mcq's bank

.CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

1. Which of the following is a non adapting receptor?a) hair end organ c) chemoreceptorb) Pacinian corpuscle d) nocioceptor

2. Theta waves of EEG have a frequency of :a) 0.5 to 3.5 / second c) 8 to 13 / secondb) 4 to 7 / second d) 14 t o 30 / second

3. Which of the following characteristics of an axon is most dependent on its diameter?a) The magnitude of it’s resting potential c)The duration of its refractory period

b) The conduction velocity of its action potential d) The activity of its sodium-potassium pump4. Which of the following is a non adapting receptor?

a) hair end organ c) chemoreceptorb) Pacinian corpuscle d) nocioceptor

5. Theta waves of EEG have a frequency of : a) 0.5 to 3.5 / second c) 14 t o 30 / secondb) 4 to 7 / second d) 8 to 13 / second

6.Which of the following is a non adapting receptor?a) hair end organ c) chemoreceptorb) Pacinian corpuscle d) nocioceptor

7.Lesions within the basal ganglia produce all of the following signs EXCEPTa) hypotonia c) tremorb) Hemiballismus d) hypokinesia

8.Receptors for pressure sensation detection are in the form of a) Paccinian corpuscles c) Ruffini’s end organb) Merkel’s disc d) Free nerve endings

9. In a patient with nystagmus, the most likely site of injury in the CNS isa) Posterior cerebellum c) Cerebral cortexb) Vestibular apparatus d) Reticular formation

10.Thirst centre is stimulated by the following EXCEPT a) Raised osmolarity of body fluids c) Vasopressin b) Fall in ECF volume d) Angiotensin II

11.All are deep reflexes EXCEPT a) biceps reflex c) supinator reflexb) Knee jerk d) Plantar reflex

12. Lesion of the substantia nigra leads to a) Chorea c) hemiballismus b) Parkinsonism d) hemiplegia13. Corticospinal tracts cross at the level of a) pons c) midbrain b) medulla d) spinal cord14. Which nerve fibres carry slow pain sensation? a) Aδ c) Aγ b) C d) Aβ15. Triad of cerebellar lesion is: a) Intention tremor, Nystagmus, Hypertonia c) Intention tremor, Nystagmus, Hypotonia b) Tremor at rest, Mask like face, Rigidity d) Mask like face, Tremors, Rigidity16. In cases of antero grade amnesia such as often occurs among chronic alcoholics, the disturbance affects primarily a) Access to the secondary memory b) Transfer from the sensory to the primary memory c) Transfer from the secondary to the tertiary memory d) Transfer from the primary to the secondary memory17. Which of the following sensation is NOT carried in the dorsal columns? a) Heat c) Vibration b) Joint sensation d) Muscle spindle sensation 18. The following substances are added to urine by means of tubular secretion, EXCEPT

a) Urea c) K+b) H+ d) Creatinine19. The fovea of the eyea) has the lowest light threshold c) is the region of highest visual acuity

b) contains only rods d) contains only red and green cones20.Which characteristic of a sensory stimulus is encoded better by phasic receptors than by tonic receptors? a) how strong the stimulus is c) the duration of the stimulus b) the type of energy producing the stimulus d) how rapidly the stimulus is applied21. Which of the following is most closely related to slow wave sleep? a) irregular heart rates c) Atonia b) High frequency electroencephalogram waves d) bedwetting

22. Lesions within the basal ganglia produce all of the following signs EXCEPTa) hypotonia c) Hemiballismusb) tremor d) hypokinesia

23. Receptors for pressure sensation detection are in the form of a) Paccinian corpuscles c) Merkel’s discb) Ruffini’s end organ d) Free nerve endings

24. In a patient with nystagmus, the most likely site of injury in the CNS isa) Posterior cerebellum c) Vestibular apparatusb) Cerebral cortex d) Reticular formation

25. Thirst centre is stimulated by the following EXCEPTa) Raised osmolarity of body fluids c) Fall in ECF volumeb) Angiotensin II d) Vasopressin

26. All are deep reflexes EXCEPTa) biceps reflex c) supinator reflexb) Knee jerk d) Plantar reflex

27. Which one of the following sensory systems uses unmyelinated fibres to convey information to the CNS a) proprioception c) vibration b) temperature d) pressure28. Which characteristic of a sensory stimulus is encoded better by phasic receptors than by tonic receptors? a) how strong the stimulus is c) how rapidly the stimulus is applied b) the type of energy producing the stimulus d) the duration of the stimulus29. Which of the following is most closely related to slow wave sleep? a) irregular heart rates c) bedwetting b) Atonia d) High frequency electroencephalogram waves30. Corticospinal tracts cross at the level of a) pons c) midbrain b) medulla d) spinal cord

31. Blood brain barrier is made up of a) Microglia c) Astrocytes b) oligodendrites d) Small neurons32. Babinski’s sign is seen in

a) Parkinsonism c) Upper motor neuron lesionb) Cerebellar lesion d) Lower motor neuron lesion

33. Which one of the following receptors is responsible for monitoring the rate of muscle stretch?

a) Nuclear bag intrafusal fibres c) Nuclear chain intrafusal fibresb) golgi tendon organs d) joint receptors

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

1. Resting membrane potential in sinus nodal fibre is? a) -90mV c) +40mV b) -60mV d) -40mV2. An instantaneous electrical dipole originating in the myocardium is directed

horizontally to the left. It will produce the maximum deflection in: a) Lead I c) Lead II

b) Lead III d) AVL3. In a normal ECG first heart sound coincides with a) spike of R wave c) peak of Q wave b) beginning of T wave d) summit of P wave in ECG4. Interstitial fluid pressure is a) constant all the time c) always positive all over the body b) negative in some areas and positive in other areas d) always negative all over the body5. The velocity of conduction in Purkinje fibre in m/s is a) 1.5 to 4.0 c) 8.0 to 10.0 b) 5.5 to 7.0 d)12.0 to 15.06. The total systemic peripheral resistance is increased in response to a) decrease in blood volume c) hypertension produced from overtransfusion b) change from a reclining to a standing position d) Lifting a heavy load7. A pattern of turbulent rather than laminar blood flow in a systemic artery a) is more likely to occur in the aorta than the femoral artery b) is more likely to occur when there is reduction in blood viscosity as in anemia c) results in a higher pressure gradient for a given flow d) is associated with flow in distinct layers8. Edema formation can occur from all of the following except a) an increase in interstitial fluid pressure c) an increase in capillary filtration b) an increase in venous pressure d) a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure9. Blood flow rate is minimum in which of the following? a) capillaries c) arterioles b) aorta d) great veins10. An instantaneous electrical dipole originating in the myocardium is directed horizontally to the left. It will produce the maximum deflection in: a) Lead I c) Lead IIb) Lead III d) AVL

11. Interstitial fluid pressure is a) constant all the time c) always positive all over the body b) always negative all over the body d) negative in some areas and positive in other areas12. In a normal ECG first heart sound coincides with a) spike of R wave c) peak of Q wave b) beginning of T wave d) summit of P wave in ECG

13. The total systemic peripheral resistance is increased in response to a) decrease in blood volume c) change from a reclining to a standing position b) hypertension produced from over transfusion d) Lifting a heavy load14. A pattern of turbulent rather than laminar blood flow in a systemic artery a) is more likely to occur in the aorta than the femoral artery b) is more likely to occur when there is reduction in blood viscosity as in anemia c) results in a higher pressure gradient for a given flow d) is associated with flow in distinct layers15. On routine examination, a 45 year old male is found to have a blood pressure of 146/90 mm Hg. Thorough workup excludes an immediate cause of his hypertension and a diagnosis of essential hypertension is made. Long term regulation of arterial blood pressure in this patient is primarily a function of

a) total peripheral vascular resistance c) peripheral baroreceptorsb) the autonomic nervous system d) urine output and fluid intake

