Model Question

General Awareness 1. The former Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High

Court, , assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes. 1) MM Punchhi 2) KG Balakrishnan 2) Jiwan Narayan Reddy 4) Makani Narayana Rao 5) None of these

2. The former Chief Justice of India, , took over as the sixth Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). 1) SR Pandian 2) SH Kapadia 3) KG Balakrishnan 4) Vinod Rai 5) None of these

3. They are called Alpha Hawks, and they have been specially trained to fight Naxalites in their strongholds in l)Jharkhand 2) Maharashtra 3)Orissa 4) West Bengal 5) None of these

4. Which of the following statements are true about this year's French Open? A. Rafael Nadal avenged last year's shock defeat — his

only loss ever at Roland Garros-— by crushing Robin Soderling 6-4,6-2,6-4 to claim his 5th French Open title and 7th Grand Slam title

B. Nadal is only the second man after Bjorn Borg (who finished with 6) to win 5 French Opens.

C. He also regained the World No. 1 ranking from Roger Federer, who remains one week short of equalling Pete Sampras's record of a total of286 weeks as the top-ranked player.

1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) All the above 5) None of these

5. The Centre on Jun 11 raised more than as the 16-day auction of Broadband Wireless Access (BWA) spectrum came to an end. l)Rs 12,000 cr 2) Rs 26,300 cr 3) RsRs 38,600 cr 4) Rs 49,200 cr 5) None of these

6. The Mukesh Ambani-led RIL entered the telecom arena on Jun 11, announcing a acquisition of Infotel that only hours earlier emerged as the sole winner of pan-India broadband spectrum. l)Rs2,200-cr 2)Rs4,800-cr 3)Rs6,100-cr 4) Rs 8,000-cr 5) None of these

7. Name the Indian agency whose team has travelled to the United States to interrogate the Mumbai terror attacks suspect, David Coleman Headley, and which was provided with seven days' access to him between Jun 3 and 10. 1) National Investigation Agency 2) Central Bureau of Investigation 3) Research and Analysis Wing 4) Intelligence Bureau 5) None of these

8. In its first legal intervention in the Bhopal gas tragedy case, the government formed a five-member committee of legal experts to study various aspects of the lower court's judgment. l)Chhattisgarh 2) MP 3) Chhattisgarh 4) UP 5) None of these

9. The Union government has appointed retired IAS officer Wilfred Lakara and former state Director General of Police Rajiv Ranjan Prasad as advisors for , which was placed under President's rule. l)Manipur 2) Meghalaya 3)Goa 4) Jharkhand 5) None of these

10. Benigno Aquino III has been appointed as the new President of

1) Thailand 2) Singapore 3) The Philippines 4) Myanmar 5) None of these

11. Name the former banker who has been appointed chairman of interim pension regulator PFRDA. 1) Dhanendra Kumar 2) Yogesh Agarwal 3) Hari Narayan 4) CV Bhave 5) None of these

12. After roping as its first institutional partner in the unique identification (UID) project, the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDA1) is looking at banks as its partners in the project. 1)LIC 2)BajajAllianz 3) ICICI Prudential 4) SBI Life 5) None of these

13. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has slapped a penalty of on Manmohan Sherry, well-known film producer and former chairman of media company Adlabs Films, for allegedly violating SEBI's insider trading norms in 2006. l ) R s l c r 2 ) R s 2 c r 3 )Rs3c r 4) Rs 4 cr 5) None of these

14. The government on Jun 9 said that it would 1 ist public sector companies on the stock markets over the next five years. The move would generate about Rs 1.5 lakh cr in revenues for the government. 1)20 2)25 3)30 4)35 5) None of these

15. Name the state govt which returned to Gujarat the Rs 5 cr the Narendra Modi govt had given for the state being devastated by flood in 2008. 1) Bihar 2)UP 3) West Bengal 4) Karnataka 5) None of these

16. The United Nations Security Council slapped new sanctions on a defiant in a bid to coerce the West Asian nation to halt its suspect nuclear fuel activities. 1) Pakistan 2) Libya 3) Iran 4) North Korea 5) None of these

17. Chief Election Commissioner of India NavinChawla met the first voter of independent India, , at Kalpa

BankPO

village in Kinnaur district. Chawla was on a visit to Himachal Pradesh for the diamond jubilee celebrations of the Election Commission of India. 1) Shyam Saran 2) Kishore Kumar 3) Nanu Ram 4) Chet Singh 5) None of these

18. Which company has became the world's fifth largest mobile operator by subscribers as it completed its $ 10.7-billion acquisition of Kuwaiti firm Zain Group's mobile operations in 15 countries across Africa? l)Vodafone 2) Tata 3)BhartiAirtel 4)BSNL 5) None of these

19. India's economy is expected to grow in 2011 with South Asia poised to become the second-fastest growing region after East Asia & Pacific, says the latest World Bank update. The region as a whole is expected to grow by about 7% in 2010 and nearly 8% in 2011, says the South Asia Economic Update 2010, the World Bank's first yearly assessment of the economies of the region released in Colombo. 1)5% 2)7% 3)9% 4)11% 5) None of these

20. Name Japan's new Prime Minister who has affirmed that he would "resolve" the status of a controversial US air base "in accordance with the agreement" that Tokyo and Washington announced on May 28. 1) Naoto Kan 2) Tre Hargett 3) Juan Monaco 4) Clotilde Reiss 5) None of these

21. Name the State Bank of India Chairman who has been elected the new Chairman of the Indian Banks, Association (IBA) for 2010-11. 1) AK Purwar 2) OP Bhatt ' 3 ) YV Reddy 4) N Chandra 5) None of these

22. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has announced a slew of sops amounting to over for Jammu and Kashmir, assuring the state that the Centre would do all it could to support it. l )Rs250cr 2)Rs500cr 3)Rs750cr 4) Rs 1,000 cr 5) None of these

23. Seeking to focus on rural tour ism to generate employment, income and promoting new destinations by exhibiting ancient heritage and culture of the hills, the has launched the "Har Gaon Ki Kahani" scheme at the national level. 1) Uttarakhand 2) Himachal Pradesh 3) J&K 4) Chhattisgarh 5) None of these

24. Wenlock and Mandeville are the mascots associated with 1) Commonwealth Games 2012 2) London Olympics 2012 3) Asian Games 2012 4) FIFA World Cup 2014 5) None of these

25. Name the Goa tourism minister who resigned from the Cabinet over allegations of his involvement in the death of a woman. 1) Fransisco Pacheco 2) JK Dadoo 3)NeiphiuRio 4) KV Thomas 5) None of these

26. Who among the following has won the women's singles title in the French Open recently? 1) Serena Williams 2) Venus Williams 3) Justine Henin 4) Francesca Schiavone

5) None of these 27. The Centre has made it a must for listed companies to

raise public holdings to , a move that may give investors a chance to buy stocks of big firms at lower prices. 1)10% 2)15% 3)20% 4)25% 5) None of these

28. Which of the following statements are true about the pacts signed by India and South Africa recently? A, India and South Africa signed three pacts and agreed

to support each other's candidature in the elections to the rotating non-permanent seats of the United Nations Security Council.

