b) A partner in business(c) A partner in court(d) None of the above

35. Which one of the following relates to the method of acquiring immoveable property under certain conditions by possession for a statutory period of time?(a) Possession in fact(b) Possession in law(c) Adverse possession(d) Universal possession

36. Which one of the following amounts to settlement by arbitration?(a) A court having jurisdiction to hear appeals and review a trial court’s procedure.(b) The hearing at which the accused is brought before the court to plead to the criminal

charge in the indictment.(c) A doctrine under which a person may not recover for an injury received when he

voluntarily exposed himself to a known danger.(d) The hearing of a dispute by an impartial third person or persons by giving an award.

37. Bequeath connotes:(a) To give a gift to someone through a will.(b) To sell property at low price.(c) To distribute property amongst sons.

(d) None of the above.

38. Which one of the following explains the power of attorney?(a) Power of advocates to file PIL.(b) A legal document whereby one person gives another person the power to act on his or 

her behalf.(c) Power given by parties to the Judge to decide the case.(d) None of the above.

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39. What does the word bona vacantia means?(a) Goods without owner (b) Bonafide vacancy(c) Availability of seats(d) None of the above

40. What does de novo refers to?(a) Conceding a fact(b) Starting afresh(c) Pushing backward(d) Pushing forward

41. Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 1 4 1019 ?(a) 28(b) 29(c) 31(d) 33

42. Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 6 7 5

8 4 9 ?(a) 2(b) 3(c) 5(d) 11

43. Which one of the following is the largest fraction?(a) 3/4(b) 7/8(c) 4/5(d) 7/9

44. A car left Jaipur at 7.12 am and arrived in Jodhpur, 180 miles distant at 10.57 am on the

same day. What was its average speed in miles per hour?(a) 42(b) 44(c) 46(d) 48

Directions for questions 45 to 49: Read the passage mentioned below carefully and answer thequestions given thereafter. You are required to select one out of the multiple choice answersreflecting on the nature of statement made in the question i.e., whether the statement made in thequestion is true, untrue, insufficient information in the passage or none of the above.

So much of the literature of the western world, including a large part of its greatest literature, waseither written for actual speaking or in a mode of speech, that we are likely to deform it if we apply

our comparatively recent norm of writing for silent reading. It is only that so much of this work isdrama or oratory (the latter including the modern forms of sermons, lectures and addresses whichas late as the nineteenth century play a most important part). It is also that through classical andmediaeval times, and in many cases beyond these, most reading was either aloud or silentlyarticulated as if speaking: a habit we now recognize mainly in the slow. Most classical historieswere indeed quite close to oratory and public speech, rather than silent reading of an artifact, wasthe central condition of linguistic composition.

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45. Until the nineteenth century, most people could only read with difficulty.(a) True(b) Untrue(c) Insufficient information(d) None of the above

46. In ancient times, literature was intended to be read aloud.(a) True(b) untrue(c) Insufficient information(d) None of the above

47. Classical histories were passed on orally and never written down.(a) True(b) Untrue(c) Insufficient information(d) None of the above

48. Only people with literacy problems now read aloud.(a) True

(b) Untrue(c) Insufficient information(d) None of the above

49. Oratory includes sermons and lectures but not the modern forms.(a) True(b) Untrue(c) Insufficient information(d) None of the above

Directions for questions 50 to 54: In each of the following questions there are two words to theleft of the sign {::} which are connected in some way. The same relationship exists between thethird word and the one of the four choices given under each question. Find the correct choice in

each question.

50. Pain : Sedative :: Grief : ?(a) Kill(b) Solace(c) Irritation(d) Wound

51. Death : Gallows :: Criminal : ?(a) Crime(b) Bottom(c) Jail(d) Judge

52. Ophthalmia : Eye :: Rickets : ?(a) Bone(b) Child(c) Kidney(d) Heart

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53. Metal : Conduction :: Plastic : ?(a) Inflammable(b) Breakage(c) Insulation(d) Industry

54. JLN : SQO :: PRT : ?(a) YWU(b) VUT(c) UYW(d) UTV

55. In a certain code BEAT is written as GIDV, how is SOUP written in that doe?(a) RXSR(b) XSYR(c) XSXR(d) None of the above

56. In a class of 50 students, 18 take Chorus, 26 take Band, and 2 take both Chorus and Band.How many students in the class are not enrolled in either Chorus or Band?

(a) 4(b) 6(c) 8(d) 10

57. A veterinarian surveys 26 of his neighbours. He discovers that 14 have dogs, 10 have cats,and 5 have fish. Four have dogs and cats, 3 have dogs and fish, and one has a cat andfish. If no one has all three kinds of pets, how many neighbours have none of these pets?(a) 5(b) 7(c) 9(d) 11

58. Which one of the following statements is the converse of the statement “If the moon is full,then the vampires are prowling.”?(a) If the vampires are prowling, then the moon is full.(b) If the moon is not full, then the vampires are prowling.(c) If the vampires are not prowling, then the moon is not full.(d) None of the above.

59. Which one of the following statements is the inverse of the statement “If you do notunderstand geometry, then you do not know how to reason deductively”?(a) If you reason deductively, then you understand geometry.(b) If you understand geometry, then you reason deductively.(c) If you do not reason deductively, then you understand geometry.(d) All the above.

60. If Ramesh likes oranges more than grapes, strawberries more than apples, and applesmore than oranges, then which one of the following is not true?(a) He likes grapes more than strawberries.(b) He likes strawberries more than grapes.(c) He likes apples more than grapes.(d) He likes strawberries more than oranges.

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61. if 8th of the month falls 3 days after Sunday then which one of the following will be the dayon 17th of that month?(a) Tuesday(b) Wednesday(c) Thursday(d) Friday

62. Which one of the following is a leap year?(a) 1704(b) 1945(c) 1978(d) 1982

Directions for questions 63 to 67: Read the information given below and answer the questionsthat follow:

Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged, one on each day fromMonday to Saturday. The schedule of the play is to be in accordance with the following: ‘A’ mustbe staged on the previous day of the day on which ‘E’ is staged. ‘C’ must not be staged onTuesday. ‘B’ must be staged on a day which follows the day on which ‘F’ is staged. ‘D’ must be

staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by ‘B’. ‘E’ must not be staged onthe last day of the schedule.

63. Which one of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging fromMonday?(a) E, A, B, F, D, C(b) F, A, B, E, D, C(c) A, F, B, C, D, E(d) None of the above

64. Which one of the following days in addition to Tuesday, play C cannot definitely be staged?(a) Friday(b) Thursday

(c) Wednesday(d) Monday

65. Between which one of the following pairs of plays, play D is staged?(a) E and F(b) C and E(c) B and E(d) C and F

66. Which one of the following plays is staged on Monday?(a) A(b) D(c) F

(d) C

67. Which one of the following plays immediately follows B?(a) A(b) C(c) D(d) E

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68. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. Q is between P and T. Which of the followinginformation given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is sufficient to find out who among them is in the middle?‘A’ — P is left of Q and right of S.‘B’ — R is at the right end.(a) Only ‘B’ is sufficient(b) Only ‘A’ is sufficient(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are required(d) None of the above

69. M, P, A and K are four friends. Which of the following statements given in ‘P’ and ‘Q’ aresufficient to find out who among the four is the heaviest?‘P’ — P is heavier than M and K but lighter than A‘Q’ — M is lighter than P and A but heavier than K(a) Only ‘P’ is sufficient(b) Only ‘Q’ is sufficient(c) Both ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are required(d) None of the above

70. Which one of the following number sets follow the same property as the number set: (21,51, 15)?

(a) (21, 51, 42)(b) (31, 35, 41)(c) (21, 91, 35)(d) (21, 30, 51)

71. Which one of the following equals, (5x – 1) + (10x2 + 7x)?(a) 10x2 + 12x – 1(b) 15x2 + 7x – 1(c) 10x2 + 2x – 1(d) 10x2 + 1x – 1

72. Which one of the following fills the missing number in (4x + _ ?) + (2x + 3) = 6x + 5(a) + 4

(b) – 4(c) + 2(d) – 2

73. Which one of the following is the most appropriate missing number in (x2 + 6x + 7) +(3x2 + _ ? _ + 1) = 4x2 + 13x + 8.(a) – 7x(b) + 7x(c) – 2x(d) 19x

74. When two sides of an isosceles triangle measure 3 and 7. Which one of the following couldbe the measure of the third side?