16. Measurements taken after an IV injection of inulin indicate that the substance appears to be distributed throughout 30%to 35% of the total body water. This finding suggests that inulin most likely is

a) excluded from the cells b) distributed uniformly throughout the total body water volume. c) restricted throughout the plasma volume d) not freely diffusible through capillary membranes17. Second heart sound (S2) occurs during which interval of the cardiac cycle? a) protodiastole c) Isovolumic relaxation b) First rapid filling phase d) Reduced ventricular ejection18. During exercise the following changes occur in cardiovascular function: a) Decreased pulse pressure c) Increased Cardiac output b) Increased peripheral resistance d) Decreased stroke volume19. After a strong contraction of the ventricle the end systolic volume can fall as much as: a) 40-60ML c) 10-30ML b) 0-20ML d) None of the above20. Hypoxia increases the blood flow in the following circulations EXCEPT a) Coronary c) Pulmonary b) Splanchnic d) Skeletal muscle21. Largest Cross sectional surface area in the circulatory system is found in

a) Arteries c) Veinsb) Arterioles d) Capillaries

22. Mean arterial pressure isa) average of systolic and diastolic pressureb) diastolic pressure plus one third pulse pressurec) diastolic pressure plus two thirds pulse pressured) systolic pressure plus one third pulse pressure

23. Vasomotor center consists of all the following areas EXCEPTa) C1 c) A1b) C2 d) A2

24. The delay of conduction of impulses at AV node in seconds is a) 0.04 c) 0.16 b) 0.09 d) 0.1225. In which of the following conditions does the heart rate decrease? a) fever c) hyperthyroidism b) anemia d) raised intracranial tension26. During moderate exercise increase in cardiac output in an athlete, is predominantly because of increase in a) heart rate c) venous return b) stroke volume d) sympathetic activity27. Identify the fluid compartment that contains approximately two-thirds of the total body water a) plasma c) interstitialb) intracellular d) extracellula28. A 60-kg patient has a hematocrit reading of 40 and a plasma volume of 3 litres. What is his total blood volume?

a) 4.0 litres c) 5.0 litres b) 6.0 litres d) 7.0 litres

29.Which of the following vessels will have the greatest change in pressure when going from a supine to an upright position? a) cerebral artery c) brachial arteryb) aorta d) femoral vein30. The variable that is most responsible for the change in resistance to blood flow in a healthy individual is the a) length of the vessel c) viscosity of the bloodb) radius of the arterioles d) radius of the aorta32. A FALSE statement concerning fluid exchange across the microvascular bed is : a) fluid exchange follows the laws of pressure filtration across a semipermeable membrane b) fluid is filtered outward at the arterial end of the vascular bed c) edema occurs if the plasma protein concentration is reduced drastically d) edema occurs if the arterial blood pressure decreases33. Which of the following is least likely to influence cerebral blood flow ? a) PO2 of the arterial blood c) pH of the interstitial fluid of the brain b) PCO2 of the arterial blood d. Vasomotor reflexes34. Which of the following represents exercising as opposed to resting skeletal muscle ? a) lower lymph flow c) lower capillary hydrostatic pressure b) lower arteriovenous oxygen difference d) lower vascular resistance35. In aortic stenosis : a) the peak left intraventricular pressure is lower than systolic arterial blood pressure b) the peak left intraventricular pressure is usually higher than systolic arterial blood pressure c) both the peak left intraventricular pressure and systolic arterial blood pressure are higher than normal (>120 mm Hg) d) both the peak left intraventricular pressure and systolic arterial blood pressure are lower than normal36.The dicrotic notch of the aortic blood pressure curve : a) is produced by the contraction of the left ventricle b) signals the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase c) associates with the third heart sound d) signals the closure of the aortic valve37. Increase volume work of the left ventricle occurs in :

a) aortic stenosisb) anemiac) interatrial septal defectd) hyperthyroidism

38. A patient suffers a blood loss over a period of 20 minutes. At the end of this period, his arterial pressure has changed from 100 to 70 mm Hg and his heart rate from 70 to 140/min. His hematocrit is 36% and his skin is cold. Which of the following conditions would not be expected to occur in this situation?

a) A decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure c) A decreased interstitial fluid volumeb) An increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure d) An increased total systemic resistance

39. Which of the following could produce a decrease in alveolar ventilation with no change in total ventilation?a) A decreased respiratory rate and tidal volumeb) An increased respiratory rate and decreased tidal volumec) A decreased respiratory rate and increased tidal volumed) An increased respiratory rate and tidal volume

40.Maximum conduction velocity is seen ina) A.V.Node c) S.A.Noded) Purkinje Fibres d) Ventricular muscle

41. In which of the following area is the first heart sound best heard?a) Pulmonary c) Aortic

c) Mitral d) Epigastric42. The volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle per beat is called

a) stroke volume c) minute volumec) cardiac index d) end-diastolic volume

43. Mean aterial pressure is

a) average of systolic and diastolic pressureb) diastolic pressure plus one third pulse pressure

c) diastolic pressure plus two thirds pulse pressured) systolic pressure plus one third pulse pressure

44. Cardiac Index is the ratio ofa) Cardiac output and body weight c) Cardiac output and surface area

b) Cardiac output and load of the heart d) Stroke volume and surface area45. Largest Cross sectional surface area in the circulatory system is found in

a) Arteries c) Veins b) arterioles d) Capillaries

46. Cardiac impulse normally originates ina) S.A.node c) A.V.node

b) Atrial fibres d) Ventricular fibres47. An increase in systemic blood pressure leads to which one of the following effects?

a. An increase in the velocity at which blood is ejected from the left ventricleb. An increase in cardiac output c. An increase in the residual volume of blood in the left ventricled. A decrease in the time it takes for the left ventricular wall to develop peak tensione. A decreased in the maximal wall tension developed in the left ventricular muscle

48. Which one of the following mechanisms is more important for maintaining an increased blood flow to skeletal muscle during exercise?a. An increase in aortic pressureb. An increase in α – adrenergic impulsesc. An increase in β1 – adrenergic impulsesd. Vasoconstriction in the splanchic and renal arease. Vasodilation within the skeletal muscle secondary to the effect of local metabolites

49. Maximum conduction velocity is seen ina. A.V.Node c. S.A.Node

b. Purkinje Fibres d. Ventricular muscle50. In which of the following area is the first heart sound best heard?

a. Pulmonary c. Aorticb. Mitral d. Epigastric

51. Mean arterial pressure isa. average of systolic and diastolic pressure c. diastolic pressure plus one third pulse pressureb. diastolic pressure plus two thirds pulse pressure

52. systolic pressure plus one third pulse pressureCardiac Index is the ratio ofa. Cardiac output and body weight

b. Cardiac output and surface areac. Cardiac output and load of the heartd. Stroke volume and surface area

53. Maximum conduction velocity is seen ina. A.V.Node c. S.A.Nodeb. Purkinje Fibres d. Ventricular muscle

54. Plateau phase of action potential in cardiac muscle is due toa. Calcium influx c Delayed closure of sodium channelsb. Delayed opening of potassium channels

55. All the above which of the following area is the first heart sound best heard?a. Pulmonary c. Aorticc. Mitral d. Epigastric

56. The volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle per beat is calleda. stroke volume c. minute volumeb. cardiac index d. end-diastolic volume

57. A patient suffers a blood loss over a period of 20 minutes. At the end of this period, his arterial pressure has changed from 100 to 70 mm Hg and his heart rate from 70 to 140/min. His hematocrit is 36% and his skin is cold. Which of the following conditions would not be expected to occur in this situation?

a. A decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure c. A decreased interstitial fluid volumeb. An increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure d. An increased total systemic resistance

