MODEL TEST PAPER -2 (MAT & SAT)

Question 1-10 Directions: There is some relationship between the two figures! pairs of

letters numbers on the left of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists betiveen the two

terms on the right of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the given

alternatives.

1. L S F Q : ? : : DKNH : HFPF

(a) RTSO (b) EPIH

(c) PNHO (d) CLQR

2. I B U : M A Z : : ? : X X F

(a) CPQ (b) TYA

(c) KNT (d) UIE

3. F V W : I S Z : : N T I : ?

(a) PRT (b) LIG

(c) GGC (d) QQ

4. ?:PET::DGK:FJO

(a) NBP (b) RCA

(c) FUZ. (d) CBJ

5. 3 : 12 : : 5 : ?

(a) 18 (b) 25

(c) 22 (d) 30

6. 6 : 38 : : 5 : ?

(a) 48 (b) 55

(c) 66 (d) 75

7. 7 : 52 : : 9 : ?

(a) 83 (b) 84

(c) 79 (d) 81

8.

9.

10.

Questions 11-15 Directions: There is some relationship between the given pair, Choose

the alternative which is most closely related to the pair in the sameway.

11. Tree – Fruits

(a) Greenary (b) House

(c) Tall (d) Flower

12. Mango : Seed

(a) Pulp (b) Sweet

(c) Tree (d) Fruit

13. Song : Lyrics

(a) Tune (b) Sing

(c) Singer (d) Record

14. Snake-Poison

(a) Hoof (b) Bite

(c) Forest (d) River

15. Ram-Ramayan

(a) Hunuman (b) Mahabharat

(c) Geeta (d) Bible

16. If 87654 stands for GREAT. Then 754 stands for ...?

(a) GET (b) TEA

(c) EAT (d) RAT

17. If SLIGHT stands for 426875, then GIST stands for ...?

(a) 6845 (b) 8645

(c) 4568 (d) 4586

18. In a Certain Code Million is written as IMLLON. How is HILTON written

in that code?

(a) IHTLON (b) IHLOTN

(c) IHTLNO (d) IHLTNO

19. In certain code LOYAL is coded is JOWAS, then PRONE is coded as?

(a) ORMNC (b) NRMND

(c) QRPNE (d) NRMNL

20. If TOP = 201516; POT = 161520, TRA = 20118, then RAT is

(a) 81102 (b) 18120

(c) 11820 (d) 81120

21. If 42572 stands for WORLD then 7252 stands for?

(a) DOLR (b) ROLD

(c) LORD (d) OLRD

22. If Cloud is called white, white is called rain, rain is called green, green is called air, is

called blue, and blue is called water, where do the birds fly in ?

(a) Air (b) Cloud

(c) White (d) Blue

Questions 23-26 Directions: Given under is a group of numbers/letters in a particular

series. Some of numbers of the series is missing. Complete the series from the given

options.

23. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30 ...

(a) 32 (b) 64

(c) 62 (d) 60

24. nd, iy, dt, yo, tj, ...

(a) mp (b) nq

(c) of (d) oe

25. CLZ, BMY, INX, HOW, ...

(a) OQV (b) OPV

(c) OOV (d) PQV

26. ab—aabb—bb—

(a) abbb (b) abab

(c) baba (d) baaa

27. If Ashok is taller than Suresh, Raju is taller than Ashok, Chandu is shorter than

Suresh, then Chandu is

(a) Taller than Ashok

(b) As tall as Suresh

(c) Taller than Suresh

(d) Shorter than Ashok

28. Five boys were climbing-up a hill. Hayant was following Hari, Ram was ahead of

Govind, Krishna was ' between Govind and Hari, They were Climbing up in a row.

Who was second?

(a) Jayant (b) Govind

(c) Ram (d) Hari

29. Raghav ranked 8th form the top and 28th from the Bottom in a class. How many

students are there in the class

(a) 35 (b) 33

(c) 37 (d) 36

Questions 30-31 Directions : Choosse the oddman. 30.

