mock test for kcet-2016 · 2019. 7. 14. · cet number subjects maximum marks total duration...

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DOs

1. Check whether the CET No. has been entered and shaded in the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.

2. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the invigilator after the 2nd Bell i.e., after 10:30 am / 02:30 pm

3. The Serial Number of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet.

4. The Version Code of this question booklet should be entered on the OMR answer sheet and the respective circles should also be shaded

completely.

5. Compulsorily sign at the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet in the space provided.

DON’Ts

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2. The 3rd Bell rings at 10:40 am / 02:40 pm, till then;

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Do not look inside this question booklet.

Do not start answering on the OMR answer sheet.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. This question booklet contains 60 questions and each question will have one statement and four distracters. (Four different options/choices).

2. After the 3rd Bell is rung at 10:40 am / 02:40 pm, remove the paper seal on the right hand side of this question booklet and check that this booklet

does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. Read each item and start

answering on the OMR answer sheet.

3. During the subsequent 70 minutes :

Read each question carefully.

Choose the correct answer from out of the four available distracters (options / choices) given under each question / statement.

Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE or BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN against the question number on the

OMR answer sheet.

Correct Method of shading the circle on the OMR answer sheet is as shown below :

1 3 4

4. Please note that even a minute unintended ink dot on the OMR answer sheet will also be recognized and recorded by the scanner. Therefore,

avoid multiple marking of any kind on the OMR answer sheet.

5. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for the same.

6. After the last bell is rung at 11:50 am / 03:50 pm, stop writing on the OMR answer sheet and affix your LEFT HAND THUMB IMPRESSION on

the OMR answer sheet as per the instructions.

7. Hand over the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as it is.

8. After separating the top sheet (Our Copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate’s Copy) to you to carry home for self-

evaluation.

9. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.

*The real test for KCET will be conducted in two days in Morning & Afternoon Sessions.

VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER

*** ******

QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILSMENTION YOUR

CET NUMBER

SUBJECTS MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING DAY & TIMING*

PHYSICS 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-2: 10.30-11.50 am

CHEMISTRY 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-2: 02.30-03.50 pm

MATHEMATICS 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-1: 02.30-03.50 pm

MOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KCETCETCETCETCET-2016-2016-2016-2016-2016

(2)

Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test

Choose the correct answer :

1. In case of a complete absorption at normal

incidence of a parallel beam of light of intensity I, the

radiation pressure on the absorbing object is

(1)I

C(2)

2

I

C

(3)2I

C(4)

2

3

I

C

2. A beam of light is incident on a glass surface, at an

angle of incidence 60°. The reflected ray is polarised.

What will be angle of refraction for an angle of

incidence 45°?

(1)1 3

sin2

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(2)1 3

cos2

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(3)1 1

sin6

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(4)1 1

sin3

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

3. The number of photons of wavelength 13.2 Å in 6 J

of energy is

(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 4 × 1016

(3) 6 × 1020 (4) 4 × 1020

4. Total number of electrons present in 90 g ice cube

is

(1) 5 mol (2) 10 mol

(3) 20 mol (4) 50 mol

5. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic

moment M and dipole-strength m units is broken into

two pieces at the middle. The magnetic moment and

pole-strength of each piece will be

(1) (M/2), m/2 (2) M, m/2

(3) M/2, m (4) M, m

6. Three identical bar magnets each of magnetic

moment M, are placed in the form of an equilateral

triangle with the north pole of one touching the south

pole of other. The net magnetic moment of the

system is:

N S

N

S

N

S

(1) 3 M (2)3

2

M

(3) 3 M (4) Zero

[ PHYSICS]

7. A wire of length L metre carrying a current I ampere

is bent in the form of a circle. Its magnetic moment

will be

(1)4

IL

(2)

2

4

IL

(3)

2 2

4

I L

(4)

2

4

LI

8. A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform

magnetic field B = 4.0 Wb/m2 and makes an angle

of 60° with respect to the magnetic field as shown

in figure. The value of the magnetic flux through the

area A would be equal to

A

60

B

n

(1) 2 weber (2) 1 weber

(3) 3 weber (4) (3/2) weber

9. An alternating emf 100 cos 100t volt is connected in

series to a resistance of 10 ohm and inductance

100 mH. What is the phase difference between the

current in the circuit and the emf?

(1) / 4 (2) Zero

(3) (4) / 2

10. An inductor of 10 mH and a capacitor of 16 F are

connected in the circuit as shown in figure. The

frequency of the power supply is equal to the

resonant frequency of the circuit. Which ammeter will

read zero ampere?

10 mH A1

A2

A3

16 F

0sinE E t

(1) A1

(2) A2

(3) A3

(4) None of these

(3)

Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016

11. Using an ac voltmeter, the PD in the electrical line

in a house is read to be 234 volt. If the line

frequency is known to be 50 cycle per second, the

equation for the line voltage is

(1) 165 sin (100 )t (2) 234 sin (100 )t

(3) 331sin (100 )t (4) 440 sin (100 )t

12. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C. It is

discharged through a small coil of resistance wire

embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific

heat capacity s and mass m. If the temperature of

the block is raised by T , the potential difference

V across the capacitance is :

(1)ms T

C

(2)

2ms T

C

(3)2mC T

s

(4)

mC T

s

13. Current in arm EB is

A B C

DEF

70V

10 1010

1010

10 10

(1) 2 A

(2) 3 A

(3) 1 A

(4) Zero

14. AB

CD

EF

GH

4

4

444

44

4

4

44

4

Ratio of resistances between AC and AB is

(1)9

7(2)

7

9

(3)5

7(4)

7

5

15. Sixteen resistors each of resistance 16 are

connected as shown in the figure. The net resistance

between A and B is

D C

BA

E F

GH

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 8 (4) 6

16. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How

much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from

temperature 20°C? The temperature of boiling point

is 100°C.