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM1. Oxygen therapy is of maximum benefit in the following type of hypoxia

a. Hypoxic c. Histotoxicb. Stagnant d. Anaemic

2. A decrease in blood pH will displace the hemoglobin dissociation curve to the a. right and reduce the O2 carrying capacityb. right and no change in the O2 carrying capacityc. left and reduce the O2 carrying capacityd. left and no change in the O2 carrying capacity

3. If surfactant is absent from the alveolia) airway resistance will decrease c) compliance will decreaseb) compliance will increase d) recoil will decrease

4. A decrease in blood pH will displace the hemoglobin dissociation curve to the a) right and reduce the O2 carrying capacity c) left and reduce the O2 carrying capacityb) right and no change in the O2 carrying capacity d) left and no change in the O2 carrying capacity


6. A decrease in blood pH will displace the hemoglobin dissociation curve to the a) right and reduce the O2 carrying capacity c) left and reduce the O2 carrying capacity

b) right and no change in the O2 carrying capacity d) left and no change in the O2 carrying capacity7. If surfactant is absent from the alveoli

a) airway resistance will decrease c) compliance will decreaseb) compliance will increase d) recoil will decrease


9. In obstructive airway disease of long durationa) total lung volume is decreased and expiratory flow rate is increasedb) total lung volume is increased and expiratory flow rate is decreasedc) total lung volume is increased and expiratory flow rate is increased

d) total lung volume is decreased and expiratory flow rate is decreased

10. In obstructive airway disease of long durationa) total lung volume is decreased and expiratory flow rate is increasedb) total lung volume is increased and expiratory flow rate is decreasedc) total lung volume is increased and expiratory flow rate is increasedd) total lung volume is decreased and expiratory flow rate is decreased

11. A decrease in blood pH will displace the hemoglobin dissociation curve to the a) right and reduce the O2 carrying capacity c) left and reduce the O2 carrying capacityb) right and no change in the O2 carrying capacity d) left and no change in the O2 carrying capacity

12. In obstructive airway disease of long durationa) total lung volume is decreased and expiratory flow rate is increasedb) total lung volume is increased and expiratory flow rate is decreasedc) total lung volume is increased and expiratory flow rate is increasedd) total lung volume is decreased and expiratory flow rate is decreased

13. Which of the following best characterizes the systemic arterial blood of an individual suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning ?

a) low hemoglobin, low O2 content, low PO2 c) normal hemoglobin, low O2 content, low PO2

b) low hemoglobin, low O2 content, normal PO2 d) normal hemoglobin, low O2 content, normal PO2

14. Carotid and aortic body chemoreceptor respond maximally to:a) increased PO2 in blood c)increased PCO2 in bloodb) decreased PO2 in blood d)decreased PCO2 in blood

15. If a person inspires maximally, closes his glottis, and contracts his expiratory muscles as hard as he can, thena. intrapleural pressure is higher than alveolar pressure

b. intrapleural pressure and lung recoil both act to increase pressure within the alveolic. intrapleural pressure at the apex is below atmospheric but above atmospheric at the based. intrathoracic pressure remains unchanged

16. Resistance in the airways of the lungs decreases :a. in response to sympathetic nerve stimulationb. in response to parasympathetic nerve stimulationc. in response to a decrease in alveolar PCO2

c. as the velocity of air flow increases

17. A series of gas mixtures is inhaled by a healthy subject. Which of the following gases would diffuse most slowly from the lungs into the blood ?

a. CO2 at PCO2 of 60 mm Hg c. O2 at a PO2 of 130 mm Hgb. CO at a PCO of 0.5 mm Hg d. O2 at a PO2 of 150 mm Hg

18. After living at an altitude of 3500 metres for two months, a subject will have a. higher than normal PCO2 c. abnormally low pressure in the pulmonary arteryb. elevated hematocrit d. elevated erythropoietin

19. Most of the carbon dioxide carried by the blood is :a. dissolved as CO2 c. red blood cell bicarbonateb. plasma bicarbonate d. carbamino compounds

20. Which of the following will decrease the O2 carrying capacity of the blood?a. increased PCO2 c. decrease in Phb. increased temperature d. decreased hemoglobin

21. The peripheral chemoreceptors for oxygen (in carotid and aortic bodies) increase their rate of discharge primarily in response to :

a. a decrease in blood oxygen contentb. a decrease in the partial pressure of blood oxygenc. a decrease in blood H+ concentrationd. a decrease in dissolved oxygen in cerebral spinal fluid

22. In a normal individual, respiration (alveolar ventilation) is regulated mainly via :a. peripheral chemoreceptors responding to changes in PO2

b. peripheral chemoreceptors responding to changes in PCO2

c. central chemoreceptors responding to changes in PO2

d. central chemoreceptors responding to changes in PCO2

23. The inherent rhythm for respiration appears to be located within the:a. apneustic centerb. upper ponsc. lower ponsd. medulla

24. Which of the following could produce a decrease in alveolar ventilation with no change in total ventilation?a. A decreased respiratory rate and tidal volumeb. An increased respiratory rate and decreased tidal volumec. A decreased respiratory rate and increased tidal volume

d. An increased respiratory rate and tidal volume

25. If a person inspires maximally, closes his glottis, and contracts his expiratory muscles as hard as he can, thena. intrapleural pressure is higher than alveolar pressureb. intrapleural pressure and lung recoil both act to increase pressure within the alveolic. intrapleural pressure at the apex is below atmospheric but above atmospheric at the based. intrathoracic pressure remains unchanged

26. Resistance in the airways of the lungs decreases :a. in response to sympathetic nerve stimulation

b. in response to parasympathetic nerve stimulationc. in response to a decrease in alveolar PCO2

d. as the velocity of air flow increases

27. A series of gas mixtures is inhaled by a healthy subject. Which of the following gases would diffuse most slowly from the lungs into the blood ?

a. CO2 at PCO2 of 60 mm Hg c. O2 at a PO2 of 130 mm Hgb. CO at a PCO of 0.5 mm Hg d. O2 at a PO2 of 150 mm Hg

28. Most of the carbon dioxide carried by the blood is :a. dissolved as CO2 c. red blood cell bicarbonateb. plasma bicarbonate d. carbamino compounds

29. Which of the following will decrease the O2 carrying capacity of the blood ?a. increased PCO2 c. decrease in Phb. increased temperature d. decreased hemoglobin

30. The peripheral chemoreceptors for oxygen (in carotid and aortic bodies) increase their rate of discharge primarily in response to :

a decrease in blood oxygen contentb. a decrease in the partial pressure of blood oxygenc. a decrease in blood H+ concentrationd. a decrease in dissolved oxygen in cerebral spinal fluid

31. In a normal individual, respiration (alveolar ventilation) is regulated mainly via :a. peripheral chemoreceptors responding to changes in PO2

b. peripheral chemoreceptors responding to changes in PCO2

c. central chemoreceptors responding to changes in PO2

d. central chemoreceptors responding to changes in PCO2

32. Which of the following best characterizes the systemic arterial blood of an individual RSsuffering from carbon monoxide poisoning ?

a. low hemoglobin, low O2 content, low PO2

b. low hemoglobin, low O2 content, normal PO2

c. normal hemoglobin, low O2 content, low PO2

d. normal hemoglobin, low O2 content, normal PO2

33. The inherent rhythm for respiration appears to be located within the :a. apneustic center c. lower ponsb. upper pons d. medulla

34. Movement of oxygen from alveolic to pulmonary capillaries is brought about bya. Primary active transport c. Filtration

b. Secondary active transport d. Simple diffusion

35.Carotid and aortic body chemoreceptor respond maximally to:a. increased P O2 in blood c. increased PCO2 in bloodb. decreased P O2 in blood d. decreased PCO2 in blood