30. (a) Ear (b) Nose

(c) Throat (d) Tongue

31. (a) Banana (b) Mango

(c) Ginger (d) Guava

Question 32-33 Direction: Choose the word with similar relationship

32. Drop : Ocean : : Star : ?

(a) Earth (b) Sky

(c) Twinkle (d) Sun

33. Nose : Breath : : Mouth : ?

(a) Food (b) Water

(c) Eat (d) Open

34. At my house I am facing east, then I turn left and walked 10 m. I again turn right and

walk 5 m. Again I go 5 m to south and form there walks 5 m to West. In which direction am I

from my house

(a) East (b) West

(c) North (d) South

Questions 35-36 Directions : Choose the group of letters which is different form others.

35. (a) BCD (b) JKM

(c) PQR (d) EFG

36. (a) ACEG (b) PRTV

(c) KMNP (d) TVXZ

Questions 37-40 Directions: Insert the missing numbers

37.

(a) 89 (b) 93

(c) 9 (d) 80

38.

(a) 2 (b) 38

(c) 98 (d) 159

39.

(a) 3 (b) 7

(c) 6 (d) 9

40.

Questions 41-45 Direction: Choose the Venn diagram which best describe the relationship

among the three given classes (The size of Circle does not indicate relative sizes of Classes)

41. Criminals - Pick pocket- Thieves

(a) A (b) B

(c) C (d) D

42. Protons-Electrons-Atom

(a) A ( b) B

(c) C (d) D

43. Tea-Coffee-Beverages

(a) A (b) B

(c) C (d) D

44. Mother-Wives-Women

(a) A (b) B

(c) C (d) D

45. Tennis fans - Cricket fans-Sports lovers

(a) A (b) B

(c) C (d) D

Questions 46-50 Directions : Are based on the following diagram. Where there classes

of population are represented by three figures.

46. Married person living in joing families but not working as school teachers are

represented by

(a) C (b) F

(c) D (d) A

47. Persons who live in joing families are unmarried and who do not work as school

teachers are represented by

(a) C (b) B

(c) E (d) D

48. Married teacher living in joint families are represented by

(a) C (b) B

(c) D (d) A

49. School teachers who are married but do not live in joint families are represented by

(a) A (b) C

(c) D (d) F

50. School teachers who are neither married nor do they live in joint families are

represented by

(a) A (b) B

(c) C (d) F

Questions 51-60 Directions : In the following questions you have to visualize the image of the

item (figure, word, letter, number) in the mirror. The mirror source is below the item. Choose

the mirror image from the alternatives.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61. Reena walks 5 km towards north, then she turns to her right and walked 2 km.

She again turns right and walks 5 km at this point she turns to her left

and walks for 5 km. How many kms and in what direction is she from the starting

point.

(a) 5 Km West (b) SKrnSouth

(c) 7 Km East (d) 7 Km West

Questions 62-66 Directions : Four students P, Q, R, S appeared in four papers I, II, III & IV

in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below.

(Where A stands for Absent)

Read the above table and answer below mentioned questions?

62. Which candidate has secured between 58 to 62 marks in aggregate?

(a) P (b) Q

(c) R (d) S

63. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate?

(a) P (b) Q

(c) R (d) S

64. Who has obtained the highest average?

(a) P (b) Q

(c) R (d) S

65. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by the candidate?

(a) I (b) 11

(c) 111 (d) IV

66. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers

appeared?

(a) P (b) Q

(c) R (d) S

Questions 67-70 Directions : Find out the number which should come at the

place of question mark which will complete the series.

67. 6, 8, 9, 11, 12, 14, ?

(a) 15 (b) 16

(c) 18 (d) 21

68. 54, 108, 216, 432, ?

(a) 1664 (b) 864

(c) 664 (d) 964

69. 98, 92, 89, 85, 79, 76, ?

(a) 74 (b) 72

(c) 70 (d) 69

70. 6 4 4 0 6

?2 6 2 2 2

(a) 4 (b) 3

(c) 8 (d) 0

71.

(a) 72 (b) 74

(c) 70 (d) 75

72.

(a) 37 (b) 57

(c) 47 (d) 42

73.

(a) 18 (b) 22

(c) 10 (d) 20

74.