(1) 12.6 min (2) 4.2 min

(3) 6.3 min (4) 8.4 min

17. The charge Q flowing through a resistance R varies

with time t as Q = at – bt2. The total heat produced

in R is

(1) a3R/6b (2) a3R/3b

(3) a3R/2b (4) a3R/b

18. A heater boils 1 kg of water in time t1 and another

heater boils the same water in time t2. If both the

heaters are connected in parallel, the combination

will boil the water in time

(1) 1 2

1 2

t t

t t (2) 1 2

1 2

t t

t t

(3)

2 2

1 2

1 2

t t

t t

(4)

2 2

1 2

1 2

t t

t t

19. A d.c. voltage with appreciable ripple expressed as

V = V1

+ V2 cos t is applied to a resistor R. The

amount of heat generated per second is given by

(1)

2 2

1 2

2

V V

R

(2)

2 2

1 22

2

V V

R

(3)

2 2

1 22

2

V V

R

(4) None of these

(4)


20. In the circuit shown in the adjoining diagram, the

current through

3 2

9V

2

2 2 2

68 4

2

(1) The 3 resistor is 0.50 A




21. Eleven equal wires each of resistance 4 are joined

to form an incomplete cube. The total resistance

between one end of vacant edge to the other end is

(1) 7/3 (2) 28/5

(3) 10/3 (4) 5/322. A circular ring is made by a wire as shown. Current

3 A is entering at A, then I1 and I

2 are

I2

3 AI1

120º 3 AA

B

(1) 3 A, 1 A (2) 1 A, 4 A

(3) 2 A, 4 A (4) 2 A, 1 A

23. Let be the charge density for a solid sphere of

radius R and total charge Q. For a point P inside

the sphere at a distance r from the centre of the

sphere, the magnitude of electric field is

(1)0

3

r (2)

03

(3)0

3 r

(4) Zero

24. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by

V = –xy2 – yz2 – zx2. The electric field at that point

is

(1) �3 2

E i z j x y z k z ��

� �

(2) �3 2 2

2 3E i xy z j x k xz ��

� �

(3) � 2 2 22 3E i xy j x y k xz y

��

(4) �2 2 22 2 2E y xz i z xy j x yz k

��

25. A parallel plate capacitor with air has a capacitance

of 9 pF. The separation between its plates is d, the

space between the plates is now filled with two

dielectrics. One of the dielectric has dielectric

constant K1 = 2 and thickness d/3, while the other

has dielectric constant K2 = 4 and thickness 2d/3,

Capacitance of the capacitor is now

(1) 1.2 pF (2) 30 pF

(3) 27 pF (4) 20.25 pF

26. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 F is broken into

eight drops of equal radius. The capacity of each

small drop is

(1)1

F2 (2)

1F

4

(3)1

F8 (4)

1F

16

27. Net electrical dipole of the arrangement shown

–3q +q

+q +q

a

a a

a

(1)1

2

2

qa⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(2)1

2

2

qa⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(3) 2 2 qa (4)2

3

qa

28. Net E

��

at the centre of the arrangement shown is

–2q

+q

a

a

–2q+4q

a

–8q

a

a

+4q a

(1) 2

Kq

a(2) 2

2Kq

a

(3) 2

3Kq

a(4) 2

4Kq

a

(5)


29. Consider an infinite line charge of linear charge

density ' ' as shown. Then electric field at point P is

P

Q+

+

+

+

+

+

x

x

(1) Zero (2)K

x

(3)2K

x

(4)

2

K

x

30. Each plate of area A and separation d are arranged

as shown net capacitance between A and B is

A

B

(1)0

2

5

A

d

(2)

05

2

A

d

(3)0

3

5

A

d

(4)

05

3

A

d

31. The rest mass of an electron is m0; when it moves

with a velocity v = 0.6c, then its mass is

(1) m0

(2) 0

5

4m

(3) 0

4

5m (4) 2 m

0

32. On the annihilation of a paricle and its antiparticle,

the energy released is E. What is the mass of each

particle?

(1) E/c2 (2) E/(2c2)

(3) E/c (4) E/(2c)

33. A lamp radiates power P0 uniformly in all directions;

the peak value of electric field strength E0 at a

distance r from it is

(1)0

0 2

02

PE

cr

(2)0

0 2

02

PE

cr

(3)0

0 2

04

PE

cr

(4)0

0 2

08

PE

cr

34. A brilliant arc lamp delivers a normal luminous flux

of 100 W to a 10 cm2 absorber. The force due to

radiation pressure is

(1) 3.3 × 10–4 N (2) 16.5 × 10–7 N

(3) 3.3 × 10–6 N (4) 3.3 × 10–7 N

35. The de Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 927°C is

. What will be its wavelength at 27°C?