36. The diffusion coefficient of O2 as compared with that of CO2 isa. greater because O2 combines with hemoglobinb. less because O2 is less soluble

c. greater because of a higher pressure gradientd. less because of the lower molecular weight of O2e. essentially the same

37. During inspiration, as the diaphragm contracts, the pressure in the interpleural space becomesa. equal to zerob. more positive

c.more negatived. equal to the pressure in the alveolie. equal to the pressure in the atmosphere

38. A patient dies following carbon monoxide poisoning; the most likely cause of death is a. hypoxic hypoxiab. anaemic hypoxiac. stagnant hypoxiad. cytotoxic hypoxia

39. In a patient suffering from obstructive airway disease, the following changes is seen in pulmonary function tests

a. Increased vital capacityb. Increased PEFRc. Decreased FEVI percent d. Decreased functional residual capacity

40. Histotoxic hypoxia is due toa. decresed PO2 in the atmosphereb. decreased PO2 in the blood

c.inability of cells to utilize O2d. decreased blood flow to tissues41. Histotoxic hypoxia is due to

a. decresed PO2 in the atmosphereb. decreased PO2 in the bloodc.inability of cells to utilize O2d. decreased blood flow to tissues

42. In a patient suffering from obstructive airway disease, the following changes is seen in pulmonary function tests

a. Increased vital capacityb. Increased PEFRc. Decreased FEVI percent d. Decreased functional residual capacity

43. Number of molecules of oxygen carried by one molecule of Haemoglobin isa. 2 c.6

b. 4 d. 8

NMP1. Which one of the following muscle proteins plays an important role in contraction of both

smooth and striated muscle?a) Myosin light chains c) Tropomyosin

b) Troponin d) Actin 2. In isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle, force of contraction cannot be altered by

a) changing the resting length of the muscleb) increasing stimulation frequencyc) increasing the number of sarcomeres in parallel in the muscled) increasing the number of sarcomeres in series in the muscle

3. All of the following will occur when an unstimulated muscle is stretched excepta) increased preloadb) increased afterloadc) increased muscle lengthd) increased passive tension

4. Which one of the following muscle proteins plays an important role in contraction of both smooth and striated muscle?

a) Myosin light chains c) Tropomyosin b) Troponin d) Actin 5. In isometric 5.contraction of a skeletal muscle, force of contraction cannot be altered by

a) changing the resting length of the muscleb) increasing stimulation frequencyc) increasing the number of sarcomeres in parallel in the muscled) increasing the number of sarcomeres in series in the muscle

6. Which of the following changes in extracellular ion concentrations would be expected to hyperpolarize a skeletal muscle cell?

a) increased sodium concentration c) increased potassium concentrationb) decreased chloride concentration d) decreased potassium concentration

7.Which one of the following muscle proteins plays an important role in contraction of both smooth and striated muscle?

a) Myosin light chains c) Tropomyosinb) Troponin d) Actin

8. In isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle, force of contraction cannot be altered bya) changing the resting length of the muscleb) increasing stimulation frequencyc) increasing the number of sarcomeres in parallel in the muscled) increasing the number of sarcomeres in series in the muscle

9. In isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle, force of contraction cannot be altered bya) changing the resting length of the muscleb) increasing stimulation frequencyc) increasing the number of sarcomeres in parallel in the muscled) increasing the number of sarcomeres in series in the muscle

10) All of the following will occur when an unstimulated muscle is stretched except

a) increased preload c) increased muscle lengthb) increased after load d) increased passive tension

11) Which of the following changes in extracellular ion concentrations would be expected to hyperpolarize a skeletal muscle cell?

a) increased sodium concentration c) increased potassium concentrationb) decreased chloride concentration d) decreased potassium concentration

12) Which one of the following muscle proteins plays an important role in contraction of both smooth and striated muscle?

a) Myosin light chains b) Troponin c) Tropomyosin d) Actin

13) Which of the following changes in extracellular ion concentrations would be expected to hyperpolarize a skeletal muscle cell?

a) increased sodium concentrationb) decreased chloride concentration

14) You are called for consultation on a patient with a history of progressive muscle weakness. Which of the following diagnostic signs or procedures would support a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

a) Response of skeletal muscle to direct electrical stimulation is weakened.b) A small dose of physostigmine is likely to worsen the symptoms.c) A large dose of physostigmine is likely to improve the symptomsd) The patient should be given alpha-bungarotoxin to determine the number of acetylcholine binding sites at the post - junctional membrane.

15) The end-plate potential of skeletal muscle is best characterized as :a) a local reversal of charge originating at the end plate

b) a reversal of charge originating at the end-plate and propagated throughout the cellc) a decrease in the transmembrane potential that is propagated throughout the celld) a local decrease in the transmembrane potential that is caused by an increased permeability to Na+ and K+

16) The rate at which Ca2+ is sequestered by the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle during a twitch is directly related to :a) the rate of tension development c) the height of the action potentialb) the rate of ATP hydrolysis by myosin d) the rate of relaxation

17) Which of the following characteristics of skeletal muscles make tetanic contraction possible ?a) The motor neurons to skeletal muscles have a short refractory period and are therefore capable of delivering a high frequency of stimuli to a muscle fibreb) The cell membrane of the skeletal muscle fibre recovers its excitability well before the cell ceases its contractionc) Both (a) and (b) are correct

d)The prolonged exposure of the muscle end plate to high concentrations of acetylcholine throughout the tetanus

18) If the permeability of a resting skeletal muscle cell to K+ is increased while the permeability of the cell to Na+ stays constant, then :

a) the transmembrane potential would decrease.b) the cell would become more excitable .

c) the cell would become more excitable because of a decrease in the transmembrane potential.d) the transmembrane potential would increase.

19) Contractile response in skeletal muscle a) Does not require action potentialb) Starts before action potential c) Starts after action potential is overd) Lasts longer than action potential

20) Curariform drugs block neuro-muscular transmission bya) inhibiting release of Achb) excessive destruction of Achc) inactivation of Achd) competitive inhibition

21) As compared to slow twitch muscle fibres, fast twitch fibres have more:a) Mitochondriab) Myoglobinc) Enzymes of the phosphogen – lactic acid systemd) Capillary density

22) Fatigue in muscle is due to the following factors EXCEPTa) exhaustion of ATPb) accumulation of metabolic wastesc) exhaustion of neurotransmitterd) excessive release of neurotransmitter

23) During the process of excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum by

a) Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

b) Protein Kinase Ac) An increase in intracellular calcium concentrationd) Membrane depolarizatione) An increase in intracellular sodium concentration

24) Which of the following words or phrases is most closely associated with an end-plate potential at the neuromuscular junction?

a) “All – or – none response”b) Depolarizationc) Hyperpolarizationd) Action potentiale) Electrically excitable gates

25) In a nerve, the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the a) Magnitude of the stimulusb) ntracellular potassium concentrationc) Extracellular sodium concentration

d) Resting membrane potentiale) Diameter of the axon

26) Which of the following statements about synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction is true?

a) It is enhanced by high levels of cholinesterase b) It is caused by an influx of potassium ions through the muscle membrane

c) It is depressed by abnormally low levels of magnesiumd) It is depressed by increased parasympathetic nerve activitye) It is produced by the release of acetylcholine from the alpha motoneuron

27) When comparing the contractile responses in smooth and skeletal muscle, which of the following is most different?

a) The source of activator calciumb) The role of calcium in initiating contractionc) The mechanism of force generationd) The source of energy used during contractione) The nature of the contractile proteins

28) The amount of force produced by a skeletal muscle can be increased bya)Increasing extracellular Mg2+

b) Decreasing extracellular Ca2+

c) Increasing the activity of acetylcholine esterased) Decreasing the interval between contractionse) Increasing the preload beyond 2.2 μm