B. At a summit-level meeting, Prime Minister, Manmohan Singh and visiting South Africa President Jacob Zuma resolved to step up bilateral cooperation as well as greater coordination at multilateral fora.

C Both s ides dec ided to cont inue discussing resumption of full-fledged defence ties, which suffered a setback after the blacklisting of a major South African firm from defence tenders. They also agreed on the need to expand the Brazil-Russia-India-China grouping to include South Africa.

D. In the civil nuclear sector, talks between nuclear power operators of both countries would continue as country-level cooperation was inhibited by an African treaty that bars business with countries that have not signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.

l ) O n l y A , B & C 2 ) O n l y B , C & D 3 ) O n l y A , C & D 4) Only A, B & D 5) All 'the above

29. Name the prime minister of Japan who resigned, citing his failure to stay in step with the people's wishes 1) Naoto Kan 2) Yukio Hatoyama 3) Wen J iabao 4) Yukio Nakata 5) None of these

30. Visiting South Africa President Jacob Zuma sought a quantum jump in bilateral trade to $10 billion by

between his country and India. Bilateral trade, valued at $ 1.3 billion in 2000-01, crossed the $7-billion mark in 2008-09. 1)2012 2)2014 3)2016 4)2018 5) None of these

31. Whenever RBI does some Open Market Operation transaction, actually it wishes to regulate which of the following? 1) Inflation only 2) Liquidity in economy 3) Borrowing powers of the banks 4) Flow of Foreign Direct Investments 5) None of these

32. The maximum amount of the total revenue earned by the government of India comes from: 1) Income Tax 2) Customs Duty 3) Excise Duty 4) Value Added Tax 5) Corporate Tax

33. In economics it is generally believed that the main objective of a Public Sector Financial Company like Bank is to 1) employ more and more people 2) maximise total foreign exchange 3) maximise total production 4) provide financial service to the people of the nation

of its origin across the country 5) None of these

34. What is Repo Rate? 1) It is the rate at which RBI sell government securities

to banks. 2) It is the rate at which banks borrow rupees from the RBI. 3) It is the rate at which RBI allows small loans in the

market. 4) It is the rate which is offered by banks to their most

valued customers or prime customers. 5) None of these

35. The 11 th Five Year Plan is termed as the Plan for 1) Improving India's health 2) Eradication of poverty from India 3) India's education 4) Development of urban India 5) None of these

36. Who amongst the following gave the concept of PURA (Providing Urban facilities in Rural Areas)? 1) Rajiv Gandhi 2) Manmohan Singh 3) APJ Abdul Kalam 4) Sonia Gandhi 5) None of these

37. Bharat Nirman does not cover which of the following areas? 1) Rural employment 2) Rural housing 3) Rural water supply 4) Irrigation facilities 5) Electricity

38. Which of the following countries is NOT the member of Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)? 1) South Korea 2) Canada 3) China 4) India 5) USA

39. The compulsory Education Act will ensure education to children up to the age of l)10years 2)14years 3)8years 4) 6 years 5) None of these

40. Which of the following books has been written by Arun Shourie? 1) Imagining India 2) A Good Woman 3) Between the Assassinations 4) The White Tiger 5) Worshipping False Gods

41. Product mix means 1) Distributing a mix of products 2) Collecting ideas to sell better 3) Satisfying the customers 4) Bundle of products required by the customer 5) Various products designed by a company

42. Selling skills are judged by the 1) Number of goods sold 2) Amount of profit earned 3) Number of customers converted 4) All of the above 5) None of these

43. Rural Marketing involves 1) Selling to rural banks 2) Selling by rural banks 3) Selling to rural customers 4) Arranging industrial exhibitions 5) All of the above

44. Direct Marketing is necessary for 1) Having a focussed approach to marketing 2) Boosting sales 3) Better customer contacts 4) All of the above 5) None of these

45. Marketing of Internet Banking means

1) Meeting of Banks on the Net 2) Net practice 3) Marketing the usage of Banking transactions through

Internet 4) Transactions with foreign countries 5) All of the above

46. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n) 1) version 2) patch 3) tutorial 4) FAQ 5) None of these

47. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to data. 1) present 2) input 3) output 4) store 5) None of these

48. Which of the following terms refers to just the connection of networks that can be joined together ? 1) virtual private network 2) internet 3) intranet 4) extranet 5) None of these

49. is a form of permanent memory that holds all the instructions the computer needs to start up and does not get erased when the power is turned off. 1) The Network Interface Card (NIC) 2) The CPU 3) RAM 4) ROM 5) None of these

50. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a 1) network 2) mainframe 3) supercomputer 4) client 5) None of these

English Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the following passage care­

fully and answer the questions given below it Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

All children are created worthy and they deserve the right to enjoy respect and dignity. It can be done! Unfortu­nately, the current epidemic of self-doubt that's rampant in our society is the result of an unjust and unnecessary sys­tem of evaluating human worth. Not everyone is deemed worthy, not everyone is accepted for what he or she is. In­stead, we reserve our praise and admiration for a select few — those who have been blessed from birth with the prover­bial silver spoon.

It is a vicious system and we, as parent, must counter its debilitating impact. If only we could understand what the children undergo as a result of the flawed values on which self-esteem is so often based in our culture! We must, in fact, recognise how effectively and unknowingly we teach our small children that worthiness and social approval are be­yond their reach.

By glorifying role models who represent an ideal and not a minimum norm, we have only created a vast army of have-nots—bom losers who're disappointed with life be­fore it has really begun. They turn this way and that, search­ing vainly for a solution to their inner emptiness and pain. For millions who never find either, the road to personal worth becomes a long, unpaved detour, leading to nowhere.