(1)2

(2)

(3) 2 (4) 436. An accident occurs in a laboratory in which a large

amount of a radioactive material, having a half life of

20 days, becomes embedded in the floor and walls

so that the level of radiation is 32 times the

permissible level. The laboratory can be safely

occupied after

(1) 20 days (2) 32 days

(3) 64 days (4) 100 days

37. If A = B = 1, then in terms of Boolean Algebra

A B equals

(1) A (2) B

(3) A or B (4) A B38. A sinusoidal voltage of r.m.s. value of 200 volt is

connected to the diode and capacitor C in the circuit

shown so that half-wave rectification occurs. The final

potential difference in volt across C is

(1) 500

CR.M.S.

200 Volt

(2) 200

(3) 283

(4) 141

39. In a transistor the base is made very thin and is

lightly doped with an impurity because

(1) To enable the collector to collect 95% of the

holes or electrons coming from the emitter side

(2) To enable the emitter to emit small number of

holes or electrons

(3) To save the transistor from higher current effects

(4) None of these

40. With an a.c. input from 50 Hz power line, the ripple

frequency is

(1) 50 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave as well as

full-wave rectifier

(2) 100 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave as well as

full-wave rectifier

(3) 50 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave and

100 Hz in d.c. outupt of full-wave rectifier

(4) 100 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave and 50 Hz

in d.c. outupt of full-wave rectifier

(6)


41. The second harmonic of an open pipe is equal to the

third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. The ratio of

their lengths lo : l

c is

(1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 5 : 4 (4) 5 : 9

42. The most elastic material among the following is

(1) Wood (2) Rubber

(3) Steel (4) Glass

43. A monoatomic gas undergoes an adiabatic process.

If the temperature is halved. The percentage change

in volume is nearly

(1) 183% (2) 100%

(3) 150% (4) 83%

44. I1 is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass ‘M’ and

radius ‘R’ about an axis passing through its centre

and perpendicular to its plane. I2 is the moment of

inertia of the disc about a tangent in the plane of the

disc. I1/I

2 is equal to

(1)1

5(2)

1

3

(3)2

5(4)

5

4

45. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an

angle of indence 60°, then deviation produced by the

mirror is

(1) 30° (2) 120°

(3) 60° (4) None of these

46. An ojbect is placed between two plane mirrors if the

images formed are 7, then the angle of inclination

between mirrors is

(1) 15° (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 60°

47. A concave mirror of focal length ‘f’ produces ‘n’

times magnified real image of an object, then the

distance of object from mirror is

(1) (n – 1)f (2)1nf

n

(3)1nf

n

(4) (n + 1)f

48. The angle of a glass prism is 60°, minimum

deviation is 40°, then

(1) Refractive index is 60º

40º

(2) The maximum deviation is 100°

(3) The angle of incidence at minimum deviation is

50°

(4) The angle of incidence at minimum deviation is

90°

49. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and as

a diverging lens in water. The refracive index of

material is

(1) 1 (2) 1.33

(3) > 1.33 (4) < 1.33

50. Effective or equivalent mass of a photon of wavelength

is

(1)h

(2)h

c

(3) 2

h

c

(4)

h

c

51. Which of the following numbers has the least

number of significant zeroes?

(1) 0.00300 (2) 1.73200

(3) 1.001 (4) 001.567320

52. The equation of trajectory of an oblique projectile is

given by y = 3x – 5x2, the horizontal range of the

projectile is

(1) 0.6 m (2) 1.6 m

(3) 0.4 m (4) 1.4 m

53. Two SHMs are given by the equations 1x 5sin t

and 2

x 5(sin t cos t) . The ratio of amplitudes

A1 : A

2 is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1

(3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2

54. The following graphs show isobaric, isothermic,

isochoric and adiabatic curves. Which one of them

represents an adiabatic process?

P

V

123

4

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 1 (4) 2

55. Which of the following is used to determine the

surface temperature of the sun?

(1) Stefan’s Law

(2) Wien’s displacement Law

(3) Newton’s Law of cooling

(4) Prevost’s theory of Heat exchanges

56. A body cools from 60°C to 30°C in 5 minutes. If the

temperature of the surroundings is 10°C, what will be

its temperature after 5 more minutes?

(1) 15°C (2) 18°C

(3) 10°C (4) 20°C

(7)


57. A satellite is rotating around the earth in a circular

orbit. What should be the percentage increase in its

velocity so that it escapes the earth’s gravitational

field?

(1) 100% (2) 50%

(3) 41% (4) 63%

58. A car and truck are moving with the same kinetic

energy. The same force acts on them and brings

them to a halt. Which of the following statements is

correct?

(1) Work done by the force on the car is more than

the work done on the truck

(2) Work done by the force on the truck is more

than the work done on the car

(3) Work done by the force on the car as well as

the truck is equal

(4) Work done by the force in both cases is zero

59. Two particles along a wave are separated by a

distance 3

[ =wavelength]. What is the phase

difference between these two particles?

(1) 0 (2)2

3

(3)2

(4)

3

60. Two waves given by y1 = 5 sin (kx – t) and

y2 = 4 sin(kx – t + ), pass through a point in

space. What is the ratio of maximum intensity to

minimum intensity observed at that point?