29) Preventing the inactivation of sodium channels will decreasea) The relative refractory period of nerve cellsb) The upstroke velocity of nerve cell action potentialsc) The down stroke velocity of nerve cell action potentialsd) The magnitude of the overshoot in nerve cell action potentials

e) The duration of nerve action potentials 30) A sacromere is the area between two adjacent

a) A bundleb) H bundlec) Z linesd) M lines

31) At rest, binding sites on actin molecule are covered bya) Troponin

b) Calciumc) ATP

d) Troponin-tropomyosin complex32) Rigor mortis of a muscle is due to

a) excess ATP c) excess of Ca++

b) depletion of ATP d) depletion of Ca++33) Neurotransmitter released at neuromuscular junction is

a) Adrenaline c) Acetylcholineb) Nicotine d) Dopamine

34) During skeletal muscle contraction there is change in width ofa) A band c) M bandb) I band d) H band

35) Contractile response in skeletal muscle a) Does not require action potential c) Starts after action potential is over

b) Starts before action potential d) Lasts longer than action potential36) Curariform drugs block neuro-muscular transmission bya) inhibiting release of Ach c) inactivation of Achb) excessive destruction of Ach d) competitive inhibition37) Which of the following is true about the synaptic channels on the endplate of skeletal muscle?

a) They are highly selective for Na+

b) They are opened when the cell membrane depolarizesc) They are activated by acetylcholine (Ach)d) They are inhibited by atropinee) They are responsible for the relative refractory period

Sensory System

1) The characteristic of a water-insoluble substance most important in governing its diffusibility through a cell membrane is its

a) hydrated diameter c) electrical chargeb) molecular weight d) lipid solubility

2) All of the following can be causes of myopia excepta) increased length of the eyeball c) increased curvature of the corneab) anterior subluxation of the lens d) decreased curvature of the lens

3) Normal intraocular pressure in the eye is in the range of, in mm Hga) 2 to 5 c) 12 to 20b) 5 to 10 d) 20 to 30

4) Peak absorbencies in manometers are matched with the respective pigments in all of the following except

a) 445 by blue cone c) 570 by red coneb) 505 by rods d) 430 by green cone



7) Peak absorbancies in nanometres are matched with the respective pigments in all of the following EXCEPT




10) Peak absorbencies in nanometres are matched with the respective pigments in all of the following EXCEPT


11) Right homonymous hemianopia may be caused by lesion of a) Optic nerve of same side c) Optic chiasma b) Optic tract of same side d) Optic tract of opposite side

12) Impedance matching is a function ofa) ossicles in middle ear c) otolith organb) Organ of corti d) auditory pathway

13) Visual acuity of normal eye isa) 6/12 c) 6/9b) 6/6 d) 6/60

14) Absence of sense of olfaction is called a) Anosmia c) Amnesia

b) Ageusia d) Aphasia

15) All the following are true about pupillary constriction EXCEPTa) is mediated via sympathetic nerves c) increases the refractive power of eyesb) increases the depth of focus d) is mediated by parasympathetic nerves

16) On which part of tongue is bitter taste perceived?a) Tip c) Middorsalb) Sides d) Back

17) The medial geniculate body is the relay station for pathway ofa) Hearing c) Smellb) Vision d) Taste

18) On which part of tongue is bitter taste perceived?a) Tip c) Middorsalb) Sides d) Back

19) The medial geniculate body is the relay station for pathway ofa) Hearing c) Smellb) Vision d) Taste

20) A sound of 20dB isa) 100 times threshold c) 50 times thresholdb) 20 times threshold d) 200 times threshold

21) Deutaranopia is a) red blindness c) green blindness

b) blue blindness d) red weakness

22) If the refractive power of the unaccomodated eye is 66 diopters, the axial length of the eye is closest to

a) 15.0 mm c) 18.0mmb) 17.0mm d) 16.0mm

23) Following is true about light adaptation EXCEPTa) concentration of photosensitive chemicals is considerably reducedb) adaptation for rods is four times faster than that for conesc) miosis occurs simultaneouslyd) neural adaptation occurs instantly

24) Right homonymous hemianopia may be caused by lesion ofa) Optic nerve of same side c) Optic chiasma

b) Optic tract of same side d) Optic tract of opposite side

25) If the refractive power of the unaccomodated eye is 66 diopters, the axial length of the eye is closest to:-

a) 15.0 mm c) 18.0mmb) 17.0mm d) 16.0mm

26) Following is true about light adaptation EXCEPTa) concentration of photosensitive chemicals is considerably reducedb) adaptation for rods is four times faster than that for conesc) miosis occurs simultaneouslyd) neural adaptation occurs instantly

27) If the refractive power of the unaccomodated eye is 66 diopters, the axial length of the eye is closest to:-

a) 15.0 mm b) 17.0mm c) 18.0mm d) 16.0mm28) The fovea of the eye

a) has the lowest light thresholdb) is the region of highest visual acuityc) contains only rodsd) contains only red and green cones

GENERAL PHYSIOLOGY

1. The most rapid form of transport over a distance greater than 1 cm is GPa) simple diffusionb) facilitated diffusionc) active transportd) bulk flow (flow due to pressure differences)

2. The characteristic of a water-insoluble substance most important in governing GP its diffusibility through a cell membrane is its

a) hydrated diameterb) molecular weightc) electrical charged) lipid solubility

3. The most rapid form of transport over a distance greater than 1 cm is GPa) simple diffusionb) facilitated diffusionc) active transportd) bulk flow (flow due to pressure differences) 4. The characteristic of a water-insoluble substance most important in GP

governing its diffusibility through a cell membrane is itsa) hydrated diameterb) molecular weightc) electrical charged) lipid solubility

5. The most rapid form of transport over a distance greater than 1 cm is a) simple diffusionb) facilitated diffusion GPc) active transportd) bulk flow (flow due to pressure differences)

6. The characteristic of a water-insoluble substance most important in governing its diffusibility through a cell membrane is its

a) hydrated diameterb) molecular weight GPc) electrical charged) lipid solubility

7. If a substance has transport maximum for absorption, it meansa) reabsorption is only passiveb) only a constant fraction of the substance will be reabsorbed GPc) statements a) and b) are both correctd) below a threshold level, all of the substance will be reabsorbed

8. Lysosomes are present in all the cells of the body excepta. WBCb. RBC GPc. plateletsd. macrophages

9. Facilitated diffusion can be distinguished from simple diffusion by which of the following statements?a. facilitated diffusion is saturable, simple diffusion is not

b. facilitated diffusion requires ATP, simple diffusion does not GPc. facilitated diffusion is not chemically specific, simple diffusion isd. facilitated diffusion is dependent on concentration gradient, simple diffusion is not

10. A red blood cell will swell the most when it is placed in a solution containinga) 100 millimolar calcium chlorideb) 150 millimolar sodium chloridec) 200 millimolar potassium chloride GPd) 250 millimolar ureae) 300 millimolar mannitol

11. Inactivation of the sodium potassium pump will cause GPa. an increase in the intracellular volumeb. an increase in the intracellular potassium concentration c. hyperpolarization of the membrane potentiald. an increase in the excitability of nerve cellse. an increase in the flow of sodium out of the cell

12. Membrane excitability will be increased by the greatest amount by a) increasing extracellular Na+

b) increasing extracellular K+

c) decreasing extracellular Cl- GP

d) decreasing extracellular Ca2

e) decreasing extracellular H+

13. The resting potential of a nerve membrane is primarily dependent on the concentration gradient ofa. potassiumb. sodium GPc. calciumd. chloridee. bicarbonate

14. The characteristic of a water-insoluble substance most important in governing its diffusibility through a cell membrane is its

a) hydrated diameterb) molecular weightc) electrical charge GPd) lipid solubilitye) three-dimensional shape

15. Connexin is an important component of thea) Gap junctionb) Sacroplasmic reticulumc) Microtubule GPd) Synaptic vesiclee) Sodium channel