(a) 9(b) 7(c) 3(d) 2

75. Which one of the following is twelve less than eight times a number?(a) 8x – 12(b) 20 – 4x(c) 2x – 7(d) 7x – 12

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76. Ramesh and his friends are walking around a track that is shaped as a regular pentagon.Each side measures 85 feet. If they make 3 complete trips around the track, how far havethey walked?(a) 375 ft(b) 945 ft(c) 1275 ft(d) 1530 ft

77. A large pizza has a circumference of 72.5 inches. Which one of the perimeters listed couldbelong to the smallest box capable of holding a large pizza?(a) 23(b) 26(c) 72(d) 96

78. A rectangular football field has side lines 120 yards long. Each of the end lines is 160 feetlong. Which one of the following gives the perimeter of the football field?(a) 1040 ft(b) 946 ft(c) 645 ft

(d) 356 ft

79. A spinner contains eight regions, numbered 1 through 8. The arrow has an equal chance of landing on any of the eight regions. If the arrow lands on the line, it is spun again. What isthe probability that the arrow lands on an odd number?(a) 1(b) 1/2(c) 1/4(d) None of the above

80. A movie theater sells 3 sizes of popcorn (small, medium, and large) with 3 choices of toppings (no butter, butter, extra butter). How many possible ways can a bag of popcorn bepurchased?

(a) 6(b) 9(c) 12(d) 27

81. Alarm clocks are sold in blue or pink with either digital or standard displays. How manydifferent arrangements of alarm clocks are possible?(a) 2(b) 4(c) 6(d) 8

82. Which one of the following when divided by 19 gives the quotient 19 and the remainder 9?

(a) 370(b) 331(c) 281(d) 368

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83. In a seminar 15% of registered delegates were absent and 20% fell ill out of those whowere present. If the total number of delegates who successfully completed the seminar is544, how many delegates had registered for the seminar?(a) 944(b) 800(c) 721(d) 625

84. The average age of boys in a class of 30 is 15 years. If 10 more boys join the class, theaverage age of the whole class is reduced by one year. What is the average age of newcomers?(a) 9 years(b) 10 years(c) 11 years(d) 12 years

85. If the difference between simple and compound interests on a sum of money.(a) Rs. 8,000(b) Rs. 9,000(c) Rs. 9,300

(d) Rs. 10,000

86. A rectangular garden is 100 meters long and 60 meters broad. A five-meter wide roadsurrounds the garden. Which is the area of the road?(a) 1700 m2

(b) 1803 m2

(c) 1856 m2

(d) 1900 m2

87. The diameter of a circle is 35 cms. What is the absolute difference between the area andthe circumference of the circle?(a) 332.6 cms(b) 742.5 cms

(c) 982.4 cms(d) None of the above

88. Which one of the following gives the true height of a tank, which is 2.1 meter long and 2meter broad and the capacity of the tank is 21 hectoliter.(a) 1 meter (b) 0.9 meter (c) 0.5 meter (d) 0.3 meter 

89. If logex x log5

e = 3. What is the value of x?(a) 5e

3

(b) e5

(c) 125(d) 242

90. Which one of the following gives the factors of 8 + x – 7x2?(a) (1 + x) (8 – 7x)(b) (1 – 7x) (8 + x)(c) (8 – x) (1 + 7x)(d) (8 + 7x) (1 – x)

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91. Which one of the following explains Oligopoly as a form of imperfect competition?(a) There is one price for the industry’s products.(b) There are only a few producers in the industry.(c) There are many producers in the industry.(d) There are only a few buyers.

92. Which one of the following measures carried by the government hinders market economy?(a) Imposes taxes on consumer goods.(b) Plans production and distribution.(c) Promotes imports.(d) Controls the quality of some consumer goods.

93. Which one of the following is an example of an “entrepreneur” according to economists?(a) The divisional manager of a group of retail stores.(b) The proprietor of a one man confectionary shop.(c) The salaries coach of a professional team.(d) The head of research and development division in a nationalized industry.

94. In order that there would be full employment without inflation, which one of the followingequals aggregate demand?

(a) Potential GNP(b) Actual GNP(c) Both the above(d) None of the above

95. Which one of the following refers to the term “Liquidity Preference”?(a) The community’s preference for a gold backed currency.(b) The extent to which investors prefer to keep their assets in money.(c) The banks’ insistence on collateral security from business borrowing on overdraft.(d) The central bank’s shareholdings in other financial institutions.

96. The SDRs created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) was for the purpose of:(a) Aiding the development of banking systems in the African countries.

(b) Encouraging members of the IMF to return to the full gold standard.(c) Reducing the need for gold as a means of international liquidity.(d) Reducing the needs for periodical settlement with IMF.

97. Which of the following measures, announced in a Budget speech, would lead, other thingsbeing equal, to fall in the Index of Retail Prices?I. A decrease in indirect taxationII. A cut in income tax paid by those with small incomesIII. An increase in taxes paid by large companiesIV. An increase in taxes paid by those with very large incomes(a) I only(b) I and II only(c) III and IV only

(d) I, II, III, IV

98. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating uterine contractions?(a) Oxytocin(b) Testosteron(c) Estrogen(d) Progesterone

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99. Which one of the following is responsible for coordinating body movements?(a) Medulla Oblongata(b) Cerebellum(c) Midbrain(d) Pons

100. When osmotic pressure of blood is too high, the secretion of which one of the followinghormones is increased?(a) Prolactine(b) Oxytocin(c) Antidiuretic(d) Progesterone

101. Which one of the following is known as outermost layer of Skin?(a) Dermis(b) Epidermis(c) Hypodermis(d) Homeotherms

102. Mammals and birds maintain a constant body temperature, if mammals maintain body

temperature at about 37 deg C, what is the body temperature maintained by birds?(a) 40 deg C(b) 37 deg C(c) 34 deg C(d) 32 deg C

103. Which one of the following Ultra Violet (UV) light doesn’t penetrate the Earth’s atmosphereand gets absorbed by the ozone layer?(a) UVA(b) UVB(c) UVC(d) None of the above

104. Assuming a car to be initially at rest, how far does this car travel in 10 seconds if itundergoes a constant acceleration of 5 (m/sec)/sec to the right?(a) +200 meters(b) +250 meters(c) +300 meters(d) +350 meters