(a) 5 (b) 10

(c) 20 (d) 25

75. 7 8 9

7 15 24

7 ? 46

(a) 14 (b) 22

(c) 23 (d) 33

Questions 76-85 Directions : Choose the group of letters which is

different from other.

76. (a) BCD (b) KMN

(c) QRS (d) GHI

77. (a) ACEG (b) JLNP

(c) SUWY (d) BDFG

78. (a) POCG (b) KLIZ

(c) BUDX (d) ARTZ

79. (a) CZHK (b) MLAG

(c) XUBU (d) SENO

80. (a) BDGK (b) JLOS

(c) NPSW (d) MORU

81. (a) CFIL (b) PSVX

(c) JMPS (d) ORUX

82. (a) DKUZ (b) LUuB

(c) FaMY (d) UXeN

83. (a) FCGDE (b) TRQPS

(c) KJHMF (d) KHGJI

84. (a) AUgPZ (b) MXiDV

(c) KFeCO (d) YGLhT

85. (a) DXCLQZ (b) PFZUBM

(c) XGKNTY (d) NWMBHJ

Questions 86-90 Directions : Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and

choose the one that comes first:

86. (a) Sport (b) Spouse

(c) Squash (d) Sprout

87. (a) Praise (b) Prardc

(c) Prayer (d) Practise

88. (a) Wasp (b) Waste

(c) War (d) Wrist

89. (a) Probe (b) Problem

(c) Proclaim (d) Probate

90. (a) Nature (b) Narrate

(c) Native (d) Naughty

PART – II

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

Time: For General - 90 Minutes, For Disabled-120 Minutes Full

Marks : 90

Instructions

1. All the questions of this part are related to the subjects of Scholastic Aptitude

Test.

2. Before answering the questions, read these instructions very carefully.

3. This part contains 90 questions.

4. Each question carries 1 mark.

5. Answer to all the questions is essential.

6. The subjects of Scholastic Aptitude Test are divided into three groups, as given

below :

7. The questions are to be answered on the OMR Answer-sheet supplied in the

Examination Hall.

8. Every question has four alternatives of which only one is correct.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by darkening the number of the correct

alternative in the Answer-sheet from amongst the ones given for the

corresponding question in the Test (Question) Booklet.

A. SCIENCE DISCIPLINE PHYSICS

91. A paper boat is floating on water in a pond. If a stone is thrown in water whether

the boat will

(a) move ahead

(b) move backwards

(c) oscillate ahead and backwards

(d) oscillate up and down-at the same place.

92. A body moves on a Circle of radius R and reaches starting point after time t, then the

displacement and distance traversed are respectively

(a) Zero and 2 π R

(b) Zero and 2 R

(c) 2 R and 2π R

(d) 2Rand2 π Rt

93. Identical masses weighing 50 gms are suspended form two identical springs of

lengths 10 cms and 20 cms. Masses are pulled down and released. The time period of

oscillations will be in the ratio of

(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1

(c) 1:1 (d) 1:4

94. If the volume of a gas is kept constant and heated then the pressure of the gas will

(a) remain constant

(b) increase

(c) decrease }

(d) will depend-en-nature of the -gas.

95. A fishemanis looking at a fish a 45° form the horizontal plane. At what angle he

should throw the spear so that it hits the fish ?