(1) 5 : 4 (2) 81 : 1

(3) 9 : 1 (4) 27 : 1

[ CHEMISTRY]

1. If 1 ml of water contains 10 drops then number of

molecules in a drop of water is

(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecules

(2) 1.344 × 1018 molecules

(3) 3.346 × 1021 molecules

(4) 4.346 × 1020 molecules

2. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023

atoms/molecules. Number of molecules of H2SO

4

present in 50 ml of 0.01 M H2SO

4 solution is

(1) 12.044 x 1020 molecules

(2) 6.022 x 1023 molecules

(3) 1 x 1023 molecules

(4) 3.0115 x 1020 molecules

3. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a

compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What

will be the molecular formula of the compound?

(1) C9H

18O

9(2) C

2H

4O

2

(3) C6H

12O

6(4) C

12H

22O

11

4. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes for

3p-orbital

(1) 3, 4 (2) 4, 2

(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 1

5. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration

(1) Cr+3 ; Fe+3 (2) Fe+3; Mn+2

(3) Fe+3 ; Co+3 (4) Sc+3 ; Cr+3

6. Consider the isoelectronic species Na+ ; F– ; O2– and

Mg+2. The correct order of decreasing ionic radii is

(1) Na+ > Mg+2 > O2– > F–

(2) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg+2

(3) Mg+2 > Na+ > F– > O2-

(4) Na+ > Mg+2 > F– > O2–

7. Which one of the following arrangements represents

the correct order of electron affinity of the given

atomic species?

(1) Cl < F < S < O (2) O < S < F < Cl

(3) S < O < Cl < F (4) F < Cl < O < S

8. Which of the following options represents the correct

order of Bond Energy?

(1) O2

– > O2 > O

2

+ (2) O2

– < O2 < O

2

+

(3) O2

– > O2 < O

2

+ (4) O2

– < O2 > O

2

+

9. Which of the following species has tetrahedral

geometry?

(1) BH4

– (2) NH2

–

(3) CO3

2– (4) H3O+

10. The types of hybridisation of Nitrogen in NO2

+ ; NO3

–

and NH4

+ respectively are expected to be

(1) sp ; sp3 & sp2 (2) sp ; sp2 & sp3

(3) sp2 ; sp & sp3 (4) sp2 ; sp3 & sp

11. Which one of the following pairs is iso-structural?

(1) BrCl3 & BCl

3(2) NO

3

–1 & NH3

(3) NF3 & BF

3(4) BF

4

– & NH4

+

(8)


12. The pair of species with the same bond order is

(1) NO & CN– (2) NO+ & CN–

(3) CN– & CN+ (4) O2

– & CN–

13. Pentagonal bipyramidal structure contains bond

angles of magnitudes

(1) 120° ; 90° ; 180° (2) 120° ; 72° ; 180°

(3) 72° ; 90° ; 120° (4) 72° ; 90° ; 180°

14. The weight of 350 ml of a diatomic gas at 0°C and

2 atm pressure is 1 gram. The weight of one atom

in grams is (N = Avogadro’s number)

(1) 16 N (2)32

N

(3)16

N(4) 32 N

15. The volume of gas is doubled from its original volume.

The specific heat will be

(1) Reduced to half

(2) Be doubled

(3) Remains constant

(4) Increased four times

16. Standard entropies of X2, Y

2 and XY

3 are 60, 40 and

50 J/K respectively for the reaction

2 2 3

1 3X Y XY

2 2 � , H = – 30kJ to be at

equilibrium, the temperature should be

(1) 500 K (2) 750 K

(3) 1000 K (4) 1250 K

17. 40g of NaOH is dissolved in excess of 6.3% by

mass of HNO3 solution of density 1.40 g/cm3. The

heat evolved in kJ for complete neutralization of base

is

(1) 5.73 (2) 57.3

(3) 79.8 (4) 22.8

18. 2 moles PCl5, 1 mole Cl

2 and 1 mole PCl

3 are taken

in 1 L flask. When equilibrium is setup PCl5 is 25%

dissociated into the products then KC is

(1) 4 moles L–1 (2) 1.5 mole L–1

(3) 1 mole L–1 (4) 0.17 mole L–1

19. Decrease in the pressure for the following equilibrium

( ) ( )2 2

H O l H O g� results in the

(i) Formation more H2O (l)

(ii) Formation more H2O (g)

(iii) Increase in boiling point of H2O(l)

(iv) Decrease in boiling point of H2O(l)

(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iv)

(3) (i), (iii) (4) (i), (iv)

20. The standard potentials (E°) for the half reactions are

as

Zn Zn2+ + 2e– E° = +0.76 V

Fe Fe2+ + 2e– E° = +0.41 V

The emf for the cell reaction

Fe2+ + Zn Zn2+ + Fe is

(1) –0.35 V (2) 0.35 V

(3) 1.17 V (4) –1.17 V

21. At 500 K, equilibrium constant KC for the following

reaction is 5

( ) ( ) ( )2 2

1 1H g I g HI g

2 2+ �

What would be the equilibrium constant KC

for the

reaction?

