Etiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

MCQs in Psychiatry

1. The term for a false perception of a sensory stimulus in the absence of a stimulus is

A) Hallucination

B) Illusion

C) Delusion

D) Derealization

E) Depersonalization

2. A condition in which the patient feels detached from herself is called

A) Derealization

B) Depersonalization

C) Illusion

D) Hallucination

E) Detachment

3. Circumstantiality is a disorder of

A) moodB) affect

C) speech

D) behavior

E) thinking

4. A person who laughs one minute and cries the next without any clear stimulus has

A) Flat affect

B) Euphoria

C) Labile mood

D) Labile affect

E) Split personality

5. An example of a specific phobia is fear of

A) horses

B) public transportation

C) bridges

D) Social situations

E) Crowds

6. Posttraumatic stress disorder differs from adjustment disorder in that

A) it occurs in veterans

B) impairment of social functioning occurs

C) it persists long after the stress has abated

D) it is characterized by preoccupation with the stress

E) it can be accompanied by depression

7. Which of the following psychotropic drugs is most likely to produce a severe withdrawal syndrome when suddenly discontinued?A) amtitriptylineB) alprazolam

C) chlorpromazine

D) benztropine

E) lithium carbonate

8. The term ego syntonic refers specifically to

A) ideas suggested by another individual rather than independently derived

B) a dissociative state such as psychogenic fugue or amnesia

C) the recognition ones own thoughts as unacceptableD) the belief in ones own hallucinationsE) a character style where patients don't recognize that anything is wrong with them that need to be changed

9. All of the presentations described below are consistent with normal grief reactions EXCEPTA) complaints regarding exhaustion or lack of strength

B) feelings of increased emotional distance

C) preoccupation with guilt and personal responsibility

D) increased activity without feelings of loss

E) feelings of irritability, hostility, and anger

10. All of the following statements concerning conduct disorder are true EXCEPT thatA) there is higher incidence in pre-pubertal boys than pre-pubertal girls

B) there is higher incidence in post-pubertal boys than post-pubertal girls

C) there higher incidence in children of alcoholic parents than in the general population

D) AD/HD can be a predisposing factorE) almost 10% of boys 18 years of age or younger meet diagnostic criteria

11. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder is characterized by all the following EXCEPTA) psychological complaints or physical symptoms

B) begin the week prior to menstruation

C) resolve shortly after the onset of the menstrual flow

D) a well established etiology

E) symptoms must be of such severity as to impair functioning

12. The treatment of choice for reversing anti-cholinergic delirium is A) dantrolene

B) bethanecol

C) physostigmine

D) bromocriptine

E) haloperidol

13. The term dementia describes all of the following clinical states EXCEPTA) gradual decline in certain mental operations such as orientation, cognition, and memory

B) presence of a specific language disorder such as aphasia, alexia, or agraphia

C) onset of behavioral changes including apathy, eccentricity, and distractibilityD) sudden loss of intellectual functioning, such as following an anoxic episode or a CVAE) intellectual decline accompanied by neurological abnormalities

14. When a psychiatrist asked a patient You said you got up this morning and put on your shmurple. What does that mean? the patient plies, This (pointing to his purple shirt). In this context the word shmurple is an example of

A) circumstantiality

B) verbigerationC) neologism

D) clang association

E) echolalia

15. A patient reported that he saw a man feeding two cats in the park on his way. He says that this means his future will be decided in 2 weeks. The term that best describes this mode of thinking isA) illusionB) hallucination

C) delusion

D) loosed association

E) neologism

16. An adequate trial of lithium therapy has proved unsuccessful in the treatment of a 24-year-old woman. Which of the following drugs would b most reasonable to describe next?

A) chlorpromazine

B) carbamazepine

C) alprazolam

D) amitriptyline

E) olanzapine

17. Identity disorder of adolescence is considered to be related to which of the following types of adult personality disorder?A) borderline

B) paranoid

C) narcissistic

D) schizoid

E) dependent

18. Antisocial personality disorder is considered to be

A) synonymous with criminal behavior

B) the male counterpart of histrionic personality disorderC) correlated with EEG studies suggesting cortical immaturity

D) a more serious personality disorder than compulsive personality disorder

E) amenable to pharmacologic treatment with anti-androgenic agents

19. The term circumstantiality refers specifically to A) a formal thought disorder in which there is a lack of goal-directed thinking

B) the enunciation of a long string of nonsense syllables

C) an atypical expression for malingering in the special case of factitious disorder with psychological symptoms

D) speech that unnecessarily long-winded and tedious but that maintains logical direction

E) the tendency to be retiring and noncommittal in an interview20. All of following statements regarding the clinical presentation of anorexia nervosa are true EXCEPT thatA) there may be emphasized interest in food preparation and consumption