56. What do you mean by the first sentence — "All children are created worthy and they deserve the right to enjoy respect and dignity"? 1) We should not create any class or division among

the children and give all of them just treatment. 2) Children of lesser gods deserve better treatment. 3) All children can achieve the given targets. 4) All is not well with the children, so they should be

looked after. 5) None of these

57. In what way can parents help their children become worthy human beings? 1) They can p rov ide them best schooling and

educational facilities. 2) They should give their children some targets to

achieve. 3) They should tell their children about the achievements

of great people. 4) They should ask their children to compete with others. 5) None of these

58. The society will become free of disorder when 1) there will be no burden of education on children. 2) each individual will be acceptable to the society in

his/her personal capacity. 3) there will be healthy competition among individuals. 4) parents will give up expectations from their children. 5) individuals will perform at their best.

59. The author of the passage seems to be a 1) philosopher 2) sociologist 3) psychologist 4) philanthropist 5) feminist Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word which is the same

in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 60. RAMPANT

1) peculiar 2) widespread 3) distinguished 4) striking 5) common

61. DEEMED l)born 2) fortunate 3) privileged 4) categorised 5) considered

62. COPE 1) sustain 2) practise 3) manage 4) evolve 5) appear Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word which is the

opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage. 63. VICIOUS

1) gentle 2) opportune 3) basic 4) dwelling 5) yielding

64. BEYOND 1) inside 2) towards 3) along 4) beside 5) within

65. EASE 1) luxury 2) headache 3) pain 4) discomfort 5) annoyance Directions (Q. 66-75): In each of the following sentences

there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully

The matter of personal worth is not only the concern of those who lack it, but also the responsibility of those who believe in it. In a real sense, the health of an entire society depends on the ease with which its individual members can gain personal acceptance. Thus, whenever the keys of self-esteem are seemingly out of reach for a substantial percent­age of the people as is evident in the West, then mental illnesses, especially neurosis, hatred, alcoholism, drug abuse, violence and social disorder, are bound to be widespread.

Personal worth is not something human beings are free to take or leave. Itmust become a part of our personalities, or each one of us will have to endure the repercussions of its absence. With the proper use of parental influence and direction, we can provide our children with the inner strength necessary to over­come the obstacles they face. We can open the road to self-es­teem and personal worth for our children. Perhaps we won't be able to reconstruct the world, but we could certainly help our children cope with it a wee bit more successfully. 51. What happens when we evaluate human worth in the

case of children? 1) Children compete with each other to gain excellence

in their respective fields. 2) Children want to become icons. 3) A sense of agony and depression prevails among a

large number of children who cannot make it to the top. 4) Children become violent and reject the theory. 5) None of these

52. How does glorifying the role models affect children? 1) Even before grooming them we force them into an

undue competition. 2) They give up their study tO/-follow the role models. 3) They mistake the role models for super human beings. 4) They always dream about the role models. 5) None of these

53. According to the author, which of the following is a flaw in our system? 1) parents becoming role models for their children 2) keeping children out of competition 3) not giving attention towards children 4) treating children as robots 5) None of these

54. When there is undue competition among the individuals of a society, 1) it gains advancement. 2) the health of the society suffers. 3) there is little chance of excellence. 4) there are no parameters of judgment. 5) everyone should take Dart in it.

• 55. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage? 1) Evaluation of human worth is good for us. 2) Parents have a great role to play in shaping the future

of their children. 3) We should convince the children to follow some role

models in their life. 4) Some children are dull and it is worthless to let them

pursue their goals. 5) None of these

complete. 66. It is to blame Gandhiji or his philosophy for

the ills our society today. 1) ridiculous, plaguing 2) depressing, surrounding 2) critical, facing 4) chaotic, haunting 5) troublesome, affecting

67. Of there have been many instances where the judiciary has taken upon the responsibility of executive actions. 1) now, punishing 2) time, penalising 3) late, directing 4) recent, dictating 5) course, preaching

68. Every problem has to be with the country's in mind and not those of only a section of the

people. 1) discussed, scenarios 2) marked, development 3) diagnosed, geography 4) solved, interests 5) evolved, secularism

69. Bihar has long the of being the 'dark continent' in the heartland of India. 1) proposed, label 2) brandished, question 3) acquired, distinction 4) subjected, theory 5) evolved, trend

70. While framing our laws, it is important that we bear in mind the ground realities and take into the level to which corruption has into our system. 1) judiciary, blown 2) legalise, breached 3) court, creeped 4) account, seeped 5) direction, flourished

71. There are attempts being made to the powers of the judiciary and hand them over to the executive. 1) ample, tarn ish 2) multiple, exercise 3) precious, dictate 4) varied, polarise 5) subtle, hijack

72. In the security environment that India, national institutions have a crucial role to play. 1) burning, engulfs 2) delicate, confronts 3) weak, haunt 4) fierce, demarcates 5) baffling, suppresses

73. In some areas, the victims are still to out to lodge their complaints. 1) horrific, come 2) unyielding, focus 3) scared, venture 4) vehement, break 5) fearsome, march

74. The sudden of v io lence in the region strengthens fears that terrorists from across the border have started into our territory. 1) eruption, sneaking 2) incidents, attacking 3) surge, campaigning 4) occurrence, hij acking 5) fusion, dictating

75. We need to a policy framework in our country which innovation and diffusion. 1) combine, compares 2) deliver, adheres 3) emancipate, diagnoses 4) divulge, empowers 5) evolve, encourages Directions (Q. 76-85): In the following passage there

are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These num­

bers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropri­ately. Find out the appropriate words.

In Islamic countries, there are instances of 76 of mosques for one or the other 77. What could be the 78 reason for Muslims not to 79 when the Babri Masjid was neither archi­tecturally important nor a place where the Prophet was born? Even the historic Bilal mosque in Saudi Arabia has been shifted for the extension of King Fahd's palace. In Pakistan, mosques and graves are shifted while 80 railway lines, and 81 bridges and roads. The need of the 82 is to bury the 83 and 84 the differences in a 85 of give and take. 76. 1) building 2) worshipping 3) demolition

4) shifting 5) approval 77. 1) religion 2) reason 3) symbol

4) monument 5) compulsion 73. 1) prime 2) unique 3) logical

4) converging 5) compelling 79. l )bend 2) oppose 3) criticise

4) protest 5) pacify 80. 1) planning 2) building 3) constructing

4) supplying 5) laying 81. 1) rising 2) building 3) developing

4) shifting 5) completing 82. 1) community 2) secularism 3) hour

4) problem 5) hostility 83. 1) hatchet 2) religion 3) gravity

4) feeling 5) devastation 84. 1) abolish 2) uproot 3)deny

4)resolve 5) behold 85. 1) moment 2) bargain 3) spirit 4) term 5) practice

Directions (Q. 86-90): In the following questions four al­ternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it as your answer. If none of the alter­natives are correct, mark 5), ie None of these, as your answer. 86. To clear the decks