( ) ( ) ( )2 2

2HI g H g I g+�

(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4

(3) 25 (4) 2.5

22. pH of solution obtained by mixing 100 ml of a

solution of pH = 3 with 400 ml of a solution of

pH = 4 is

(1) 3 – log 2.8 (2) 7 – log 2.8

(3) 4 – log 2.8 (4) 5 – log 2.8

23. In the following reaction. Equivalent weight of H3PO

4

is

3 4 2 4 2H PO NaOH NaH PO H O

(1) 98 (2) 49

(3) 32.6 (4) 24.5

24. When sodium is kept in open air then it is finally

converted into

(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO

3

(3) Na2O (4) Na

2O

2

25. Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give

metal oxide and CO2. Which of the following metal

carbonates is thermally most stable?

(1) MgCO3

(2) CaCO3

(3) SrCO3

(4) BaCO3

26.2 2

High temp NaOH

4 2 O H flame HeatSiCl H O B C

The compound (C) is (B is an oxide)

(1) SiO2

(2) Si

(3) SiC (4) Na2SiO

3

(9)


27. Which of the following is most stable carbanion?

(1)

CH3

CH – 3

C

CH3

(2)

C H52

CH – 3

C:

CH3

(3)

CH2

(4)

28. Steam distillation is used for separation of _____

(1) Glycerol

(2) Chloroform and aniline

(3) Subtances which are steam volatile and

immiscible in water

(4) A mixture of of hexane and toluene

29.

Cl

Cl

2Br (leq)Dryether

hNa(excess) A B

(1)

Br

Br

(2)

Br

(3)

Br

(4)

Br

30. + CH – CH – CH – Cl3 2

CH3

3

Anhyd

AlClP

Product P is

(1)

CH 3

CH – CH – CH 2 3

(2)

CH 3

CH – C – CH 3 3

(3)

CH – – CH 2 3

CH – CH2 2

(4)

CH 3

CH – – CH 3

CH2

31. The number of linear carbon atoms in divinyl

acetylene is

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 5 (4) 4

32. , IUPAC name is

(1) 5 butyl, 6– methyl heptane

(2) 5 – (1 – methyl ethyl) nonane

(3) 2 – methyl – 3 – butyl heptane

(4) 5 – propyl nonane

33. CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH

3

3

2

O

Zn/H O products.

Which of the following is the product of this

reaction?

(1) HCHO (2)

CHO

CHO

(3) CH3CHO (4) All of these

34. The total number of isomers (Structural and stereo)

possible for an organic compound with molecular

formula C4H

10O is

(1) 9 (2) 10

(3) 8 (4) 7

35. The most stable compound is

(1) (2)

(3) CH – 3 2

CH (4)

36. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Substitution reaction — + Cl 2

Cl

Fe

(2) Addition reaction —

+ H O 2

H+

OH

(3) Elimination reaction — CH3Cl : CH

2

(4) Rearrangement reaction —

H+

CH = – CH2 3

C

CH3

CH3

CH – – CH3 3

C

OH

(10)


37. If NaCl is dopped with 10–4 mole% of SrCl2, the

concentration of cation vacancies will be

(1) 6.02 × 1022 mole–1

(2) 6.02 × 1015 mole–1

(3) 6.02 × 1017 mole–1

(4) 6.02 × 1014 mole–1

38. Which solution will have least Vapour pressure?

(1) 0.1 M BaCl2

(2) 0.1 M Urea

(3) 0.1 M Na2SO

4(4) 0.1 M Na

3PO

4

39. The osmotic pressure of a 5% (w/v) solution of cane

sugar at 150° C is

(1) 4 atm (2) 3.4 atm

(3) 5.078 atm (4) 2.4 atm

40. The molar conductivity of HCl, NaCl and CH3COONa

are 425; 188; 96 S cm2 mole–1 at 298 K. The molar

conductivity of CH3COOH at the same temperature

is ___ S cm2 mole–1

(1) 333 (2) 451

(3) 325 (4) 550

41. What is the current efficiency of an electrode

position of Cu metal from CuSO4 solution in which

9.80 g Cu is deposited by the passage of 5A current

for 2h _____ ? [Atomic Wt. of Cu = 63.5]

(1) 41.4 (2) 50%

(3) 75% (4) 82.8%

42. The standard emf of a galvanic cell reaction with

n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium

constant of the reaction would be

(1) 2.0 × 1011 (2) 4.0 × 1010

(3) 1.0 × 102 (4) 1.0 × 1010

43. In a zero order reaction for every 10° rise of

temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature

is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of

reaction will become

(1) 256 times (2) 512 times

(3) 64 times (4) 128 times

44. If the rate of reaction between 2 reactants A and B

decreases by a factor 4, when the concentration of

reactant B is doubled. Then the order of this reaction

with respect to reactant B is

(1) –1 (2) –2

(3) 1 (4) 2

45. A first order reaction is 75% complete after 32 min.

When was 50% of the reaction completed?

(1) 16 min (2) 8 min

(3) 4 min (4) 32 min

46. What is the slope, if a graph of 0[A]

log[A]

versus time

is plotted for a first order reaction?