B) self-induced vomiting is often presentC) female patients may report menstrual irregularity or amenorrhea

D) patients frequently complain about being underweight

E) there may be an associated abuse of laxatives or diuretics or both21. The diagnosis of Alzheimers disease is confirmed byA) CT scan

B) EEG

C) laboratory investigation

D) neurological examination

E) none of the above

22. Of the following antipsychotic drugs, which has the lowest anti-cholinergic potency?A) haloperidol

B) fluphenazine

C) trifluoperazine

D) chlorpromazine

E) thioridazine

23. Delirium is distinguished from dementia by the presence ofA) impaired judgment

B) impaired memory

C) clouding of consciousness

D) thought disorder

E) disorientation

24. The condition in which a person cannot produce normal language due to a neurologic condition is known asA) dysarthria

B) stuttering

C) echolalia

D) pressured speech

E) aphasia

25. A compound that is found at a decreased level in the CSF of violent offendersA) nor epinephrine

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) 5-HIAA

E) lactic acid

26. The prevalence rate is similar in men and women forA) major depressive disorder

B) dysthymic disorder

C) B I D

D) B II D

E) cyclothymic disorder

27. The diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder requires which one of the following criteria?A) repeated episodes of hypomania and depression

B) a minimum duration of 6 months

C) at least one prior major depressive episode

D) at least one prior manic episode

E) comorbid substance abuse

28. A 30-year-old man complaining of panic attacks and anticipatory anxiety. Which one of the following drugs would be effective for his treatment?A) haloperidol

B) venlafaxine

C) pentobarbital

D) carbamazepineE) clonazepam

29. A person with which one of the following personality disorders is less likely to seek medical care or psychiatric treatment?A) dependent

B) antisocial

C) borderline

D) schizoid

E) obsessive-compulsive

30. Tactile hallucinations of insects crawling over the skin are calledA) hypnagogicB) hypnopompic

C) formication

D) kinesthetic

E) gustatory

DIRECTIONS (Questions 31 through 44): Each group of items in this section consists of lettered headings followed by a set of numbered words or phrases, select the ONE lettered heading that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.Questions 31 through 36For each statement below describing drug side effects, select the psychotropic medication with which it is most likely to be associated.

(A) lithium carbonate

(B) phenelzine

(C) diazepam

(D) clozapine

(E) haloperidol

(F) thioridazine

31. Dosage above the recommended upper limit can lead to retinitis pigmentosa32. Sudden development of a severe throbbing headache signals a possible medical emergency

33. GI distress and fine tremor of the hands indicate toxicity

34. In low doses, its relative lack of autonomic side effects make it a drug of choice in the treatment of agitation in elderly individuals

35. Inhibition of ejaculation is a characteristic side effect

36. Agranulocytosis313233343536

Questions 37 through 40For each class of psychoactive drug, select the specific agent that is a member of that class.

(A) phenelzine

(B) clomipramine

(C) benztropine

(D) clonazepam

(E) haloperidol

37. Tricyclic antidepressant

38. Neuroleptic (antipsychotic)

39. MAO inhibitor

40. Anticonvulsant

37383940

Questions 41 through 44In conducting a mental status examination, assessment of language and communication is essential in determining whether or not a patient has a formal thought disorder. For each description of verba behavior, select the term with which it is associated.

(A) incoherence

(B) derailment(C) perseveration(D) neologism(E) pressure of speech41. An increase in the amount of spontaneous speech as compared with what is considered ordinary42. A pattern of speech that is essentially incomprehensible

43. A pattern of spontaneous speech in which ideas slip into other ideas that are clear but unrelated

44. New word formation, either a word in which the derivation cannot be understood or a word in which the meaning will be evident even though the usage is peculiar.

DIRECTIONS (Questions 45 through 54): Each group of items in this section consists of lettered headings followed by a set of numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word or phrase, selectA if the item is associated with (A) only,

B if the item is associated with (B) only,

C if the item is associated with both (A) and (B),

D if the item is associated with neither (A) nor (B).Questions 45 through 50(A) bipolar disorder

(B) schizophrenia

(C) both

(D) neither

45. Premorbid developmental history typically is normal46. Hospitalization is strongly indicated sometimes

47. Suicide risk is greater than in controls

48. Euphoria, irritability, poor impulse control, and distractibility are cardinal symptoms

49. affected persons typically show residual symptoms even when the disease is inactive

50. four days of so severe symptoms are enough for diagnosis454647484950

Questions 51 through 54(A) panic disorder

(B) generalized anxiety disorder

(C) both

(D) neither

51. A coexisting major depressive episode often is diagnosed52. Caffeine intoxication must be considered in the differential diagnosis

53. Identifiable worrisome situations often trigger symptoms

54. Recommended drug treatment includes use of long-acting benzodiazepines51525354

PAGE 2. MCQ psychiatry