105. Which one of the following is not a basic unit of measurement?(a) Length(b) Mass(c) Time(d) Speed

106. Which one of the following equals 10 meter/sec?(a) 22.369 miles/hour (b) 22.459 miles/hour (c) 22.128 miles/hour (d) 22.018 miles/hour 

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107. In the year 1926, the Hilton Young Currency Commission recommended the creation of which one of the following as a Central Bank:(a) The Reserve Bank of India(b) The Central Bank of India(c) The Allahabad Bank(d) The State Bank of India

108. Which one of the following committees was appointed in 1936 to examine the financialposition of the state-owned railways and to suggest measures for its earnings?(a) The Walchand Committee.(b) The Wedgewood Committee.(c) The Mody-Lees Committee.(d) Sir Tekchand Committee

109. Which of the following years Shri Jaiprakash Narayan started the Citizens for Democracymovement.(a) 1971(b) 1972(c) 1974(d) 1977

110. Which one of the following committees was appointed on Indian currency in April 1898 tosuggest ways and means of establishing the gold standard in India?(a) Henry h. Fowler Committee(b) Sir John’s Committee(c) Moore Committee(d) Senderson Committee

111. In which one of the following years India’s first news agency, the Associated Press of Indiawas established.(a) 1906(b) 1908(c) 1910

(d) 1911

112. The Indian colliery owners set up the Indian Mining Federation in the year 1913 for theobjective of:(a) To encourage collective bargaining(b) To compete with the British(c) To fight racial discrimination and foreign monopoly(d) None of the above

113. Who amongst the following has won the David Dixon Award for the most outstandingathlete of the 2006 Commonwealth Games?(a) Samaresh Jung(b) Chong Wei Lee

(c) Gagan Narang(d) Jin Zhang

114. Which one of the following pacts was signed in 1933 between Sir William Clare-Lees andthe Bombay Mill owners Association to check the rising imports of Japanese textile goodsinto India?(a) The Mody-Lees Pact(b) The William-Naoroji Pact(c) The Clare-Bajaj Pact(d) None of the above

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115. The mascot for 2006 Commonwealth Games “Karak” is:(a) An endangered dog(b) A red-tailed black cockatoo(c) A Kangaroo(d) A Hypothetical animal

116. Smt. Indira Gandhi announced the famous 20-point economic programme in the year:(a) 1975(b) 1976(c) 1977(d) 1980

117. In 1978 currency demonetisation, which one of the following currency notes was left out?(a) 10,000(b) 5,000(c) 1,000(d) 500

118. Which one of the following international games India is hosting in the year 2010?(a) Commonwealth Games

(b) Asian Games(c) Olympic Games(d) None of the above

119. The Constitution Amendment Act, 2003 added the following set of languages:(a) Maithilli, Konkani, Santhali, Marathi(b) Malayalam, Manipuri, Maithilli, Dogri(c) Maithilli, Bodo, Santhali, Dogri(d) Nepali, Santhali, Dogri, Konkani

120. Which one of the following is not a regional trade arrangement?(a) NAFTA(b) AFTA

(c) EFTA(d) NATO

Directions for questions 121 to 130: Read the following passage carefully and mark the correctanswer from among the multiple choices given below each question under the passage.

Software and intellectual property have come a long way to provide new dimension to themarkets. For a firm to be satisfied with the performance and functionality of an existing productwas to risk losing market share to a competitor that targeted the same market. The nature of competition in the industry has been such that, if there is a perceived market for a particular software product, “someone will build it, and someone else will, as well,” said Harry C. Reinstein,chairman and chief executive officer of the Aion Corp.

While many software firms were aware of what intellectual property protection applied to softwareprimarily trade secret law and copyright law, the actions of most of the firms suggested that legalconcerns rarely entered into product-development decisions. The collective behavior of firmsserved to achieve the constitutional aim on which intellectual property law is based: “to promotethe progress of science and the useful arts.” More specifically, the software industry achieved theintent of intellectual property law, that is, to advance the public good, an objective widelyinterpreted to mean the generation and wide dissemination of ideas and innovations.

Today’s legal ferment indicates that software firms are much more attuned to intellectual propertyissues. And why not? Copyright law and patent law exist to encourage innovation. Both award

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limited monopolies to those who invest their resources, effort, and ingenuity in developingproducts that society may deem useful. Thus intellectual property law offers the potential for private financial gain as an incentive for undertaking the risks of innovation.

To Francis D. Fisher, adviser to the Educational Technology Group at the Harvard Law Schoolconcerns that innovation in software will diminish without strong intellectual property protectionseem at odds with the industry’s historically high rate of innovation. “It is not enough to suggestthat the incentives of monopoly are needed,” Fisher maintained. “We need evidence. We need toshift the burden of proof, so that those who believe that the public interest gains from extendingproperty rights to software must prove their case.” Among those who believe this case isunproven is Richard Stallman, whose Free Software Foundation and League for ProgrammingFreedom provide a test of his conviction that innovation is best served absent prices based oncommercial monopoly.

While Fisher may be unconvinced of the need to accord strict intellectual property rights tosoftware, the perception that software is vulnerable to abuses by competitors and users iswidespread. Firms trying to position themselves in the market to earn returns on their investmentoften devote considerable thought to protection strategies.

121. Does Francis D. Fisher consider intellectual property rights important for growth and

development of software?(a) Yes, as software does not require intellectual property.(b) Yes, software growth is possible only through commercial monopoly.(c) Yes, strong intellectual property regime is not a requirement for software innovation.(d) Yes, software patents are required for giving impetus to innovation in this field.

122. What Harry C. Reinstein contemplates about software market?(a) Market of particular software determines the nature of competition.(b) Competition in software development may determine the market.(c) Software development and market has no relationship.(d) None of the above

123. Which one of the following is a correct deduction from the given passage?

(a) Francis D. Fisher and Richard Stallman are of the same opinion as to softwaredevelopment and intellectual property regime.

(b) Views of Harry C. Reinstein and Francis D. Fisher are synonymous with softwaredevelopment and intellectual property regime.

(c) Francis D. Fisher and Richard Stallman are of opposite opinion as to softwaredevelopment and intellectual property regime.

(d) None of the above.

124. Which one of the following is correct?(a) Software firms are aware of intellectual property protection to software.(b) Trade secret law and copyright law primarily apply to software.(c) Software protection issue has rarely affected product-development decisions.(d) All the above.

125. Which one of the following relates to Copyright and Patent Law?(a) They encourage innovation.(b) Both award limited monopolies.(c) Both (a) and (b).(d) None of the above.

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134. luxury: destitution(a) idleness: leisure(b) lynch: resuscitate(c) contribute: receive(d) tribute: encomium

135. revive: extinguish(a) anarchy: order (b) disturbance: tumult(c) upheaval: complication(d) annoy: discommode

136. agnostic: theist(a) profane: blasphemous(b) nihilist: cynic(c) religious: irreligious(d) skeptic: infidel

137. apotheosis: consecration(a) sanctification: exaltation

(b) blessing: damnation(c) anathema: honour (d) vituperation: laud

138. avouch: equivocate(a) mislead: dodge(b) myth: fable(c) limitation: permission(d) retardation: impedance

139. diatribe: praise(a) harangue: discourse(b) encouraging: nagging

(c) quibbling: nitpicking(d) charge: accuse

140. camouflage: open(a) disguise: disclose(b) dress up: touch up(c) replicate: simulate(d) shroud: veil

Directions for questions 141 to 145: Below mentioned are questions based on sentenceconstruction. Out of given multiple choice answers select one that completes the sentence givenin the question.