(1)K

2.303 (2)

K

2.303

(3)2.303

K (4)

2.303

K

47. Purple of cassius is a/an

(1) Colloidal sol of gold

(2) Colloidal sol of silver

(3) Colloidal sol of platinum

(4) Oxyacid of gold

48. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) Milk is a naturally occuring emulsion

(2) Gold sol is a lyophilic sol

(3) Physical adsorption decreases with rise in

temperature

(4) Chemical adsorption is unilayered

49. X is substance which combines chemically with

impurity assoicated with the ore to form easily

fusible mass ‘Y’. Here X and Y are respectively

(1) Flux ; Slag

(2) Slag ; Flux

(3) Gangue ; Slag

(4) Reductant ; Flux

50. Which of the following electrolytes is least effective

in coagulation of Fe(OH)3 sol?

(1) KBr (2) K2SO

4

(3) K2CrO

4(4) K

4[Fe(CN)

6]

51. In the equation 4M + 8CN– + 2H2O + O

2

4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–. Identify the metal M.

(1) Cu (2) Fe

(3) Au (4) Zn

52. Which of the following element is present as the

impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?

(1) Carbon (2) Silicon

(3) Phosphorus (4) Manganese

53. The tendency of BF3; BCl

3 and BBr

3 to behave as

lewis acid decreases in the sequence

(1) BCl3 > BF

3 > BBr

3(2) BBr

3 > BCl

3 > BF

3

(3) BBr3 > BF

3 > BCl

3(4) BF

3 > BCl

3 > BBr

3

54. Which of the following pairs has the same size?

(1) Fe+2; Ni+2 (2) Zr+4; Ti+4

(3) Zr+4; Hf+4 (4) Zn+2; Hf4+

(11)


[ MATHEMATICS]

Choose the correct answer :

1. If 3 2 1

( )( )

x

x a x b x a x b

. Then 1sin

b

a

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(1)3

(2)

6

(3)6

(4)

2

2. The positive integer n for which

2 3 4 102 2 3 2 4 2 ...... 2 2

n n

n

(1) 510 (2) 511

(3) 512 (4) 513

3. If , , are the roots of 3 22 3 4 0x x x , then

the value of 2 2

∑

(1) 7 (2) 5

(3) 3 (4) 0

4. 0 1 2 1...... ___(where represents )

rn n r c

C C C C C C n

(1) 2n (2) n + 1

(3) 2n–1 (4) 0

5. If ( ~ ) (~ )p r pvq is false. Then the truth values

of p, q and r are respectively

(1) F, F and T

(2) T, F and F

(3) T, F and T

(4) F, T and T

6. Let ( ) 121x

x xf x

e

, then f is

(1) An odd function

(2) An even function

(3) Periodic function

(4) None of these

55. Which of the following has highest magnetic

moment?

(1) Ti+3 (2) Sc3+

(3) Mn+2 (4) Zn+2

56. The electronic configuration of gadolinium

(At. No. 64) is

(1) [Xe] 4f3 5d5 6s2 (2) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

(3) [Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2 (4) [Xe] 4f8 5d6 6s2

57. An alkyl chloride (A) on reaction with Mg in dry ether

followed by treatment with ethanol gave 2-methyl

butane. Give the possible structure of A

(1) (CH3)2 C(Cl) CH

2 – CH

3

(2) (CH3)2 CH – CH

2 – CH

2 – Cl

(3) CH3 – CH

2 – CH

2 – CH

2 – CH

2 – X

(4) Both (1) & (2)

58. In the following set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid

gave a product D. Identify the product D.

Br

COOH

32

2

NHSOCl NaOH

BrB C D

(1)

NH2

COOH

(2)

Br

NH2

(3)

Br

CONH2

(4)

Br

SO NH2 2

59. If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATCGTATG,

the sequence in the complementary strand would be

(1) TAGCTTAC (2) TCACATAC

(3) TAGCATAC (4) TACGATAC

60. Of the following, which one is classified as polyester

polymer?

(1) Bakelite (2) Melamine

(3) Nylon-6, 6 (4) Terylene

(12)


7. The point of concurrency of the lines

(3 1) (2 3) (9 ) 0k x k y k is

(1) (1, 1)

(2) (1, 1)

(3) (3, 4)

(4) ( 2, 1)

8. The difference of slopes of the line represented by

2 2 2 2 22 sec (3 tan ) ( 1 tan ) 0y xy x is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

9. If the equation 2 2 2

2 4 0a x xy y is to represent

a pair of distinct lines. Then a should lie in the

interval

(1) 1 1,2 2

(2)1 1,2 2

⎡ ⎤⎣ ⎦

(3) ( 1, 1) (4) [ 1, 1]

10. If , are the different values of x such that

cos sina x b x c . Then tan2

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

is

(1) a + b (2)b

a

(3) a b (4)a

b

11.2 2

cos 76 cos 16 cos76 cos16

(1)1

2(2) 0

(3)1

4

(4)

34

12. If cos cos cosA B C

a b c and 2 3a , then the

ratio between the area and perimeter of the triangle

is

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 2 : 1

(3) 3 : 1

(4) 1 : 3

13.3

0

tan sinlimx

x x

x

(1) 2 (2)1

2

(3) 3 (4)1

3

14. If 1( )

1 x

xf x

e

for 0, (0) 0x f , then at

0, ( )x f x is

(1) Continuous

(2) Discontinuous

(3) Not determined

(4) None

15. The number of different straight lines formed by 10

non-collinear points in a plane is _____

(1) 10C2

(2) 10P2

(3) 10 (4) 20

16.