16. An increase in sodium conductance is associated witha) The plateau phase of the ventricular muscle action potentialb) The down stroke of the skeletal muscle action potentialc) The upstroke of the smooth muscle action potential GPd) The refractory period of the nerve cell action potential e) The end-plate potential of the skeletal muscle fiber

17. The sodium gradient across the nerve cell membrane isa) A result of the Donnan equilibrium GPb) Significantly changed during an action potential c) Used as a source of energy for the transport of other ionsd) An important determinant of the resting membrane potentiale) Maintained by a Na+/Ca++ exchanger

18. Increasing the extracellular potassium concentration will GPa) Increase the threshold for eliciting an action potentialb) Hyperpolarize the membrane potential

c) Decrease potassium permeabilityd) Decrease the activity of the sodium-potassium pumpe) Make the equilibrium potential for potassium more negative

BLOOD

1. The term that describes the adherence of neutrophils and monocytes to the vascular endothelium before movement into the extravascular space is

a. Margination HEMb. Diapedesisc. Migrationd. Pavementing

2. Blood can be stored in a blood bank for a maximum period of a. 45 days HEMb. 10 daysc. 15 days d. 21 days

3. The term that describes the adherence of neutrophils and monocytes to the vascular endothelium before movement into the extravascular space is

e. Margination HEMf. Diapedesisg. Migrationh. Pavementing

4. Blood can be stored in a blood bank for a maximum period of a. 45 days HEMb. 10 daysc. 15 days d. 21 days

5. To which blood group will a person with agglutinins anti-A and anti-B belong?a. A b. B c. AB d. O HEM

6. Intrinsic and extrinsic blood coagulation pathways converge at the formation ofa. thrombin b. activated Hageman’s factor HEMc .fibrind. activated Stuart Prower factor

7. Clotting time will be prolonged in all of the following EXCEPT a. hemophilia b. Christmas disease HEM c. liver disease d. thrombocytopenic purpura

8. Normal platelet count in peripheral blood is a. 3 million/cmm HEMb. 3000/ cmmc 30000/ cmmd. 3lakhs/cmm

9. All are true about eosinophils EXCEPT a. are 2-3 % of all WBCs b. increased in parasitic infestations HEM

c. liberate heparin d. release Major Basic Protein

10. All the given factors will be deficit in blood in liver disease EXCEPTa. factor IIb. factor VII HEMc. factor IXd. factor IV

11. Blood group antigens area) attached to haemoglobin b) simple proteins HEMc) attached to surface of RBCd) formed after birth

12. In macrocytic anaemia a) MCH is normalb) MCV is increased HEMc) MCHC is increasedd) All the above

13. In a case of erythroblastosis foetalis

a) Mother is Rh negative and foetus is Rh negativeb) Mother is Rh positive and foetus is Rh negative HEMc) Mother is Rh negative and foetus is Rh positive d) Mother is Rh positive and foetus is Rh positive

14. In a normal person CD4 to CD8 marker ratio is:a. 4:1b. 1:4 HEMc. 2:1d. 1:2

15. Which of the following statements about blood coagulation is correct?a) Absence of Ca2+ promotes coagulationb) Patients with hemophilia A usually have a normal bleeding time HEM

c) Von Willebrand factor suppresses blood coagulationd) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) results in depletion of fibrin split products

16. Which of the following best represents the systemic arterial blood of an individual with anemia ?

a. low PO2, low hemoglobin, normal O2 contentb. low PO2, low hemoglobin, low O2 contentc. normal PO2, low hemoglobin, low O2 content HEMd. normal PO2, normal hemoglobin, low O2 content

17. Tissue macrophages are derived froma) Neutrophilb) Monocyte HEMc) Lymphocyted) All of the above

18. Which of the following agglutinins are present in blood group “O”?a) Anti – A

b) Anti – Bc) Anti – A & Anti – B HEMd) None of the above

19. Haematocrit gives the amount ofa) WBC in plasmab) Platelets in plasmac) RBC’s in plasma HEMd) Total blood cells in plasma

20. Blood group antigens area) attached to haemoglobin HEMb) simple proteinsc) attached to surface of RBCd) formed after birth

21. All the following mediators released during mast cell activation cause an increase of vascular permeability EXCEPT

a) Histamineb) Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF) HEMc) Serotonind) Slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis

22. All the following statements about essential thrombocytosis vera are TRUE EXCEPTb) It is dominated clinically by a marked decrease in platelet countc) Patients present with spontaneous bleedingd) Bone marrow has large numbers of hyperploid megakaryocytes HEMe) It is characterized by modest splenomegalyf) There is abnormality in platelet aggregation in response to epinephrine

23. Which of the following statements about blood coagulation is correct?b. Absence of Ca2+ promotes coagulationc. Patients with hemophilia A usually have a normal bleeding time HEMd. Von Willebrand factor suppresses platelet adhesione. Von Willebrand factor suppresses blood coagulationf. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) results in depletion of fibrin split products

24. Erythropoietin formation is increased ina) Blood lossb) High altitudec) Exercise HEMd) All the above

25. If forbidden clones are not deleted during T-cell development, a person may developa) Hypogammaglobulinemiab) A type I hypersensitivity reaction to exogenous antigens HEMc) An autoimmune diseased) Tolerance to autoantigens

KIDNEY

1. Quantity of glomerular filtrate reabsorbed in proximal tubule isa) 25%b) 65%c) 85% KIDd) 100%

2. Secondary active transport occurs in renal tubules in case of following EXCEPTa) amino acidsb) glucose KIDc) chlorided) para aminohippuric acid

3. GFR in an adult human being is normally a) 50 ml/min b) 125 ml/min KID c) 200 ml/min d) 250 ml/min

4. The renal countercurrent multiplier is characterised bya) a low water permeability in the thick ascending limb of the Henle’s loop KIDb) permeability of the descending limb of Henle’s loop to waterc) active salt reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loopd) tubular fluid in the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is more concentrated than the interstitial fluid at that level

5. The part of nephron least permeable to water isa) proximal tubuleb) descending limb of loop of Henle KIDc) ascending limb of loop of Henled) collecting tubule

6. In a healthy individual, what percentage of the effective renal plasma flow would you expect to pass into the glomerular capsule?a) less than 5% KIDb) between 15% and 20%c) between 40% and 50%d) between 70% and 80%

7. Which of the following substances has the greatest renal clearance?a) glucoseb) sodium KIDc) uread) creatinine

8. Increased blood flow through the vasa recti of the kidney would be expected toa) increase the solute concentration gradient between the medullary interstitial fluid and collecting ductb) concentrate the urinec) facilitate the action of anti diuretic hormone KIDd) reduce the osmolarity of the urine

9. The number of nephrons in each kidney is about a) 1 million b. 2 million c. 3 million d. 4 million

10. Which of the following would be expected to cause a large reduction in glomerular filtration rate?a) reduction in mean arterial pressure from 100 to 95 mm Hgb) reduction in plasma oncotic pressure by half KIDc) decrease in sympathetic activityd) complete urethral obstruction

11. Which of the following would be expected to cause a large reduction in glomerular filtration rate?a) reduction in mean arterial pressure from 100 to 95 mm Hgb) reduction in plasma oncotic pressure by halfc) decrease in sympathetic activity KIDd) complete urethral obstruction

12. In a healthy individual, what percentage of the effective renal plasma flow would you expect to pass into the glomerular capsule?a) less than 5%b) between 15% and 20%c) between 40% and 50% KIDd) between 70% and 80%

13. If a substance has transport maximum for absorption, it meansa) reabsorption is only passiveb) only a constant fraction of the substance will be reabsorbed KID/GPc) statements a) and b) are both correctd) below a threshold level, all of the substance will be reabsorbed