141. I never miss a cricket match; I --- fond of cricket since childhood.(a) has been(b) have been(c) will be(d) am

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142. --- the room, the door suddenly swung and hit him in the face.(a) On entering(b) Entering(c) While entering(d) As he entered

143. Even though the principle of citizens’ participation in government --- proclaimed, severalprovisions of the Constitution contain the fundamental principles of the democraticparticipation.(a) is not directly(b) are not directly(c) had not directly(d) have not directly

144. The woman asked her husband ----(a) that when was he going to Jodhpur (b) as to when was he going to Jodhpur (c) when he was going to Jodhpur (d) when was he going to Jodhpur 

145. He …………… a lie if he ever said that he liked you.(a) was telling(b) have been telling(c) would have told(d) would have been telling

Directions for questions 146 to 150: Each of the following questions contains an idiom, themeaning of which is given below them. You are required to pick the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the four choices given.

146. That’s all moonshine(a) Sparkling(b) Beautiful

(c) Rubbish(d) Interesting

147. Blarney(a) Cajolery(b) Disapproval(c) Forbidden(d) Honesty

148. To blow the gaff (a) Divulge a secret(b) Disguised information(c) Trumpet

(d) Keep secrecy

149. Not to care a hoot(a) Free minded(b) Not caring anything(c) Very introspective(d) Diligent

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150. To die in harness(a) Die while being active(b) Die while in penury(c) Die while fighting(d) Die while in youth

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National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test, 2007

Total Marks 600 Instructions

1. Read instructions carefully.

2. This test paper contains One Hundred Fifty Questions with multiple-choice answers. Of which forty questions from Legal Aptitude, thirty questions from Information Level, thirtyquestions from English, thirty questions from Reasoning Ability and twenty questions arefrom Mathematical Ability.

3. For each correct answer four marks shall be awarded and for every wrong answer onemark shall be deducted.

4. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer assessment sheet with HP pencil.Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet wouldrender it invalid.

5. Candidates are required to record answers in the computer assessment sheet asinstructed.

6. This test is of Two Hours. First bell will ring five minutes before commencement of the test.As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write his/her roll number at placesprescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessmentsheet.

7. Before commencing to write your answers make sure that your booklet is legibly printedand contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of thisbooklet for rough work.

8. Candidates are required not to keep in their possession anything except pen, pencil,

sharpener, and eraser. Electronic gadgets (except wrist watch without any add on facility)such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall.

9. In case of any malpractice or attempt to use malpractice, which would include talking toneighbors, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper andexpel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with theseized paper in a separate packet.

SignatureCenter in-charge

National Entrance Test (NET)

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1. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to DC and AB = 2CD. If its diagonals intersecteach at O, then the ratio of the areas of the triangles AOB and COD is:(a) 1 : 2(b) 4 : 1(c) 1 : 4(d) 2 : 1

2. A room is 7.5 meter long, 5.5 meter breadth and 5 meter high. If it has one door 1.6 meter breadth and 2.5 meter high and two windows each 80 centimetres breadth and 1.25 meter high. What will be the expenditure in covering the walls by paper 40 centimetres breadth atthe rate of 75 paise per meter?(a) Rs. 232.50(b) Rs. 312(c) Rs. 312.68(d) Rs. 212

3. A wire in the form of a square is cut and bent in the form of a circle. If the area of thesquare is 110 cm2 what is the area of the circle?(a) 110 cm2

(b) 120 cm2

(c) 130 cm2

(d) 140 cm2

4. Present worth of a bill due 4 years hence is Rs. 575. If the bill is due after 2/1/2 years itspresent worth is Rs. 620. What is the interest rate per annum?(a) 5%(b) 6%(c) 7%(d) 9%

5. Omesh divides Rs. 6375 amongst Veera and Rekha. Veera is 22 years old while Rekha is23 years old. If the compound rate of interest is 4% per annum and both of them willreceive the same amount at the age of 25 years. What is share of Veera at present?

(a) Rs. 3125(b) Rs. 3150(c) Rs. 3175(d) Rs. 3170

6. Ramesh bought a house from Suresh and paid him Rs. 40,000 as the initial payment andRs. 48,000 after 5 years. If the rate of simple interest was 4% per annum. What was thecash price of the house?(a) Rs. 92,000(b) Rs. 89,000(c) Rs. 84,000(d) Rs. 80,000

7. A passenger train running at the speed of 80 km/hour leaves the Railway Station 6 hoursafter a Goods trains leaves and overtakes it in 4 hours. What is the speed of Goods train?(a) 30 km/hour (b) 32 km/hour (c) 34 km/hour (d) 36 km/hour 

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8. 20 men can complete a work in 40 days. When should 4 men leave so that the work maybe finished in 48 days?(a) 2 days(b) 4 days(c) 6 days(d) 8 days

9. Amar, Bipin and Chandan are partners in a business with contributory capital of Rs. 5,000,Rs. 6,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively. Amar gets 30% of the profit for managing thebusiness and the balance is divided in the ratio of their capitals. At the end of the year Amar gets Rs. 200 more than Bipin and Chandan together. What is the total profit?(a) Rs. 2,800(b) Rs. 3,00(c) Rs. 3,200(d) Rs. 3,500

10. The cost of 11 chairs is equal to the cost of 3 tables. The cost of one chair and one table isRs. 140. What is the cost of a chair?(a) Rs. 30(b) Rs. 60

(c) Rs. 66(d) Rs. 90

11. Which one of the following Countries shall host 11th South Asian Games-2008?(a) India(b) Sri Lanka(c) Bangladesh(d) Pakistan

Directions for questions 12 to 16: For the word given in each of the questions, choose the wordor phrase, which is similar in meaning to the word given in the question.

12. Abstruse:

(a) Profound(b) Suspended(c) Exciting(d) Recondite

13. Obfuscate:(a) Clarify(b) Profuse(c) Confuse(d) Charge

14. Claustrophobia:(a) Fear of Dogs

(b) Fear of Water (c) Fear of closed spaces(d) Fear of vampires

15. Impervious:(a) Vulnerable(b) Chaotic(c) Intelligent(d) Impenetrable

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24. Which one of the following Continent has largest number of Commonwealth Members?(a) Africa(b) Asia(c) Europe(d) South America

25. Which one of the following Indian dance forms derives its name from earthen lamp?(a) Bhangra(b) Gidda(c) Garba(d) Kathak

26. In Binary number system, what does 111 represent?(a) One hundred eleven(b) seven(c) three(d) one

27. Match column A with column B in order to make suitable pairs. Select the most appropriatepair.

Column A Column B1. Parliament 1. Governor  2. President 2. High Court3. Attorney General 3. State Legislature4. Supreme Court 4. Advocate General

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 2}(b) {1, 3}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 2}(c) {2, 3}, {1, 2}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

28. Match column A with column B to make pairs. Select the most appropriate pair.Column A Column B

1. Reserve Bank of India 1. Patents2. Ministry of Finance 2. Repo Rate3. Ministry of External Affairs 3. Tax Rate4. Ministry of Commerce 4. Passport

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(c) {1, 1}, {2, 2}, {3, 3}, {4, 4}(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

29. Match column A and column B to make appropriate pairs.Column A Column B

1. The Constitution of India 1. Rights of Consumers

2. The Indian Penal Code 2. Proscribing Monopoly & Cartels3. The Competition Act 3. Fundamental Rights4. The Consumer Protection Act 4. Theft

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(c) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}(d) {1, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

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30. Match column A with column B to make the most suitable and appropriate pairs.Column A Column B

1. Sentencing 1. Establishing Guilt2. Conviction 2. Punishment3. Court 3. Station House Officer  4. Police Station 4. Judge

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}(c) {1, 2}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 3}(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

31. Which one of the following is an illegal act?(a) Not obeying Parents.(b) Taking bribe.(c) Students collecting donations.(d) None of the above.