1) To make room for something 2) To clear the confusion 3) To remove obstructions 4) To take a final decision 5) None of these

87. Maiden speech 1) Speech with exclusive inputs 2) Speech given by a pleasant woman 3) Humorous speech 4) First speech by a person 5) None of these

88. To grease a person's palm 1) To bribe 2) To cheat 3) To punish 4) To fool 5) None of these

89. To build castles in the air 1) To lose touch with the ground realities 2) To fortify oneself to the utmost 3) To make plans that are unlikely to succeed 4) To behave like infants 5) None of these

90. To muse on 1) To indulge on 2) To have second thoughts 3) To develop a rhythm 4) To think deeply about 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 91-95): In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer. 91. 1. Given the grave inequity in the society

P. in the society that came Q. it was imperative to prepare R. debilitating and oppressive forces 5. an effective strategy to counter the 6. in the way of women's development. 1)PQRS 2)SRQP 3)QSRP 4)RPQS 5)PSQR

92. 1. These awareness campaigns facilitated them P. to have better understanding of the problems Q. in the day-to-day life and helped them to R. realise their inherent capabilities and contributed for 5. to protect themselves against injustice 6. the strengthening of the institution of family. 1)PSRQ 2)SPQR 3)RQPS 4)QRPS 5)PSQR

93. 1. To help women become P. it is necessary to identify Q. the areas where skill and R. more competitive to face 5. the challenges of globalisation 6. quality upgradation is required. 1)RSPQ 2)PSQR 3)QRPS 4)PQSR 5)SRPQ

94. 1. In fact, globalisation has introduced P. and our art and craft products Q. extremely difficult to R. new levels of competition 5. are finding it 6. sustain this competition. 1)QRPS 2)RPSQ 3)QSRP 4)QRSP 5)RPQS

95. 1. The main thrust of the movement P. so that he enjoys Q. which has to focus on R. has to be consumer education 5. the right of the consumer 6. rightful status in the society. 1)QSPR 2)SRQP 3)PQRS 4)RQPS 5)RQSP Directions (Q. 96-100): Read each sentence to find out

whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in

one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.) 96. 1) It is the largest economic activity 12) next only to

agriculture /3) providing with livelihood to /4) millions of families. /5) No error

97. 1) The teacher is shouting 12) for the last five minutes /3) but the students are /4) not in a mood to pay attention. / 5) No error

98. 1) We would request you kindly 12) to contact any of our members /3) to fix your place of convenience /4) to at­tend the presentation. /5) No error

99. 1) A large number of laws 12) have been enacted /3) for female infanticide /4) dowry demand and other such is­sues. /5) No error

100. 1) There should be/2) special attention devoted /3) to moral and ethical I A) education in our schools. /5) No error

136. The only product which is showing an increasing trend is 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

1)27 2)29 3)31 4)33 5)37 Directions (Q. 116-120): Find the wrong no. in the

following no. Series. 116. 1, 4, 12, 48, 144, 578, 1728

1)1728 2)578 3)144 4)48 5)12 117.210, 190, 172, 158, 142, 130, 120, 112

1)190 2)172 3)158 4)142 5)120 118.8, 11, 16, 24, 32, 43, 56, 71

1)71 2)56 3)43 4)32 5)24 119.1, 2, 10, 36, 101, 226

1)2 2)10 3)36 4)101 5)226 120.5, 10, 8, 24, 20, 84, 80, 400, 395

1)24 2)20 3)84 4)80 5)400 Directions (Q. 121-125): Each question is followed by

two statements. Give answer 1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II

alone is not sufficient. 2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I

alone is not sufficient. 3. If both statement I and II together are sufficient but

neither statement alone is sufficient. 4. If either statement alone is sufficient. 5. If statements I and II even together are not sufficient.

121. What is the average salary of A, B and C? I. A and B get equal salary and C's salary is half ofA's. II. C's salary is Rs 500 less than B's.

122. Is 'A is older than 'B ' ? I. ' C' is 10 years younger than ' A' and 5 years younger

than 'B ' . II. The average of A's and B's age is 25 years.

123. Is point 'C in the first quadrant? I. 'C lies within the circle with centre at the origin and

radius 2 units. II. 'C lies on the straight line 2x + 3y = 4.

124. Are the integers a, b, c, d and e, which have been written in the ascending order, consecutive? I. 'x ' is the average of five integers. II. x = b + 3

125. A tank contains 12 litres of water. Ifan inlet'A'and an outlet ' B' are opened at the same time, the tank is completely filled in 8 hrs. What is actual capacity of the tank? I. Pipe 'A alone takes 2hrs to fill the tank. II. If the tank is completely filled then pipe B alone takes

5 hrs to empty it. 126. There are 6 boys and 3 girls. In how many ways can they

be seated in a row so that all the three girls do not sit

together? 1)9! :6! 2 ) 9 ! - 3 ! 3 ) 9 ! 3 ! 4 ) 6 6 * 7 ! 5) None of these

127. A bag contains 3 red, 4 yellow and 5 green balls. 3 balls are drawn randomly. What is the probability that the drawn balls contains no red ball.

5) None of these

128. A man purchases 12 apples for Rs 8 and sells 8 apples for Rs 12. How much profit does he make? 1)25% 2)50% 3)75% 4)100% 5)125%

129. If the difference between CI and SI on a certain sum of money for three years at 5% per annum is Rs 61, what is the sum (in Rs)? 1)16000 2)12000 3)10000 4)8000 5)6000

130. A man deposits Rs 1000 in one bank at 8% pa and Rs 3000 in another bank at rate 4% pa. Find the rate of interest for the whole sum. 1)5% 2)6% 3)7% 4)7.5% 5) None of these

131. A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 100 m. When the policeman starts the chase, the thief also starts running. If the speed of thief be 4 kmh"1 and that of the policeman 10 kmh 1 , how far will the thief have to run before he is caught? 1) 66.66 m 2) 77.77 m 3) 68.62 m 4) 65.66 m 6) 67.5 m

132. The price of 28 chairs is equal to that of 6 tables. The price of 18 chairs and 3 tables together is Rs 4800. The total price of 15 chairs and 6 tables is l)Rs7450 2)Rs6850 3)Rs6450 4)Rsl940 5)Rsl240

133. A certain number of men can do a work in 40 days. If there were 5 men less it could be finished in 10 more days. How many men are there? 1)30 2)25 3)20 4)18 5) None of these

134. A man covers a certain distance on a scooter. Had he moved 6 km/h faster, he would have taken 30 minutes less. If he had moved 2 kmh"1 slower he would have taken 30 minutes more. What is the distance? l)18km 2)15km 3)12km 4)8km 5)6km

135. Two stations A and B are 200 km apart on a straight line. A train starts from 'A' towards ' B ' at the rate of 10 kmh"

5 hours later another train starts from ' B ' and travels towards 'A' at the rate of 5 kmh 1 . When will the first train meet the second train? l )10hrs 2)12hrs 3)15hrs 4)18hrs 5)20hrs Directions (Q. 136-140): Given below is a table of usage

of soaps in terms of number of persons over 5 years.

