met subject: change management course: mhrdm iii year

MET

Subject: Change Management

Course: MHRDM III year

1. Factors that induce creativity are

A. Organisational support and organisational culture

B. Creative people and diversity

C. sufficient time and resources

D. All of the options

2. Some of the stages in the creative process are

A. preparation

B. incubation

C. All of the options

D. illumination and verification

3. Which is NOT a type of 4 Ps of Innovation

A. Product Innovation

B. Process Innovation

C. People Innovation

D. Paradigm Innovation

4. PESTLE which is the mnemonic to identify the key external triggers to change comprises of

A. Political factors, Economic drivers

B. Socio-Cultural Elements, Technology

C. Legal requirements, Environmental factors


5. ___________ leaders create and articulate a realistic, credible and attractive vision of the future that improves the present situation.

A. Charismatic

B. Visionary

C. Transcendental

D. Meditational

6. _________________ can be defined as a planned alteration of organisational components to improve the effectiveness of the organisation.

A. Organisational Change

B. Business Change

C. Organisational dynamics

D. Organisational Climate

7. Organisational Change can be defined as a planned alteration of organisational components to improve the _____________ of the organisation.

A. effectiveness

B. efficiency

C. profitability

D. profits

8. Changes that are broad in scope and impact and that may involve strategic repositioning are known as discontinuous or ___________ change.

A. incremental

B. radical

C. sudden

D. extreme

9. Organisational Changes that are relatively small in scope and incremental in nature are known as incremental or ____________ change.

A. continuous

B. discontinuous

C. sudden

D. extreme

10. Organisational components to be altered to improve the effectiveness of the organisation may include

A. Organisational vision and missionl

B. strategy, structure, goals

C. people, systems, technology


11.Which of the following is not a key task for those involved in seeking political agreements over strategic change?

a) Identify potential and influential supporters and persuade them to support the new strategy

b) Negotiate any necessary 'side deals' to get people on side

c) Build the maximum consensus for the new proposals, preferably prior to any formal decision meeting

d) Seek out potential opposition and attempt to change opinions or, at least, to neutralise them

12Which group in an organisation are the key to successful implementation of strategy, according to Charles Baden-Fuller and John Stopford?

a) Middle managersb) Change agentsc) Frontline staffd) Senior managers

13Which of the following is not one of the three dynamics for strategic change identified by Kanter, stein and Jick?

a) Politicalb) Life-cycle differencesc) Technologyd) Environment

14The learning theory, as developed by Senge, starts from the position that theorganisation should adopt strategic change from the outset.

a) Trueb) False

15Which of the following is not emphasised in the learning approach?

a) The sharing of views and visions for the futureb) People skillsc) Systems thinkingd) Individual learning

16Which of the following is not a part of the six-point plan for strategic change?

a) Foster consensus for the new vision, competence to enact it and cohesion to move it along

b) Mobilise commitment to change through joint diagnosis of business problems arising from the change objective

c) Institute revitalisation through formal policies, systems and structuresd) Revitalise the marketing department

17Which of the following will not affect the choice of strategic change programme?

a) Leadership styleb) Culturec) Nature of organisationd) Government policy

18According to Kurt Lewin, which of the following is not a stage in the change process?a. unfreezingb. changingc. refreezingd. restraining

19A company that decides to decentralize its sales procedures is managing what change category?a. technologyb. peoplec. competitorsd. structure

20.In organizations, people who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing the change process are called ______________.a. change mastersb. change agentsc. operations managersd. charismatic leaders

MMMRegular Exam

Subject: Integrated Marketing Communications and Digital MarketingSemester: VI

1. Communication is __________ A. Conveying messageB. Where there is sender and receiverC. A process where common meaning gets conveyedD. Talking to someone

2. Promotion mix consists ofA. Product, price, place, promotionB. Advertising, Personnel selling, PR, Sales promotion, Direct marketing, Digital

marketingC. Product length, width, depthD. None of the given options

3. The that is selected to communicate the product/service to clientele forms the promotional mix.A. Marketing.B. Product.C. Promotional budgetsD. Promotionalmethods.