(a) 45°

(b) > 45°

(c) < 45°

(d) None of the above

96. A person hears the thunder after 5 second of the lightning. If the velocity of sound

in air is 330 m/s then the lightning is at a distance of—

(a) 330m (b) 990m

(c) 1650m (d) 15x 105km

97. How the cells in a torch are joined?

(a) Parallel combination

(b) Series combination

(c) Common way

(d) None of the above

98. Inside an electric bulb there is —

(a) Vaccum (b) Air

(c) Inert gas (d) Hydrogen gas

99. The nature and frequency of electric current used in our home is

(a) Direct current and 50 Hz

(b) Alternating current and 100 Hz

(c) Direct current and 100 Hz

(d) Alternating current and 50 Hz

100. The source of solar energy is —

(a) Nuclear Fission

(b) Nuclear Fusion

(c) both Fusion & Fission

(d) by laser production

101. The shape of our Galaxy is —

(a) Elliptical (b) Circular

(c) Serpentine (d) hyperobolic

CHEMISTRY

102. Calculate the number of atoms in 0.35gm of pure copper

(a) 21 × 1023 (b) 2.1 × 1024

(c) 4.2 × 1023 (d) 2.1 × 1023

103. The number of neutron in 4019 K in is

(a) 20 (b) 18

(c) 21 (d) 40

104. Which of the following will show the Tyndall effect?

(a) Sodium Chloride solution

(b) Milk

(c) Sodium Carbonate Solution

(d) Starch Solution

105. The reaction NH4Cl NH3 + HCl is known as —

(a) Sublimation

(b) Thermal decomposition

(c) Ionic reaction

(d) Displacement reaction

106. Which of the following is an important pollutant in acid rain?

(a) S02 (b) CO

(c) CO2 (d) Dust Particle

107. Which of the following is not an oxidation - reduction reaction?

(a) 2 2 2SO H S H O S

(b) 3 2 2 22Ca HCO HCl CaCl H O CO

(c) 2 2 2 3 2FeS O Fe O SO

(d) 2 4 2 4 2 2NaBr H SO Na SO Br H O

108. Which of the following is a hydrolysis reaction?

(a) 2 2 4 4BaCl H SO BaSO HCl

(b) 2 4 2 2 4H SO H O H SO (aqueous solution)

(c) 2 3 2 2 3Na CO H O NaOH H CO

(d) 2 5 2 3N O H O HNO

109. At normal temperature and pressure (NTP) what amount of

manganese dioxide react with hydrochloric acid so that 100 litres of chlorine gas is

obtained ? [Mn = 55, O = 16, Cl = 35.5, H = 1],

(a) 166.8 gm (b) 378.6 gm

(c) 388.4 gm (d) 474.6 gm

110. Match the items in Column-I with Column –II

I - (Compound) II - (Colour of Compound)

A. MgSO4. 7H2O (a) Green

B. FeCl3.6H2O (b) Blue

C. NiCL2 . 6 H2O (c) White

D. CuSO4 . 5H2O (d) Yellow

Which of the following alternatives is correct ?

(a) A b B c

C b D c

(b) A c B a

C d D b

(c) A d B c

C b D a

(d) A c B d

C a D b

111. A compound A is soluble in hot water but insoluble in cold water. In hot

water solution aqueous solution of K2CrO4 (Potassium chromate) is added, thereby

a yellow precipitate is obtained. The compound A is

(a) PbCl2 (b) MgCl2

(c) CrCl3 (d) MnCl2

112. Rusting of iron is an example of

(a) photochemical reaction

(b) electrochemical reaction

(c) electrolysis

(d) exothermic reaction

BIOLOGY

113. The wings of a Bat and a Bird perform the same function. They are said to

be

(a) Analpus (b) Homologus

(c) Equivalent (d) None

114. The 'pH' of Human Blood is

(a) More in veins less in artery

(b) More in artery less in veins

(c) Equal in Both artery and Veins

(d) 'pH'of Blood is neutral.

115. Most of the energy we use stored solar energy. Which one of the following

is not a form of solar energy.

(a) Wind Energy

(b) Biomass

(c) Geothermal Energy

(d) Nuclear Energy

116. One of the following is known as reproduction by regeneration. Find out

(a) It takes place in unicellular organisms only.

(b) Body breaks into pieces. Each piece divides and develops into a new unit.

(c) Body breaks into pieces, each part divide, specialize and develops into a new unit.

(d) Body breaks into pieces and each piece acts as new individual.