14. Which of the following substances has the greatest renal clearance?a) glucoseb) sodium KIDc) uread) creatinine

15. Increased blood flow through the vasa recti of the kidney would be expected toa) increase the solute concentration gradient between the medullary interstitial fluid and collecting ductb) concentrate the urinec) facilitate the action of anti diuretic hormone KIDd) reduce the osmolarity of the urine

16. The number of nephrons in each kidney is about a) 1 millionb) 2 million KIDc) 3 milliond) 4 million

17. Quantity of glomerular filtrate reabsorbed in proximal tubule isa) 25% KIDb) 65%c) 85%d) 100%


19. GFR in an adult human being is normally a) 50 ml/min b) 125 ml/min KID c) 200 ml/mine) 250 ml/min

20. Babinski’s sign is seen ina) Parkinsonism b) Cerebellar lesionc) Upper motor neuron lesion KIDd) Lower motor neuron lesion

21. Which one of the following receptors is responsible for monitoring the rate of muscle stretch?a. Nuclear bag intrafusal fibres

a) Nuclear chain intrafusal fibres KIDb) golgi tendon organsc) joint receptors

22. Quantity of glomerular filtrate reabsorbed in proximal tubule isa) 25%b) 65%c) 85% KIDd) 100%


24.GFR in an adult human being is normally a) 50 ml/min b) 125 ml/min KID c) 200 ml/min d) 250 ml/min

ENDO

1. Calcitonin is secreted bya) Thyroid gland ENDOb) Parathyroid glandc) boned) Kidney

2. Which of the following is NOT involved in regulating plasma calcium levels? a) Kidneys ENDO b) Skin c) Intestine

d. Lungs

3. Continuation of lactation in nursing mother is due toa) sustained release of prolactin REPb) sustained release of oxytocinc) Cyclical release of ovarian hormonesd) Prolactin surge on suckling

4. Maximum secretion of hCG occurs during a) first trimester b) second trimester c) third trimester REP

d) implantation of ovum

5. Effect on growth of an individual is exerted by the following EXCEPTa) Thyroid Hormoneb) Growth Hormone ENDOc) Testosteroned) Glucagon

6. Following are features of hypothyroidism EXCEPTa) Intolerance to coldb) Extreme sleepinessc) Constipation ENDOd) Increased sleeping pulse rate

7. Hormones which exert their action via CAMP mechanism include the following EXCEPTa) ACTHb) Cortisol ENDOc) Adrenalined) ADH

8. Functions of sertoli cells includea) Synthesis of androgen binding protein REPb) Secretion of testosteronec) Synthesis of estrogen after pubertyd) Synthesis of FSH

9. Addison’s disease is characterized by all EXCEPTa) Hypothermiab) Pigmentation ENDOc) Hypokalaemiad) Muscle weakness

10. Antidiuretic hormonea) increases permeability of collecting ducts to water ENDOb) is secreted by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamusc) secretion is regulated by plasma osmolarityd) all the above

11. Increase in blood glucose level is brought about by the following EXCEPTa) growth hormoneb) glucocorticoids ENDOc) glucagonsd) insulin

12. Basic mechanism of action of oral contraceptives is toa) alter cervical mucus REPb) prevent implantationc) inhibit FSH & LH secretion & thus inhibit ovulationd) all of the above

13. Proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle is mainly dependent on secretion ofa) Oestrogens REPb) Progesteronec) Androgensd) Relaxin

14. Maternal changes in pregnancy includea) Hypotensionb) Polycythemia REPc) Reduced respiratory rated) Increased blood volume

15. Placenta secretes all the following EXCEPTa) Estrogenb) Progesterone REPc) hCG

d) prolactin

16. All of the following are biochemical effects of cortisol EXECPTa) hepatic lipogenesisb) hepatic gluconeogenesis ENDOc) hepatic protein anabolismd) hepatic glycogenesis

17. Almost all of the active thyroid hormone entering the circulation is in the form of a) long acting thyroid stimulatorb) thyroglobulinc) Thyroxin ENDOd) Triiodothyronine

18. The hypophysial portal system

a) perfuses the adenohypophysis with venous bloodb) supplies the pars nervosa with bloodc) carries pituitary tropic hormones to the pars distalis ENDOd) receives neurohormones from the secondary capillary plexus

19. The effects of insulin includea) lipolysisb) inhibition of glycogen synthase activity ENDOc) glucose transport into the pancreatic beta celld) increase in secondary active transport of glucose into muscle and fat cells

20.Which one of the following sensory systems uses unmyelinated fibres to convey information to the CNSa) proprioceptionb) vibrationc) temperatured) pressure

21.Which of the following neurons is the first to be affected by local anaesthetics a) C fibresb) A beta fibres CNSc) A delta fibres

d) B fibres

22. In order to restore fertility in hypophysectomized adult males it is necessary to administer:a) luteinizing hormone-releasing hormoneb) gonadotropins REPc) gonadotropin- releasing hormoned) inhibin

23. A 49-year-old man visits his family physician because he has had to purchase three pairs of shoes of increasing size within the same year. He also has difficulty speaking because his tongue is enlarged, and he has a severe prominence on his mandible. A laboratory test reveals an elevated plasma growth hormone (GH) concentration.Which of the following tests would confirm the diagnosis of acromegaly?a) Oral glucose tolerance testb) Injection of insulin ENDOc) Injection of arginined) Administration of bromocriptine

24. Hormones that may cause negative nitrogen balance include all of the following EXCEPT :a) glucagonsb) thyroid hormone (excess) ENDOc) cortisold) growth hormone (GH)

25. Which of the following endocrine organs is relatively larger at birth than in adulthood?a) Hypophysis ENDOb) Thyroid glandc) Adrenal glandd) Parathyroid gland

26. Variation in the length of the menstrual cycle is associated primarily by variation in the :a) length of the follicular phaseb) length of menstruationc) length of the luteal phase REPd) time between the midcycle FSH surge and ovulation

27. Progesterone secretion during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is a measure of the functional status of the a) materno-placental unit REPb) corpus luteumc) fetal liverd) maternal ovary

28. In CNS ischemic response blood pressure can rise to a maximum value of a. 150 mm Hgb. 200 mm Hgc. 250 mm Hg CVSd. 300 mm Hg

29. Which of the following characteristics of a neuron is not associated with increased conduction velocity ?a. increased axon diameterb. myelinationc. increased transmembrane resistance CNSd. decreased fiber size

30. Which, among the following circuits given, represents the lowest resistance pathway?a) cerebral circulationa) coronary circulation CVSb) renal circulationc) liver

31. A 49-year-old man visits his family physician because he has had to purchase three pairs of shoes of increasing

size within the same year. He also has difficulty speaking because his tongue is enlarged, and he has a severe prominence on his mandible. A laboratory test reveals an elevated plasma growth hormone (GH) concentration.Which of the following tests would confirm the diagnosis of acromegaly?a) Oral glucose tolerance test ENDOb) Injection of insulinc) Injection of arginined) Administration of bromocriptine

32. Hormones that may cause negative nitrogen balance include all of the following EXCEPT :a) glucagonsb) thyroid hormone (excess)c) cortisol ENDOd) growth hormone (GH)

33.Which of the following endocrine organs is relatively larger at birth than in adulthood?a) Hypophysisb) Thyroid gland ENDOc) Adrenal glandd) Parathyroid gland

34. Effect on growth of an individual is exerted by the following EXCEPTa) Thyroid Hormoneb) Growth Hormonec) Testosterone ENDOd) Glucagon

35. Following are features of hypothyroidism EXCEPTa) Intolerance to coldb) Extreme sleepinessc) Constipation ENDOd) Increased sleeping pulse rate

36. Hormones which exert their action via CAMP mechanism include the following EXCEPTa) ACTHb) Cortisolc) Adrenalined) ADH

37.Functions of sertoli cells includea) Synthesis of androgen binding protein REPb) Secretion of testosteronec) Synthesis of estrogen after pubertyd) Synthesis of FSH