4. Factors considered while setting the budget for promotionincludeA. Nature of product, PLC and Market shareB. Product type and advertising agencyC. Market Share and purchasing powerD. Share price and Company image

5. _______ means the use of short-term incentives which are designed to encourage immediate purchase of the product.A. Advertising.B. Samples.C. Promotion.D. Salespromotion.

6. Today's marketers need __________.

A. neither creativity nor critical thinking skillsB. both creativity and critical thinking skillsC. critical thinking skills but not creativityD. creativity but not critical thinking skills

7. __________ involves high price and high promotion.

A. Rapid skimmingB. Slow skimmingC. Rapid penetrationD. Slow penetration

8. _________ is the only revenue generating element amongst the four Ps.A. PriceB. ProductC. PlaceD. Promotion

9. The final stage of the IMC planning model is _________.A. Budget determinationB. The development of the media strategyC. Analysis of communication processD. Monitoring, evaluation, and control

10. Promotion mix includes tools likeA. Advertising, product development, Sales promotion, Personal selling and direct

marketingB. Advertising, sales promotion, Personal selling, Distribution network, and direct

marketingC. Advertising, Public Relations, Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Direct MarketingD. Product, price, place, public relations

11. _________ can be defined as the way by which organizations attempt to inform, convince and remind customers indirectly or directly about the brands and products they offer.

A. Marketing communicationsB. Marketing plansC. Marketing strategiesD. Sales Promotion

12. The marketing mix is made up of _______ types of communication.

A. SevenB. SixC. EightD. Nine

13 Any paid type of non-personal promotion and presentation of goods, services or ideas by an identified sponsor isA. Sales promotion

B Direct marketingC. Events and experiencesD. Advertising

14 Numerous forms of short-term incentives to promote trial or buying of a service of product is

A. Sales promotionB. Direct marketingC. Events and experiencesD. Advertising

15 Company sponsored programs and activities planned to create special brand related interactions is

A. Sales promotionB. Direct marketingC. Events and experiencesD. Advertising

16 Mobile marketing has innovative ways to reach the consumer. Which of the following is not one of them?

A. Mobile retail payments

B. Barcode calls-to-action

C. Yellow pages advertising

D. Mobile apps

17 While launching the new products, extensions of new brands or flanker brands, the most important element is

A. Reach

B. Frequency

C. Impact

D. None of the given options

18 ________ is called a completion of actionA. Conman

B. Conversion

C. Finished

D. Converse

19 The group who thinks technology as means to better keep up with their daily lives and jobs is

A. Lacklustre veterans

B. Productivity enhancers

C. Omnivores

D. Connectors

20 The best way to promote a business with social media isA. To advertise your company, services and products

B. To collect as many contacts as possible

C. Offer a lot of helpful and free information

D. Invite potential clients to visit your website

MET’S Institute of Management Lead Cluster –MMM/MFM/MHRDM/MIM 17-20 Question bank StrategicManagement

1. Stability strategy is a strategy

A. corporate levelB. business levelC. functional levelD. strategic level

2. Marketing strategy is type of strategy

A. Business levelB. Corporate levelC. Growth strategyD. Functional strategy

3. What does Question mark symbolize in BCG Matrix?A. Remain diversifiedB. InvestC. StableD. Liquidate

4. The BCG Matrix is based on A. Industry attractiveness & business strengthB. Industry growth & business strengthC. Industry attractiveness & relative market share D. Industry growth rate & relative market share

5. Which environment can create new market & new business segment?A. PoliticalB. EconomicC. Social D. Technological

6. Vision statement talks about

A. What a firm wants to becomeB. Strengths & limitations of a firmC. Social obligations of a firmD. Current business of a firm

7. A concept of Core competency was developed byA. C.K. Prahalad & Gary HamelB. Michael PorterC. Philip KotlerD. Pankaj Ghemawat

8. Apple is ___ & ___ .

A. Fast follower & premium playerB. Experience provider &premium playerC. Premium player & reputation playerD. Consolidator & value player