117. The maximum number of individuals that can be supported in a given

environment is known as —

(a) Population Climax

(b) Population Concentration,

(c) Optimum Population

(d) Carrying Capacity

118. At high attitude, the erytherocytes in human blood—

(a) Increases in Size

(b) Increases in numbers

(c) Decreases in Size

(d) Decrease in number

119. DNA is regarded as genetic material because—

(a) It is present in every organism

(b) Is it essential part of Gene

(c) It is bearer of heriditary character

(d) It has the capacity to self- replicate

120. All those animals who can see well at-night have the abundance of—

(a) Cone Cells (b) Rod Cells

(c) Night-Pigments (d) All

121. Both Photosynthesis and Respiration requires—

(a) Sun Light (b) Oxygen

(c) Carbohydrate

(d) Cytochrome

122. Seedless fruits can be produced by

(a) Parthenogenesis

(b) Triploidy

(c) Apomixis

(d) All

123. The deadly gas leaked in Bhopal in 1984 was

(a) Potassium Isothiocyanate

(b) Sodium Isocyanate

(c) Ethyl Isothiocyanate

(d) Methyl Isocyanate

124. The role of double fertilization in angiosperm is to produce—

(a) Fruit (b) Seed

(c) Cotyledons (d) Endosperms

125. When an animal has the characters of Both male and female, it is known

as

(a) Inter sex (b) Double sex

(c) Gynandromorph

(d) None

B. SOCIAL SCIENCES AND HUMANITIES

126. Read the following statements :

(a) The Aryan civilization was different from the Harappan culture.

(b) The most important difference was with regard to urban life.

Which of the following is correct ?

(a) A is false but B is true.

(b) A is true but B is false.

(c) Both A and B are true,

(d) Both A and B are false.

127. Which among the following rulers were the first to issue gold coins in India ?

(a) Mauryas (b) Kushans

(c) Guptas (d) Cholas

128. Which of the following is Not matched correctly ?

(a) Meghadoot – Kalidas

(b) Mudrarakshasa – Vishnugupta

(c) Arthashastra- Kautilya

(d) Harshacharita – Banabhatta

129. The Delhi Sultanate acheived its maximum territorial extend under:

(a) Balban

(b) Alauddin Khilji

(c) Mohammad bin Tughluq

(d) Firoj Shah

130. Which of the following Medieval Indian rulers was the first to

introduce major reforms in the Land-Revenue system ?

(a) Alauddin Khilji

(b) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq

(c) Sher Shah

(d) Akbar

131. Read the following statements.

(a) Akbar developed friendly relations with Rajput rulers.

(b) He appointed Rajputs as military Commanders

Which of the following is correct ?

(a) A is false but B is true.

(b) A is true but B is false.

(c) Both A and B are correct.

(d) Both A and Bare false.

132. Who was the first Mughal Emperor to conduct compaigns in Central Asia ?

(a) Humayun (b) Jahangir

(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb

133. Arrange in correct chronological sequence :

(a) Third Battle of Panipat

(b) Invasion of Nadir Shah

(c) Battle of Plassey

(d) Battle of Buxar

Which of the following order is correct ?

(a) A,B,C,D (b) B,A,C,D

(c) C,A,B,D (d) A,C,B,D

134. The Last major Indian Kingdom conquered by the English East India

Company was:

(a) Mysore (b) Nagpur

(c) Punjab (d) Awadh

135. Which of the following city was Not an important centre of the war of

1857?

(a) Delhi (b) Lucknow

(c) Kanpur (d) Amritsar

136. Who among the following was Not an important leader of the war of

1857 in Bihar ?

(a) Kunwar Singh

(b) Amar Singh

(c) PirAli

(d) Bakhat Khan

137. Mahatma Gandhi lauched the Champaran Satyagraha to ?

(a) expel the British land-owner

(b) get land-reforms introduced

(c) protect the interest of the Indian landowners

(d) protect the peasant exploited by indigo-plauters.

GEOGRPHY

138. Which of the following are correctly matched ?

(a) Gneiss-Metamorphic

(b) Basalt-Igneous

(c) Sandstone-Sedimentary

(d) Granite-Intrusive

Select the correct alternative from the following

(a) A,B and C (b) B,C and D

(c) A ,B, C and D

(d) A B and D

139. London is situated at 0° longitude while Patna is 85° east of London.

What time will be at Patna if it is 10 A.M. in London ?

(a) 10.00P.M. (b) 3.40P.M.

(c) 5.40P.M. (d) 4.20A.M.

140. Match the following ?

Name of Volcano Places

(a) Cotopaxy (I) Hawai

(b) Vesuvius (II) Andese

(c) Popa (III) Italy

(d) Mauna Loa (IV) Myanmar

Which one of the following alternatives is correct ?