137. What is the average number of soap 'A' used per year in the period of 1994-1998? 1)500 2)480 3)450 4)420 5) None of these

138. The biggest jump in usage came in (in percentage) 1)'A'in 1996 alone 2) 'A'and 'D ' in 1996 & 1995 respectively 3 ) 'D ' in 1995 alone 4) 'A in 95 alone 5) None of these

139. In the year 1994 what is the average number of soaps used across all products? 1)410 2)405 3)395 4)385 5)380

140. What is the ratio of the total number of soaps used in 1995 to that in 1996? 1)8 :9 2 ) 9 : 8 3 ) 3 : 5 4 ) 5 : 3 5) None of these Directions (Q. 141-145): Following pie-chart shows the

monthly expenditure of a man on different items. His monthly income is Rs 20000.

141. How much (in Rs) does he spend on food items? 1)4800 2)5000 3)5200 4)*5400 5)5600

142. What is the difference (in Rs) of the amount he spends on food and that on education? 1)1200 2)1000 3)8000 4)600 5)400

143. The ratio of the amount he spent on medical to that he spent for rent. 1)3:2 2 ) 2 : 3 3 ) 3 : 5 4 ) 5 : 3 5) None of these

144. How much amount (in Rs) does he save monthly? 1)1600 2)2400 3)2800 4)3200 4) None of these

145. How much amount (in Rs) does he spend monthly? 1) 18400 2) 17200 3) 16800 4) 16400 5) None of these Directions (Q. 146-150): Fallowing line graphs show

the number of students admitted and the number of students passed in a school from 1991 to 1995.

A Students admitted • Students Passed 400 T - . ^ n . . . . _ .

1991 1992 1993 1994 1995

146. % increase in passed students from 1993 to 1994 was 1)66.66% 2)77.77% 3)75% 4)84% 5) None of these

147. The average number of students passed from 1991 to 1995 was 1)222 2)225 3)227 4)229 5)231

148. The average number of students admitted from 1991 to 1995 was 1)294 2 ) 2 % 3)298 4)302 5) None of these

149. The number of total failed students from 1991 to 1995 was 1)315 2)320 3)325 4)330 5)335

150. The ratio of passed students to admitted students in 1992 was 1 )3 :5 2 ) 4 : 5 3 ) 2 : 3 4 ) 3 : 4 5) None of these

Test of Reasoning Directions (Q. 151-156): Study the following arrange­

ments of digits, letters and symbols and answer the ques­tions given below:

151. How many such consonants are there each of which is either immediately preceded by a number and/or imme­diately followed by a symbol? 1) Eight 2) Nine 3) Ten 4) Eleven 5) None of these

152. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

153. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

154. If each letter is replaced by the same-positioned letter from the right end of English alphabet and then each letter is assigned a number equivalent to its position in English alphabet, what would be the difference between

1) 3 males and 4 females 2) 4 males and 3 females 3) 5 males and 2 females 4) Can't say 5) None of these Directions (Q. 163-166): Study the following informa­

tion carefully and answer the questions given below it. I. Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a

circle facing towards the centre. A, B, C, D, F and G are sitting at equal distances from each other.

II. 'C is sitting two places right of ' F \ who is sitting one place right of ' D ' .

III. 'A' forms an angle of 90° (at centre) w ith 'E ' and an angle of 120° wi th 'B ' .

IV. 'B ' i s opposite 'G'. V. 'G ' is sitting on the immediate left of E

163. Who is sitting on the immediate right of ' C ? 1)G 2)E 3)D 4)B 5) None of these

164. Who is sitting on the immediate left o f 'D ' ? 1)F 2)G 3)B 4)A 5) None of these

165. Who is sitting opposite 'F '? 1)F 2)G 3)B 4) A 5) None of these

166. I f ' D ' a n d ' C interchange their positions, who will sit on the immediate left of B? 1)D 2)C 3)F 4)A 5) None of these Directions (Q. 167-170): Read the following informa­

tion carefully and answer the questions given below it. A, B, C, D, E and F are six friends. In which there are

three female members. Each female is an international player and the females are associated with three different games, ie Hockey, Cricket and Football. All of them went to a restau­rant to take dinner. Each female sat with a male counterpart at three different tables. Letters assigned to the tables are X, Y and Z: Study the following clues carefully:

I. Persons associated with the same game do not sit together at the same table.

1I. No two females are associated with the same gai III. ' B ' and 'E ' are associated with the same game bt,

not with football. IV. 'D ' is associated with cricket. V. 'E ' and 'A' are sitting at tables 'X ' and 'Z ' respectively

and are associated with the same game. VI. ' D ' is a female. She is not at table ' Y'. VII. 'C is a male. He is at table 'X' .

167. Which of the following groups denotes the males? 1)A,B,C 2 )B ,C ,D 3)C,D,E 4)D,E,F 5) None of these

168. 'C is associated with which of the following games? 1) Hockey 2) Football 3) Cricket 4) Can't say 5) None of these

169. Which of the following statements is not true? 1) 'A'and 'D ' are at the table "Z. 2) ' B ' and ' F' are at the table Y. 3) 'C and 'D ' are at the table X. 1) 'C is associated either with football or with crickei. 5) 'A' and ' B ' are associated with the same game.