9. Vodafone Idea Limited is a example of :,A. Joint ventureB. AllianceC. MergerD. Co-branding

10.Most of the Chinese car making companies use a strategy called:

A. Reverse engineeringB. Blue ocean strategy C. Reverse innovationD. Turnaround strategy

11.Stability Strategy in which we have Profit Strategy includes all except ONE:

A. Reduce investmentsB. Cut costsC. Reduce productionD. Raise prices

12. In expansion Strategies the reasons for growth include the following. Select all the correct answer.

A. Natural urge and SurvivalB. Product marketingC. Talent managementD. None of the above

13. Private companies become public for several reasons except ONE.A. Increase in capital base: This helps in raising loansB. Foreign collaboration: Foreign firms normally prefer to have collaborations with

public companies.C. Reduce employee headcount.D. Respectability.

14.A supplier group is powerful if the following apply. Select the correct answers.

A. The supplier’s product is an important input to the buyer’s businessB. The supplier’s products are similar and it has no switching costsC. Supplier poses absolutely no threat of forward integrationD. The industry is not an important customer of the group.

15. In Leadership by Direction the below are the features except ONE.A. Detailed instructions on work and methodologyB. Maximum use of people management skillsC. One-way communicationD. Decisions taken by leader

16.What are the Management competencies, Select the Incorrect answer.A. InfluencingB. LeadershipC. CommunicationD. Personal career

17.Which of the following are parts of Strategic Implementation? Select the correct answer.

A. Resource AllocationB. Business Level strategiesC. Strategic IntentD. Controls

18.Marketing Capability factors relate to the 4Ps include all except ONE

A. Product related factors: variety, differentiation etc.B. Production related factors: quality, scale, size etc.C. Price related factors: Pricing objectives and policies etc.D. Place related: distribution, logistics, marketing intermediaries’ etc.

19.A _____ is a limitation of a company which can hinder its growth.A. LocationB. WeaknessC. StrengthD. Threat

20. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be used by a company that istrying to increase its market share for its current products in the new market?

A. DiversificationB. Market penetrationC. Market developmentD. Product development

MMMRegular Exam

Subject: Strategic Marketing ManagementSemester: VI

1. The executive summary in an annual marketing plan:A. describes actions to be taken if specific threats or opportunities materialize during the planning period.B. specifies the goals to be accomplished in terms of sales volume, market share, and profit. C. examines the past performance of the product and the elements of its marketing program, such as distribution and promotion. D. presents a short overview of the issues, objectives, strategy, and actions incorporated in the plan and their expected outcomes for quick management review.

2. Which of the following sections of an annual marketing plan would contain plans to be implemented if specific threats or opportunities should occur during the planning period?A. Action planB. Marketing strategyC. Profit-and-loss statementD. Contingency plan

3. _____ refers to the division of tasks and activities across positions within the organizational unit. A. FormalizationB. CentralizationC. SpecializationD. Orientation

4. The objective of a _____ strategy is to generate cash quickly by maximizing cash flow over a relatively short term.A. harvesting B. maintenance C. profitable survivorD. niche

5. _____ refers to the ease with which weaker competitors can leave the market. A. Time to marketB. Conditions of demandC. Intensity of future competitive rivalryD. Exit barriers

6. In________ an organization decides the price that would yield its target rate of ROI.

A. Mark up pricingB. Target return pricingC. Perceived value pricing

D. Value pricing

7. Which among these is concerned with pricing policies for late entrants to a market.

A. Market penetration

B. Marketing research

C. Market skimming

D. Marketing skills

8. The process of setting a low initial price for attracting a large number of buyers quickly to cover a large market share is known as

A. Going-rate pricing

B. Penetration pricing

C. Value based pricing

D. Skimming pricing

9. The first level in the customer value hierarchy is __________

A. Core benefitB. Basic productC. Expected productD. Augmented product

10. The ___________ of a product mix implies to how many different product lines the company carriers.

A. Length

B. Depth

C. Width

D. Consistency

11.A high market growth, low relative market share product is called:

A. A Question MarkB. A StarC. A Cash cowA. A Dog

12.A low market growth, high relative market share product is called:A. A Question MarkB. A StarC. A Cash cow