A B C D

(a) II III IV I

(b) II III I IV

(c) III II IV I

(d) II IV III I

141. Which of the following is connected to Pamir knot ?

(a) Jagros Mountain

(b) Pontic Mountain

(c) Taurus Mountain

(d) Ural Mountain

142. Which of the following is not an alluvial plain ?

(a) Irrawaddy (b) Menam

(c) Si-Kiang (d) Tarim Basin

143. Which of the following part of Asia is in the Southern Hemisphere ?

(a) Malaya (b) Jawa

(c) Sarawak (d) Sabah

144. Which of the following are correctly matched ?

Country Race

(a) Arab : Sematic

(b) Srilanka : Bedda

(c) India : Drawid

(d) Japan : Mongol

Which one of the following alternatives is correct ?

(a) A, B and C (b) B,C and D

(c) A, B, C and D (d) A,C and D

145. Which of the following group of rivers fall in the Bay of Bengal ?

(a) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Hobghly

(b) Ghaghara, Brahmaputra , Hooghly

(c) Bhagirathi, Kosi, Subarnerekha

(d) Yamuna, Ganga, Gandak

146. Which of the following are correctly matched ?

Hill/Mountain Peak

(a) Nilgiri Doda Betta

(b) Anaimalai Anai Mudi

(c) Himalayas Godwin Austen

(d) Aravalli Pachmarhi

Which one of the following alternative is correct ?

(a) A,B and C (b) B,C and D

(c) A,C and D (d) A, B,C and D

147. Which of the following places are centres of Iron and Steel Industry?

(a) Kulti-Burnpur, Jamshedpur, Kanpur

(b) Jamshedpur, Kolkatta, Bhadravati

(c) Durgapur, Rourkela, Ahmadabad

(d) Kulti-Burnpur, Jamshedpur, Bhadrvati

148. Match the following :

District Hills

(a) Munger (I) Someshwar

(b) Nalanda (II) Barabar

(c) Paschim

Champaran (III) Rajgir

(d) Gaya (IV) Kharagpur

Which one of the following alternative is correct ?

A B C D

(a) IV III II I

(b) IV III I II

(c) III IV I II

(d) III IV II I

CIVIS

149. Which of the following protects .the fundamental right of the Indian

citizen ?

(a) Parliament

(b) Supreme Court

(c) Cabinet

(d) Consititution

150. Which of the following constitution has not influenced Indian

Constitution

(a) Constitution of Canada

(b) Constitution of Ireland

(c) American Constitution

(d) Japanese Constitution

151. The main aim for adopting parliamentary type of government in

India is -

(a) Pressure of the British Government

(b) Pressure of Political Parties

(c) Historical reasons and practical conveniences

(d) None of the above

152. Secularism in Indian Constitution means

(a) State is religious

(b) Impartiality to religions

(c) State is and religious

(d) None of the above

153. The Constitution of India is protected by

(a) Parliament (b) President

(c) Supreme Court (d) Prime Minister

154. Which one of the following is a right feature of Directive Principles of

State Policy.

(a) Protected by judiciary

(b) the state must enforce them

(c) It is the duty of the state to follow them

(d) Prior permission of the president is necessary to implement them.

155. What is the real position of the Indian President ?

(a) He is the real head of the state

(b) He is the head of the state and government both

(c) He is the constitutional head of the state

(d) He is the head of the majority party

156. During Emergency the fundamental rights of the Indian Citizens.

(a) depends on the will of the Supreme Court

(b) depends on the will of the president

(c) can be suspended

(d) lose their importance

157. In the Constitution of India Judiciary is

(a) independent

(b) under the control of the parliament

(c) under the control of the president

(d) None of the above

158. Traffic in human beings is a punishable offence under the constitution

of India, which fundamental rights mentions this provision

(a) Right to freedom

(b) Right against exploitation

(c) Right to equality

(d) Right to Constitutional remeddies

159. Which one of the following is not a feature of social justice

(a) providing economic security to all sections of the people

(b) providing special privileges for economically depressed people

(c) providing educational facilities to all the children

(d) dividing society on caste line

160. Indian Constitution provides for welfare state where is it

mentioned?