170. 'A' and ' B ' are associated with which of the following

the sum of all the numbers of the first half of the series and that of the second half? 1)23 2)25 3)27 4)29 5) None of these

155. Each third element is deleted from the series. Now sup­pose 'a' is seventh to the left of fifteenth element from the left and 'b ' is the ninth to the right of third element from the left in the new series. Then which of the follow­ing will be exactly midway between 'a ' and ' b ' in the original series? 1)J 2)U 3)9 4)4 5) None of these

156. If each fourth element is deleted from the eries instead of the third then what would be the answi r of question no 155? 1)1 2) J 3)U 4)9 5) None of these

157. If the positions of the first and fifth digits in the number 56317249 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the sixth are interchanged, and so on, which of the following will be the sixth number from the right end? 1)4 2)6 3)3 4)2 5) None of these

158. In a certain code PROSENCEPHALON is written as QSPTFODVKSZOLM. HowisNESTORIANISM written in that code? 1) OFTVPSRZMRNH 2) OFTVPSRZMRHN 3)OETUPSRZMRHN 4)OFTUPSRZMRHN 5) None of these

159. The length, breadth and height of a regular wooden block are 9 cm, 8 cm and 7 cm respectively. The two opposite surfaces of 9 cm * 8 cm are coloured from outside by red. The two opposite surfaces of 8 cm * 7 cm are coloured from outside by blue. The remaining two surfaces of 9 cm x 7 cm are coloured from outside by green. If the block is cut in such a way that cubes of 1 cm * 1 cm x 1 cm are made, then which of the following statements is not true? 1) Eight cubes shall have all the three colours whereas

210 cubes shall not have any colour. 2) 24, 20 and 28 cubes shall have only two colours red

and blue, blue and green, and green and red respectively on their two sides.

3) 84 cubes shall have only one colour red. 4) 60 cubes shall have only one colour blue. 5) 56 cubes shall have only one colour green.

160. How many pairs of letters are there in the word INTRO­DUCTION which have the same number of letters be­tween them as in English alphabet? l)One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None of these

161. Ifit ispossible to makeameaningful word with the 1st, 2nd, 6th, 7th, 9th and 11th letters ofthe word ANDROECIUMS, using each letter only once, which of the following will be the fourth letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give 'X' as the answer. If no such word can be made, gi ve ' Y' as the answer. 1)U " 2)S 3)X 4)Y 5) None of these

games respectively? 1) Hockey and Cricket 2) Cricket and Football 3) Football and Hockey 4) Can't say 5) None of these Directions (Q. 171-175): In each question below is given

a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the s ta tement and the fol lowing as­sumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

1) if only assumption I is implicit. 2) if only assumption II is implicit. 3) if either I or II is implicit. 4) if neither I nor II is implicit. 5) if both I and II are implicit.

171. Statement: "The leader of country 'X' has sent his spe­cial envoy to the capital of country 'Y' , seeking the help of its PM to defuse the western crisis." — A report in a newspaper

Assumptions: I. 'Y' is one of the western countries which has responded positively in building international peace. II. Efforts made by the PM of 'Y' is likely to de­fuse the crisis in the western part of the country.

172. Statement: "With 17" PC monitor of company X, get Laxmark Z13 colour Inkjet Printer absolutely free wi th o n e - y e a r g u a r a n t e e p e r i o d . " — An advertisement

Assumptions: I. More people wil lnow be attracted towards 17" PC monitor of company X due to this scheme. II. The offer of providing free goods to the cus­tomers with some other goods of the company is likely to increase the sale of the company.

173. Statement: "A couple alone cannot produce a stable structure because the laws of equilibrium pre­scribe that a three-sided system is more stable than one with two sides." —Comments by a socialist on love marriages which do not enjoy the status of arranged marriages.

Assumptions: I. Arranged marriages are more in tune with the laws of equilibrium. II. Instable structure of marr iages are not desirable.

174. Statement: Along with the move to privatise public sector units running up losses, the government should adopt measures to utilise money to ame­liorate the condition of the downtrodden.

Assumptions: I. The nation may be above all else but its citizens are a significant part of it. II. Welfare of citizens is paramount.

175. Statement: "Medical and defence communities should always keep vigil as prompt diagnosis and early intervention could reduce morbidity and mortality and mitigate the ill-effects of a biological attack." — Mr 'X' m a k e s ' Y' aware of his opinion.

Assumptions: I. Biological attack is not desirable for society.

II. Medical and defence communities are equipped with the instruments of diagnosis.

Directions (Q. 176-180): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I follows. 2) if only conclusion II follows. 3) if either I or II follows. 4) if neither I nor II follows. 5) if both I and II follow.

176. Statement: A new legislation which we have implemented is that vote of no-confidence motion against a Prime Minister must be accompanied by the name of an alternative leader. — Govt of the country X

Conc lus ions I: Government of country X is desirous to reduce the problem of political instability. II. The move is likely to reduce the problem of frequent elections.

177. Statement: The Government has cut the interest rate on the General Provident Fund (GPF) and Special De­posit Scheme ( S D S ) from 9.5 to 9 percent. At the same time it has also reduced the interest on loans to government employees by hair a per cent.

Conc lus ions : I. N o w cheaper funds will be available from the Centre's coffers for those planning to construct or purchase a house or buy a vehicle or computer. II. The government employee will not be ready to invest their money into the scheme.

178. Statement: "While there is no harm in providing a safety-belt for international players, we need to pay more to our first-class players, especially as most of them are without jobs ." —A statement made by the BCCI treasurer

Conclus ions: I. Senior players already get huge amounts and giving them more makes little sense. II. All first-class players need more motivation than that needed by international players.

179. Statement: "Every Indian has to be a part of the global war on terrorism. We must, and we will, stamp out this evil from our land, and from the world." — PM of India

Conclus ions: I. People's participation will certainly re­duce the menace of terrorism. II. The PM of India is concerned with the problem of terrorism.

180. Statement: In a non-immunised child if the body loses the war against the polio virus, it is carried by the blood to the nervous system and when the ner­vous system loses the war against the polio vi­rus, the nerves which control the muscles are destroyed and this makes the child paralysed.

Conclusions: I. Immunisation programmes with a strong will power is likely to reduce the polio cases in the world.

II. In a non-immunised child, there are no anti­bodies present to restrict the virus attack on the internal part of the body.

Directions (Q. 181-185): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "Strong" arguments and "Weak" arguments in­sofar as they relate to the question. "Strong" arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. "Weak" arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.

Instructions: Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong. Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong. Give answer.(3) if either I or II is strong. Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is strong. Give answer (5) if both I and II are strong.

181. Statement: Should there be a screening test only for those doctors who get their qualification from foreign universities and want to practise in India?

Arguments: I. Yes, the move will be effective by con­trolling the quality of doctors coming into India. II. No, there is no similar screening procedure for Indian graduates.

182. Statement: Should there be a ban on Bt Cotton in India? Arguments: I. Yes, Bt Cotton is aimed at large farmers

and it is not useful for the tropical climate of India. II. No, many European countries have given their approval to use this for their farmers.

183. Statement: Should corruption-free services from the bureaucrats be made a fundamental right for the citizens of India?