B. A Dog

13. The strategy adopted for existing product in existing market is called:A. Market Penetration StrategyB. Product Development StrategyC. Market Development StrategyD. Diversification Strategy

14. The strategy adopted for existing product in new market is called:A. Market Penetration StrategyB. Product Development StrategyC. Market Development StrategyD. Diversification Strategy

15. The strategy adopted for NEW product in NEW market is called:A. Market Penetration StrategyB. Product Development StrategyC. Market Development StrategyD. Diversification Strategy

16.A theatre charges different prices as per audience preferences. It is known as

A. Customer segment pricingB. Location pricingC. Product form pricingD. Channel pricing

17. The discount provided by a manufacturer to trade-channel members if they do certain functions is termed as

A. Seasonal discountB. Functional discountC. AllowanceD. Rebate

18.What is the hierarchy of strategies?

A. Corporate Strategy, Business Level Strategy and Functional StrategyB. Management Strategy, Client Strategy and Supplier StrategyC. Finance Strategy, Marketing Strategy and Operations StrategyD. Product Strategy, Promotions Strategy and Pricing Strategy

19.Some questions which are asked while formulating a Corporate Strategy are:A. What businesses are we in?B. What businesses should we be in?C. How do we allocate the resources among the businesses?D. All of the given options

20.Some questions which are asked while formulating Business Level Strategy are: A. How a business unit competes within its industry?

B. What distinctive competencies are required?C. How many and which market segments to compete in?D. All of the given options

MFMRegular Exam

Subject: Treasury ManagementSemester: VI

1. Due to COVID, to create liquidity, RBI governor Shaktikanta Das hasA) Cut CRRB) Raised CRR C) Kept CRR unchangedD) None of the above

2. Due to COVID and low inflation, RBI hasA) Cut repo rate B) Raised repo rateC) Kept repo rate unchanged D) None of the above

3. When interest rates go up in the economy, the prices of listed bondsA) Do not reactB) Go upC) Go downD) None of the above

4. When interest rates go down in the economy, the prices of listed bonds A) Go upB) Do not reactC) Go downD) None of the above

5. When interest rates go up in the economy , the yields of listed bondsA) Do not reactB) Go upC) Go downD) None of the above

6. When interest rates go down in the economy, the yields of listed bonds A) Do not react B) Go upC) Go downD) None of the above

7. Ability of a business concern to borrow or build up assets on the basis of a given capitalis called.

A. debt service coverage ratioB. good willC. reputationD. Leverage

8. Protection of risk in a transaction usually through derivatives product is called.A. insuranceB. swapC. hedgeD. arbitrage

9. For the organization point of view treasury is considered to beA. Investment centreB. Fund management departmentC. service centreD. commercial bank

10. A treasury transaction with a customer is known as…..A. Merchant banking businessB. Trading businessC. investment businessD. commercial banking

11. Which act relating to foreign exchange has replace earlier one?A. Foreign Exchange Management ActB. Foreign Exchange Regulation ActC. SEBI ActD. IRDA Act

12. Which of the following instruments is used by public to directly lend to the Government?A. Bank DepositB. Treasury BillsC. Post Office SchemesD. Corporate Papers

13. What is NDTL in Banking?A. No Demand & Time LiabilitiesB. Net Demand & Time LiabilitiesC. New Demand & time LiabilitiesD. Net Corporate Liabilities

14.What are the two reserve requirements of a Banks Treasury to comply with?

A. CRR & Repo Rate B. SLR & PLRC. CRR & SLRD. CRR & MCLR

15.