2 3 47

1 1 1.......

log log logn n n

(1)

47

1

log n

(2)

(47)!

1

log n

(3)46!

log n

(4)( 1)

log2

n n

17. A value of x satisfying 150x 35(mod 31) is

(1) 14 (2) 22

(3) 24 (4) 12

18.2

10 3.4n n

k is divisible by 9 for all n N . Then

the least +ve integral value of k is

(1) 5

(2) 3

(3) 7

(4) 1

(13)


19. If A and B are two square matrices, such that

AB = A; BA = B, then A and B are

(1) Idempotent matrix

(2) Diagonal matrix

(3) Scalar matrix

(4) Nilpotent matrix

20. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix and det(3 ) (det )A k A , then

k =

(1) 9 (2) 6

(3) 1 (4) 27

21. If

3

3

3

1 2

2 3 1 3 3 3 ,

2 3 2 1 2 1

x x x x

x x x x xA B

x x x x

then B =

(1) 12 (2) 12

(3) 0 (4) 7

22. If

2cos 1 0

( ) 2cos 12

0 1 2cos

x

f x x x

x

, then df

dx at

2x

is

(1) 2 (2) 2

(3) 1 (4) 8

23. If the matrix 2 2

,3 1

P Q⎡ ⎤

⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

where P and Q are

symmetric matrix and skew symmetric matrix, then

Q =

(1)

0 5

5 0

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

(2)

0 51

5 02

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

(3)

5 0

0 5

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

(4)

5 01

0 52

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

24. If ( ) 5, ( ) 3O A O B , then the total number of

different injective functions, is _____

(1) 0

(2)5

3

(3) 5P3

(4) 5C3

25.4

0

log(1 tan ) ______x dx

∫

(1) log24

(2) log 28

(3) log22

(4) log216

26. The area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides

are 3 2i j k and 3i k is

(1) 10 (2) 10 2

(3) 2 10 (4) 20

27. If the angle between the vectors ( ,3, 7)x and

( , ,4)x x is a.a acute. The range of x is

(1) ( 4, 7) (2) [ 4, 7]

(3) R [ 4, 7] (4) R ( 4, 7)

28. If , ,a b c are unit vectors such that 0a b c

then a b b c c a

(1)32

(2)32

(3) 23

(4) 12

29. If a is a vector then 2 22

a i a j a k

(1) 2a (2) 2

2a

(3) 23a (4) 2

4a

30. A tangent it is drawn to the circle

2 22 2 3 4 0x y x y at the point ‘A’ and it meets

the line 3x y at B(2, 1). Then, AB =

(1) 10 (2) 2

(3) 2 2 (4) 0

(14)


31. If x + y + K = 0 is a tangent to the circle x2 + y2 –

2x – 4y + 3 = 0, then K =

(1) 20 (2) –1, –5

(3) 2 (4) 4

32. The shortest distance from (–2, 14) to the circle

x2 + y2 – 6x – 4y – 12 = 0 is

(1) 8 (2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 1

33. The length of the intercept made by the circle

x2 + y2 + 10x – 12y – 13 = 0 on Y-axis is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 14

34. (cos , sin ), (sin , cos )A B are two points.

The locus of the centroid of triangle OAB, where ‘O’

is the origin is

(1) x2 + y2 = 3

(2) 9x2 + 9y2 = 2

(3) 2x2 + 2y2 = 9

(4) 3x2 + 3y2 = 2

35. If P is a point on the ellipse 9x2 + 36y2 = 324 whose

foci are S and S1, then PS + PS1 is

(1) 9 (2) 12

(3) 27 (4) 36

36. The equation of the directrix to the parabola

y2 – 2x – 6y – 5 = 0 is

(1) 2x + 15 = 0 (2) x + 5 = 0

(3) 2x + 3 = 0 (4) x + 2 = 0

37. The equation of the normal to the hyperbola

x2 – 4y2 = 5 at (3, –1) is

(1) 4x + 3y – 15 = 0

(2) 4x – 3y – 15 = 0

(3) 4x – 3y + 5 = 0

(4) 4x + 4y + 15 = 0

38. The area of the auxiliary circle of 2x2 + 3y2 = 6 is

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) (4) 4

39.–1 –1

1 1cos 2cos sin

5 5

⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎣ ⎦

(1)1

5(2)

2 6

5

(3)1

5 (4)

6

5

40. Sec2 (tan–1 2) + cosec2 (cot–1 3)

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) 20

41. The general solution of sin2x – 2 cosx + 1

4 = 0 is

(1) 22

n (2)

2n

(3) 23

n (4) None of these

42. The modulus amplitude form of 3 i is

(1)5

26

cis

(2) 26

cis

(3)5

6cis

(4)

6cis

43. If 4

2z

z

, then the greatest value of |z| is

(1) 5

(2) 5 1

(3) 5 1

(4) 1 5

44.....y x x x , then

dy

dx

(1)1

y(2)

1

x

(3)1

2x y (4)1

2 1y

(15)


45. The function f(x) = –1

sin (tan )x is not differentiable at

(1) x = 0 (2)6

x

(3)6

x (4)

4x

46. Let f(x) = 1 1cos 2cos 3sin

13x x

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

, then f(0.5)