32. Which of the following is facet of human rights?(a) Protecting children from forced labour.

(b) Providing food to flood and draught affected people.(c) Basic schooling and medical facilities to citizen.(d) All the above.

33. Mr. X was apprehended by the Police believing that Mr. X has committed a crime. Mr. X isprosecuted for the alleged offence. Mr. X is legally called as:(a) A criminal(b) A Convict(c) An Accused(d) A Prosecutor 

34. Which one of the following is not an example of contract?(a) Kailash purchased a car from Ganesh.

(b) Mohit promised Suresh to buy his house for an agreed price.(c) Ramesh promising Suresh a dinner.(d) Raj promising Kiran to sell his motorbike.

35. Gopal, a journalist, in order to have fun published in the daily newspaper a story about anactress labeling her with conjectures and surmises thereby depicting her as a wickedwoman. Reading this her fan club raised slogans against her and held a public rally againsther. Has Gopal committed one of the following?(a) Murder of an Icon(b) Defamation(c) Negative Publicity(d) Misuse of newsprint

36. Hindi written in devanagari script is:(a) Constitutional Language of India(b) Official Language of the Government of India(c) National Language of India(d) All the above

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37. Which one of the following marriage is child marriage in India?(a) Between a Boy aged 22 years & a Girl 19 years(b) Between a Girl aged 18 years & a Boy 21 years(c) Between a Girl aged 18 years & a Boy 20 years(d) None of the above

38. Which one of the following does not constitute the Parliament of India?(a) The Lok Sabha(b) The Rajya Sabha(c) The President(d) The Prime Minister 

39. Which one of the following is not true about the Supreme Court of India?(a) It succeeded the Federal Court of India(b) It has seat in New Delhi only(c) It has twenty nine judges(d) None of the above

40. Which one of the following refers to doli capax ?(a) Not capacitated to commit a crime

(b) Capacitated to commit a crime(c) A child in mother’s womb.(d) All the above.

41. A legal proceeding adjourned sine die refers to:(a) That the proceeding shall commence on the first of next month.(b) That the proceeding was not given a date for continuation.(c) That the Court has passed a decree in the given case.(d) None of the above

42. Which one of the following is true about the Constitution of India?(a) It has been enacted by the British Parliament.(b) It has been enacted by the Constituent Assembly.

(c) It has been passed by the Parliament of India.(d) It has been adopted by the People of India.

43. Adjudication of cases between parties in courts in India connotes:(a) Inquisitorial system(b) Adversarial system(c) Arbitral system(d) None of the above

44. Which one of the following day is observed as Constitution day in India?(a) 26th October (b) 26th November (c) 26th January

(d) 15th August

45. Which one of the following is not correct?(a) The High Court directing the government to remove encroachments on public roads.(b) The Supreme Court directing Universities to make guidelines against ragging.(c) The High Court directing the State Government to make a law prohibiting smoking in

public places.(d) The Supreme Court directing Government of India to take stern action against sexual

harassment of women at work places.

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46. The President of India is administered oath of office by:(a) The Prime Minister (b) The Chief Justice of India(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha(d) The Attorney General of India

47. The phrase per incuriam refers to:(a) Judgment of a Court in accordance with law(b) Judgment of a Court without reference to a statutory provision(c) Judgment of a judge not of a Court(d) All the above

48. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?(a) General Assembly(b) Security Council(c) Economic and Social Council(d) World Trade Organization

Directions for questions 49 to 51: Each question given below is followed by two argumentsnumbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument is a strong argument and which is a

weak argument.

49. Statement:: Should the health care services be nationalized?Arguments:: I. Yes, it has been done elsewhere also.

II. No, the quality of health care services will deteriorate.(a) Only argument I is strong.(b) Only argument II is strong.(c) Neither I nor II is strong.(d) Both I and II are strong.

50. Statement:: Should there be a world government?Arguments:: I. Yes, it will help in eliminating tension among the Nations.

II. No, then only the developed countries will dominate in the government.

(a) Only argument I is strong.(b) Only argument II is strong.(c) Neither I nor II is strong.(d) Both I and II are strong.

51. Statement:: Should non vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?Arguments:: I. Yes, it is expensive and therefore it is beyond the means of most people inour country.

II. No, nothing should be banned in a democratic country like ours.(a) Only argument I is strong.(b) Only argument II is strong.(c) Neither I nor II is strong.(d) Both I and II are strong.

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Directions for questions 52 to 61: Each question is based on the application of principles onthe given facts. Read the facts carefully, apply the given principle to the facts and select the mostappropriate answer out of the four choices given under each question.

52. Facts: Mr. ‘X’ delivered a lecture at a local Rotary Club in favour of an accused who isprosecuted for assaulting a police officer. He said that the accused is a victim of prevailingcorruption in the judiciary and he knows that the accused is going to be punished by theCourt for being honest. Mr. ‘X’ is charged for committing contempt of Court.

Principle: A person shall not be guilty of contempt of Court on the ground that he haspublished (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs or by visible representations, or otherwise) any matter which interferes or tends to interfere with or obstructs or tends toobstruct, the course of justice in connection with any civil or criminal proceeding pending atthat time of publication, if at that time he had no reasonable grounds for believing that theproceeding was pending.(a) Mr. ‘X’ has not committed contempt of Court.(b) Mr. ‘X’ has committed contempt of Court.(c) Mr. ‘X’ has dishonoured the Court.(d) Mr. ‘X’ shall be acquitted because he is an honest man.

53. Facts: Amar is a staunch believer of divine powers of Baba Sarvanand and believes thatanybody who touches Baba’s feet shall be cured of any disease. He published a news itemin a national daily explaining his experience and powers of Baba.

Principle: Advertisement of magic remedy is a punishable offence. Magic remedy includesa talisman, mantra kavacha, and any other charm of any kind which is alleged to possessmiraculous powers for or in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation treatment or prevention of anydisease in human beings or animals or for affecting or influencing in any way the structureor any organic function of the body of human beings or animals.Whether Amar has committed the offence of advertisement of magical remedy?(a) Yes, Amar has committed the offence.(b) Yes, Amar and national daily both have committed the offence.(c) No, Amar has not committed any offence.

(d) Amar has not but national daily has committed the offence.

54. Facts: Amit, while rushing to board a moving train at a station pushed Anil who waswalking along with a heavy load, containing fire crackers, the push resulted in slipping of the load from Anil’s hand. The crackers exploded injuring a boy, Sumit standing nearby.Sumit filed a suit against Amit claiming damages.

Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care in order not toinjury by an act or omission his neighbour, which he may foresee. The neighbour for thispurpose is a person who is likely to be affected by the act or the omission.(a) Amit is not liable, because Sumit is not his neighbour.(b) Amit is not liable, because Anil should not be carrying load of crackers on a Railwaystation.