38. Addison’s disease is characterized by all EXCEPTa) Hypothermiab) Pigmentationc) Hypokalaemia ENDOd) Muscle weakness

39. Antidiuretic hormonea) increases permeability of collecting ducts to waterb) is secreted by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamusc) secretion is regulated by plasma osmolarity ENDO

d) all the above

40. Increase in blood glucose level is brought about by the following EXCEPTa) growth hormoneb) glucocorticoids c) glucagons ENDOd) insulin

41. Basic mechanism of action of oral contraceptives is toa) alter cervical mucusb) prevent implantation REPc) inhibit FSH & LH secretion & thus inhibit ovulationd) all of the above

42. Proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle is mainly dependent on secretion ofa) Oestrogens b) Progesteronec) Androgens REPd) Relaxin

43. Maternal changes in pregnancy includea) Hypotensionb) Polycythemia REPc) Reduced respiratory rated) Increased blood volume

44. Progesterone secretion during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is a measure of the functional status of the :a) materno-placental unitb) corpus luteum REPc) fetal liverd) maternal ovary

45. Which one of the following sensory systems uses unmyelinated fibres to convey information to the CNSa) proprioceptionb) vibrationc) temperatured) pressure

26. Plateau phase of action potential in cardiac muscle is due toa) Calcium influxb) Delayed closure of sodium channels CVSc) Delayed opening of potassium channelsd) All the above

27. Positive feedback control systema) means that response is negative to the stimulus b) is beneficial in hypovolumic shock GPc) is important in regulation of mean arterial pressured) is beneficial in parturition

GIT

28. 1. Which of the following enzymes hydrolyses nutrients in the stomacha) Chymotrypsin c. Enterokinaseb) Carboxy-peptidase d. Lingual lipase

29. 2. Gastric motility is inhibited bya) Gastrin GITb) Enterogastric reflexc) Cholecystokinind) Vagal stimulation

30. 3. Which of the following enzymes hydrolyses nutrients in the stomacha) Chymotrypsin GITb) Lingual lipasec) Enterokinased) Carboxy-peptidase

31. 4. Peristaltic movements show following characteristics EXCEPTa) Propulsive movementsb) Are involuntaryc) Spread in oral direction GITd) Are controlled by A.N.S

32. 5. Hydrochloric acid in stomach is secreted bya) Goblet cellsb) Parietal cells GITc) Chief cellsd) Cardiac cells

33. 6. Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolyte, but poor in enzymes is secreted in response toa) pancreozyminb) secretinc) gastrin GITd) C.C.K

34. 7.Intrinsic factor is secreted bya) Liverb) Chief cells of stomachc) Parietal cells of stomach GITd) Beta cells of pancreas

35. 8. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated bya) neurohormones GITb) parasympathetic nervesc) sympathetic nervesd) gastrin

9. Pancreatic juice rich in enzymes is secreted in response toa) Secretinb) Gastrin GITc) Cholecystokinind) VIP

36. 10. Which of the following enzymes hydrolyses nutrients in the stomach37. a. Chymotrypsin

a) Lingual lipase GITb) Enterokinasec) Carboxy-peptidase

38. 11. Peristaltic movements show following characteristics EXCEPTa) Propulsive movementsb) Are involuntaryc) Spread in oral direction GITd) Are controlled by A.N.S

39. 12. Hydrochloric acid in stomach is secreted bya) Goblet cellsb) Parietal cells GITc) Chief cellsd) Cardiac cells

40. 13. Intrinsic factor is secreted byLivera) Chief cells of stomachb) Parietal cells of stomach GITc) Beta cells of pancreas

41. 14. Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolyte, but poor in enzymes is secreted in response toa) pancreozyminb) secretinc) gastrin GITd) C.C.K

15. Cholecystokinin is important in fat absorption because it :a. stimulates the gall bladder to contractb. potentiates effect of secretin on the secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreasc. stimulates the secretion of pancreatic lipase GITd. increases the strength of gastric peristalsis

16. Low gastric pH :e. Inhibits release of gastrinf. Inhibits release of histamine GITg. Is necessary for pepsin activityh. Reduces irritation caused by aspirin

17.Cholecystokinin is important in fat absorption because it :a. stimulates the gall bladder to contract GITb. potentiates effect of secretin on the secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreasc. stimulates the secretion of pancreatic lipased. increases the strength of gastric peristalsis

18. The basic mechanism for fluid movement out of lumen of the intestine is thought to depend on active :a. water transport and passive ion movementb. Cl- transport, with Na+ and water following passively GITc. Na+ transport by intestinal epithelium with water following passivelye. HCO3

- transport with water following passively

19. Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolyte, but poor in enzymes is secreted in response toa) Pancreozymin c. gastrinb) C.C.K d. secretin

20. Which of the following can occur without brain stem coordination?b) Chewing GIT/CNSc) Swallowingd) Primary esophageal peristalsise) Gastric emptying

21. The lower esophageal sphincter normally :a. reduces its tone under the influence of gastrin GITb. increases its tone from the parasympathetic release of vasoactive intestinal peptidec. is composed of both skeletal and smooth muscled. has a yield pressure greater than intragastric pressure

22. The basic electrical rhythm or slow waves recorded from intestinal smooth muscle :a. is thought to result from acetylcholine release from parasympathetic nerves in both longitudinal and circular muscleb. is synonymous with generator potentials GITc. varies in rate in different regions of the gastrointestinal systemd. all of the above

23. The lower esophageal sphincter normally : GITi. reduces its tone under the influence of gastrinj. increases its tone from the parasympathetic release of vasoactive intestinal peptidek. is composed of both skeletal and smooth musclel. has a yield pressure greater than intragastric pressure

24. The basic electrical rhythm or slow waves recorded from intestinal smooth muscle : GITa. is thought to result from acetylcholine release from parasympathetic nerves in both longitudinal

and circular muscleb. is synonymous with generator potentialsc. varies in rate in different regions of the gastrointestinal systemd. all of the above

25. Efferent impulses from vagal fibers to stomach may mediate : GITa. increased strength of gastric peristalsisb. relaxation of the gastric fundus during swallowingc. increased secretion from parietal cellsd. vasoconstriction in gastric mucosa

26. During storage in gall bladder, bile undergoes an increase in :a. Osmotic pressureb. H+ concentration GITc. Water contentd. Bile salt concentration

27. Which of the following competes for many of the same receptor sites as gastrin because of a chemical structure similar to gastrin ?

a. secretinb. glucagonsc. cholecystokinin GITd. gastric inhibitory peptide

28. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are similar in that they ;a. are activated in the intestineb. occur in precursor form in the pancreas GITc. are active in an alkaline or neutral mediumd. require vitamin K for their synthesis

29. Low gastric pH :a. Inhibits release of gastrinb. Inhibits release of histamine GITc. Is necessary for pepsin activityd. Reduces irritation caused by aspirin

30. Efferent impulses from vagal fibers to stomach may mediate :a. increased strength of gastric peristalsisb. relaxation of the gastric fundus during swallowingc. increased secretion from parietal cells GITd. vasoconstriction in gastric mucosa

31. During storage in gall bladder, bile undergoes an increase in :a. Osmotic pressureb. H+ concentration GITc. Water contentd. Bile salt concentration

32. Which of the following competes for many of the same receptor sites as gastrin because of a chemical structure similar to gastrin ?a. secretinb. glucagons GITc. cholecystokinind. gastric inhibitory peptide

33. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are similar in that they ;a. are activated in the intestineb. occur in precursor form in the pancreas GIT

c. are active in an alkaline or neutral medium d. require vitamin K for their synthesis

mcq's bank

Documents

stimulus b

stimulus d

urea c

b h d creatinine

rods d

hypotonia b tremor

rigidity d mask

secondary memory b transfer