(a) Fundamental rights

(b) Directive Principles of state policy

(c) Union government

(d) Indian judiciary

MATHEMATICS

161. The least number of six digits which is a perfect square is-

(a) 100464 (b) 100481

(c) 100449 (d) 100489

162. The simplest form of

30.027 0.09

0.008 0.04 is

(a) 0.5 (b) 1.5

(c) 0.05 (d) 1.0

163. Some toffees are bought at the rate of 11 for Rs 10 and the same

number at the rate of 9 for Rs. 10. If the whole lot is sold at the rate of one rupee per

toffee, the gain/loss on the whole transaction is

(a) Loss 1 % (b) Loss 5%

(c) Gain 2% (d) Gain 5%

164. What price should a shopkeeper Gopal mark on a chair which costs him Rs.

1200 so as to gain 12% after allowing a discount of 16%?

(a) Rsl550 (b) Rs 1600

(c) Rs 1800 (d) Rs 1650

165. Simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 6.5% per annum is Rs.

5200. What will be the compound interest on that sum at the same rate for the

same time period?

(a) Rs5300 (b) Rs5500

(c) Rs5569 (d) Rs5369

166. One of the factors of the expression

(2a + 5b)3 + (2a – 5b)3 would be ?

(a) 4a (b) Wb

(c) 2a + 5b (d) 2a-5b

167. Sum of the digit of a two digit number is 9. The number obtained v by

interchanging the digit becomes 7

4 times the given number by 27, the number is -

(a) 81 (b) 45

(c) 36 (d) 27

168. Each side of a square is 5 cm. The perimenter of the equilateral

triangle formed on the diagonal of the square would be -

(a) 15cm (b) 20cm

(c) 20 2 cm (d) 15 2 cm

169. In the below figure L M, M N a n d 0p 65 the value of x is

(a) 65°

(b) 115°

(c) 25°

(d) 45°

170. Diagonal DB of a rhombus ABCD is equal to one of its sides.

The values of /A is -

(a) 30° (b) 60°

(c) 120° (d) 90°

171. In the below figure O is the centre of the circle and ABC = 40°, the

value of AOC is

(a) 20°

(b) 40°

(c) 60°

(d) 80°

172. A thin wire is bent into the form of a circle of radius 7 cm. If a square is

made out of this wire, the side of the square would be -

(a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm

(c) 11cm (d) 22cm

173. A lawn is in the form of a square of side 30 m. A cow is tied with a rope

of 10 m to a pole standing at one of its corner. The maximum area of the lawn

grazed by this cow is

(a) 300m2 (b) 150m2

(c) 78.5m2 (d) 450m2

174. Curved surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 4.4 m2 If the

diameter of the base of the cylinder is 1.4 m, the total outer surface area of the

cylinder would be

(a) 7.48m2 (b) 5.80m2

(c) 5.94m2 (d) 8.80m2

175. The diameter of the base of a Joker's conical cap is 24 cm. If its height is 9 cm,

the area of the paper required is approximately

(a) 216cm2 (b) 500cm2

(c) 550cm2 (d) 562.8cm2

176. A hemispherical bowl is made of steel, 0.25 cm thick. The inner radius

of the bowl is 5 cm. The outer curved surface area of the bowl is approximately

(a) 125cm2 (b) 173cm3

(c) 125.25 cm2 (d) 175 cm2

177. From a square metal sheet of side 28 cm, a circular sheet of largest

possible radius is cut off, the area of the remaining sheet is

(a) 784cm2 (b) 78.4cm2

(c) 168cm2 (d) 84cm2

178. A right triangle of sides 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm is revolved about the side 12

cm. Volume of the solid so formed is (π = 3.14)

(a) 314cm3 (b) 157cm3

(c) 628cm3 (d) 471cm3

179. A cone, a right Cylinder and a hemisphere stand on equal bases and

have the same height. Their volumes are in the ratio

(a) 1:2:3 (b) 1:3:2

(c) 2 :3 :1 (d) 2 :1 : 3

180. The mean of six numbers is 15. If 2 is taken away from every number, the

new mean would be

(a) 13 (b) 4

(c) 17 (d) 8

ANSWERS