(c) Amit is liable, because he pushed Anil.(d) Amit is liable because he was running.

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58. Facts: Amar delivered a colour television to M/s XYZ Courier Services-a common carrier atDelhi to be delivered to his parents in Jaipur in nicely packed condition. Amar paid Rs. 400as Courier charges. Amar’s parents informed him that the colour television delivered tothem is damaged. Knowing this Amar filed suit against M/s XYZ Courier Services for recovery of Rs. 12,000 (twelve thousand) the price of colour television plus freight andpackaging charges. Would he succeed?

Principle: No common carrier shall be liable for the loss of or, damage to propertydelivered to him to be carried exceeding in value one hundred rupees, unless the persondelivering such property to be carried, or some person duly authorised in that behalf, shallhave expressly declared to such carrier or his agent the value and description thereof.(a) No, Amar will not succeed.(b) Yes, he would because he has suffered loss.(c) Yes, he will but he would not recover more than one hundred rupees.(d) Yes, he will recover the cost of television plus freight and packaging charges that he

incurred.

59. Facts: Ashok a news paper publisher publishes advertisements sponsored by individualsand societies. He published in his news paper an advertisement showing caricature of abare woman and a plant coming out of her womb and a punch line reading “keep the earth

green and be greeted by the earth”. The sponsor of this advertisement is a society workingfor protection of environment.Whether Ashok has committed any offence?

Principle 1: No person shall publish, or cause to be published, or arrange or take part inthe publication or exhibition of, any advertisements which contains indecent representationof women in any form.Principle 2: Any person who contravenes the provisions of Principle 1 shall commit anoffence punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend totwo years, and with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees.(a) Yes, Ashok has committed an offence.(b) No, Ashok has not committed any offence.(c) Ashok has not committed any offence but offence is committed by the sponsoring

society.(d) Society has not committed any offence but Ashok definitely has committed the offence.

60. Facts: Rohan entered into an agreement with a Banker and deposited Rs. Five lakh withthe Banker. The terms of the contract provided that Rohan’s son Suresh shall be thebeneficiary of the deposited amount only, if he marries after he attains legally marriageableage. Is agreement between Rohan and Banker void?

Principle: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor,is void.(a) Yes, since the agreement is restraining marriage of Suresh.(b) No, agreement is valid and enforceable.(c) Yes, because Suresh has right to marry once he is eligible to cast his vote.

(d) None of the above.

61. Facts: Ashutosh agrees to pay Baman a sum of money if Baman marries Chandini anytimeduring Ashutosh’s life. Chandini marries Dinesh and soon thereafter Ashutosh dies.Whether agreement between Ashutosh and Baman could be enforced, if Dinesh dies after one year of marriage and Baman marries Chandini?

Principle: When a future event on which a contract is dependent is the way in which aperson will act at an unspecified time, then the event shall be considered to becomeimpossible when such person does anything which renders it impossible that he should so

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act within any definite time, or otherwise than under further contingencies. If the eventbecomes impossible, such agreements become void.(a) No, agreement has become void.(b) Yes, because Baman ultimately marries Chandini.(c) Yes, because essence of this contract was marriage between Baman and Chandini.(d) Both (b) and (c).

62. What does De minimis non curat lex refer to?(a) The law does not concern itself with trifles(b) To sell property at a very low price(c) Expecting minimal incentive(d) None of the above.

63. What does ‘Bench’ mean in relation to a judicial proceeding?(a) Courtroom(b) Anteroom for Judges(c) A Judge in Court session(d) Wooden plank for Judges

64. Force majeure refers to:

(a) Forced labour (b) An inevitable(c) Majority force(d) Democracy

65. Which one of the following is an example of Intellectual Property Rights?(a) Tenancy rights in a house(b) Copyright(c) Ownership in a motorcar (d) None of the above

66. What does ab initio refer to?(a) Towards the end

(b) From the beginning(c) Somewhere in the middle(d) Final goal

67. Which one of the following is the odd word out?(a) Defamation(b) Slander (c) Libel(d) Honour 

68. Which one of the following is not part of Alternative Dispute Resolution?(a) Arbitration(b) Litigation

(c) Conciliation(d) Mediation

69. What does inter alia refer to?(a) Among other things(b) Interested in aliens(c) Alliance invited(d) All the above

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70. Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 1, 4, 10, 19, ?.(a) 28(b) 31(c) 32(d) 33

71. Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42,56, ?.(a) 64(b) 66(c) 72(d) 76

72. Six friends are sitting before a dining table in the following order, B is sitting opposite to D,E is sitting opposite to C and A is on the extreme left end of the table facing F. Who issitting beside B facing D and E?(a) D(b) C(c) A(d) B

73. Which one of the following will complete the series: PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ?(a) LWP(b) LVR(c) LVP(d) LUP

74. There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on the table. If A is placed below E, C isplaced above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the followingbook touches the surface of the table?(a) A(b) B(c) C

(d) E

75. If the Greenwich Mean Time is 4.30 am, what is the time in Kolkata?(a) 10 am(b) 9.30 am(c) 11.30 pm(d) 10.30 am

76. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children.F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to oneof the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child, who is C?(a) B’s daughter (b) D’s father 

(c) A’s son(d) E’s daughter 

77. Mr. X went fifteen kilometer to the west from his house, then turned left and walked twentykilometer. He then turned east and walked twenty five kilometer and finally turning leftcovered twenty kilometer. How far is he from his house?(a) 10 kilometer (b) 5 kilometer (c) 15 kilometer (d) 20 kilometer 

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78. In the following number series, how many 9’s are there which are preceded by 3 but notfollowed by four?2395139673948934932398393(a) 3(b) 4(c) 1(d) 2

Directions for questions 79 to 81: In each question below are given two statements followed byfour conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the two given statements to be trueeven if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions andthen decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the two given statements.

79. Statements:A. All mean are vertebrates.B. Some mammals are vertebrates.

Conclusions:I. All men are mammals.II.All mammals are men.

III. Some vertebrates are mammals.IV. All vertebrates are men.(a) Only I follows.(b) Only II and III follow.(c) Only III follows.(d) All follows.

80. Statement:A. All knowledge is good.B. All knowledge is difficult.

Conclusion:I. Some good things are difficult.

II.All difficult things are knowledge.III. All good things are difficult.IV. Easy things are not knowledge.(a) Only I follows.(b) Only II and III follows.(c) Only II or III follows.(d) Only I or IV follows.

81. Statement:A. All boys are beautiful.B. All beautiful are lovely.

Conclusion:

I. All boys are lovely.II.Some boys are lovely.III. Some lovely are boys.IV. All beautiful are not lovely.(a) Only I and III follow.(b) Only I follows.(c) Only III and IV follow.(d) None follows.