15.Integrated in Bank Treasury refers to:

A. Computerisation of all bank’s branchesB. Computerisation of all banks operationsC. Centralisation of bank's bank back office operations

D. Integration of Money Market, Forex & Securities operations

16. Treasury in the normal course will manage:

A. All funds raised through DepositB. All deployment of LoansC. LiquidityD. ALM book, merchant book & trading book

17. __________arises due to default by any country/Govt to the transaction

A. Major party RiskB. Country RiskC. Opposite Party riskD. Minor party risk

18.Base Rate & MCLR is decided by:a. RBIb. Planning comissionc. Bank’s Alcod. Corporate & Primary Dealers

19.Under a “TOM Value” transaction, the rate is agreed today but the settlement is to be done on:

A. Next working dayB. Same day

C. 3 Working days after the date of deal

D. 4 working days after the date of deal

20.Currencies are issued by:a. Commercial Banksb. Crypto currency companyc. RBId. NBFCS & Primary Dealers

MIM Regular Exam

Subject: Technology Competition and Strategy Semester: VI

1. A two by two product evaluation matrix evaluates a product based on following two broad parameters. A. Brand value of the company (2) Time period B. Revenue generated by the product over the period (2) Investment done by the firm in the product. C. Is the product new to the world? (2) What is the company’s business strength or competitive position for this type of product? D. Product sell count or quantity (2) Time period

2. One popular type of strategic analysis is based on using the market-growth-market--

share matrix popularized by_____ A. Philip Kotler B. The Boston Consulting Group. C. Harvard business school D. Michal Porter

3. Under product/ market expansion grid strategy of making more sell of current

product in current market without altering it is called as______ A. Market penetration B. Diversification C. Product development D. Market development

4. Analysts can review the factors listed in the SWOT matrix and develop four types of

strategies mentioned in options: Which one of the following strategy is defined in wrong manner? A. Strengths-opportunities (SO) strategies: in which organization uses its internal strengths to take advantage of external opportunities. B. Weaknesses opportunities (WO) strategies: in which the organization attempts to overcome weaknesses by taking advantage of internal opportunities. C. Strengths threats (ST) strategies: in which the organization uses its internal strengths to fend off external threats. D. Weaknesses-threats (WT) strategies: in which the organization develops ap-proaches to reducing its internal weaknesses and avoiding external threats.

5. Which criteria mentioned in the options to support any project is irrelevant with

respect to Technology Competition and Strategy. A. Whether the project supports the business goal B. Whether the project solves customer problems.

C. Whether the project protects and/or establishes technological leadership D. Whether the project have a required infrastructure available.

6. This model is highly firm centric where the firm believes that the competitive edge lies in its ability to innovate A. Conventional B. Contemporary C. Competitive D. None of the given options

7. Technology and Competitive Advantage includes all except ONE. A. Significant role to change relative cost position or differentiation B. Impact on cost drivers C. No Impact on uniqueness drivers D. Discover a better technology to perform a value activity than your competitor

8. Tests of a desirable technological change includes which of the following. Select the Incorrect response.

A. Increased costs, enhances differentiation, lead is unsustainable B. Shifts drivers in firm’s favour C. Pioneering leads to 1st mover advantages D. Improves overall industry structure

9. Transilience Generates different types of innovations. Identify the correct ones.

A. Architectural B. Regular C. Niche creation D. Revolutionary E. All the above

10. Formulating technology Operations includes the following

A. Identify all technologies in the value chain B. Identify potential technologies in other industries C. Determine the likely path of technology evolution D. None of the above

11. A knowledge-creating company or learning organization includes which of the following.

A. Consistently creates new business knowledge B. Disseminates it throughout the company C. Builds it into its products and services. D. All of the above

12. Inter-enterprise information systems link includes the following. Identify the Incorrect one.

A. Customers

B. Suppliers C. Manufacturers D. Competitors

13- A strategy is considered successful when it is:

a- Open to last minute changes

b- Capital efficient

c-Smart

d- None of the given options

14- Below factor is NOT part of PREST Analysis

a- Political

b-Social

c-Time bound


15- Choice of Positioning is done for:

a- Find weak spot where competition is weakest

b- To arrive in the price range for the product

c. Find strong spot where competition is strong


16- Which of the following publishes top 10 strategic technology trends

a- Gartner

b- McKinsey

c- FICCi


17- Edge computing does:

a- Store information in single database

b-Collection and process information near the source of information

c- Storage of information in cloud


18- Below is NOT responsibility of CTO:

a- Create financial gap analysis

b- Create network with prestigious institution

c-Shape technology culture of the organization


19-Price based differentiation is used effectively by firms of size:

a-Large Size

b-Mid Size

c-Small Size


20- Niche strategy is also called as :

a-Focussed differentiation

b-Scale Differentiation

c-Volume Differentiation


MIM

Regular Exam

Subject: Project Management

Semester: VI

1. Based on the above Problem, what would be Cost Performance Index (CPI) and

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)? A. CPI – 0.90 & SPI – 0.65 B. CPI – 0.85 & SPI – 1.25 C. CPI – 0.95 & SPI – 0.75 D. CPI – 0.70 & SPI – 0.95

2. Given a project with Earned Value (EV) = 400, Actual Cost (AC) = 350 and Planned Value (PV) = 450. Original project budget was 1000. Estimate at Completion (EAC) of the project would be (CPI = 1.14):

A. 877 B. 1180 C. 900 D. 820

3. As part of Earned Value Analysis/Earned Value Management, negative Cost Variance(CV) indicates:

A. Cost under the budget B. Cost over the budget i.e. over run C. Cost as per budget D. None of the given options

4. As part of Earned Value Analysis/Earned Value Management, positive Schedule Variance(SV) indicates:

A. Project is ahead of the schedule B. Project is behind the schedule C. Project is on track in terms of schedule D. None of the given options

5. As part of Earned Value Analysis/Earned Value Management, Cost Performance Index (CPI) > 1 indicates:

A. The work is being done as per plan B. The work is costing more than and/or proceeding more slowly than planned

C. The work is being completed better than planned D. None of the given options

6. Following are the appraisals undertaken for complete and systematic review of all aspects of a project except:

A. Market Appraisal B. Technical Appraisal C. Finance Appraisal D. Performance Appraisal

Reasons why estimating time and cost are important include all of the following except:

A. To schedule work B. To determine how long the project should take and cost C. To develop cash flow needs D. All of the above can be done with time and cost estimation

7. Which of the following is not one of the basic classifications of project priorities?

a. Profit b. Cost c. Time d. Performance

8. The lowest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is

a. A deliverable b. A work package c. A cost account d. A lowest sub deliverable

9. In practice, estimating processes are frequently classified as

a. Top down/bottom up b. Rough/polished c. Precise/order of magnitude d. Draft/final

10. All of the following are included in the risk identification process except A. Customers B. Subcontractors C. Competitors D. Vendors

11. A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal is known as a

A. Strategy B. Program C. Campaign D. Crusade

12. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the creation of forecasts?

A. Conceptualizing B. Defining C. Planning D. Executing

13. A critical path network diagram does NOT: A. Calculate the duration of the whole project B. Calculate earned value C. Identify the particularly important activities D. Help determine the amount of float

14. Which of the following should be taken into account when planning a project? A. Operational environment B. Social environment C. Political environment D. All of the given options

15. What is the critical path through the network below?

4

7

G

C E

D

B

A

6

2

4

2

4 1

2

5

3

5 F

A. 1-2, 2-5 B. 1-2, 2-4, 4-5 C. 1-3, 3-4, 4-5 D. 1-4, 4-5

16. Following technique is widely used in R&D Projects

A. CPM B. PERT C. CPM & PERT D. None of the given options

17. Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager

A. Budgeting and cost control B. Allocating resources C. Tracking project expenditure D. All of the given options

18. What are the Floats available in numerical analogy? A. Total Float B. Free Float C. Independent Float D. All of the given options

19. What is Float? A. spare time available in a non critical activity B. spare time available in a critical activity C. total time available in a non critical activity D. total time available in a critical activity

MET

Subject : Strategic Human Resource Management

Course: MHRDM III year

1. ____________ is a visual tool that shows the tasks and skills required for specific roles and the current competency and skill level of each employee for each task.