(1) 0.5

(2) 1

(3) 0

(4) –1

47. If ( ) ( ) ( ) ,f x y f x f y x y R , then f(x) =

(1) 0

(2) f(0)

(3) f(0)

(4) f(x).f(0)

48. If f(x) = f(x) + f(x) + f(x) + ......... and f(0) = 1,

then f(x) =

(1) 2

x

e

(2) ex

(3) e2x

(4) e4x

49. The function y = 2x3 – 3x2 – 12x + 8 has minimum

at x =

(1) –1 (2) 2

(3)1

2 (4)

3

2

50. If the rate of decrease of

2

2 52

xx is twice the

decrease of x, then x =

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 1

51. The length of subtangent to x2 + xy + y2 = 7 at

(1, –3) is

(1) 5 (2)1

5

(3)3

5(4) 15

52. The two curves x = y2, xy = a3 cut orthogonally at a

point, then a2 =

(1)1

3(2)

1

2

(3) 2 (4) 3

53. The sides of the greatest rectangle that can be

inscribed in

2 2

2 21

x y

a b are

(1) 2, 2a b (2) ,a b

(3) a, b (4) None of these

54. 3

( 1)

( 1)

x

x edx

x

∫

(1)1

x

e

x (2) 21

x

e

x

(3) 31

x

e

x (4)1

x

xe

x

55. The value of the integral

6

3 9

xdx

x x ∫ is

(1) 2

(2) 1

(3)1

2

(4)3

2

56.

2

2

cos

1x

xdx

e

∫ =

(1) 1 (2) 0

(3) (4)4

(16)


� � �

57. 4

0

1

1dx

x

∫ =

(1)2

(2)

2

(3)2 2

(4) None of these

58. The area bonded by the curves y = x and y = x3 is

(1)1

4(2)

1

6

(3)1

12(4)

1

2

59. The degree of differential equation

3

22 22

2 2

d y dy d yK

dxdx dx

⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎢ ⎥⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

is

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 1

60. The solution of (x + y + 1) dy

dx = 1 is

(1) y = (x + 2) + cex

(2) y = –(x + 2) + cex

(3) x = –(y + 2) + cey

(4) x = (y + 2)2 + cey

(17)

MOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TEST

forforforforforKKKKKCET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016

ANSWERS

Physics

1. (1)

2. (3)

3. (2)

4. (4)

5. (3)

6. (4)

7. (2)

8. (2)

9. (1)

10. (3)

11. (3)

12. (2)

13. (3)

14. (1)

15. (2)

16. (3)

17. (1)

18. (2)

19. (2)

20. (4)

21. (2)

22. (4)

23. (1)

24. (4)


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

25. (3)

26. (1)

27. (3)

28. (3)

29. (3)

30. (2)

31. (2)

32. (2)

33. (2)

34. (4)

35. (3)

36. (4)

37. (3)

38. (3)

39. (1)

40. (3)

41. (1)

42. (3)

43. (1)

44. (3)

45. (3)

46. (3)

47. (3)

48. (3)

49. (4)

50. (2)

51. (4)

52. (1)

53. (3)

54. (4)

55. (2)

56. (2)

57. (3)

58. (3)

59. (2)

60. (2)

(18)

MOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TEST


ANSWERS

Chemistry


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

1. (3)

2. (4)

3. (3)

4. (3)

5. (2)

6. (2)

7. (2)

8. (2)

9. (1)

10. (2)

11. (4)

12. (2)

13. (4)

14. (3)

15. (3)

16. (2)

17. (1)

18. (2)

19. (2)

20. (2)

21. (1)

22. (3)

23. (1)

24. (2)

25. (4)

26. (4)

27. (4)

28. (3)

29. (3)

30. (2)

31. (4)

32. (2)

33. (4)

34. (3)

35. (4)

36. (4)

37. (3)

38. (4)

39. (3)

40. (1)

41. (4)

42. (4)

43. (2)

44. (2)

45. (1)

46. (2)

47. (1)

48. (2)

49. (1)

50. (1)

51. (3)

52. (1)

53. (2)

54. (3)

55. (3)

56. (2)

57. (4)

58. (2)

59. (3)

60. (4)

(19)

MOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPER


ANSWERS

Mathematics

1. (3)

2. (4)

3. (1)

4. (1)

5. (2)

6. (2)

7. (3)

8. (2)

9. (1)

10. (2)

11. (4)

12. (1)

13. (2)

14. (1)

15. (1)

16. (2)

17. (3)

18. (1)

19. (1)

20. (4)

21. (1)

22. (1)

23. (2)

24. (1)


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

25. (2)

26. (3)

27. (3)

28. (2)

29. (1)

30. (2)

31. (2)

32. (1)

33. (4)

34. (2)

35. (2)

36. (1)

37. (2)

38. (1)

39. (2)

40. (3)

41. (3)

42. (1)

43. (2)

44. (4)

45. (4)

46. (2)

47. (3)

48. (1)

49. (2)

50. (3)

51. (4)

52. (2)

53. (1)

54. (2)

55. (4)

56. (1)

57. (3)

58. (4)

59. (1)

60. (3)

mock test for kcet-2016 · 2019. 7. 14. · cet number subjects maximum marks total duration...

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