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82. In a concial cup 4000 (four thousand) drops of water are dropped into it. The diameter of each drop is 4 mm. If the diameter of the end of the cup is same as the height of the cup,what will be the height of water in the cup?(a) 6 cm(b) 8 cm(c) 4 cm(d) 7 cm

83. The mean weight of 120 students in the first year class of a college is 56 kg. If the meanweight of boys and that of girls in the class are 60 kg and 50 kg respectively, then thenumber of boys and girls separately in the class are::(a) 64,42(b) 38,64(c) 72,36(d) 72,48

84. The number of ways in which six men and five women can dine at a round table if no twowomen are to sit together is given by:(a) 6! × 5!(b) 30

(c) 7! × 4!(d) 40

85. How many meters of cloth 5 meter wide will be required to make a conical tent, the radiusof whose base is 7 meter and whose height is 24 meter?(a) 120 meter (b) 100 meter (c) 110 meter (d) 105 meter 

86. Mr. X left one third of his property to his widow and three fifth of the remainder to hisdaughter. He gave rest to his son who received Rs. 6400. How much was his originalproperty worth.

(a) Rs. 48,000(b) Rs. 64,000(c) Rs. 36,000(d) Rs. 24,000

87. Ramesh started a business with a capital of Rs. 18,000. Four months later Suresh joinedhim with a capital of Rs. 24,000. At the end of the year total profit earned was Rs. 5,100.What is Suresh’s share in the profit?(a) Rs. 2,000(b) Rs. 2,100(c) Rs. 2,400(d) Rs. 2,200

88. Rakesh reaches his office 30 minutes late if he walks from his house at a speed of 3km/hour and reaches 40 minute early if walks at 4 km/hour. How far is his office from hishouse in kilometers?(a) 11(b) 12(c) 13(d) 14

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Directions for questions 89 to 93: Read the following information carefully and answer thequestion given below it. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U play Football, Cricket, Tennis, Basketball,Badminton and Volleyball. T who is taller than P and S plays Tennis. The tallest among themplays Basketball. The shortest among them plays Volleyball. Q and S neither play Volleyball nor Basketball. R plays Volleyball. T is between Q who plays football and P in order of height.

89. What does S play?(a) Football(b) Either Cricket or Badminton(c) Cricket(d) Badminton

90. Who among them is taller than R but shorter than P?(a) T(b) Data inadequate(c) Q(d) None of the above

91. Who among them plays Basketball?(a) S

(b) U(c) Q(d) R

92. Which one of the following statements is not true?(a) T is taller than R(b) U is taller than Q(c) P is shorter than R(d) Q is taller than S

93. Who will be at the third place if they are arranged in descending order of their height?(a) T(b) Q

(c) P(d) S

94. A cistern has two pipes, which can fill it in 2 hours and 3 hours, respectively. A third pipecan empty it in 5 hours. If all the three pipes are turned on when the cistern is empty, whenwill it be filled?(a) 22 hours

(b)30

hours19

(c)19

hours30

(d) 23 hours

95. The compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 3783. What is thesimple interest?(a) Rs. 3,200(b) Rs. 3,500(c) Rs. 3,600(d) Rs. 3,800

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96. If (X – 4) (X – P) = X2 – 16 then P is equal to:(a) 2(b) 4(c) – 4(d) – 8

97. International Finance Corporation Report titled ‘Doing Business 2007’ ranked India at whichone of the following positions.(a) 144th(b) 134th(c) 120th(d) 109th

98. In which one of the following years the Indian Coast Guard was established?(a) 1989(b) 1980(c) 1977(d) 1971

99. At which one of the following places the annual meeting of the World Economic Forum was

held on January 24-28, 2007:(a) Warsaw(b) Davos(c) Brussels(d) New Delhi

100. What does TFT refer to?(a) Thick Film Transmitter (b) Thin Film Transistor (c) True Film Transmitter (d) Thick Film Transistor 

101. The escape velocity of an object projected from the surface of a given planet is

independent of:(a) mass of the planet(b) mass of the object(c) opposite to the direction of projection(d) radius of the planet

102. The length of a wire is increased by 1 mm on the application of given load. In a wire of thesame material, but of length and radius twice that of the first, on application of the sameload extension produced is:(a) 4 mm(b) 2 mm(c) 1 mm(d) 0.5 mm

103. When the Kinetic Energy of a body is increased by 300%, the momentum of the body isincreased by:(a) 100%(b) 200%(c) 300%(d) 400%

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104. A plastic which can be softened on heating and hardened on cooling is called as:(a) Thermoelastic(b) Thermoplastics(c) Thermosetting(d) Thermite

105. Which one of the following is the mascot of 15th Asian Games?(a) Orry(b) Karak(c) Kangaroo(d) Baby Elephant

106. Under a flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by:(a) The nation’s monetary authority(b) The price of gold(c) The nation’s budget(d) The forces of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market

107. In a perfectly competitive market there exists:(a) Free entry and restricted entry of firms.

(b) Free entry and free exit of firms(c) Restricted entry and exit of firms(d) Restricted entry and free exit of firms

108. Which one of the following international games India is hosting in the year 2010?(a) Commonwealth Games(b) Asian Games(c) Olympic Games(d) None of the above

109. An inferior commodity is one which is consumed in smaller quantities when the income of the consumer:(a) Rises

(b) Falls(c) Stagnates(d) Becomes Zero

110. The incidence of tax refers to:(a) The level and the rate of taxation(b) Who ultimately bears the burden of tax(c) The growth of taxation(d) The way in which tax is collected

111. Morphine, Codeine and Heroin are chemically known as:(a) Analgesics(b) Narcotics

(c) Alkaloids(d) All the above

112. In which one of the following, Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are present?(a) Wheat(b) Cotton(c) Gram(d) Mustard

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121. The man ……………………… her basket and ran out of the shop before anyone could stophim.(a) caught out(b) caught up(c) caught up on(d) caught up in

122. It is unwise to ………………… all your capital ………………… one enterprise.(a) tie on, on(b) tie down, on(c) tie up, in(d) tie in with, in

123. The day ………………… a heavy turnout of voters …………… in urban and rural areas.(a) proved, queue(b) showed, both(c) witnessed, both(d) presented, lines

124. The disputes between India and Pakistan are of a more serious nature than ………………..

between India and its other neighbours.(a) that exist(b) that existing(c) those that exist(d) that which exists

125. Which one of the following sentences is grammatically correct?(a) There is much hot this summer.(b) My leg is paining.(c) I made a good shot at the goal.(d) The others boys are not present.

126. Which one of the following sentences is incorrect?

(a) I have no money to buy a motor car.(b) I am not teacher, I am student.(c) He drank half a glass of milk.(d) A hundred years make a century.

Directions for questions 127 to 131: Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it.

The average growth rate of the Indian economy over a period of 25 years since 1980-81 (financialyear beginning April) has been about 6.0 per cent, with the growth rate averaging 9.1 per centduring the last two years. The economy has shown considerable resilience during the recentyears, as evidenced by the avoidance of adverse contagion impact of several shocks in theEmerging Market Economies and the ability to cope with oil price increases. The strengthening of 

economic activity in the recent years has been supported by persistent increase in domesticinvestment rate from 22.9 per cent of GDP in 2001-02 to 33.8 per cent in 2005-06 coupled withmore efficient use of capital. Domestic saving rate has also improved from 23.5 per cent to 32.4per cent during the same period. While the services sector continues to be the driver of growthwith a share of around 60 per cent in the overall GDP, a noteworthy development during therecent years has been the continued recovery in industrial sector, particularly the manufacturingsector supported by domestic as well export demand.

The financial sector has acquired greater strength, efficiency and stability by the combined effectof competition, regulatory measures, policy environment and motivation among the market

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players including banks. The Government securities market is quite deep, liquid and vibrant andwell developed in terms of instruments/processes/participants. The exchange rate of the rupeehas been flexible, particularly, in the last few years and the turnover in the foreign exchangemarket has increased considerably. The stock market has been opened to foreign institutionalinvestors and is comparable with major international equity markets.