A. Performance X Potential Matrix.

B. 9 X 9 Matrix

C. Skills Matrix.

D. Behavioural Indicator Matrix

2. Which approach is NOT an approach for staffing subsidiaries of multinational corporations?

A. Ethnocentric

B. Polycentric

C. Concentric

D. Geocentric

3. New employees are more likely to leave the organisation when

A. When the new starter realizes that the job was oversold to him at the interview.

B. When the new starter realize that they are unable to perform at level expected to do.

C. When the new starter realizes that the organisation culture is different to what they are used to and they do not just fit in the new culture.

D. All of the given options.

4. All of these are necessary for a skills matrix EXCEPT which?

A. An action plan.

B. Employees’ names.

C. A List of tasks.

D. A ranking system.

5. The following is NOT a benefit of Competency based HRM for employers.

A. Ensures that organisation-funded training and professional development activities are cost-effective, goal-oriented and productive.

B. Reduces cost overruns caused by poor performance or miscommunication of job expectations.

C. Increases internal employee mobility, providing the organisation with greater ability, scale and flex as needed.

D. Improves Employee Engagement

6. What is the effect of cross border mergers and acquisitions?

A. All of the given options.

B. Restructuring of industrial assets and production structure.

C. Global transfer of Technology, Manpower, Capital, Goods.

D. Economies of Scale.

7. 5 P HR Model includes

A. HR Philosophy, HR Policies, HR Programme, HR Practice, HR Processes. .

B. HR Philosophy, HR Populations, HR Policies, HR Payment, HR Processes.

C. HR Philosophy, HR Population, HR Perceptions, HR Prayers, HR Processes.


8. What factors have enhanced the significance of Human Resource Planning in organisations?

A. Changes in Labour Market

B. All of the given options.

C. Technological advancement

D. Competitive Business Environment

9. Which one below is NOT On the job training method?

A. Coaching

B. Apprenticeship

C. Job rotation

D. Lecture

10. New employees are more likely to leave the organisation when

A. When the new starter realizes that the job was oversold to him at the interview.

B. When the new starter realize that they are unable to perform at level expected to do.

C. When the new starter realizes that the organisation culture is different to what they are used to and they do not just fit in the new culture.


11.What are the Human Resource Challenges in Merger and acquisitions

A. Managing employee insecurity during mergersB. Ensuring continued employee productivityC. Developing HR initiatives to manage employee moraleD. All of the given options

12.What is the Role HR Manager in Strategic Human Resource Management

A. Employee Champion

B. Change AgentC. Partner in Business StrategyD. All of the given options

13. In below list which is not the Benefit of HR OutsourcingA. Outsourcing help to reduce organizational costB. Possibility of losing operating controlC. Externalising routine, administrative taskD. None of the given options

14.What is Competencies?A. Competencies are the characteristics of an employee that lead to the

demonstration of skills & abilities, which result in effective performance within an occupational area

B. An underlying characteristic of a person result in effective and / or superior performance on the job

C. A cluster of related knowledge, skills and abilities that affects a major part of onesjob, that correlates with the performance on the job, that can be measured against well –accepted standards and that can be improved via training and development.

D. All of the given options

15.SWOT Analysis meansA. Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, ThreatsB. Strength, Wide, Opposite, TriangleC. Straight, Window, Open, TopD. None of the given options

16. Traditional HRM means A. Staff personnel in the HR DepartmentB. Reactive and transactionalC. Slow, piecemeal and fragmented not integrated with larger issuesD. All of the given options

17.Strategic Human Resource Management meansA. Line Managers, all managers responsible for people are HR managerB. Proactive and transformational, change leaderC. Fast, flexible and systematic, change initiative implemented.D. All of the given options

18.Schuler (1992) 5P HR model includesA. HR Philosophy, HR Policies, HR Programme, HR Practise, HR Processes

B. HR Philosophy, HR Population, HR Programme, HRPayments, HR ProcessesC. HR Philosophy, HR Prayers, HR Perceptions, HR Population, HR ProcessesD. All of the given options

19.CTC stands for A. Cost to CompanyB. Care to CompanyC. Cause to CompanyD. None of the given options

20.HRP stands A. Human Resource PlanningB. Humanity related PlanningC. Health Related PlanningD. All of the given options

met subject: change management course: mhrdm iii year

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