Arguments: I. Yes, the move will eliminate corruption from the bureaucracy and bring happiness to the citizen. II. No, this will give a free hand to citizens to intervene in the work of bureaucracy and discour­age the bureaucrats.

184. Statement: Should there be reservation in Engineering and Medical colleges for those students who have pursued their education up to 10+2 from school/ college in rural areas?

Arguments: I. Yes, the real objective of reservation should be aimed at giving impetus to those stu­dents who lack some facilities. II. No, there exist already different categories for reservation; adding more to it will create confusion.

185. Statements Should there be a ban for the second term of presidency?

Arguments: I. Yes, new persons must be given chances. II. No, we should never make any changes in the Constitution made by forefathers.

Directions (Q. 186-190): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn

from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and uecide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer

1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

2) if the inference is 'probably t rue ' though not 'definitely true' in the light of the facts given.

3) if the data are inadequate, ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

4) if the inference is 'probably false' though not 'definitely false' in the light of the facts given.

5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts.

Gross Value Added per worker in agriculture has grown by 3.3 per cent per annum between 1993-94 and 1999-2000. The number of persons employed per 1000 population in rural areas declined from 444 to 417 and unemployment rate increased in case of rural male and females from 56 and 67 per cent respectively in 1993-94 to 72 and 73 respectively in 1999-2000. It shows clearly that in spite of a fairly high GDP growth rate during this period, there was sharp decline in rural em­ployment. The average number of days the rural male work­ers worked dropped from 331 days per annum in 1993-94 to 327 days per annum in 1999-2000. However, the average num­ber of days the rural female workers worked increased from 241 to 246 during the same period. 186. Income earned by males in 1999-2000 was not adequate

to support the family and females were compelled to work more than they did in 1993-94 to compensate for the meagre income earned by their male counterparts.

187. From 1993-94 to 1999-2000, the number of persons em­ployed per 1000 population in rural areas declined by 6.08 per cent.

188. Fairly high GDP growth rate causes sharp decline in ru­ral employment.

189. From 1993-94 to 1999-2000, the average number of days the rural female workers worked increased due to the development activities by the govt aimed at reducing female unemployment.

190. The relative position of agriculture labourers worsened during the 1990s. Directions (Q. 191-198): Read the following informa­

tion carefully and answer the following questions: Following are the criteria for organising interview of such

candidates as have been selected for the promotion to officer's grade from assistant grade in the PRS Industrial Group Limited:

The candidate to be called for interview must (i) be a graduate with minimum 50% marks. (ii) have minimum five years' experience. (iii) have obtained at least 'C ratings in performance

(speed of work) and the quality of work each during the last three years. For this five ratings A, B, C, D and E have been created on the basis of "Perfor-

mance Appra isa l R e p o r t " (PAR) with the lowest ratings of A and the highest rat ings of E.

(iv) have obtained at least ' D ' rat ings in the approach to work (dependabi l i ty) and in the flexibility of work each for his/her works in the last three years . For this, seven ratings A, B,C, D, E, F and G have been formulated on the basis of "Per formance Appraisal Repor t" with lowest rat ings of A and the highest ratings of G.

However, in case of a candidate w h o fulfils all the criteria EXCEPT

(a)(i) above, but has passed Graduat ion E x a m and has got ' E ' ratings in approach to work in the last three years , may be referred to the Assis tant Manage r (Personnel) .

(b) (ii) above, but has experience of three years in clerical cadre j o b and has got a t least ' D ' rat ings in the quality of work for his/her works in the last three yea r s , may be refer red to the D e p u t y M a n a g e r (Personnel) .

Based o n t he se c r i t e r i a a n d i n f o r m a t i o n p r o v i d e d agains t each c a n d i d a t e , dec ide t h e cou r se of ac t ion . You a r e not to assume anything. I f the da t a provided a r e not a d e q u a t e to dec ide t he given c o u r s e o f a c t i o n , y o u r a n s w e r will be " D a t a i n a d e q u a t e " . All t h e c a n d i d a t e s fulfil t h e c r i te r ion of age. Give a n s w e r

1) if data are inadequate . 2) if not to be selected. 3) if selected for the interview. 4) if the case is to be referred to the Assistant Manager . 5) if the case is to be referred to the Deputy Manager .

191. Ramesh Dutta is a young m a n and laborious assistant who jo ined this organisat ion seven years ago after pass­ing graduation with 4 5 % marks. He has h a d ' D ' grade for performance and ' E ' rat ing for the quality of work in Performance Appraisal Repor t for last f ive years . He has got ' E ' rating for dependabil i ty and ' F ' rating for flexibil­ity in the same PAR for the same number of years .

192. Vijay Tendulkar got the highest ma rks in graduat ion among all the students of his class. One of his friends got more than 5 0 % m a r k s in g radua t ion . He i s no t laborious but punctual and discipl ined. Despi te some of the negative characterist ics, he has got the same rating for performance and quali ty of work for last four years as Ramesh Dutta got. He has got ' F ' rat ing for approach to work and ' G ' for flexibility in the PAR for last four years. He has an exper ience of 4 years in the clerical cadre job .

193. Renu Shukla, the wife of SK Shukla, got more than 4 9 % marks in graduat ion in Science from Patna University. She jo ined this organisat ion six years ago . She got ' C , ' D ' , ' E ' and ' F ' ratings for performance, quality of work, dependabil i ty and flexibility respect ively in PAR for the last three years .

194. Amod Deuba added feathers to his cap when he got 7 9 % marks in graduat ion in commerce . He has some experience in clerical cadre too . He got ' F ' rat ings in

approach to work and flexibility in PAR for the last few years . He is a spor t sman too.

195. Punam Singh jo ined the organisat ion six years ago when her father G Singh got his ret i rement from the post of l e c t u r e r . O w i n g to h e r f a t h e r ' s h a r d labour and coopera t ion in her study, she succeeded in getting 62% marks in graduat ion. She has got ' E ' , ' D ' , ' G ' and 'F' rat ings for speed of work, quality, dependability and flexibility respect ively in Performance Apprasal Report for four years .

196. Soni N a n d a is a bri l l iant pos tgraduate in Science and has s ecu red 6 9 % and 6 8 % m a r k s in g radua t ion and post-g radua t ion respect ive ly . He has ' D ' and ' E ' grades for dependabil i ty and flexibility respectively in Performance Appraisal Report for the last five years . He hadjoinedthe office 5 years ago . He has ' B ' and ' C ' grade for 'speedof work ' and 'qua l i ty ' respect ively in PAR for the last five yea r s .