However there are certain challenges to be addressed. The poor state of the physicalinfrastructure, both in terms of quantity and quality is considered to be most critical hindrance for India’s progress by many. The most important issue here is regulatory framework and overallinvestment climate, which are being addressed by the Government. Secondly, fiscal consolidationstill remains a matter of concern, especially in the eyes of the rating agencies. The recent budgetof the Central Government brings the consolidation on track. Studies on State finances by theReserve Bank of India give grounds for optimism in regard to their fiscal health. Two importantareas could be recognized which, if addressed would result in fiscal empowerment. One iselimination of subsidies, which are not directly targeted to the poor or inappropriate, and thesecond is elimination of most of the tax exemptions, which are patently distortionary.

Another challenging issue relates to development of agriculture. While over 60 per cent of theworkforce is dependent on agriculture, the GDP growth generated from agriculture is onlymarginally above the rate of growth of the population, which is not adequate to ensure rapid

poverty reduction.

127. A noteworthy development during the recent period has been the:(a) Rapid development of agriculture along with industrial growth.(b) Rapid development of industries along with the services sector.(c) Rapid development of agriculture along with the services sector.(d) Rapid development of services along with agricultural sector.

128. What does fiscal consolidation imply in the above paragraph?(a) Increase in savings.(b) Reduction in unproductive Government expenditure.(c) Reduction in taxes.(d) Reduction in investment.

129. Which one of the following is not an ingredient of financial sector reforms?(a) Exchange rate flexibility.(b) Development of equity market.(c) Development of infrastructure.(d) Development of the Government securities market.

130. According to given paragraph, which one of the following has not contributed to risinggrowth rate in Indian economy?(a) Agricultural sector.(b) Financial sector.(c) Services Sector.(d) Industrial Sector.

131. Which one of the following is not true about the Indian agricultural sector?(a) It provides employment to 60% of the workforce.(b) It has not been highly successful in reducing poverty level in the country.(c) The GDP growth generated from agriculture is less than the rate of growth of 

population.(d) The GDP growth generated from agriculture is higher than the rate of growth of 

population.

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Directions for questions 132 to 136: Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it.

History of government in America shows a gradual development of the system. Localgovernments were the first governments. The primitive tribe that chose the strongest man to beits chief and the oldest men to form a council was establishing local government. It was seeking abetter safer life.

In the same way, the first English settlers who landed at Jamestown, Virginia, in 1607 soonrealized that they needed rules and leaders. At first, the settlers searched for gold and had to findtheir own food and provide their own shelter. As food supplies began to run low, and as thecolonists faced hunger and disease, they saw that they needed to work together if the colony wasto survive. The colonists formed a council to make laws for the colony. They chose Captain JohnSmith as president of the council to see that the laws were carried out. This government atJamestown was the first local government in America.

Today, local government is still the first and most important government in American lives. Itprotects lives, provides safety, and homes, and it helps to keep environment clean. Localgovernment provides Americans with schools, libraries and other important services.

132. The Jamestown colonists formed a government because of:(a) Pride(b) Greed(c) Necessity(d) Togetherness

133. The most suitable title for this passage would be:(a) Historical evolution(b) The first government(c) American Life(d) Rules and leaders

134. The first colonial government according to the given passage was:

(a) Local government(b) Federal government(c) City government(d) Necessity government

135. The overall goal of local government seems to be public:(a) Annihilation(b) Protection(c) Growth(d) Development

136. What did settlers search first?(a) Silver 

(b) Law and rules(c) Gold(d) Peace

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Directions for questions 137 to 140: Select the word which closely fits the definition given ineach of the following question.

137. One who does a thing for pleasure and not as profession?(a) Empirical(b) Diabolical(c) Amateur (d) Philanderer 

138. Government by Priests or a government which has its state religion is called.(a) Aristocracy(b) Oligarchy(c) Sacerdotal(d) Theocracy

139. Animals that live in flock are called?(a) Gregarious(b) Pugnacious(c) Migratory(d) Parasite

140. To free a person from charge or blame:(a) Inculpate(b) Exculpate(c) Inculcate(d) Circumvent

Directions for questions 141 to 150: Each question is based on arrangement of parts of legalphrases in one sentence, providing the most appropriate meaning. One or more parts of thesentence is given in the question, remaining parts of the sentence are to be sequentially selectedfrom the remaining four parts of the sentence (P, Q, R, S) given under each questions. Mostsuitable sequence is required to be selected from the four choices (a, b, c, d) given for eachquestion.

141. When a party …………. Or disabled ……………… his promise in its entirety, ……… unlesshe has signified, ………….. in its continuance.(P) to a contract has refused to perform,(Q) himself from performing,(R) the promisee may put an end to the contract,(S) by words or conduct, his acquiescence

(a) PQRS(b) SQPR(c) QSRP(d) RPSQ

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142. if it appears from …….. that it was ……. That ……… by the promisor himself, such promisemust be…………(P) the nature of the case(Q) any promise contained in it should be performed(R) the intention of the parties to any contract(S) performed by the promisor 

(a) PQRS(b) PRQS(c) QSRP(d) QRSP

143. Where a debtor, …………… makes a payment to him, ……….. or under circumstancesimplying, ………… the payment, …………… must be applied accordingly.(P) either with express intimation,(Q) owing several distinct debts to one person,(R) that the payment is to be applied to the discharge of some particular debt,(S) if accepted.

(a) QPRS

(b) PQRS(c) PRQS(d) SRPQ

144. …………… shall be a body corporate having ………… with power to acquire and holdproperty, …………. And to contract, and may by the name ………….. sued.(P) by which it is known sue and be(Q) Every Bar Council(R) perpetual succession and a common seal,(S) both movable and immovable,

(a) PQRS(b) QPSR

(c) QRSP(d) QSPR

145. Parliament …………. admit into the Union, or ………. on such terms and ………… it ………(P) may by law(Q) establish, new States(R) conditions as(S) thinks fit

(a) PQRS(b) SRQP(c) RQPS(d) QPRS

146. The State …………. any person ………… or the equal ………. the laws ………. of India.(P) protection of (Q) equality before the law(R) shall not deny to(S) within the territory

(a) PQRS(b) SRQP(c) RQPS(d) QPRS

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147. No ……… of fourteen ……… to work in ..……. or engaged in any …………. Employment.(P) child below the age(Q) years shall be employed(R) any factory o mine(S) other hazardous

(a) RSQP(b) PQRS(c) SQRP(d) QPRS

148. The State shall ………. panchayats and ……….. and authority as may be ………….. themto ………… self-government.(P) function as units of (Q) necessary to enable(R) endow them with such powers(S) take steps to organise village

(a) RSQP(b) PQRS

(c) SRQP(d) QSRP

149. The State shall ………… for …………. A uniform ………. the ……….. India.(P) territory of (Q) endeavour to secure(R) the citizens(S) civil code throughout

(a) PQRS(b) QRSP(c) RSPQ(d) RQPS

150. There shall be a ………… the ………… consist of ……….. and two Houses to be knownrespectively as the ………… the House of the People.(P) the President(Q) Parliament for (R) Council of States and(S) Union which shall

(a) RSQP(b) SQPR(c) PQRS(d) QSPR