197. Gopal Desai has been with the company for the last tliree-and-a-half years . For the last three years he has had 'C rating for speed of work , ' E ' rat ing for quality of work, and ' D ' r a t i n g for dependabi l i ty and flexibility. He is do­ing his PG. He got 5 8 % marks in graduation.

198. Ri teshRana is also doing PG from the same university with which Gopa l Desai is associated. He secured less than the required per cent of marks in graduation but fortunately got the pass marks . He has an experience of five years in cleri­cal cadre . He has got ' C ' rat ings in performance and qual­ity in PAR for the last three years but ' G ' a n d ' D' ratings for dependabil i ty and flexibility respectively. Di rec t ions (Q. 199-204): In t he following questions, the

symbols+,- , *, ÷ @ a n d © a re used with the following meanings: P+ Q m e a n s Q is n o t s m a l l e r t h a n P. P- Q means Q is ne i ther g rea te r than nor smaller than P. P x Q m e a n s Q is n o t g r e a t e r t h a n P. P÷ Q m e a n s Q is n e i t h e r s m a l l e r t h a n no r equal to P. P@ Q means Q is ne i ther g rea te r than nor equal to P. P © Q m e a n s Q is no t e q u a l to P. Now in each of the folIowingquestions,assumingthegiven

s ta tements to be tr ue, find wh ich of the two conclusions I and II given below t h e m is /are definitely t r u e . Give answer

1) if only conclus ion I is t rue; 2) if only conclus ion II is t rue; 3) if either I or II is t rue; 4) if nei ther I nor II is t rue; and 5) if both I and II a re t rue.

199. S t a t e m e n t s : Ax B, R + G L © G B @L C o n c l u s i o n s : I . A@ R II . A÷ R

200. S t a t e m e n t s : M ÷T, T © L , B * L, R @ B C o n c l u s i o n s : I . L @ T II. L ÷ T

201. S t a t e m e n t s : R © P , P © T , S + T , S @ K C o n c l u s i o n s : I . R - T I I . R © T

202 . S t a t e m e n t s : M © N , N - K , K © S , G - N C o n c l u s i o n s : I . M © K II. M © S

2 0 3 . S t a t e m e n t s : T + U , W ^ U , G © S , P © S C o n c l u s i o n s : I. W ⋆T II. G ÷P

204. S t a t e m e n t s : N @ T , T - M , M - Z , K + Z C o n c l u s i o n s : I . N ⋆ K II. K + T

Directions (Q. 205-210): In each question below, there are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to b. at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logi­cally follow(s) from the given statements. 205. Statements: a. All books are copies.

b. All copies are pens. c. All pens are dusters. d. All dusters are tables.

Conclusions: I. All books are tables. II. All books are dusters. III. All copies are tables. IV. All tables are books.

1) All follow except III 2) All follow except IV 3) All follow except II 4)A11 follow 5) None of these

206. Statements: a. All calculators are computers. b. No computers are televisions. c. No televisions are radios. d. No radios are transistors.

Conclusions: I. No calculators are televisions. II. No calculators are radios. III. No televisions are transistors. IV. No computers are radios.

1) None follows except I 2) None follows except II 3) None follows except III 4) All follow 5) None follows

207. Statements: a. All glasses are frames. „ b. No frames are metals. c. Some metals are blocks. d. Some blocks are not baskets.

Conclusions: I. Some blocks are not glasses. II. Some baskets are not blocks. III. All baskets are blocks. IV. Some glasses are not blocks.

1) Only I follows 2) Only I and II follow 3) Only either 11 or III along with I follow 4) All follow 5) None of these

208. Statements: a. Some boys are not girls. b. Some girls are honest. c. No honest persons are females. d. All females are males.

Conclusions: I. Some girls are not boys. II. No boys are males. III. Some boys are not honest. IV. Some girls are not males.

1) All follow 2) None follows 3) Only I and II follow 4) Only II and III follow 5) None of these

209. Statements: a. All buses are cars. b. Some buses are not motorcycles. c. No motorcycles are scooters. d. All scooters are tempos.

Conclusions: I. Some tempos are not cars. II. Some tempos are not motorcycles. III. No cars are tempos.

IV. Some cars are not motorcycles. 1) Only IV follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only II and IV follow 4) Only I and II follow 5) None of these

210. Statements: a. All doors are windows. b. No windows are chairs. c. All chairs are tables. d. No tables are bottles.

Conclusions: I. All windows are doors. II. Some tables are chairs. III. Some tables are not doors. IV. No doors are bottles.

1) Only II follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only I, II and III follow 4)None follows 5) None of these Directions (Q. 211-215): Study the following informa­

tion carefully and answer the given questions: Given an input line, a coding machine rearranges the

input following certain steps as explained below: Input: 47 desert go 56 there often 32 12 Step I: 47 desert go 56 there often 32 12 Step II: there 47 desert go 56 often 32 12 Step III: there 12 often 47 desert go 56 32 Step IV: there 12 often 32 47 desert go 56 Step V: there 12 often 32 go 47 desert 56 The arrangement in Step V is the final arrangement and Step V is the last step. In each of the following questions the rearrangement is done following the same rules as explained in the above illustration.

211. If the fourth step of an input is 'wonderful 22 seashore 36 48 fine 62 morning', what was the first step? 1) fine 48 wonderful 22 seashore 36 62 morning 2) fine 48 wonderful 22 36 seashore 62 morning 3) fine 48 seashore wonderful 22 36 morning 62 4) fine 48 seashore wonderful 36 22 morning 62 5) Cannot be determined

212. What will be the third step for the following input? Input: papercommon36 51 pencil 28 test66 1) test 28 paper pencil common 36 51 66 2) test 28 pencil 66 paper common 36 51 3) test 66 pencil paper 28 common 5136 4) test 28 pencil paper common 36 51 66 5) None of these

213. If Step II of an input is 'waive 14 available time 38 46 probation 85 ' , how many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement? 1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Two 5) None of these

214. Which step will be the last step for the input '27 sports 48 television commentary 18 house 36'? 1) IV 2)V 3) VI 4) VII 5) None of these

215. What will be the fourth step of an input having first step as 'number game 54 23 always lacking 16 75'? 1) number 16 lacking 23 game always 54 75 2) number 16 lacking 23 always 54 game 75 3) number 16 lacking 23 game 54 always 75 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 216-220): Each of the following series consists of seven fig­ures, two of which at the ends are unnumbered. One of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Find out the figure.

" +

A I

Directions (Q. 221-225): The first figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the second figure. Similarly, the first figure in the second unit of the problem figures bears the same relationship with one of the figures in the answer figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would replace the question mark.

221

222.

223.

224.

225.